Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SCWS Board > All Chapters > Flashcards

All Chapters Flashcards

1
Q

<p>Who is responsible for the safety and health of all military and civilian personnel in a command?</p>

A

<p>Commanding Officer</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<p>What best describes the definition of hazard?</p>

A

<p>Any real or potential condition that can cause injury, illness, or death to personnel; damage to or loss of equipment or property; degradation of mission capability or impact to mission accomplishment; or damage to the environment. </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

<p>How many steps are there for ORM?</p>

A

<p>5</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

<p>How many principles of ORM are there?</p>

A

<p>4</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

<p>A GFCI is required for use on power tools?</p>

A

<p>True</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

<p>Which best describes a Near Mishap?</p>

A

<p>When injury or damages were avoided merely by chance or circumstance. </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

<p>Which best describes a Category III hazard?</p>

A

<p>May cause minor injury, minor occupational illness, or minor property damage. </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

<p>The degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code: 1 through...</p>

A

<p>5</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<p>The Safety Officer enforces the Commanding Officer's safety policies and procedures.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

<p>What command did SW2 Robert D. Stethem belong to?</p>

A

<p>UCT1</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>What two navy ships are named in honor of Seabees?</p>

A

<p>USS Shields/USS Stethem</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>What date was Pearl Harbor attacked by the Japanese Empire?</p>

A

<p>December 7, 1941</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>How many United States Navy ships have been named after Seabees?</p>

A

<p>2</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>During what two operations did Seabees construct troop bed down facilities, storage areas, EPW camps, and hundreds of miles of roads?</p>

A

<p>Operation Desert Shield and Operation Desert Storm </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>On which date were the Seabees officially given their name?</p>

A

<p>March 5, 1942</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>Which of the following qualities do NOT represent characteristics of the Naval Forces?</p>

A

<p>Fearlessness </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>What rates are merged together to form an EQCM?</p>

A

<p>EO, CM</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>What rates are merged together to form a CUCM?</p>

A

<p>EA, BU, SW</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>Which location was the first home of the Seabees?</p>

A

<p>Davisville, RI</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>What best describes the definition of risk?</p>

A

<p>An expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability and severity. </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>When netting a 463L pallet, which way do the hooks face and how many D-rings does the pallet have?</p>

A

<p>Inboard, 22.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-130 aircraft?</p>

A

<p>25,000 lbs</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-141 aircraft?</p>

A

<p>50,000 lbs</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-17 aircraft?</p>

A

<p>90,000 lbs</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-5 aircraft?</p>

A

<p>150,000 lbs</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>In a convoy what is the maintenance officer responsible for?</p>

A

<p>Maintenance of equipment on a convoy, repairing breakdowns, towing equipment.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>What are the three color classifications of convoy routes?</p>

A

<p>Red, Green, Yellow</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>What are sixcons used for?</p>

A

<p>Water, Fuel</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>What does MHE stand for?</p>

A

<p>Material Handling Equipment</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>What does WHE stand for?</p>

A

<p>Weight Handling Equipment</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>What colors are the background of the organic and augment equipment decals?</p>

A

<p>Red/White</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>What is an SF-91 used for?</p>

A

<p>Accident report</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>A vehicle must be in what condition code to be in live storage?</p>

A

<p>A5</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply personnel and administrative procedures required by a move?</p>

A

<p>Execution order</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>Which OPNAV forms is for unsafe/unhealthful working condition reporting?</p>

A

<p>OPNAV 5100/11</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

<p>Which safety equipment are worn at all times at all construction sites, shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and other areas designated by the safety officer?</p>

A

<p>Steel toed shoes and hard hats</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

<p>Which shop operations have the highest potential for eye hazards?</p>

A

<p>Cutting or welding metals</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

<p>Which form is used as a requisition and consumption reporting document for procuring non-NSN material?</p>

A

<p>NAVSUP 1250-2</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

<p>What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-119?</p>

A

<p>30-87.975 Mhz in 25 Khz steps</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

<p>How many crypto fills can a AN/CZY-10 hold in its memory?</p>

A

<p>1000 keys</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

<p>What replaced the AN/CZY-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD)?</p>

A

<p>AN/PYQ-10 Simple Key Loader (SKL)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

<p>While monitoring the battalion tactical net, you notice that someone is using your call sign. What is the correct procedure you should follow?</p>

A

<p>Call gingerbread on that particular net</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

