All Chapters Flashcards
The molecule that can be directly used by intramuscular contractile proteins for muscle contraction is _________
a.) Palmitate
b.) Phosphocreatine
c.) Adenosine triphosphate
d.) Pyruvate
c.) Adenosine triphosphate
True or False: The process whereby amino acids are oxidized during prolonged exercise is worsened if the athlete is in a carbohydrate-depleted state.
True
According to the scientific studies in the chapter, consuming a carbohydrate-laden beverage during exercise has been shown to improve _______________ performance?
a.) Endurance exercise
b.) Resistance exercise
c.) Endurance and resistance exercise
c.) Endurance and resistance exercise
What is the final product(s) of glycolysis?
a.) Pyruvate
b.) 2 molecules of Pyruvate
c.) 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH, 4 ATP
a.) Pyruvate
What energy system(s) are used during the transition from rest to exercise?
a.) Phosphagen System
b.) Phosphagen and Glycolytic System
c.) Oxidative Phosphorylation
d.) all of the above
b.) Phosphagen and Glycolytic System
True or False: Guanosine triphosphate, rather than adenosine triphosphate (ATP), is produced during the citric acid cycle.
True
What is the process of obtaining Acetyl-CoA molecules from fatty acid molecules called?
a.) Beta oxidation
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) Glucose-Alanine cycle
a.) Beta oxidation
The process whereby the body metabolizes food substrates or stored fuel to produce ATP is known as which of the following?
a.) Bioenergetics
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) Cori cycle
a.) Bioenergetics
Athletes who, due to genetics, possess more Type II muscle fibers than Type I muscle fibers will have an inherent advantage over another athlete who possess more Type I muscle fibers in activities where which of the following energy systems are dominant?
a.) electron transport chain
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) ATP-Pcr
c.) ATP-Pcr
Where does glycolysis occur in the cell?
a.) nucleus
b.) sacroplasm
c.) mitochondria
b.) sacroplasm
Which of the following is another name for the phosphagen system?
a.) The ATP-PCr System
b.) Glycolysis
c.) Aerobic Metabolism
a.) The ATP-PCr System
A track and field athlete who competes in a long jump event heavily relies on which energy system when competing?
a.) Glycolysis
b.) ATP-PCr
c.) Aerobic Metabolism
b.) ATP-PCr
Which of the following describes blood lactate being absorbed by the liver as it accumulates during exercise and turns back into glucose?
a.) Glycolysis
b.) Lactate threshold
c.) Cori cycle
c.) Cori cycle
Rank the energy systems from largest ATP resynthesis capacity to smallest ATP resynthesis capacity:
a.) oxidative phosphorylation > glycolysis > phosphagen system
b.) oxidative phosphorylation > phosphagen system > glycolysis
c.) phosphagen system > glycolysis > oxidative phosphorylation
a.) oxidative phosphorylation > glycolysis > phosphagen system
During low intensity exercise, blood glucose is used to carry out glycolysis in a muscle cell more than in stored muscle glycogen. How many net ATP are re-synthesized in the sarcoplasm as a result of glycolysis when one molecule of glucose from blood glucose is used as a substrate?
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
a.) 2
The onset of blood lactate accumulation is said to occur when blood lactate concentrations reach which of the following?
a.) 2mM
b.) 4mM
c.) 8mM
b.) 4mM
Glycolysis is a 10-step process that results in either 2 or 3 net ATP. In order to have glucose for glycolysis to occur, glucose is received in the cytoplasm from either the blood or muscle cells (intramuscular glycogen). Which source of glucose results in 3 net ATP produced?
a.) muscle cells
b.) blood
c.) both can produce 3 net ATP, it depends on the amount of time
a.) muscle cells
Cardiac afterload on the left ventricle is largely determined by…
a.) the end systolic volume of the left ventricle
b.) the aortic pressure
c.) the pulmonary arterial pressure
d.) the end diastolic volume of the left ventricle
b.) the aortic pressure
Identify the equation for determining oxygen consumption: Q = VO2 / (a-v)O2 difference
a.) Fick equation
b.) Pollock’s equation
c.) Frank-Starling equation
d.) Poiseulle’s equation
a.) Fick equation
A RHR of less than 60bpm is called…
a.) hypotension
b.) bradycardia
c.) tachycardia
d.) hypocardia
b.) bradycardia
What is the single best measure of aerobic fitness and cardiorespiratory endurance?
VO2 max
What is another name for Type I muscle fibers?
