All Chapters Flashcards
<p>Who is responsible for the safety and health of all military and civilian personnel in a command?</p>
<p>Commanding Officer</p>
<p>What best describes the definition of hazard?</p>
<p>Any real or potential condition that can cause injury, illness, or death to personnel; damage to or loss of equipment or property; degradation of mission capability or impact to mission accomplishment; or damage to the environment. </p>
<p>How many steps are there for ORM?</p>
<p>5</p>
<p>How many principles of ORM are there?</p>
<p>4</p>
<p>A GFCI is required for use on power tools?</p>
<p>True</p>
<p>Which best describes a Near Mishap?</p>
<p>When injury or damages were avoided merely by chance or circumstance. </p>
<p>Which best describes a Category III hazard?</p>
<p>May cause minor injury, minor occupational illness, or minor property damage. </p>
<p>The degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code: 1 through...</p>
<p>5</p>
<p>The Safety Officer enforces the Commanding Officer's safety policies and procedures.</p>
<p>True</p>
<p>What command did SW2 Robert D. Stethem belong to?</p>
<p>UCT1</p>
<p>What two navy ships are named in honor of Seabees?</p>
<p>USS Shields/USS Stethem</p>
<p>What date was Pearl Harbor attacked by the Japanese Empire?</p>
<p>December 7, 1941</p>
<p>How many United States Navy ships have been named after Seabees?</p>
<p>2</p>
<p>During what two operations did Seabees construct troop bed down facilities, storage areas, EPW camps, and hundreds of miles of roads?</p>
<p>Operation Desert Shield and Operation Desert Storm </p>
<p>On which date were the Seabees officially given their name?</p>
<p>March 5, 1942</p>
<p>Which of the following qualities do NOT represent characteristics of the Naval Forces?</p>
<p>Fearlessness </p>
<p>What rates are merged together to form an EQCM?</p>
<p>EO, CM</p>
<p>What rates are merged together to form a CUCM?</p>
<p>EA, BU, SW</p>
<p>Which location was the first home of the Seabees?</p>
<p>Davisville, RI</p>
<p>What best describes the definition of risk?</p>
<p>An expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability and severity. </p>
<p>When netting a 463L pallet, which way do the hooks face and how many D-rings does the pallet have?</p>
<p>Inboard, 22.</p>
<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-130 aircraft?</p>
<p>25,000 lbs</p>
<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-141 aircraft?</p>
<p>50,000 lbs</p>
<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-17 aircraft?</p>
<p>90,000 lbs</p>
<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-5 aircraft?</p>
<p>150,000 lbs</p>
<p>In a convoy what is the maintenance officer responsible for?</p>
<p>Maintenance of equipment on a convoy, repairing breakdowns, towing equipment.</p>
<p>What are the three color classifications of convoy routes?</p>
<p>Red, Green, Yellow</p>
<p>What are sixcons used for?</p>
<p>Water, Fuel</p>
<p>What does MHE stand for?</p>
<p>Material Handling Equipment</p>
<p>What does WHE stand for?</p>
<p>Weight Handling Equipment</p>
<p>What colors are the background of the organic and augment equipment decals?</p>
<p>Red/White</p>
<p>What is an SF-91 used for?</p>
<p>Accident report</p>
<p>A vehicle must be in what condition code to be in live storage?</p>
<p>A5</p>
<p>What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply personnel and administrative procedures required by a move?</p>
<p>Execution order</p>
<p>Which OPNAV forms is for unsafe/unhealthful working condition reporting?</p>
<p>OPNAV 5100/11</p>
<p>Which safety equipment are worn at all times at all construction sites, shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and other areas designated by the safety officer?</p>
<p>Steel toed shoes and hard hats</p>
<p>Which shop operations have the highest potential for eye hazards?</p>