<p>What is the least secure method of communication?</p>

A

<p>Radio</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

<p>While transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station responds with "Beadwindow." What is your response?</p>

A

<p>Roger out</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

<p>BAMCIS</p>

A 
<p>Begin planning
Arrange recon
Make recon
Complete the plan
Issue the order
Supervise</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

<p>SMEAC</p>

A 
<p>Situation
Mission
Execution
Admin and Logistics
Command and Signal</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

<p>KOCOA</p>

A 
<p>Key the terrain
Observation and Fields of Fire
Cover and Concealment
Obstacles
Avenues of Approach</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

<p>SALUTE</p>

A 
<p>Size
Activity
Location
Uniform
Time
Equipment</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

<p>HASS</p>

A

<p>Higher
Adjacent
Support
Subordinate</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

<p>METT-TC</p>

A 
<p>Mission
Enemy
Terrain
Troops Available
Civilian and Legal Considerations</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

<p>SAFE</p>

A

<p>Security
Assignment of Automatic Weapons
Fields of Fire
Entrenchment</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

<p>CESE</p>

A

<p>Civil
Engineer
Support
Equipment</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

<p>ADDRAC</p>

A 
<p>Alert
Direction
Description
Range 
Action
Command</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

<p>JSLIST</p>

A 
<p>Joint
Service
Lightweight
Integrated
Suit
Technology</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

<p>ROWPU</p>

A 
<p>Reverse 
Osmosis
Water
Purification
Unit</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

<p>SPOT</p>

A

<p>Situation
Position
Observation
Time</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

<p>NAAK</p>

A

<p>Nerve
Agent
Antidote
Kit</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

<p>ICAM</p>

A

<p>Improved
Chemical
Agent
Monitor</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

<p>ELCAS</p>

A

<p>Elevated Causeway System</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

<p>RRDF</p>

A

<p>Roll on
Roll off
Discharge
Facility</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

<p>DRAW-D</p>

A 
<p>Defend
Reenforce 
Attack
Withdraw
Delay</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

<p>FPF</p>

A

<p>Final
Protective
Fire</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

<p>FPL</p>

A

<p>Final
Protective
Line</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

<p>PDF</p>

A

<p>Principal
Direction of
Fire</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

<p>BSC</p>

A

<p>Beach
Support
Command</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

<p>TOC</p>

A

<p>Tactical
Operation
Command</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

<p>MTVR</p>

A

<p>Modular
Tactical
Vest</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

<p>SLLS</p>

A

<p>Stop
Look
Listen
Smell</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

<p>LP/OP</p>

A

<p>Listening Post/Observation Post</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

<p>FITCAL</p>

A 
<p>Feel
Inspect
Tighten
Clean
Adjust
Lubricate</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

<p>OPDS</p>

A

<p>Offshore
Petroleum
Discharge
System</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

<p>ABLTS</p>

A 
<p>Amphibious
Bulk
Liquid 
Transfer
System</p>
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

<p>FIG</p>

A

<p>Flanking
Interlocking
Grazing</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

<p>MOPP</p>

A

<p>Mission
Oriented
Protective
Posture</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

<p>How many pressure points are there and what are they?</p>

A

<p>22. (11 on the left, 11 on the right)

1) Superficial Temporal
2) Facial
3) Carotid
4) Subclavian
5) Axillary
6) Brachial
7) Radial
8) Femoral
9) Popliteal
10) Posterior Tibial
11) Dorsal Pedal</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

<p>In the acronym KOCOA, what best descirbes "Observations and Fields of Fire" with respect to the enemy?</p>

A

<p>Possible enemy machine gun emplacements and wide open areas that would be likely used as ambush points</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

<p>What is the formula for calculating TM for a two axel vehicle?</p>

A

<p>(W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

<p>How many P4OG pontoons make up the width of the ELCAS roadway?</p>

A

<p>Three</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

<p>What degree or angle is the beach ramp set at?</p>

A

<p>7.5 Degrees</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

<p>How long will a JSLIST suit protect you in a contaminated environment?</p>

A

<p>24 hours</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

<p>What describes MOPP Level 1?</p>

A

<p>Over garment worn/boots, mask, gloves carry</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

<p>Who was the only Seabee to earn the medal of honor?</p>

A

<p>CM3 Marvin Shields</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

<p>How do you determine your pace count?</p>

A

<p>Walk 100 meters, count every left step taken</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

