All chapters Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is a stakeholder?

A

Those who affect or are affected by the actions of a firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An important part of mgmt is to identify a firm’s relevant stakeholders and understand the nature of the stakeholder’s…

A

interests, power and alliances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the General Systems Theory?

A

Argues that all organisms are open to, and interact w/their external enviornment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain Shareholder theory of the firm

A

When the purpose of the firm is to maximize its long-term market value/make money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is stakeholder theory of the firm?

A

Argues that corporations should create value for society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Market stakeholders are…

A

Those that engage in ECONOMIC transactions with the company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nonmarket stakeholder are…

A

People and groups who DO NOT engage in DIRECT economic exchange with the firm but are still affected by its actions. (govt. communities, gen. public etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: Internal stakeholders are employed by the firm.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

External stakeholders are those who are ____ directly employed the firm.

A

Not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain stakeholder analysis:

A

The process of identifying relevant stakeholders and their interests & power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a focal org?

A

Org. from whose perspective the analysis is conducted from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 5 stakeholder powers?

A

Voting power, economic power, political power, legal power, and informational power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A visual representation of the relationships among stakeholders’ interests, power and coalitions w/respect to a particular issue is known as…

A

Stakeholder mapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Evolving govt. regulations of bus, Globalization, growing ethical values, new tech, societal expectations and the dynamic natural environment are examples of

A

Business and its stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the emergence of a new public issue indicate?

A

That there is a gap between what the firm wants to do and what is actually happening and what stakeholders expect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do you call the gap between stakeholder expectations v firm expectations?

A

performance-expectation gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When do performance-expectation gaps occur?

A

when stakeholder concerns aren’t understood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A method used to gather info about EXTERNAL issues and trends in order to develop strategy that minimizes threats and takes advantage of new opportunities is known as:

A

Enviornmental analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Enviornmental intelligence is :

A

the Acquistion of info gained from analyzing the multiple environments affecting an org.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: Competitive intelligence is a systematic and continuous process of gathering, analyzing and managing external info about a company’s competitors.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A method used to prioritize the relevance of stakeholders and their issues to the company is known as:

A

Stakeholder materiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 4 stages in business-stakeholder relationship?

A

Inactive, Reactive, Proactive and Interactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe every stage of the business-stakeholder relationship:

A

Inactive: companies that ignore stakeholder concerns
Reactive: companies act only when being forced to do so
Proactive: companies try to anticipate stakeholder concerns
Interactive: Companies actively engage stakeholders in an ongoing relationship of mutual respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stakeholder dialogue is…

A

The art of thinking together!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is corporate power?

A

Capability of corps to influence govt, economy and society based on their org. resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

“In the long run, those who do not use their power in a way that society considers responsible will tend to lose it” described the…

A

iron law of responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

corps should be held accountable for any actions affecting people, their communities and their environment is called…

A

Corporate social responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is corporate citizenship?

A

When the actions of a corp. take put their commitments to corp. social responsibility to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Enlightened self-interest is the view that holds that…

A

it’s in a company’s self-interest in the long run to provide value to its stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Social entrepreneurs are driven by

A

a core mission to create and sustain social value over economic value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Organizations founded by social entrepreneurs are called

A

social ventures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

B corporations focus on…

A

social responsibility and corp. citizenship by blending their social and environmental goals with financial goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T/F: B crops must meet the B-lab standards

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is B-Lab?

A

A nonprofit org. that assesses a corporation’s social and enviornmental performance standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Global corporate citizenship is an opportunity to:

A

create value for an org, gain a competitive advantage, and helps address some of the world’s biggest challenges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Explain Stage 1 of corporate citizenship:

A

Elementary stage: underdeveloped stage, managers aren’t interested in social issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Stage 2 of corp. citizenship: Engaged

A

Companie become aware of changing public expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Innovative stage 3:

A

Companies begin to understand reasons to engage with corp. citizenship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Transforming stage 5:

A

Companies have visionary leaders and are motivated by a higher sense of prupose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

stage 4: Intergrated

A

companies see the need to build initiatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is evaluated during a social auditing?

A

an org social, ethical and environmental performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When companies clearly and openly report their performance, this is called

A

Transparency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are ethical principles?