<p>Cutting or welding metals</p>
<p>Which form is used as a requisition and consumption reporting document for procuring non-NSN material?</p>
<p>NAVSUP 1250-2</p>
<p>What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-119?</p>
<p>30-87.975 Mhz in 25 Khz steps</p>
<p>How many crypto fills can a AN/CZY-10 hold in its memory?</p>
<p>1000 keys</p>
<p>What replaced the AN/CZY-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD)?</p>
<p>AN/PYQ-10 Simple Key Loader (SKL)</p>
<p>While monitoring the battalion tactical net, you notice that someone is using your call sign. What is the correct procedure you should follow?</p>
<p>Call gingerbread on that particular net</p>
<p>What is the least secure method of communication?</p>
<p>Radio</p>
<p>While transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station responds with "Beadwindow." What is your response?</p>
<p>Roger out</p>
<p>BAMCIS</p>
<p>Begin planning Arrange recon Make recon Complete the plan Issue the order Supervise</p>
<p>SMEAC</p>
<p>Situation Mission Execution Admin and Logistics Command and Signal</p>
<p>KOCOA</p>
<p>Key the terrain Observation and Fields of Fire Cover and Concealment Obstacles Avenues of Approach</p>
<p>SALUTE</p>
<p>Size Activity Location Uniform Time Equipment</p>
<p>HASS</p>
<p>Higher
Adjacent
Support
Subordinate</p>
<p>METT-TC</p>
<p>Mission Enemy Terrain Troops Available Civilian and Legal Considerations</p>
<p>SAFE</p>
<p>Security
Assignment of Automatic Weapons
Fields of Fire
Entrenchment</p>
<p>CESE</p>
<p>Civil
Engineer
Support
Equipment</p>
<p>ADDRAC</p>
<p>Alert Direction Description Range Action Command</p>
<p>JSLIST</p>
<p>Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology</p>
<p>ROWPU</p>
<p>Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit</p>
<p>SPOT</p>
<p>Situation
Position
Observation
Time</p>
<p>NAAK</p>
<p>Nerve
Agent
Antidote
Kit</p>
<p>ICAM</p>
<p>Improved
Chemical
Agent
Monitor</p>
<p>ELCAS</p>
<p>Elevated Causeway System</p>
<p>RRDF</p>
<p>Roll on
Roll off
Discharge
Facility</p>
<p>DRAW-D</p>
<p>Defend Reenforce Attack Withdraw Delay</p>
<p>FPF</p>
<p>Final
Protective
Fire</p>
<p>FPL</p>
<p>Final
Protective
Line</p>
<p>PDF</p>
<p>Principal
Direction of
Fire</p>
<p>BSC</p>
<p>Beach
Support
Command</p>
<p>TOC</p>
<p>Tactical
Operation
Command</p>
<p>MTVR</p>
<p>Modular
Tactical
Vest</p>
<p>SLLS</p>
<p>Stop
Look
Listen
Smell</p>
<p>LP/OP</p>
<p>Listening Post/Observation Post</p>
<p>FITCAL</p>
<p>Feel Inspect Tighten Clean Adjust Lubricate</p>
<p>OPDS</p>
<p>Offshore
Petroleum
Discharge
System</p>
<p>ABLTS</p>
<p>Amphibious Bulk Liquid Transfer System</p>
<p>FIG</p>
<p>Flanking
Interlocking
Grazing</p>
<p>MOPP</p>
<p>Mission
Oriented
Protective
Posture</p>
<p>How many pressure points are there and what are they?</p>
<p>22. (11 on the left, 11 on the right)
1) Superficial Temporal
2) Facial
3) Carotid
4) Subclavian
5) Axillary
6) Brachial
7) Radial
8) Femoral
9) Popliteal
10) Posterior Tibial
11) Dorsal Pedal</p>
<p>In the acronym KOCOA, what best descirbes "Observations and Fields of Fire" with respect to the enemy?</p>
<p>Possible enemy machine gun emplacements and wide open areas that would be likely used as ambush points</p>
<p>What is the formula for calculating TM for a two axel vehicle?</p>
<p>(W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)</p>
<p>How many P4OG pontoons make up the width of the ELCAS roadway?</p>
<p>Three</p>
<p>What degree or angle is the beach ramp set at?</p>
<p>7.5 Degrees</p>
<p>How long will a JSLIST suit protect you in a contaminated environment?</p>
<p>24 hours</p>
<p>What describes MOPP Level 1?</p>
<p>Over garment worn/boots, mask, gloves carry</p>
<p>Who was the only Seabee to earn the medal of honor?</p>
<p>CM3 Marvin Shields</p>
<p>How do you determine your pace count?</p>
<p>Walk 100 meters, count every left step taken</p>