<p>What is the color of the tip of ammo that designates tracer rounds?</p>

A

<p>Red/Orange</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

<p>What's the minimum dimensions of each piece of dunnage when used with the 463L pallet?</p>

A

<p>4" x 4" x 88"</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

<p>What acronym aids leaders in the initial 6 step planning process?</p>

A

<p>BAMCIS</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

<p>What Sea State can the Causeway Ferry survive in?</p>

A

<p>SS4</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

<p>What is the M16 Point Target?</p>

A

<p>550 M</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

<p>What is the M16 Area Target?</p>

A

<p>800 M</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

<p>What is MOPP Level 0?</p>

A

<p>IPE available for immediate donning, protective mask with filter available</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

<p>What is the treatment for deeply embedded white phosphorous?</p>

A

<p>Place a soaked dressing</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

<p>True or false: There are only 5 categories of HAZMAT</p>

A

<p>False. There are six. </p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

<p>Navy owned property that costs $5,000 or more and has a useful life expectancy of two or more years is referred to as\_\_\_\_\_\_\_property?</p>

A

<p>Plant</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

<p>On topographical maps, what does the color green indicate?</p>

A

<p>Vegetation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

<p>On what date were the Seabees officially given their name?</p>

A

<p>March 5, 1942</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

<p>What is the acronym CINCIANTFLT?</p>

A

<p>Commander in Chief Atlantic Fleet Forces</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

<p>What size NATO rounds are fired by the M240b?</p>

A

<p>7.62 mm</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

<p>The degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code 1 through....</p>

A

<p>Five</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

<p>When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning?</p>

A

<p>After you mask</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

<p>WD-1 wire is composed of what material?</p>

A

<p>Copper/Steel</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

<p>What department is in charge of operations?</p>

A

<p>S3</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

<p>What classification is given to forklifts?</p>

A

<p>MHE</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

<p>RRDF supports what type of mission?</p>

A

<p>RO/RO and LO/LO</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

<p>The SB-22 telephone switchboard has\_\_\_\_lines single stacked and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_lines double stacked?</p>

A

<p>12, 29</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

<p>How many US Navy ships have been named after the Seabees?</p>

A

<p>Two</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

<p>A Causeway Ferry fully loaded can carry/hold how many tons?</p>

A

<p>280 Tons</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

<p>The amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is referred to as..?</p>

A

<p>OPTAR</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

<p>What forms for chemical agents come in?</p>

A

<p>Vapor, Solid, Liquid, Gas</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

<p>Why do you secure a dressing on three sides for a sucking chest wound?</p>

A

<p>To allow excess pressure to be released</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

<p>How should you carry a victim on a stretcher when traveling?</p>

A

<p>Feet forward</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

<p>Which best describes local direction and control movements or maneuvers to accomplish the mission?</p>

A

<p>TACON</p>

112
Q

<p>What year was the Sailors Creed introduced?</p>

A

<p>1993</p>

113
Q

<p>Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for entry?</p>

A

<p>Gas free engineer</p>

114
Q

<p>True or false: The following weapons are part of the NCF's TOA: M9, M16, M240b, M500, MK19, AT4, M203, M2?</p>

A

<p>False</p>

115
Q

<p>Which acronym is used to help leaders distribute target assignments, locate targets and regulate fire power?</p>

A

<p>ADDRAC</p>

116
Q

<p>RRDF is capable of operation in what SS fully loaded?</p>

A

<p>SS2</p>

117
Q

<p>What color copy of the 1250-1 is used to create and/or update the historical demand file?</p>

A

<p>Pink</p>

118
Q

<p>When giving self aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptom of a nerve agent before administering a second dose?</p>