A

Guides to moral behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The conception of right and wrong conduct is known as

A

Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A belief that ethical right and wrong are defined by various periods of time in history, a societies traditions, specific circumstances or personal opinion is known as

A

Ethical relativism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F: Laws are the same as ethics.

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

List the sources of ethics:

A

Religion, family, education, community, media and institution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The application of ethical ideas to business behavior is known as

A

business ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what % of employees observe unethical behavior at work?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the MOST unethical practice?

A

Conflict of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Abusive behavior, safety & health violations and corruption are all examples of what?

A

unethical practices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

why should business strive to be ethical?

A

to enhance business performance, to comply with the law, to meet demands of business stakeholders, to prevent/minimize harm, and to promote personal morality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what did the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 do?

A

makes it illegal for retaliation against whistle blowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why do ethical problems typically occur in business?

A

personal gain/self-interest, competitive pressures on profit, conflicts of interest, and cross-cultural contradicitons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Do managers values impact the ethics of the workplace?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

List Manager’s Moral development stages:

A
  1. Childhood- punishment avoidant
  2. Adolescence- Reward seeking
  3. Early adulthood- Social groups
  4. Adulthood- Society at large
  5. Mature adulthood- Moral beliefs above/beyond social custom
  6. Mature adulthood- Universal principles: justice/fairness/human rights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the 4 methods of ethical reasoning?

A
  1. Virtues - focus on character traits that a good person should have
  2. Utility- Compares benefits and costs that can be produced by and action/decision
  3. Rights- emphasizing a person’s entitlement to something/treatment
  4. Justice- Is it fair?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A person’s perception of how morally severe situation is, is known as moral ________.

A

intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What factors contribute the moral intensity of an issue?

A

magnitude of consequences, the issue’s proximity to the people being affected/decision maker, social consensus, the probability the decision maker’s actions will lead to the consequences, and temporal immediacy (length of time that the consequences will occur from moment of decision)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The blend of ideas, customs, traditional practices, company values and shared meanings is a company’s ________ culture.

A

corporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Define ethical climate:

A

The unspoken understanding among employees of what is and isn’t acceptable behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the 3 components of ethical climate?

A
  1. Egoism (self-centered approach)
  2. Benevolence (concern for others)
  3. Principle (integrity approach)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Accounting/financial ethics:

A

tax evasion, companies required to audit by a certified professional accounting firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

marketing ethics

A

customer privacy, honesty and transparency in advertising, consumer health and safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The most complex and fast-changing areas of business ethics are

A

info-tech ethics - privacy, confidentiality, copyright protections, cyberbullying, A.I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Why should a company build ethical safeguards into its everyday routines?

A

to improve quality of its ethical performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Benefits of having ethical safeguards in businesses are:

A

increases employee’s willingness to seek ethical advice and sharpens their awareness of issues at work, increases employee’s sense of integrity, commitment to company and increases willingness to speak up when unethical issues arise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

3M’s Code of Conduct is:

A

to be good, honest, fair, loyal, accurate and respectful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A help/hot line is an example of

A

ethics reporting mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Org. Benefits to ethics training programs are:

A

-Reduces liability by 50%
-Increases reporting by 50%
-Improves trust in leadership 45%
-Improves company morale 40%
-improves mastery of ethics and compliance issues 39%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

List the least corrupt nations in order:

A
  • New Zealand
    -Denmark
    -Finland
    -Switzerland
    -Singapore
    -Sweden
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

List the most corrupt nations:

A

-Somalia
-South Sudan
-Syria
-Yemen
-Venezuela

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Govt. relationships with business can be either _____ or adversarial.

A

cooperative - mutual assistance in working toward common goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

T/F: Govt. can provide or limit opportunities for businesses and control business activities.

A

T

75
Q

A plan of action undertaken by the govt. to achieve some broad purpose affecting a substantial segment of nation’s citizens is called —

A

Public Policy

76
Q

List the types of economic public policy:

A
  1. Fiscal - patterns of govt. collecting and spending funds that are intended to stimulate the economy
  2. Trade - Rules that govern imports/exports to foreign countries
  3. Monetary - Policies affecting supply/demand/value of nation’s currency
  4. Taxation - The raising/lowering of taxes on business/individuals
  5. Industrial - Directing economic resource toward development of specific industries
77
Q

List types of social public policy:

A
  1. Healthcare
  2. Education
78
Q

List the reasons for regulations on businesses:

A
  1. Market failure
  2. Negative externalities/spill-over effect
  3. Natural monopolies
  4. Ethical arguments
79
Q

What do economic regulations aim to modify?