<p>What is the color of the tip of ammo that designates tracer rounds?</p>
<p>Red/Orange</p>
<p>What's the minimum dimensions of each piece of dunnage when used with the 463L pallet?</p>
<p>4" x 4" x 88"</p>
<p>What acronym aids leaders in the initial 6 step planning process?</p>
<p>BAMCIS</p>
<p>What Sea State can the Causeway Ferry survive in?</p>
<p>SS4</p>
<p>What is the M16 Point Target?</p>
<p>550 M</p>
<p>What is the M16 Area Target?</p>
<p>800 M</p>
<p>What is MOPP Level 0?</p>
<p>IPE available for immediate donning, protective mask with filter available</p>
<p>What is the treatment for deeply embedded white phosphorous?</p>
<p>Place a soaked dressing</p>
<p>True or false: There are only 5 categories of HAZMAT</p>
<p>False. There are six. </p>
<p>Navy owned property that costs $5,000 or more and has a useful life expectancy of two or more years is referred to as\_\_\_\_\_\_\_property?</p>
<p>Plant</p>
<p>On topographical maps, what does the color green indicate?</p>
<p>Vegetation</p>
<p>On what date were the Seabees officially given their name?</p>
<p>March 5, 1942</p>
<p>What is the acronym CINCIANTFLT?</p>
<p>Commander in Chief Atlantic Fleet Forces</p>
<p>What size NATO rounds are fired by the M240b?</p>
<p>7.62 mm</p>
<p>The degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code 1 through....</p>
<p>Five</p>
<p>When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning?</p>
<p>After you mask</p>
<p>WD-1 wire is composed of what material?</p>
<p>Copper/Steel</p>
<p>What department is in charge of operations?</p>
<p>S3</p>
<p>What classification is given to forklifts?</p>
<p>MHE</p>
<p>RRDF supports what type of mission?</p>
<p>RO/RO and LO/LO</p>
<p>The SB-22 telephone switchboard has\_\_\_\_lines single stacked and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_lines double stacked?</p>
<p>12, 29</p>
<p>How many US Navy ships have been named after the Seabees?</p>
<p>Two</p>
<p>A Causeway Ferry fully loaded can carry/hold how many tons?</p>
<p>280 Tons</p>
<p>The amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is referred to as..?</p>
<p>OPTAR</p>
<p>What forms for chemical agents come in?</p>
<p>Vapor, Solid, Liquid, Gas</p>
<p>Why do you secure a dressing on three sides for a sucking chest wound?</p>
<p>To allow excess pressure to be released</p>
<p>How should you carry a victim on a stretcher when traveling?</p>
<p>Feet forward</p>
<p>Which best describes local direction and control movements or maneuvers to accomplish the mission?</p>
<p>TACON</p>
<p>What year was the Sailors Creed introduced?</p>
<p>1993</p>
<p>Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for entry?</p>
<p>Gas free engineer</p>
<p>True or false: The following weapons are part of the NCF's TOA: M9, M16, M240b, M500, MK19, AT4, M203, M2?</p>
<p>False</p>
<p>Which acronym is used to help leaders distribute target assignments, locate targets and regulate fire power?</p>
<p>ADDRAC</p>
<p>RRDF is capable of operation in what SS fully loaded?</p>
<p>SS2</p>
<p>What color copy of the 1250-1 is used to create and/or update the historical demand file?</p>
<p>Pink</p>
<p>When giving self aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptom of a nerve agent before administering a second dose?</p>
<p>10-15 minutes between 2nd and 3rd dose</p>
<p>How long is a Secret clearance good for?</p>
<p>10 years</p>
<p>How often is the EDVR distributed?</p>
<p>Monthly</p>
<p>The recommended crew to operate the Causeway Ferry is...?</p>
<p>7</p>
<p>What is the max range of the M240b?</p>
<p>3725 M</p>
<p>What company is responsible for vertical construction?</p>
<p>Charlie</p>
<p>What company is responsible for horizontal construction?</p>
<p>Alfa</p>
<p>What rates make up CUCM?</p>
<p>EA, BU, SW</p>
<p>What rates make up UCCM?</p>
<p>UT, CE</p>
<p>What rates make up EQCM?</p>
<p>EO, CM</p>