A

<p>10-15 minutes between 2nd and 3rd dose</p>

119
Q

<p>How long is a Secret clearance good for?</p>

A

<p>10 years</p>

120
Q

<p>How often is the EDVR distributed?</p>

A

<p>Monthly</p>

121
Q

<p>The recommended crew to operate the Causeway Ferry is...?</p>

A

<p>7</p>

122
Q

<p>What is the max range of the M240b?</p>

A

<p>3725 M</p>

123
Q

<p>What company is responsible for vertical construction?</p>

A

<p>Charlie</p>

124
Q

<p>What company is responsible for horizontal construction?</p>

A

<p>Alfa</p>

125
Q

<p>What rates make up CUCM?</p>

A

<p>EA, BU, SW</p>

126
Q

<p>What rates make up UCCM?</p>

A

<p>UT, CE</p>

127
Q

<p>What rates make up EQCM?</p>

A

<p>EO, CM</p>

128
Q

<p>What is the max effective range of the M203 on an area target?</p>

A

<p>350 M</p>

129
Q

<p>What is the identification marking for NMCB organic CESE?</p>

A

<p>Diamond shape, red background, white numerals</p>

130
Q

<p>How many types of shoring are used during embarkation operation?</p>

A

<p>4</p>

131
Q

<p>In the acronym KOCOA, which best describes "Observation and Fields of Fire" for defensive units?</p>

A

<p>Proper machine gun emplacement acquired by favorable terrain shelter and/or cover, which would allow the best visibility possible</p>

132
Q

<p>The C5 can carry a max of\_\_\_\_\_463L Pallets?</p>

A

<p>36</p>

133
Q

<p>How many steps are in ORM?</p>

A

<p>5</p>

134
Q

<p>What is FITCAL?</p>

A 
<p>Feel
Inspect
Tighten
Clean
Adjust
Lubricate</p>
135
Q

<p>What are the 8 cycles of fire?</p>

A 
<p>Feeding
Chambering
Locking
Firing
Unlocking
Extracting
Ejecting
Cocking</p>
136
Q

<p>What form is used to document the report of survey and to certify the survey process when property is lost, stolen, and/or damaged?</p>

A

<p>DD200</p>

137
Q

<p>On machine gun tripods, elevation readings are in what unit of measurement?</p>

A

<p>MILS</p>

138
Q

<p>Single hearing protection is required when the noise levels continuously exceed...?</p>

A

<p>84 decibels</p>

139
Q

<p>What does DRMO mean?</p>

A

<p>Defense Reutilization Marketing Office</p>

140
Q

<p>ORM means?</p>

A

<p>Operational Risk Management</p>

141
Q

<p>In what year was the CEC officially named and authorized?</p>

A

<p>1867</p>

142
Q

<p>What acronym is used to help leaders determine enemy capabilities?</p>

A

<p>DRAW-D</p>

143
Q

<p>Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and...?</p>

A

<p>Tagged</p>

144
Q

<p>A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a switch, valve or similar item in the....?</p>

A

<p>"Off" or "Safe" position</p>

145
Q

<p>Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an 8-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel level?</p>

A

<p>84 decibels</p>

146
Q

<p>A combination of insert and circumaural type hearing protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what decibel level?</p>

A

<p>104 decibels</p>

147
Q

<p>What center provides the primary centralized control facilities for the battalion commander?</p>

A

<p>COC</p>

148
Q

<p>The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is determined by what document?</p>

A

<p>Naval Manning Plan</p>

149
Q

<p>Who prepares operation orders for the battalion?</p>

A

<p>S3 Operating Officer</p>

150
Q

<p>Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the responsibility of...?</p>

A

<p>The command managed equal opportunity officer</p>

151
Q

<p>Which company is known as the shops and utilities company?</p>

A

<p>Bravo Co</p>

152
Q

<p>At what current level does the GFCI trip?</p>

A

<p>3 to 5 mA</p>

153
Q

<p>Who chairs the command safety policy committee?</p>

A

<p>Executive officer</p>

154
Q

<p>Explain each MOPP Level?</p>

A 
<p>0- Keep gear accessible
1- Don smock and trousers
2- Don over boots
3- Don mask and pull up hood
4- Don chemical gloves</p>
155
Q

<p>What is the 9-1124 0/13 known as?</p>

A

<p>Trouble Report (Hard Card)</p>

156
Q

<p>What does NCF stand for?</p>

A

<p>Naval Construction Force</p>

157
Q

<p>What are the characteristics of the M16?</p>

A 
<p>Light weight
Magazine fed
Gas operated
Air cooled
Shoulder fired
Semi-fully Automatic </p>
158
Q

<p>How many times was the Sailors Creed revised?</p>

A

<p>Two; 1981, 1993</p>

159
Q

<p>What year were the Seabees named?</p>

A

<p>13 OCT 1775</p>

160
Q

<p>What classification is given to forklifts?</p>

A

<p>MHE</p>

161
Q

<p>What are the S-Codes?</p>

A 
<p>S1- Admin
S2- Intel
S3- Operations
S4- Supply
S6- Comms
S7- Training</p>
162
Q