A

free market, forces of supply and demand

80
Q

What are antitrust laws?

A

Laws that prohibit unfair, anticompetitive practices by businesses

81
Q

The practice of selling below cost to drive rivals out of business is called

A

predatory pricing

82
Q

Social regulations ________ consumer and the environment and provide workers with safe and healthy working conditions.

A

protect

83
Q

T/F: A cost-benefit analysis helps the public understand what is at stake when new regulation is made.

A

T

84
Q

What is deregulation?

A

The removal or scaling down of regulatory activities of govt.

85
Q

The expansion of govt. regulation is called –

A

reregulation

86
Q

Corp. political strategy is the activities taken by orgs to acquire, develop and use power to obtain an ________

A

advantage

87
Q

When businesses seek to provide govt. policy makers with info to influence their actions, this is called using the _____ strategy.

A

info

88
Q

An example of info strategy is:

A

lobbying

89
Q

Finacial-incentives strategy is when:

A

businesses provide incentives to influence govt. policy makers to act in a certain way

90
Q

Economic leverage and political contributions are example of

A

financial-incentives strategies

91
Q

Constituency-building strategy is when businesses seek to gain support from other affected orgs to better influence govt policy makers to act in a way that ____ _____.

A

helps them

92
Q

What is the revolving door?

A

The circulation of individuals between business and govt.

93
Q

The business roundtable is an org. founded in 1972 of chief executive CEOs of what?

A

leading corporations

94
Q

Public Action Committees (PACs) are independently incorporated orgs that can solicit contributions and channel those funds to ________ seeking public office.

A

candidates

95
Q

Super PACs are organizations that raise/spend money focusing on political issues but _____ _____ _____ ______ w/any political party.

A

are not directly affiliated

96
Q

Political campaign groups that are not affiliated with any parties or individuals are called:

A

tax-exempt orgs

97
Q

what are stakeholder coalitions?

A

the mobilization of employees, stockholders, customers and local community to support their political agenda

98
Q

A business uses _______ ________ when it threatens to leave a city/country unless a desired political action is taken.

A

economic leverage

99
Q

PR is a political tool used by companies to promote their viewpoint through the ____.

A

media

100
Q

T/F: Trade associations are coalitions of companies in different industries to coordinate their campaigns/economic-pollical power t0 further their agenda.

A

F, companies in related/similar fields

101
Q

The world’s stocks of natural assets, including its geology, soil, air, water and all living things is known as ______ capital.

A

natural

102
Q

There ate 2 types of natural capital: ______ and ______ resources.

A

renewable and nonrenewable

103
Q

The following are all renewable resources except: Trees, oil, water, fish.

A

oil

104
Q

Give an example of a nonrenewable resource:

A

coal

105
Q

Development that meets the needs of the present w/o compromising the ability of future gens to meet their own needs is called ________ _________.

A

Sustainable development

106
Q

The amount of land and water an individual/group need to produce the resources it consumes and to absorb its wastes is called the ecological __________.

A

footprint

107
Q

Each person on average has an ecological footprint of _____ acres.

A

7.1

108
Q

T/F: Only 4.2 acres of earth are biological productive areas.

A

T

109
Q

T/F: Population growth does not directly effects climate change.

A

F, it does.

110
Q

The stratospheric ozone is caused by what?

A

Urbanization

111
Q

what are the 4 socio-economic trends that have had the greatest impact on the environment?

A
  1. population growth
  2. Urbanization
  3. Energy usage
  4. GDP growth
112
Q

Densley populated areas are the most –

A

polluted

113
Q

Fossil fuels account for about ___% of energy sources in U.S.A causing long-term harm to the planet.

A

80%

114
Q

List the potential impacts of GDP growth:

A
  • increased pollution through manufacturing and consumption
    -rise in consumption of nonrenewable resources
  • degradation of natural habitats due to infrastructure expansion
115
Q

Define Climate change:

A

the change in earth’s climate caused by increasing concentrations of carbon dioxide + other pollutants produced by humanity

116
Q

List the leading contributors to climate change:

A
  • oil
  • natural gas
  • coal
  • black carbon
    -deforestation
117
Q

What is Black carbon emissions?