Slow-twitch muscle fibers
What is another name for Type II muscle fibers?
fast-twitch muscle fibers
What is systolic blood pressure?
arterial pressure when the heart is contracting
What is diastolic blood pressure?
arterial pressure when the heart is resting
The exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissues is a major function of the…
a.) arterioles
b.) venules
c.) capillaries
d.) lymphatics
c.) capillaries
At the onset of exercise, the primary drive to increase pulmonary ventilation is due to…
a.) feedback from peripheral chemoreceptors
b.) feedback from central chemoreceptors
c.) the activity of higher brain centers
d.) the respiratory control centers in the pons and medulla oblongata
c.) the activity of higher brain centers
The right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve during exercise is caused by…
a.) higher blood temperature
b.) higher blood pH
c.) hypoxia
d.) hypoglycemia
a.) higher blood temperature
True or False: The pulmonary system may limit VO2 max only in elite endurance athletes.
False
During moderate and high intensity exercise, Type II muscle fibers will undergo substantial glycolysis and release lactate into the blood as a result. Which term describes the ability for neighboring Type I muscle fibers to consume the lactate and convert it back to pyruvate and then undergo aerobic metabolism?
a.) lactate threshold
b.) onset of blood lactate accumulation
c.) lactate shuttle hypothesis
c.) lactate shuttle hypothesis
True or False: an increase in alveolar ventilation serves to lower arterial PCO2 and increase blood pH.
True
Increasing the end-diastolic volume of the left ventricle places a stretch on the cardiac muscles and places the sarcomeres within these cells in a position with more overlap between their actin and myosin, thus allowing for greater force with the subsequent left ventricle contraction. This phenomenon is known as:
a.) the Fick principle
b.) the Gellish mechanism
c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism
c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism
Imagine an Olympic track athlete competing in the 800m race at their highest intensity. What is the dominant substrate used in glycolysis during this race?
a.) Glucose
b.) Protein
c.) Glycogen
c.) Glycogen
Which of the following statements concerning delayed onset muscle soreness is correct?
a.) muscle soreness is always greater following high velocity exercises vs low velocity exercises
b.) muscle soreness is highly correlated with the degree of lactate accumulation during exercise
c.) muscle soreness is greatest following high force, eccentric contractions
d.) muscle soreness is often greater in women because of their greater percentage of fast-twitch fibers
e.) none of the above
c.) muscle soreness is greatest following high force, eccentric contractions
_____________ are proprioceptors located in tendons that have an inhibitory influence on force production.
a.) Pacinian corpuscles
b.) Golgi tendon organs
c.) Mechanoreceptors
d.) Muscle spindles
e.) Renshaw cells
b.) Golgi tendon organs
Calcium activates contraction in skeletal muscles by binding to ____________. In turn, a shift occurs in ____________, causing binding sites on actin to be exposed to myosin.
a.) acetylcholine, M-line
b.) sarcomeres, troponin
c.) troponin, tropomyosin
d.) tropomyosin, troponin
c.) troponin, tropomyosin
Motor units are recruited in an orderly fashion (low-threshold/Type I muscle fibers > high-threshold/Type II muscle fibers) according to the ______________.
a.) All-or-none law
b.) De Luca firing rate theory
c.) Size Principle
d.) Sliding filament theory
c.) Size Principle
Regarding motors units…
a.) a motor unit consists of a single muscle and all of the somas that innervate it.
b.) a motor unit is defined as a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.
c.) a large motor unit provides finer control of muscles than a smaller motor unit
d.) less motor units are active during sprinting than walking
b.) a motor unit is defined as a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.
The electromechanical delay corresponds to…
a.) the very rapid increase in force that occurs during a muscle contraction
b.) the time delay between calcium binding to troponin and the binding of actin and myosin
c.) the time duration between the onset of muscle force increasing (1st) and the onset of muscle’s electrical activity (2nd)
d.) the time duration between the onset of the muscle’s electrical activity (1st) and the onset of muscle force increase (2nd)
d.) the time duration between the onset of the muscle’s electrical activity (1st) and the onset of muscle force increase (2nd)
Where is an action potential generated?
a.) cell body
b.) dendrites
c.) myelin
d.) axon hillock
d.) axon hillock
Which of the three major ions responsible for creating the electrical gradient across a cell membrane has the highest concentration intercellular at rest?
a.) Potassium
b.) Sodium
c.) Chloride
a.) Potassium
What are the layers of a plasma membrane that typically cover axons?
a.) myelin
b.) Schwann cells
c.) Nodes of Ranvier
d.) oligodendrocytes
a.) myelin
In the nervous system, action potential propagation is _______ in myelinated axons, because of ______________.
a.) slower; dendrite conduction
b.) faster; dendrite conduction
c.) slower; saltatory conduction
d.) faster; saltatory conduction
d.) faster; saltatory conduction
True or False: muscle fibers within a motor unit contain similar metabolic, regulatory and contractile proteins.
True
Which of the following is a common utility of EMG?
a.) measuring power output
b.) measuring force output
c.) measuring activation time
c.) measuring activation time
True or False: kinesthesia involves your sense of body position.
False
Which of the following areas of a sarcomere will decrease in size during a concentric skeletal muscle contraction?
a.) A-band
b.) M-line
c.) I-band
c.) I-band
When a skeletal muscle cell is activated, the muscle action potential travels down which of the following?
a.) sarcomeres
b.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
c.) T-tubules
c.) T-tubules
A steady supply of ATP to the myosin heads of a sarcomere is needed to maintain muscle contractions when muscle is stimulated by its motor neuron. The energy liberated during ATP hydrolysis when the phosphate bond is broken on ATP to form ADP and Pi is used for which of the following?
a.) to detach the myosin head from the actin following the power stroke
b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin
c.) to change the position of the myosin head after its attachment to actin
b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin
An action potential in a neuron occurs due to depolarization of the axon, which causes voltage gated Na+ to open. Once the cell is depolarized, K+ channels open, so that this ion can leave the cell. During this time, the membrane potential decreases below resting levels in a process known as ________________?
a.) hypopolarization
b.) saltatory conduction
c.) hyperpolarization
c.) hyperpolarization
Where is calcium stored in a muscle cell when it isn’t contracting?
a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
b.) neuromuscular junction
c.) T-tubule
a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
Collagen filaments, titin and tendons make up what portion of the passive length-tension relationship of a muscle?
a.) series elastic component
b.) hyper elastic component
c.) parallel elastic component
a.) series elastic component
Which muscle contraction is defined as a muscle shortening under tension?
concentric muscle action
Which muscle contraction is defined as a muscle lengthening under tension?
Eccentric muscle action
Which of the following layers of intramuscular fascia bundles fibers together into groups?
a.) Epimysium
b.) Perimysium
c.) Endomysium
d.) Plasmalemma
b.) Perimysium
What type of muscle action would be evident when the sum of muscular torque exceeds the sum of resistive torque?
a.) concentric
b.) eccentric
c.) isometric
d.) isokinetic
a.) concentric
What type of muscle action would be evident when landing from a jump?
a.) concentric
b.) eccentric
c.) isometric
d.) isokinetic
b.) eccentric
In addition to muscle force, what other factor determines the amount of rotary torque about a joint?
a.) muscle cross-sectional area
b.) muscle volume
c.) limb length
d.) perpendicular distance from the tendon insertion to the joint action
d.) perpendicular distance from the tendon insertion to the joint action
Why would the low bar position during a back squat elicit greater activity of the hip extensors vs a front barbell squat?
a.) greater torque at the knee joint vs the hip joint
b.) greater torque at the hip joint vs the knee joint
c.) greater moment arm between the resistance and the hip joint
d.) A and C
d.) A and C
Which of the following are considered kinematic variables?
a.) displacement
b.) velocity
c.) acceleration
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
Which of the following training characteristics is most associated with the Rate of Force Development?
a.) strength
b.) hypertrophy
c.) power
d.) localized muscular endurance
c.) power
With power training, what type of shift should be evident in the force-velocity curve?
a.) upward and to the left
b.) upward and to the right
c.) downward and to the left
d.) downward and to the right
b.) upward and to the right
With power training, what type of shift should be evident in the force-time curve?
a.) upward and to the left
b.) upward and to the right
c.) downward and to the left
d.) downward and to the right
a.) upward and to the left
Which of the following is the mathematical expression of Newton’s Second Law of Motion?
a.) net force = mass x acceleration
b.) impulse = net force x time
c.) momentum = mass x velocity
d.) work = net force x displacement
a.) net force = mass x acceleration
When working the hamstrings to extend the hip, the opposing joint of the knee has a limited range of motion. This is an example of which biomechanical factor?
a.) torque production
b.) strain energy
c.) amortization
d.) active insufficiency
d.) active insufficiency
____________ is where the muscle force and resistance are applied on the same side, but the muscle force is applied closer to the lever axis and resistance is applied further from the lever axis.
a.) first class lever arrangement
b.) second class lever arrangement
c.) third class lever arrangement
c.) third class lever arrangement
____________ is where the muscle force and resistance are applied on the same side, but the muscle force is applied further from the lever axis and resistance is applied closer to the lever axis.
a.) first class lever arrangement
b.) second class lever arrangement
c.) third class lever arrangement
b.) second class lever arrangement
Concentric muscle actions have a _____________ relationship between joint rotational velocity and the amount of torque around a joint.
a.) inverse
b.) direct
c.) unknown
a.) inverse
The perpendicular distance between the line of force and the axis defines what?
a.) moment arm
b.) torque
c.) fulcrum
a.) moment arm
Which of the following statistics will tell a strength and conditioning coach about the reliability of a particular measurement?
a.) minimal difference
b.) correlation coefficient
c.) coefficient of variation
c.) coefficient of variation
Which of the following areas of a sarcomere will maintain its length during a muscle contraction?
a.) A-band
b.) H-band
c.) I-band
a.) A-band
Which of the following energy systems yields the most ATP when carbohydrate is used as the substrate?
a.) glycolysis
b.) ATP-PCr system
c.) aerobic metabolism
c.) aerobic metabolism
The eccentric phase of resistance training is often referred to as a “negative” because which of the following variables would return a negative value if calculated during this phase?
a.) work
b.) force
c.) energy
a.) work
The area under the force-time curve represents which of the following?
a.) momentum
b.) power
c.) impulse
c.) impulse
Steroid hormones are all derived from…
a.) cholesterol
b.) amino acids
c.) proteins
d.) vitamins
a.) cholesterol
Which androgen is most abundant in females?
a.) testosterone
b.) progesterone
c.) estrogen
d.) DHEA
d.) DHEA
Steroid hormones affect how the cells function primarily by:
a.) activating or deactivating enzymes through phosphorylation
b.) turning on or off the transcription or expression of genes
c.) altering the movement of ions into or out of the cell
d.) activating second messenger systems
b.) turning on or off the transcription or expression of genes
When are cortisol levels generally the highest?
a.) after waking in the morning
b.) at mid-day
c.) in the evening
d.) none of the above - they are fairly constant throughout the day
a.) after waking in the morning
Growth Hormone does NOT promote…
a.) release of insulin-like growth factor from the liver
b.) strengthened tendons and ligaments
c.) lipid storage in adipocytes
d.) red blood cell production
c.) lipid storage in adipocytes
While the effect of IGF-1 on skeletal muscle hypertrophy is still unclear, it seems that one particular source of IGF-1 is most likely to elicit whatever effect the hormone will have on muscle growth. What tissue produces the IGF-1 that is the most likely candidate for supporting skeletal muscle growth?
a.) liver
b.) muscle
c.) adipose tissue
a.) liver
True or False: the rise in Growth Hormone that accompanies moderate intensity resistance exercise plays a significant role in the hypertrophy response to that exercise.
False
The world record for the women’s 100m sprint is 10.49sec. A female sprinter who set a goal of completing the 100m dash in 10.6sec or less is creating which of the following?
a.) a performance objective
b.) a determinant of performance
c.) a key performance indicator
a.) a performance objective
Which of the following is often disregarded when creating skill-based key performance indicators?
a.) outcome of the skill
b.) perceptual-cognitive aspects of the skill
c.) physiological aspects of the skill
b.) perceptual-cognitive aspects of the skill
Which muscle fiber type has the highest power output capabilities when compared to the other types?
a.) Type IIa
b.) Type I
c.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIx
What happens to resting cardiac output following chronic aerobic exercise training?
a.) it remains basically the same as it was before training
b.) it increases
c.) it decreases
a.) it remains basically the same as it was before training
Which tool would be used to measure the velocity of a barbell during the execution of a back squat exercise?
a.) IMU
b.) Force platform
c.) AMS
d.) GPS
a.) IMU
Steroid hormones exert their effect by…
a.) activating adenylate cyclase
b.) blocking the effect of cyclic AMP
c.) causing an inflammation response
d.) altering the activity of DNA
d.) altering the activity of DNA
Which of the following is a hormone that is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
a.) cortisol
b.) angiotensin II
c.) aldosterone
d.) epinephrine
d.) epinephrine
A strength and conditioning coach is MOST likely to utilize which of the following categories of Key Performance Indicators?
a.) Skill-based KPIs
b.) Tactical-based KPIs
c.) Psychologically Based KPIs
d.) Physiologically Based KPIs
d.) Physiologically Based KPIs
Which enzyme associated with the RAAS system has been shown to impart different exercise performance related characteristics to an individual, depending on which allele for the enzyme they carry?