<p>What is an OF/346?</p>

A

<p>Military Drivers License</p>

163
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for a C-5 Galaxy?</p>

A

<p>150,000 lbs</p>

164
Q

<p>What are the four methods to control bleeding?</p>

A

<p>Direct pressure
Elevation
Indirect pressure (22 pressure points)
Tourniquet</p>

165
Q

<p>Which grenade produces 55,000 candle-power for a period of 25-seconds?</p>

A

<p>Illuminating</p>

166
Q

<p>What is the effective casualty radius of the M-67 fragmentation grenade?</p>

A

<p>15 meters</p>

167
Q

<p>What type of grenade is used for signaling?</p>

A

<p>Colored smoke</p>

168
Q

<p>What is the theoretical number of rounds a weapon can fire in one-minute called?</p>

A

<p>Cyclic rate of fire</p>

169
Q

<p>Which fighting position is the simplest?</p>

A

<p>Hasty individual</p>

170
Q

<p>What is the definition of concealment?</p>

A

<p>Protection from enemy observation</p>

171
Q

<p>Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on security patrol?</p>

A

<p>Move out of the line of sight as quickly and as quietly as possible</p>

172
Q

<p>How many basic colors are used on a military map?</p>

A

<p>Five</p>

173
Q

<p>What does the reddish-brown color signify on a military map?</p>

A

<p>All terrain relief features</p>

174
Q

<p>True or false: Firing over hills, forest walls and other defenses is a tactical purpose of the MK19</p>

A

<p>True</p>

175
Q

<p>What is a delay beyond normal ignition time for round functioning?</p>

A

<p>Hangfire</p>

176
Q

<p>What is the actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite period of time?</p>

A

<p>Sustained rate of fire</p>

177
Q

<p>What is the complete failure of a round to fire?</p>

A

<p>Misfire</p>

178
Q

<p>What are the maximum ranges for point and area targets for the M203 grenade launcher?</p>

A

<p>150 meters (point) 350 meters (area)</p>

179
Q

<p>What are the maximum effective range and maximum range for the M2HB.50 cal?</p>

A

<p>Max effective range- 1830 meters

| Max range- 6800 meters</p>

180
Q

<p>Which types of grenades are used to destroy equipment?</p>

A

<p>Incendiary</p>

181
Q

<p>True or false: the safety on any weapon is to remain on safe until you are actually aiming at a target and ready to fire.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

182
Q

<p>What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?</p>

A

<p>50 meters</p>

183
Q

<p>The M9 pistol has how many safeties?</p>

A

<p>One </p>

184
Q

<p>What is the maximum range of the M16?</p>

A

<p>3534 meters</p>

185
Q

<p>The maximum effective range of the M16 point and area target are?</p>

A

<p>550 meters point, 800 meters area</p>

186
Q

<p>What type of fire is not less than 1 meter above and not higher than 68 inches from the ground and can exist for 600 meters over level or evenly sloping ground?</p>

A

<p>Grazing fire</p>

187
Q

<p>What is the maximum effective range of the MK-19 40mm machine gun?</p>

A

<p>1500 meters</p>

188
Q

<p>By stacking the SB-22 switchboard and utilizing the operator pack, how many lines can be utilized?</p>

A

<p>29</p>

189
Q

<p>The TA-312/PT has a range of how many miles?</p>

A

<p>14 to 22</p>

190
Q

<p>What three factors effect radio communication?</p>

A

<p>Weather, terrain, frequency of transmission</p>

191
Q

<p>When handling top secret information, what is one of the conditions that must exist?</p>

A

<p>Two person integrity</p>

192
Q

<p>What is one of the capabilities of the AN/PRC-119?</p>

A

<p>Line of sight communication</p>

193
Q

<p>What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?</p>

A

<p>Wire</p>

194
Q

<p>What is the secondary method of communicating in a defense area?</p>

A

<p>Radio</p>

195
Q

<p>Which of the following prowords is used to pass extremely critical messages?</p>

A

<p>Flash</p>

196
Q

<p>How many articles are contained in the code of conduct for US Code of Conduct for US fighting forces?</p>

A

<p>Six articles</p>

197
Q

<p>What plan or order provides the course of action to accomplish a future mission?</p>

A

<p>Operation plan</p>

198
Q

<p>What center controls, coordinates and monitors movement of personnel, supplies and equipment to an embarkation staging area?</p>