A

The smoke created by diesel engines, wildfires, wood, charcoal burning, etc.

118
Q

Livestock is responsible for ___% of greenhouse gases.

A

15%

119
Q

T/F: Oil and gas wells emit more methane that any other single source.

A

T

120
Q

What is the most important international treaty on global warming?

A

Convention on climate change 1992

121
Q

What did the Kyoto Protocol set limits on?

A

on the concentration of greenhouse gases emitted into the atmosphere

122
Q

the 2015 Paris Agreement aimed to limit the rise in the average global temperature to below ___ above preindustrial levels.

A

2degrees Celsius

123
Q

Ozone in the stratosphere is critical to life on earth by absorbing dangerous ultraviolet light from the sun. but the challenge is

A

ozone depletion

124
Q

What is the major reason for decline in biodiversity?

A

the destruction of rainforests

125
Q

The collecting of info on the lifelong environmental impact of a product is known as

A

lifecycle analysis LCA

126
Q

What is the circular economy?

A

A production system that is regenerative by design

127
Q

When an organization produces net zero emissions of greenhouse gases it’s known as

A

carbon neutrality

128
Q

Reasons why managing for sustainability is important:

A
  • accelerating climate change
  • pressures on h20 and land resources
  • declining biodiversity
129
Q

What are cap-and-trade programs?

A

provide companies with a financial incentive to cut pollution below the caps.

130
Q

Repercussions of air pollution:

A
  • degradation of infrastructure
  • reduction in crop yields
  • mars beauty of natural landscape
  • harms health of humans/animals
131
Q

Major law governing air pollution, Clean Air Act 1970 did what?

A

emphasized restrictions on acid-rain causing chemicals

132
Q

Main U.S. law governing water pollution: Water pollution control act/clean water act aims to

A

restore/maintain the integrity of all surface water in the U.S.A

133
Q

Major law governing the clean-up of hazardous waste sites: Comprehensive Enviornmental Response, compensation and liability act 1980:

A

established a fund, supported by a tax on petroleum and chemical companies that were presumed to have created a disproportionate share of toxic wastes

134
Q

Alternative policy approaches are:

A

command & control regulation in which govt. command businesses to comply with certain standards

135
Q

Market based mechanisms are an alternative policy approach in which:

A

the market controls what companies must do

136
Q

tactic inwhich the govt. encourages companies to pollute less by publishing info about the quality of pollutants individual companies emit each year it’s called

A

informative disclosure

137
Q

Civil and criminal enforcement is when the government _____ bad behavior rather than good

A

taxes

138
Q

who manages an organization’s sustainability activities and performance?

A

the chief sustainability officer

139
Q

List 2 sustainability business practices:

A
  1. Enviornmental audit reporting
  2. environmental partnerships
140
Q

The advantages of business sustainability are:

A
  • cost savings
  • brand differentiation
  • tech innovation
  • reduction in regulatory, liability and climate change risk
  • strategic planning
141
Q

T/F: Tech is the primary cause of change in society.

A

T

142
Q

The most visible and widely used tech innovation is the _____.

A

internet

143
Q

which country is the leading in internet use?

A

China

144
Q

List unwanted tech threats:

A
  • spam
  • phishing: practice of stealing consumer info through credentials
145
Q

Define the digital divide:

A

The gap between those who have access to the internet and those who do not

146
Q

Commerce conducted via mobile device/cell phones is called:

A

M-commerce

147
Q

Ethical challenges involving tech:

A
  • loss of privacy
  • free speech issues
148
Q

List the rights of consumers:

A
  • to be informed
    -to safety
  • to choose
  • to be heard
  • to privacy
149
Q

4 methods of protecting consumers are:

A
  1. consumerism - consumers protect themselves
  2. Law/courts: people sue
  3. Govt. regulation: laws on safety/privacy of consumers
  4. Industry self-interest: business and industries protect their consumers through product recall, quality programs, etc.
150
Q

what is behavioral advertising?

A

Advertising that’s targeted to specific customers, based on their observed online behavior.

151
Q

What is the difference between product liability and strict liability?

A

In product liability, the firm is responsible for injuries caused by something it made/sold. In strict liability, responsibility lies on the manufacturer

152
Q

Mediation is a voluntary process in which…

A

a third party is used to setle disputes

153
Q

The use of an impartial individual to hear/decide a case outside of the judicial system is called

A

arbitration

154
Q

The first significant reform of product liability laws was known as the …

A

class action fairness act 2005

155
Q

Voluntary industry codes of conduct lay out how industries will ___________________________

A

treat their consumers/customers

156
Q

The consumer affairs officer typically manages a complex network of

A

contracts w/customers

157
Q

Major rights of employees are:

A
  • to organize & bargain collectively
  • to a safe and healthy workplace
  • to due process on the job
  • to fair and decent wages
  • to privacy
  • to “blow the whistle” & free speech
158
Q

The proposed right to organize act 2021, strengthened enforcement of current fair labor laws &

A

makes it easier to unionize

159
Q

Blow the whistle is when

A

an employee discloses alleged org misconduct to the media or a govt. agency

160
Q

list the 3 whistle-blowing laws:

A
  • U.S. false claims act 1986
  • sarbnes-oxley act 2002
    -dodd frank 2010
161
Q

define diveristy:

A

The variation in the important human characteristics that distinguish people from each other.

162
Q

Primary dimensions of diversity are:

A

-age
-ethnicity
-race
-mental/physical abilities
- sexual orientation
-gender

163
Q

secondary dimensions of diversity are:

A

-communication style
-ways of thinking Interacting
-family status
-first language

164
Q

The proportion of people who are actively working or seeking work is known as

A

labor force participation rate

165
Q

Occupation segregation is known as

A

the inequitable concentration of a group in a certain job category

166
Q

The invisible barrier that exists in reaching upward mobility is called the glass _________.

A

ceiling

167
Q

what are reason for the glass ceiling?

A
  • lack of commitment to diversity
  • staff v. line positions
  • old boy’s network
    too little mgmt. accountability
168
Q

the equal employment opportunity prohibits discrimination based on what?

A

race, age, color, religion, sex, national origin, physical or mental disabilities

169
Q

Affirmative action reduces job discrimination by ….

A

encouraging businesses to take positive steps towards discriminating employment practices

170
Q

What is sexual harrassment?

A

when an employee, man or women, experiences repeated, unwanted sexual attention

171
Q

Racial harassment is when an employee experiences ethnic slurs, _______ ______, or other verbal/physical harassment.

A

derogatory slurs

172
Q

A diversity council is a group of managers and employees responsible for…

A

developing and implementing specific action plans to meet an organizations diversity goals.

173
Q

who are suppliers?

A

organizations that provide goods and services to other organizations.

174
Q

Organizations hired to manufacture products for or provide a service DIRECTLY to a company are ______________________________.

A

Tier-1-supplier, also known as contractors.

175
Q

Organizations hired to manufacture products for or services to contractors are known as _____________________.

A

Tier-2-suplliers aka SUBcontractors.

176
Q

The Mutiple steps involved in the movement of a product/service from the most distant supplier to the customer is called the

A

supply chain

177
Q

List the 3 global supply chain issues:

A
  1. Social issues - wages, working conditions, health & safety in factories
  2. Ethical issues - child labor, human trafficking/forced labor, sourcing minerals from conflict zones, Human rights violations
  3. Enviornmental issues - climate change contributions, air pollutants, environmental impact of transfer of good/service over seas
178
Q

Supply chain transparency is when a company…

A

fully discloses what happens in its supply chain to its stakeholders

179
Q

What is private regulation?

A

When non-governmental institutions govern, enable and constrain economic activities

180
Q

A supply chain audit ..

A

monitors a supplier’s performance to determine if it complies with the relevant code of conduct

181
Q

drawbacks of supply chain auditing:

A
  • expensive
  • time consuming
  • not always random so companies can fake conditions
  • not always reliable
182
Q

List the 2 alternatives to auditing;

A
  1. crow-sourced auditing- gathers info about conditions from employees through their phones
  2. supply chain audits- companies working together to audit major suppliers and share results
183
Q

when an audit reveals a gap in supply chain companies can do the following:

A
  • Integrate supplier score cards
  • training
  • joint problem solving
  • invest into equipment and infrastructure