<p>What is the max effective range of the M203 on an area target?</p>
<p>350 M</p>
<p>What is the identification marking for NMCB organic CESE?</p>
<p>Diamond shape, red background, white numerals</p>
<p>How many types of shoring are used during embarkation operation?</p>
<p>4</p>
<p>In the acronym KOCOA, which best describes "Observation and Fields of Fire" for defensive units?</p>
<p>Proper machine gun emplacement acquired by favorable terrain shelter and/or cover, which would allow the best visibility possible</p>
<p>The C5 can carry a max of\_\_\_\_\_463L Pallets?</p>
<p>36</p>
<p>How many steps are in ORM?</p>
<p>5</p>
<p>What is FITCAL?</p>
<p>Feel Inspect Tighten Clean Adjust Lubricate</p>
<p>What are the 8 cycles of fire?</p>
<p>Feeding Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extracting Ejecting Cocking</p>
<p>What form is used to document the report of survey and to certify the survey process when property is lost, stolen, and/or damaged?</p>
<p>DD200</p>
<p>On machine gun tripods, elevation readings are in what unit of measurement?</p>
<p>MILS</p>
<p>Single hearing protection is required when the noise levels continuously exceed...?</p>
<p>84 decibels</p>
<p>What does DRMO mean?</p>
<p>Defense Reutilization Marketing Office</p>
<p>ORM means?</p>
<p>Operational Risk Management</p>
<p>In what year was the CEC officially named and authorized?</p>
<p>1867</p>
<p>What acronym is used to help leaders determine enemy capabilities?</p>
<p>DRAW-D</p>
<p>Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and...?</p>
<p>Tagged</p>
<p>A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a switch, valve or similar item in the....?</p>
<p>"Off" or "Safe" position</p>
<p>Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an 8-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel level?</p>
<p>84 decibels</p>
<p>A combination of insert and circumaural type hearing protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what decibel level?</p>
<p>104 decibels</p>
<p>What center provides the primary centralized control facilities for the battalion commander?</p>
<p>COC</p>
<p>The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is determined by what document?</p>
<p>Naval Manning Plan</p>
<p>Who prepares operation orders for the battalion?</p>
<p>S3 Operating Officer</p>
<p>Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the responsibility of...?</p>
<p>The command managed equal opportunity officer</p>
<p>Which company is known as the shops and utilities company?</p>
<p>Bravo Co</p>
<p>At what current level does the GFCI trip?</p>
<p>3 to 5 mA</p>
<p>Who chairs the command safety policy committee?</p>
<p>Executive officer</p>
<p>Explain each MOPP Level?</p>
<p>0- Keep gear accessible 1- Don smock and trousers 2- Don over boots 3- Don mask and pull up hood 4- Don chemical gloves</p>
<p>What is the 9-1124 0/13 known as?</p>
<p>Trouble Report (Hard Card)</p>
<p>What does NCF stand for?</p>
<p>Naval Construction Force</p>
<p>What are the characteristics of the M16?</p>
<p>Light weight Magazine fed Gas operated Air cooled Shoulder fired Semi-fully Automatic </p>
<p>How many times was the Sailors Creed revised?</p>
<p>Two; 1981, 1993</p>
<p>What year were the Seabees named?</p>
<p>13 OCT 1775</p>
<p>What classification is given to forklifts?</p>
<p>MHE</p>
<p>What are the S-Codes?</p>
<p>S1- Admin S2- Intel S3- Operations S4- Supply S6- Comms S7- Training</p>
<p>What is an OF/346?</p>
<p>Military Drivers License</p>
<p>What is the allowable cabin load for a C-5 Galaxy?</p>
<p>150,000 lbs</p>
<p>What are the four methods to control bleeding?</p>
<p>Direct pressure
Elevation
Indirect pressure (22 pressure points)
Tourniquet</p>
<p>Which grenade produces 55,000 candle-power for a period of 25-seconds?</p>
<p>Illuminating</p>
<p>What is the effective casualty radius of the M-67 fragmentation grenade?</p>
<p>15 meters</p>
<p>What type of grenade is used for signaling?</p>
<p>Colored smoke</p>
<p>What is the theoretical number of rounds a weapon can fire in one-minute called?</p>
<p>Cyclic rate of fire</p>
<p>Which fighting position is the simplest?</p>
<p>Hasty individual</p>
<p>What is the definition of concealment?</p>
<p>Protection from enemy observation</p>
<p>Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on security patrol?</p>
<p>Move out of the line of sight as quickly and as quietly as possible</p>
<p>How many basic colors are used on a military map?</p>
<p>Five</p>
<p>What does the reddish-brown color signify on a military map?</p>
<p>All terrain relief features</p>
<p>True or false: Firing over hills, forest walls and other defenses is a tactical purpose of the MK19</p>
<p>True</p>
<p>What is a delay beyond normal ignition time for round functioning?</p>
<p>Hangfire</p>
<p>What is the actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite period of time?</p>
<p>Sustained rate of fire</p>
<p>What is the complete failure of a round to fire?</p>
<p>Misfire</p>
<p>What are the maximum ranges for point and area targets for the M203 grenade launcher?</p>
<p>150 meters (point) 350 meters (area)</p>
<p>What are the maximum effective range and maximum range for the M2HB.50 cal?</p>
<p>Max effective range- 1830 meters
| Max range- 6800 meters</p>
<p>Which types of grenades are used to destroy equipment?</p>
<p>Incendiary</p>
<p>True or false: the safety on any weapon is to remain on safe until you are actually aiming at a target and ready to fire.</p>
<p>True</p>
<p>What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?</p>
<p>50 meters</p>
<p>The M9 pistol has how many safeties?</p>
<p>One </p>
<p>What is the maximum range of the M16?</p>
<p>3534 meters</p>
<p>The maximum effective range of the M16 point and area target are?</p>
<p>550 meters point, 800 meters area</p>
<p>What type of fire is not less than 1 meter above and not higher than 68 inches from the ground and can exist for 600 meters over level or evenly sloping ground?</p>
<p>Grazing fire</p>
<p>What is the maximum effective range of the MK-19 40mm machine gun?</p>
<p>1500 meters</p>
<p>By stacking the SB-22 switchboard and utilizing the operator pack, how many lines can be utilized?</p>
<p>29</p>
<p>The TA-312/PT has a range of how many miles?</p>
<p>14 to 22</p>
<p>What three factors effect radio communication?</p>
<p>Weather, terrain, frequency of transmission</p>
<p>When handling top secret information, what is one of the conditions that must exist?</p>
<p>Two person integrity</p>
<p>What is one of the capabilities of the AN/PRC-119?</p>
<p>Line of sight communication</p>
<p>What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?</p>
<p>Wire</p>
<p>What is the secondary method of communicating in a defense area?</p>
<p>Radio</p>
<p>Which of the following prowords is used to pass extremely critical messages?</p>
<p>Flash</p>
<p>How many articles are contained in the code of conduct for US Code of Conduct for US fighting forces?</p>
<p>Six articles</p>
<p>What plan or order provides the course of action to accomplish a future mission?</p>
<p>Operation plan</p>
<p>What center controls, coordinates and monitors movement of personnel, supplies and equipment to an embarkation staging area?</p>
<p>MOCC</p>
<p>Which report provides a monthly statement of a commands enlisted personnel account?</p>
<p>EDVR</p>
<p>Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in small arms?</p>
<p>Military Advisor</p>
<p>Who is the legal officer in the battalion?</p>
<p>S1</p>
<p>Which company is known as the general construction company?</p>
<p>Charlie Company</p>
<p>The 13-digit stock number that identifies items in the federal supply system is known as the...?</p>
<p>NSN- National Stock Number</p>
<p>This\_\_\_\_lists all repair parts installed in equipment and the components to which they apply.</p>
<p>APL- Allowance Parts List</p>
<p>The two-character alphanumeric code designating inventory manager is known as the...?</p>
<p>COG</p>
<p>Which acronym is used when an item is ordered and not on station?</p>
<p>NIS- Not In Station</p>
<p>The inventory control principle is known as...?</p>
<p>SIM- Selected Item Management</p>
<p>Which functional outlet issues and inventories repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment?</p>
<p>ARP- Automotive Repair Parts</p>
<p>A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1200 construction hours or 60 days, is the...?</p>
<p>COSAL- Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List</p>
<p>True or false: Booming is an effective means of oil spill containment on calm water?</p>
<p>True</p>
<p>CHMRIMP</p>
<p>Consolidated Hazardous Material Reutilization Inventory Management Program</p>
Minor property is valued between..?
$300-5000
What is NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
Requesting a change in allowance quantities
What form is used to receive or turn in material to DRMO?
DD 1348-1A
What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD200 (survey)?
Line item over $35 or total loss over $100
True or false: If an item experiences 2 or more demands (hits) within a year, it qualifies for the selected item management (SIM) program.
False
What is the purpose of COSAL?
To provide authority to stock repair parts
True or false: The supply officer of an NMCB is responsible for CTR and MLO as well as the traditional supply outlets
True
True or false: personal protection equipment is not required when handling hazardous material or hazardous waste?
False
What are the storage procedures for incompatible materials?
Materials may be stored in approved containers if they are separated and placed a minimum of 50 feet from an ignition source
Explain the procedure when a hazardous material/hazardous waste (HM/HW) spill is discovered.
Respond immediately with approved team, equipment, disposal plan, reports made and tests done for remaining contamination and disposal within strict guidelines
Which best describes the required training for all hands with respect to the HW/HM program?
Supervisors- recognize unsafe and unhealthful conditions and practices and develops skills necessary to manage the activities OSH program.
Management- ensures an aggressive and continuing OSH program is implemented
Non-supervisory- specialized job-safety and health training
True or false: the purpose of secondary labeling of hazmat is to inform the user by use of words, pictures, and/or symbols, the specific health hazards of the chemical in the container
True
In what kind of fracture does the bone break the skin and tissues?
Open or compound fracture
Which of the following is NOT a method of disinfecting water for drinking in the field? Iodine tablets Calcium Hydrochloride Ampules Boiling Reverse Osmosis
Reverse Osmosis
What are the characteristics of the material safety data sheet?
Communicates to the user the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties of that material; document generated by the manufacturer about the material; communicates the name, address, emergency contacts, fire and explosive data, reactivity data, precautions for safe handling and control measures of the material.
What is the first method used in the control of bleeding?
Direct pressure
True or false: sucking chest wounds should be sealed as soon as possible with an airtight dressing taped on four sides
False. It should be taped on three sides to allow air to escape
What type of burn is often the most painful and forms blisters
Second degree
What type of heat casualty exhibits the following signs: Hot, dry skin; constricted pupils; very high body temperature?
Heat stroke
A victim that is shivering, listless, indifferent, and drowsy is most likely suffering from…?
Hypothermia
True or false: when reinforcing a battle dressing you should always remove the old dressing before applying another dressing
False
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
To find the root cause and prevent similar mishaps
What type(s) of respirator(s) is/are used by the NCF?
Self-contained breathing apparatus, air purifying respirator, supplied air respirator
The command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos is recognized as a/an?
Major health hazzard
How many principal pressure points are there on the human body?
22
The abdominal thrust (Heimlich) maneuver is a treatment for which of the following?
Choking
In the body, the large vessels that carry blood away from the heart are…?
Arteries
True or false: Shock is a condition in which the circulation of the blood is seriously disturbed and causes a lack of oxygen to body systems
True
In defensive combat, emphasis is placed on which of the following types of patrols?
Security
Fire commands consist of six necessary elements. What is the acronym to express this?
ADDRAC
What consideration has the highest priority in the selection of tent campsite?
Tactical
What is the first priority of the rapid runway repair organization?
Establishment of a minimum operating strip
When transporting causeways, aboard which of the following ships is side loading accomplished?
LST
What form is filled out using the battalions level II master activities summary sheet?
Construction Activity Summary Sheet (CASS)
What is the correct ORM sequence?
IAMIS. Identify hazards Assess hazards Make risk decisions Implement controls Supervise
Bloodshot eyes, irritation of the throat, hoarseness, coughing and burns in moist areas are symptoms of what?
Exposure to blister agents
True or false: dryness of throat, coughing, headache, burning eyes and accumulation of fluid in lungs are all symptoms of exposure to choking agents
True
Which chemical agent liquids will M9 paper detect and what color will the M9 paper show?
Yellow/Gold= G Nerve Agent
Red/Pink= H Blister Agent
Dark Green= V Nerve Agent
What is used for immediate skin decontamination?
M291 skin decontamination kit (SDK)
Skin decontamination should be accomplished within how many minutes of exposure?
One minute
Areas of terrain contaminated with chemical agents should be identified with which of the following?
Yellow background with red letters
What are the three different types of CBR surveys?
Area, point, route
True or false: ORM will always eliminate risks?
False
What is the minimum distance latrines and garbage pits can be located from the nearest water supply?
100 meters
What is the most common method of disinfecting drinking water?
Chlorination
If exposed to chemical agents, how long will the MK-III chemical overgarment provide protection?
6 hours
The M8A1 automatic chemical agent alarm system can be used to detect a blister agent attack?
False
Headache, runny nose, excessive salivation, difficulty breathing, nausea, pinpoint pupils and localized twitching of muscles are symptoms of exposure to what?
Nerve Agents
The M8 chemical detector paper detects what chemical agents?
Blister, G series Nerve Agent, V series Nerve Agent
MOPP gear exchange is performed during what level of decontamination?
Operational
What does the acronym ABFC stand for?
Advance Base Functional Components
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in Vol I?
Three
Which is included among the contents of the NAVFAC P-437?
Drawings of facilities and assemblies
In the ABFC system, what code identifies assemblies required for use in northern temperature zone?
N
What is the minimum number of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR) command center personnel a battalion should have qualified?
72
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level I and II in order to satisfy the requirements of RRR?
46 at level I, 20 at level II, 6 createmobile
What type of extinguisher should be used on a class C fire?
Portable CO2 extinguisher
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?
30 meters
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
12
True or false: The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied and keep it clear of the enemy
True
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give your captors?
Name, Rank, SSN, DOB
How many fighting positions are used in a defense?
Three
What position is used to protect against a surprise enemy attack?
Supplementary
Within a barrier plan, what are the three classes of wire entanglements?
Supplementary
Tactical
Protective
What basic fire team formation provides good all around security?
Wedge