a.) ACE
b.) Aldosterone
c.) Angiotensin II
a.) ACE
Type IIx Fibers…
a.) are very energy efficient
b.) exhibit a high level of fatigue resistance
c.) have high specific tension
c.) have high specific tension
An SCC performs a Vertical Jump Test on an athlete 3 days in a row. The data derived for the tests were:
Day 1 - 30 inches
Day 2 - 35 inches
Day 3. - 25 inches
From this data, you can determine that the test had …
a.) good reliability
b.) good validity
c.) poor reliability
d.) poor validity
c.) poor reliability
An SCC implements a shoulder screening assessment on her team of 30 volleyball players. 10 screen positive for increased probability of injury and 20 negative. Of the 10 positive, only 1 sustains a shoulder injury during the season; 5 of the 20 negative sustain shoulder injuries. What is the specificity of the test?
a.) 0.25
b.) 0.75
c.) 0.97
d.) 0.33
b.) 0.75
True of False: one advantage of an isometric mid-thigh pull test is that the SCC can obtain a strength (force) and rate of force development measurement from the same assessment.
True
For a female soccer athlete, which of these tests would be the most appropriate to determine metabolic capacity prior to the beginning of training camp?
a.) V02 Max Test on a Cycle
b.) 3-mile Timed Run
c.) 30-15 Intermittent Fitness Test
d.) 110’s Test
c.) 30-15 Intermittent Fitness Test
True or False: vertical jump height is highly correlated with short distance sprint accelerations (10 yards)
False
______________ is the degree to which a test is associated with another measure.
a.) predictive validity
b.) face validity
c.) criterion validity
d.) concurrent validity
c.) criterion validity
_______________ is a procedure that requires the rater to measure individuals against each other, instead of against an absolute scale.
a.) T-scores
b.) rankings
c.) Z-scores
d.) percentiles
b.) rankings
Which running test is usually done on a football field with 2 cones, 16 times at 15-20 seconds per repetition, with a 45-second recovery?
a.) 300-yard shuttle
b.) 110’s test
c.) 30-15 intermittent fitness test
d.) full court run
b.) 110’s test
Which test is correctly matched to the appropriate sport?
a.) beep test or 30-15 intermittent fitness test; soccer
b.) 110’s test; baseball
c.) 3 point stance 60 yards run; basketball
d.) 1 mile timed run; football
a.) beep test or 30-15 intermittent fitness test; soccer
______________ is the probability of a test to correctly identify an injury among all those who were injured.
a.) sensitivity
b.) specificity
c.) validity
d.) reliability
a.) sensitivity
______________ is the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals unlikely to experience an injury.
a.) sensitivity
b.) specificity
c.) validity
d.) reliability
b.) specificity
Which of the following is categorized as a sprint repetition test?
a.) full court run x5 test
b.) 1.5 mile run test
c.) 30-15 intermittent fitness test
a.) full court run x5 test
You have decided to administer the following 3 assessments on your netball athlete today:
1.) 1RM Back Squat
2.) Broad Jump
3.) 300 yard Shuttle
Which of the following represents the most appropriate order for the assessments to be administered in?
a.) 1, 2, 3
b.) 2, 1, 3
c.) 3, 1, 2
b.) 2, 1, 3
What is the neurotransmitter involved in the excitation-contraction coupling process?
a.) acetylcholine
b.) serotonin
c.) dopamine
a.) acetylcholine
The most prominent buffer system in blood is…
a.) bicarbonate ions
b.) phosphates
c.) plasma proteins
a.) bicarbonate ions
The reciprocal of the sit and reach test is which of the following?
a.) toe touch test
b.) Thomas test
c.) deep squat test of the FMS
b.) Thomas test
What is the purpose of screening in athletics?
a.) to predict the performance level of an athlete
b.) to predict the likelihood of an injury occurring
c.) to predict the outcome of a competition
b.) to predict the likelihood of an injury occurring
Of the four metabolic factors of fatigue, three are associated with…
a.) phosphates inhibiting crossbridge cycling
b.) reduction of available ATP
c.) calcium impedence
d.) hydrogen ions
d.) hydrogen ions
During a training session, an athlete is able to perform 6 reps of the back squat exercise on the final set for the day before his/her technique breaks down on the 7th rep. The load used during this last set therefore represents what percentage of the athlete’s current 1RM for the back squat?
a.) 85%
b.) 97%
c.) 60%
a.) 85%