A

<p>MOCC</p>

199
Q

<p>Which report provides a monthly statement of a commands enlisted personnel account?</p>

A

<p>EDVR</p>

200
Q

<p>Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in small arms?</p>

A

<p>Military Advisor</p>

201
Q

<p>Who is the legal officer in the battalion?</p>

A

<p>S1</p>

202
Q

<p>Which company is known as the general construction company?</p>

A

<p>Charlie Company</p>

203
Q

<p>The 13-digit stock number that identifies items in the federal supply system is known as the...?</p>

A

<p>NSN- National Stock Number</p>

204
Q

<p>This\_\_\_\_lists all repair parts installed in equipment and the components to which they apply.</p>

A

<p>APL- Allowance Parts List</p>

205
Q

<p>The two-character alphanumeric code designating inventory manager is known as the...?</p>

A

<p>COG</p>

206
Q

<p>Which acronym is used when an item is ordered and not on station?</p>

A

<p>NIS- Not In Station</p>

207
Q

<p>The inventory control principle is known as...?</p>

A

<p>SIM- Selected Item Management</p>

208
Q

<p>Which functional outlet issues and inventories repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment?</p>

A

<p>ARP- Automotive Repair Parts</p>

209
Q

<p>A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1200 construction hours or 60 days, is the...?</p>

A

<p>COSAL- Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List</p>

210
Q

<p>True or false: Booming is an effective means of oil spill containment on calm water?</p>

A

<p>True</p>

211
Q

<p>CHMRIMP</p>

A 
<p>Consolidated
Hazardous
Material
Reutilization 
Inventory 
Management
Program</p>
212
Q

Minor property is valued between..?

A

$300-5000

213
Q

What is NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?

A

Requesting a change in allowance quantities

214
Q

What form is used to receive or turn in material to DRMO?

A

DD 1348-1A

215
Q

What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD200 (survey)?

A

Line item over $35 or total loss over $100

216
Q

True or false: If an item experiences 2 or more demands (hits) within a year, it qualifies for the selected item management (SIM) program.

A

False

217
Q

What is the purpose of COSAL?

A

To provide authority to stock repair parts

218
Q

True or false: The supply officer of an NMCB is responsible for CTR and MLO as well as the traditional supply outlets

A

True

219
Q

True or false: personal protection equipment is not required when handling hazardous material or hazardous waste?

A

False

220
Q

What are the storage procedures for incompatible materials?

A

Materials may be stored in approved containers if they are separated and placed a minimum of 50 feet from an ignition source

221
Q

Explain the procedure when a hazardous material/hazardous waste (HM/HW) spill is discovered.

A

Respond immediately with approved team, equipment, disposal plan, reports made and tests done for remaining contamination and disposal within strict guidelines

222
Q

Which best describes the required training for all hands with respect to the HW/HM program?

A

Supervisors- recognize unsafe and unhealthful conditions and practices and develops skills necessary to manage the activities OSH program.
Management- ensures an aggressive and continuing OSH program is implemented
Non-supervisory- specialized job-safety and health training

223
Q

True or false: the purpose of secondary labeling of hazmat is to inform the user by use of words, pictures, and/or symbols, the specific health hazards of the chemical in the container

A

True

224
Q

In what kind of fracture does the bone break the skin and tissues?

A

Open or compound fracture

225
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a method of disinfecting water for drinking in the field?
Iodine tablets
Calcium Hydrochloride Ampules 
Boiling
Reverse Osmosis
A

Reverse Osmosis

226
Q

What are the characteristics of the material safety data sheet?

A

Communicates to the user the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties of that material; document generated by the manufacturer about the material; communicates the name, address, emergency contacts, fire and explosive data, reactivity data, precautions for safe handling and control measures of the material.

227
Q

What is the first method used in the control of bleeding?

A

Direct pressure

228
Q

True or false: sucking chest wounds should be sealed as soon as possible with an airtight dressing taped on four sides

A

False. It should be taped on three sides to allow air to escape

229
Q

What type of burn is often the most painful and forms blisters

A

Second degree

230
Q

What type of heat casualty exhibits the following signs: Hot, dry skin; constricted pupils; very high body temperature?

A

Heat stroke

231
Q

A victim that is shivering, listless, indifferent, and drowsy is most likely suffering from…?

A

Hypothermia

232
Q

True or false: when reinforcing a battle dressing you should always remove the old dressing before applying another dressing

A

False

233
Q

What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?

A

To find the root cause and prevent similar mishaps

234
Q

What type(s) of respirator(s) is/are used by the NCF?

A

Self-contained breathing apparatus, air purifying respirator, supplied air respirator

235
Q

The command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos is recognized as a/an?

A

Major health hazzard

236
Q

How many principal pressure points are there on the human body?

A

22

237
Q

The abdominal thrust (Heimlich) maneuver is a treatment for which of the following?

A

Choking

238
Q

In the body, the large vessels that carry blood away from the heart are…?

A

Arteries

239
Q

True or false: Shock is a condition in which the circulation of the blood is seriously disturbed and causes a lack of oxygen to body systems

A

True

240
Q

In defensive combat, emphasis is placed on which of the following types of patrols?

A

Security

241
Q

Fire commands consist of six necessary elements. What is the acronym to express this?

A

ADDRAC

242
Q

What consideration has the highest priority in the selection of tent campsite?

A

Tactical

243
Q

What is the first priority of the rapid runway repair organization?

A

Establishment of a minimum operating strip

244
Q

When transporting causeways, aboard which of the following ships is side loading accomplished?

A

LST

245
Q

What form is filled out using the battalions level II master activities summary sheet?

A

Construction Activity Summary Sheet (CASS)

246
Q

What is the correct ORM sequence?

A 
IAMIS.
Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise
247
Q

Bloodshot eyes, irritation of the throat, hoarseness, coughing and burns in moist areas are symptoms of what?

A

Exposure to blister agents

248
Q

True or false: dryness of throat, coughing, headache, burning eyes and accumulation of fluid in lungs are all symptoms of exposure to choking agents

A

True

249
Q

Which chemical agent liquids will M9 paper detect and what color will the M9 paper show?

A

Yellow/Gold= G Nerve Agent
Red/Pink= H Blister Agent
Dark Green= V Nerve Agent

250
Q

What is used for immediate skin decontamination?

A

M291 skin decontamination kit (SDK)

251
Q

Skin decontamination should be accomplished within how many minutes of exposure?

A

One minute

252
Q

Areas of terrain contaminated with chemical agents should be identified with which of the following?

A

Yellow background with red letters

253
Q

What are the three different types of CBR surveys?

A

Area, point, route

254
Q

True or false: ORM will always eliminate risks?

A

False

255
Q

What is the minimum distance latrines and garbage pits can be located from the nearest water supply?

A

100 meters

256
Q

What is the most common method of disinfecting drinking water?

A

Chlorination

257
Q

If exposed to chemical agents, how long will the MK-III chemical overgarment provide protection?

A

6 hours

258
Q

The M8A1 automatic chemical agent alarm system can be used to detect a blister agent attack?

A

False

259
Q

Headache, runny nose, excessive salivation, difficulty breathing, nausea, pinpoint pupils and localized twitching of muscles are symptoms of exposure to what?

A

Nerve Agents

260
Q

The M8 chemical detector paper detects what chemical agents?

A

Blister, G series Nerve Agent, V series Nerve Agent

261
Q

MOPP gear exchange is performed during what level of decontamination?

A

Operational

262
Q

What does the acronym ABFC stand for?

A

Advance Base Functional Components

263
Q

In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in Vol I?

A

Three

264
Q

Which is included among the contents of the NAVFAC P-437?

A

Drawings of facilities and assemblies

265
Q

In the ABFC system, what code identifies assemblies required for use in northern temperature zone?

A

N

266
Q

What is the minimum number of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR) command center personnel a battalion should have qualified?

A

72

267
Q

How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level I and II in order to satisfy the requirements of RRR?

A

46 at level I, 20 at level II, 6 createmobile

268
Q

What type of extinguisher should be used on a class C fire?

A

Portable CO2 extinguisher

269
Q

What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?

A

30 meters

270
Q

How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?

A

12

271
Q

True or false: The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied and keep it clear of the enemy

A

True

272
Q

If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give your captors?

A

Name, Rank, SSN, DOB

273
Q

How many fighting positions are used in a defense?

A

Three

274
Q

What position is used to protect against a surprise enemy attack?

A

Supplementary

275
Q

Within a barrier plan, what are the three classes of wire entanglements?

A

Supplementary
Tactical
Protective

276
Q

What basic fire team formation provides good all around security?

A

Wedge

SCWS Board (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions