All Chapters Flashcards
The molecule that can be directly used by intramuscular contractile proteins for muscle contraction is _________
a.) Palmitate
b.) Phosphocreatine
c.) Adenosine triphosphate
d.) Pyruvate
c.) Adenosine triphosphate
True or False: The process whereby amino acids are oxidized during prolonged exercise is worsened if the athlete is in a carbohydrate-depleted state.
True
According to the scientific studies in the chapter, consuming a carbohydrate-laden beverage during exercise has been shown to improve _______________ performance?
a.) Endurance exercise
b.) Resistance exercise
c.) Endurance and resistance exercise
c.) Endurance and resistance exercise
What is the final product(s) of glycolysis?
a.) Pyruvate
b.) 2 molecules of Pyruvate
c.) 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH, 4 ATP
a.) Pyruvate
What energy system(s) are used during the transition from rest to exercise?
a.) Phosphagen System
b.) Phosphagen and Glycolytic System
c.) Oxidative Phosphorylation
d.) all of the above
b.) Phosphagen and Glycolytic System
True or False: Guanosine triphosphate, rather than adenosine triphosphate (ATP), is produced during the citric acid cycle.
True
What is the process of obtaining Acetyl-CoA molecules from fatty acid molecules called?
a.) Beta oxidation
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) Glucose-Alanine cycle
a.) Beta oxidation
The process whereby the body metabolizes food substrates or stored fuel to produce ATP is known as which of the following?
a.) Bioenergetics
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) Cori cycle
a.) Bioenergetics
Athletes who, due to genetics, possess more Type II muscle fibers than Type I muscle fibers will have an inherent advantage over another athlete who possess more Type I muscle fibers in activities where which of the following energy systems are dominant?
a.) electron transport chain
b.) Krebs cycle
c.) ATP-Pcr
c.) ATP-Pcr
Where does glycolysis occur in the cell?
a.) nucleus
b.) sacroplasm
c.) mitochondria
b.) sacroplasm
Which of the following is another name for the phosphagen system?
a.) The ATP-PCr System
b.) Glycolysis
c.) Aerobic Metabolism
a.) The ATP-PCr System
A track and field athlete who competes in a long jump event heavily relies on which energy system when competing?
a.) Glycolysis
b.) ATP-PCr
c.) Aerobic Metabolism
b.) ATP-PCr
Which of the following describes blood lactate being absorbed by the liver as it accumulates during exercise and turns back into glucose?
a.) Glycolysis
b.) Lactate threshold
c.) Cori cycle
c.) Cori cycle
Rank the energy systems from largest ATP resynthesis capacity to smallest ATP resynthesis capacity:
a.) oxidative phosphorylation > glycolysis > phosphagen system
b.) oxidative phosphorylation > phosphagen system > glycolysis
c.) phosphagen system > glycolysis > oxidative phosphorylation
a.) oxidative phosphorylation > glycolysis > phosphagen system
During low intensity exercise, blood glucose is used to carry out glycolysis in a muscle cell more than in stored muscle glycogen. How many net ATP are re-synthesized in the sarcoplasm as a result of glycolysis when one molecule of glucose from blood glucose is used as a substrate?
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
a.) 2
The onset of blood lactate accumulation is said to occur when blood lactate concentrations reach which of the following?
a.) 2mM
b.) 4mM
c.) 8mM
b.) 4mM
Glycolysis is a 10-step process that results in either 2 or 3 net ATP. In order to have glucose for glycolysis to occur, glucose is received in the cytoplasm from either the blood or muscle cells (intramuscular glycogen). Which source of glucose results in 3 net ATP produced?
a.) muscle cells
b.) blood
c.) both can produce 3 net ATP, it depends on the amount of time
a.) muscle cells
Cardiac afterload on the left ventricle is largely determined by…
a.) the end systolic volume of the left ventricle
b.) the aortic pressure
c.) the pulmonary arterial pressure
d.) the end diastolic volume of the left ventricle
b.) the aortic pressure
Identify the equation for determining oxygen consumption: Q = VO2 / (a-v)O2 difference
a.) Fick equation
b.) Pollock’s equation
c.) Frank-Starling equation
d.) Poiseulle’s equation
a.) Fick equation
A RHR of less than 60bpm is called…
a.) hypotension
b.) bradycardia
c.) tachycardia
d.) hypocardia
b.) bradycardia
What is the single best measure of aerobic fitness and cardiorespiratory endurance?
VO2 max
What is another name for Type I muscle fibers?
Slow-twitch muscle fibers
What is another name for Type II muscle fibers?
fast-twitch muscle fibers
What is systolic blood pressure?
arterial pressure when the heart is contracting
What is diastolic blood pressure?
arterial pressure when the heart is resting
The exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and tissues is a major function of the…
a.) arterioles
b.) venules
c.) capillaries
d.) lymphatics
c.) capillaries
At the onset of exercise, the primary drive to increase pulmonary ventilation is due to…
a.) feedback from peripheral chemoreceptors
b.) feedback from central chemoreceptors
c.) the activity of higher brain centers
d.) the respiratory control centers in the pons and medulla oblongata
c.) the activity of higher brain centers
The right shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve during exercise is caused by…
a.) higher blood temperature
b.) higher blood pH
c.) hypoxia
d.) hypoglycemia
a.) higher blood temperature
True or False: The pulmonary system may limit VO2 max only in elite endurance athletes.
False
During moderate and high intensity exercise, Type II muscle fibers will undergo substantial glycolysis and release lactate into the blood as a result. Which term describes the ability for neighboring Type I muscle fibers to consume the lactate and convert it back to pyruvate and then undergo aerobic metabolism?
a.) lactate threshold
b.) onset of blood lactate accumulation
c.) lactate shuttle hypothesis
c.) lactate shuttle hypothesis
True or False: an increase in alveolar ventilation serves to lower arterial PCO2 and increase blood pH.
True
Increasing the end-diastolic volume of the left ventricle places a stretch on the cardiac muscles and places the sarcomeres within these cells in a position with more overlap between their actin and myosin, thus allowing for greater force with the subsequent left ventricle contraction. This phenomenon is known as:
a.) the Fick principle
b.) the Gellish mechanism
c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism
c.) the Frank-Starling mechanism
Imagine an Olympic track athlete competing in the 800m race at their highest intensity. What is the dominant substrate used in glycolysis during this race?
a.) Glucose
b.) Protein
c.) Glycogen
c.) Glycogen
Which of the following statements concerning delayed onset muscle soreness is correct?
a.) muscle soreness is always greater following high velocity exercises vs low velocity exercises
b.) muscle soreness is highly correlated with the degree of lactate accumulation during exercise
c.) muscle soreness is greatest following high force, eccentric contractions
d.) muscle soreness is often greater in women because of their greater percentage of fast-twitch fibers
e.) none of the above
c.) muscle soreness is greatest following high force, eccentric contractions
_____________ are proprioceptors located in tendons that have an inhibitory influence on force production.
a.) Pacinian corpuscles
b.) Golgi tendon organs
c.) Mechanoreceptors
d.) Muscle spindles
e.) Renshaw cells
b.) Golgi tendon organs
Calcium activates contraction in skeletal muscles by binding to ____________. In turn, a shift occurs in ____________, causing binding sites on actin to be exposed to myosin.
a.) acetylcholine, M-line
b.) sarcomeres, troponin
c.) troponin, tropomyosin
d.) tropomyosin, troponin
c.) troponin, tropomyosin
Motor units are recruited in an orderly fashion (low-threshold/Type I muscle fibers > high-threshold/Type II muscle fibers) according to the ______________.
a.) All-or-none law
b.) De Luca firing rate theory
c.) Size Principle
d.) Sliding filament theory
c.) Size Principle
Regarding motors units…
a.) a motor unit consists of a single muscle and all of the somas that innervate it.
b.) a motor unit is defined as a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.
c.) a large motor unit provides finer control of muscles than a smaller motor unit
d.) less motor units are active during sprinting than walking
b.) a motor unit is defined as a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.
The electromechanical delay corresponds to…
a.) the very rapid increase in force that occurs during a muscle contraction
b.) the time delay between calcium binding to troponin and the binding of actin and myosin
c.) the time duration between the onset of muscle force increasing (1st) and the onset of muscle’s electrical activity (2nd)
d.) the time duration between the onset of the muscle’s electrical activity (1st) and the onset of muscle force increase (2nd)
d.) the time duration between the onset of the muscle’s electrical activity (1st) and the onset of muscle force increase (2nd)
Where is an action potential generated?
a.) cell body
b.) dendrites
c.) myelin
d.) axon hillock
d.) axon hillock
Which of the three major ions responsible for creating the electrical gradient across a cell membrane has the highest concentration intercellular at rest?
a.) Potassium
b.) Sodium
c.) Chloride
a.) Potassium
What are the layers of a plasma membrane that typically cover axons?
a.) myelin
b.) Schwann cells
c.) Nodes of Ranvier
d.) oligodendrocytes
a.) myelin
In the nervous system, action potential propagation is _______ in myelinated axons, because of ______________.
a.) slower; dendrite conduction
b.) faster; dendrite conduction
c.) slower; saltatory conduction
d.) faster; saltatory conduction
d.) faster; saltatory conduction
True or False: muscle fibers within a motor unit contain similar metabolic, regulatory and contractile proteins.
True
Which of the following is a common utility of EMG?
a.) measuring power output
b.) measuring force output
c.) measuring activation time
c.) measuring activation time
True or False: kinesthesia involves your sense of body position.
False
Which of the following areas of a sarcomere will decrease in size during a concentric skeletal muscle contraction?
a.) A-band
b.) M-line
c.) I-band
c.) I-band
When a skeletal muscle cell is activated, the muscle action potential travels down which of the following?
a.) sarcomeres
b.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
c.) T-tubules
c.) T-tubules
A steady supply of ATP to the myosin heads of a sarcomere is needed to maintain muscle contractions when muscle is stimulated by its motor neuron. The energy liberated during ATP hydrolysis when the phosphate bond is broken on ATP to form ADP and Pi is used for which of the following?
a.) to detach the myosin head from the actin following the power stroke
b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin
c.) to change the position of the myosin head after its attachment to actin
b.) to change the position of the myosin head prior to its attachment to actin
An action potential in a neuron occurs due to depolarization of the axon, which causes voltage gated Na+ to open. Once the cell is depolarized, K+ channels open, so that this ion can leave the cell. During this time, the membrane potential decreases below resting levels in a process known as ________________?
a.) hypopolarization
b.) saltatory conduction
c.) hyperpolarization
c.) hyperpolarization
Where is calcium stored in a muscle cell when it isn’t contracting?
a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
b.) neuromuscular junction
c.) T-tubule
a.) sarcoplasmic reticulum
Collagen filaments, titin and tendons make up what portion of the passive length-tension relationship of a muscle?
a.) series elastic component
b.) hyper elastic component
c.) parallel elastic component
a.) series elastic component
Which muscle contraction is defined as a muscle shortening under tension?
concentric muscle action
Which muscle contraction is defined as a muscle lengthening under tension?
Eccentric muscle action
Which of the following layers of intramuscular fascia bundles fibers together into groups?
a.) Epimysium
b.) Perimysium
c.) Endomysium
d.) Plasmalemma
b.) Perimysium
What type of muscle action would be evident when the sum of muscular torque exceeds the sum of resistive torque?
a.) concentric
b.) eccentric
c.) isometric
d.) isokinetic
a.) concentric
What type of muscle action would be evident when landing from a jump?
a.) concentric
b.) eccentric
c.) isometric
d.) isokinetic
b.) eccentric
In addition to muscle force, what other factor determines the amount of rotary torque about a joint?
a.) muscle cross-sectional area
b.) muscle volume
c.) limb length
d.) perpendicular distance from the tendon insertion to the joint action
d.) perpendicular distance from the tendon insertion to the joint action
Why would the low bar position during a back squat elicit greater activity of the hip extensors vs a front barbell squat?
a.) greater torque at the knee joint vs the hip joint
b.) greater torque at the hip joint vs the knee joint
c.) greater moment arm between the resistance and the hip joint
d.) A and C
d.) A and C
Which of the following are considered kinematic variables?
a.) displacement
b.) velocity
c.) acceleration
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
Which of the following training characteristics is most associated with the Rate of Force Development?
a.) strength
b.) hypertrophy
c.) power
d.) localized muscular endurance
c.) power
With power training, what type of shift should be evident in the force-velocity curve?
a.) upward and to the left
b.) upward and to the right
c.) downward and to the left
d.) downward and to the right
b.) upward and to the right
With power training, what type of shift should be evident in the force-time curve?
a.) upward and to the left
b.) upward and to the right
c.) downward and to the left
d.) downward and to the right
a.) upward and to the left
Which of the following is the mathematical expression of Newton’s Second Law of Motion?
a.) net force = mass x acceleration
b.) impulse = net force x time
c.) momentum = mass x velocity
d.) work = net force x displacement
a.) net force = mass x acceleration
When working the hamstrings to extend the hip, the opposing joint of the knee has a limited range of motion. This is an example of which biomechanical factor?
a.) torque production
b.) strain energy
c.) amortization
d.) active insufficiency
d.) active insufficiency
____________ is where the muscle force and resistance are applied on the same side, but the muscle force is applied closer to the lever axis and resistance is applied further from the lever axis.
a.) first class lever arrangement
b.) second class lever arrangement
c.) third class lever arrangement
c.) third class lever arrangement
____________ is where the muscle force and resistance are applied on the same side, but the muscle force is applied further from the lever axis and resistance is applied closer to the lever axis.
a.) first class lever arrangement
b.) second class lever arrangement
c.) third class lever arrangement
b.) second class lever arrangement
Concentric muscle actions have a _____________ relationship between joint rotational velocity and the amount of torque around a joint.
a.) inverse
b.) direct
c.) unknown
a.) inverse
The perpendicular distance between the line of force and the axis defines what?
a.) moment arm
b.) torque
c.) fulcrum
a.) moment arm
Which of the following statistics will tell a strength and conditioning coach about the reliability of a particular measurement?
a.) minimal difference
b.) correlation coefficient
c.) coefficient of variation
c.) coefficient of variation
Which of the following areas of a sarcomere will maintain its length during a muscle contraction?
a.) A-band
b.) H-band
c.) I-band
a.) A-band
Which of the following energy systems yields the most ATP when carbohydrate is used as the substrate?
a.) glycolysis
b.) ATP-PCr system
c.) aerobic metabolism
c.) aerobic metabolism
The eccentric phase of resistance training is often referred to as a “negative” because which of the following variables would return a negative value if calculated during this phase?
a.) work
b.) force
c.) energy
a.) work
The area under the force-time curve represents which of the following?
a.) momentum
b.) power
c.) impulse
c.) impulse
Steroid hormones are all derived from…
a.) cholesterol
b.) amino acids
c.) proteins
d.) vitamins
a.) cholesterol
Which androgen is most abundant in females?
a.) testosterone
b.) progesterone
c.) estrogen
d.) DHEA
d.) DHEA
Steroid hormones affect how the cells function primarily by:
a.) activating or deactivating enzymes through phosphorylation
b.) turning on or off the transcription or expression of genes
c.) altering the movement of ions into or out of the cell
d.) activating second messenger systems
b.) turning on or off the transcription or expression of genes
When are cortisol levels generally the highest?
a.) after waking in the morning
b.) at mid-day
c.) in the evening
d.) none of the above - they are fairly constant throughout the day
a.) after waking in the morning
Growth Hormone does NOT promote…
a.) release of insulin-like growth factor from the liver
b.) strengthened tendons and ligaments
c.) lipid storage in adipocytes
d.) red blood cell production
c.) lipid storage in adipocytes
While the effect of IGF-1 on skeletal muscle hypertrophy is still unclear, it seems that one particular source of IGF-1 is most likely to elicit whatever effect the hormone will have on muscle growth. What tissue produces the IGF-1 that is the most likely candidate for supporting skeletal muscle growth?
a.) liver
b.) muscle
c.) adipose tissue
a.) liver
True or False: the rise in Growth Hormone that accompanies moderate intensity resistance exercise plays a significant role in the hypertrophy response to that exercise.
False
The world record for the women’s 100m sprint is 10.49sec. A female sprinter who set a goal of completing the 100m dash in 10.6sec or less is creating which of the following?
a.) a performance objective
b.) a determinant of performance
c.) a key performance indicator
a.) a performance objective
Which of the following is often disregarded when creating skill-based key performance indicators?
a.) outcome of the skill
b.) perceptual-cognitive aspects of the skill
c.) physiological aspects of the skill
b.) perceptual-cognitive aspects of the skill
Which muscle fiber type has the highest power output capabilities when compared to the other types?
a.) Type IIa
b.) Type I
c.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIx
What happens to resting cardiac output following chronic aerobic exercise training?
a.) it remains basically the same as it was before training
b.) it increases
c.) it decreases
a.) it remains basically the same as it was before training
Which tool would be used to measure the velocity of a barbell during the execution of a back squat exercise?
a.) IMU
b.) Force platform
c.) AMS
d.) GPS
a.) IMU
Steroid hormones exert their effect by…
a.) activating adenylate cyclase
b.) blocking the effect of cyclic AMP
c.) causing an inflammation response
d.) altering the activity of DNA
d.) altering the activity of DNA
Which of the following is a hormone that is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
a.) cortisol
b.) angiotensin II
c.) aldosterone
d.) epinephrine
d.) epinephrine
A strength and conditioning coach is MOST likely to utilize which of the following categories of Key Performance Indicators?
a.) Skill-based KPIs
b.) Tactical-based KPIs
c.) Psychologically Based KPIs
d.) Physiologically Based KPIs
d.) Physiologically Based KPIs
Which enzyme associated with the RAAS system has been shown to impart different exercise performance related characteristics to an individual, depending on which allele for the enzyme they carry?
a.) ACE
b.) Aldosterone
c.) Angiotensin II
a.) ACE
Type IIx Fibers…
a.) are very energy efficient
b.) exhibit a high level of fatigue resistance
c.) have high specific tension
c.) have high specific tension
An SCC performs a Vertical Jump Test on an athlete 3 days in a row. The data derived for the tests were:
Day 1 - 30 inches
Day 2 - 35 inches
Day 3. - 25 inches
From this data, you can determine that the test had …
a.) good reliability
b.) good validity
c.) poor reliability
d.) poor validity
c.) poor reliability
An SCC implements a shoulder screening assessment on her team of 30 volleyball players. 10 screen positive for increased probability of injury and 20 negative. Of the 10 positive, only 1 sustains a shoulder injury during the season; 5 of the 20 negative sustain shoulder injuries. What is the specificity of the test?
a.) 0.25
b.) 0.75
c.) 0.97
d.) 0.33
b.) 0.75
True of False: one advantage of an isometric mid-thigh pull test is that the SCC can obtain a strength (force) and rate of force development measurement from the same assessment.
True
For a female soccer athlete, which of these tests would be the most appropriate to determine metabolic capacity prior to the beginning of training camp?
a.) V02 Max Test on a Cycle
b.) 3-mile Timed Run
c.) 30-15 Intermittent Fitness Test
d.) 110’s Test
c.) 30-15 Intermittent Fitness Test
True or False: vertical jump height is highly correlated with short distance sprint accelerations (10 yards)
False
______________ is the degree to which a test is associated with another measure.
a.) predictive validity
b.) face validity
c.) criterion validity
d.) concurrent validity
c.) criterion validity
_______________ is a procedure that requires the rater to measure individuals against each other, instead of against an absolute scale.
a.) T-scores
b.) rankings
c.) Z-scores
d.) percentiles
b.) rankings
Which running test is usually done on a football field with 2 cones, 16 times at 15-20 seconds per repetition, with a 45-second recovery?
a.) 300-yard shuttle
b.) 110’s test
c.) 30-15 intermittent fitness test
d.) full court run
b.) 110’s test
Which test is correctly matched to the appropriate sport?
a.) beep test or 30-15 intermittent fitness test; soccer
b.) 110’s test; baseball
c.) 3 point stance 60 yards run; basketball
d.) 1 mile timed run; football
a.) beep test or 30-15 intermittent fitness test; soccer
______________ is the probability of a test to correctly identify an injury among all those who were injured.
a.) sensitivity
b.) specificity
c.) validity
d.) reliability
a.) sensitivity
______________ is the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals unlikely to experience an injury.
a.) sensitivity
b.) specificity
c.) validity
d.) reliability
b.) specificity
Which of the following is categorized as a sprint repetition test?
a.) full court run x5 test
b.) 1.5 mile run test
c.) 30-15 intermittent fitness test
a.) full court run x5 test
You have decided to administer the following 3 assessments on your netball athlete today:
1.) 1RM Back Squat
2.) Broad Jump
3.) 300 yard Shuttle
Which of the following represents the most appropriate order for the assessments to be administered in?
a.) 1, 2, 3
b.) 2, 1, 3
c.) 3, 1, 2
b.) 2, 1, 3
What is the neurotransmitter involved in the excitation-contraction coupling process?
a.) acetylcholine
b.) serotonin
c.) dopamine
a.) acetylcholine
The most prominent buffer system in blood is…
a.) bicarbonate ions
b.) phosphates
c.) plasma proteins
a.) bicarbonate ions
The reciprocal of the sit and reach test is which of the following?
a.) toe touch test
b.) Thomas test
c.) deep squat test of the FMS
b.) Thomas test
What is the purpose of screening in athletics?
a.) to predict the performance level of an athlete
b.) to predict the likelihood of an injury occurring
c.) to predict the outcome of a competition
b.) to predict the likelihood of an injury occurring
Of the four metabolic factors of fatigue, three are associated with…
a.) phosphates inhibiting crossbridge cycling
b.) reduction of available ATP
c.) calcium impedence
d.) hydrogen ions
d.) hydrogen ions
During a training session, an athlete is able to perform 6 reps of the back squat exercise on the final set for the day before his/her technique breaks down on the 7th rep. The load used during this last set therefore represents what percentage of the athlete’s current 1RM for the back squat?
a.) 85%
b.) 97%
c.) 60%
a.) 85%
Predictive and concurrent validity are different types of which of the following forms of validity?
a.) face validity
b.) performance validity
c.) criterion validity
c.) criterion validity
According to Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome, completing a training session involving loads that cause aspects of muscle physiology to deviate from homeostasis results in a transient reduction in performance followed by which of the following conditions if the body is allowed to adapt?
a.) involution
b.) supercompensation
c.) overreaching
b.) supercompensation
Which of the following athletes would you predict has the greatest lactate threshold?
a.) Olympic running sprinter
b.) Olympic marathon runner
c.) Olympic javelin thrower
b.) Olympic marathon runner
Which statement best defines the concept of periodization?
a.) The manipulation of training variables in a systematic and progressive manner to attain the optimum training response
b.) The manipulation of training variables randomly assigned to attain a training response
c.) The manipulation of training variables to induce supercompensation and peak performance for competition
d.) The manipulation of training variables in a progressive manner relative to training maturity
a.) The manipulation of training variables in a systematic and progressive manner to attain the optimum training response
Which of the following is NOT a sign of overtraining?
a.) decreased performance
b.) excessive soreness
c.) increased RHR
d.) elevated HR variability
d.) elevated HR variability
_____________ are movements performed with the athlete’s feet on the ground.
a.) open chain
b.) closed chain
b.) closed chain
_______________ is defined as when the athlete fails to recover from the training stimulus.
a.) accumulation phase
b.) exhaustion phase
c.) supercompensation
d.) resistance phase
b.) exhaustion phase
_______________ is defined as when the athlete adapts to the training stimulus and recovers.
a.) accumulation phase
b.) exhaustion phase
c.) supercompensation
d.) resistance phase
d.) resistance phase
______________ is defined as the training phase designed to develop long term qualities, such as work capacity and maximal strength.
a.) accumulation phase
b.) exhaustion phase
c.) supercompensation
d.) resistance phase
a.) accumulation phase
True or False: hypertrophy is an increase in the cross-sectional area of the muscle fibers.
True
Postactivation Potentiation (PAP) theory claims that the contractile history of a muscle influences the mechanical performance of subsequent muscle contractions. Which training category would PAP fall into?
a.) planned recovery
b.) cluster training
c.) conjugate training
d.) contrast training
d.) contrast training
If a strategy includes progressive increase in training intensity and a progressive reduction of training volume, it is considered a…
a.) linear strategy
b.) non-linear strategy
c.) weekly non-linear strategy
a.) linear strategy
____________ incorporates a systematic and sequential variation of methods to develop multiple physical qualities simultaneously, creating a cumulative, long-term positive training effect.
a.) cluster training
b.) conjugate method training
c.) contrast training
b.) conjugate method training
Strength and conditioning programs for advanced athletes should emphasize which of the following characteristics over the others?
a.) local muscular endurance
b.) rate of force development
c.) maximal strength
b.) rate of force development
What is the best (natural and legal) way to induce the production of erythropoietin?
a.) resistance training
b.) aerobically train at high altitudes above 3000m for a week
c.) HIIT
b.) aerobically train at high altitudes above 3000m for a week
Which of the following training variables primarily dictates the dominant energy system pathway used to complete an exercise?
a.) exercise frequency
b.) exercise intensity
c.) exercise order
b.) exercise intensity
Unloading weeks should reduce training intensity and volume by how much as compared to maximal training capacity?
a.) 60% training reduction
b.) 40% training reduction
c.) 80% training reduction
d.) 20% training reduction
a.) 60% training reduction
Which of the following is an appropriate progression from the double leg stability ball leg curl exercise?
a.) single leg bridge
b.) single leg RDL
c.) double leg bridge
a.) single leg bridge
Why is a tempo prescription of 1:3:X utilized?
a.) to improve rate of force development
b.) to reduce the effect of the stretch shortening cycle
c.) to improve starting-strength
d.) all of these
d.) all of these
Comparing an individual athlete’s physical capabilities to known benchmarks is best described as…
a.) gap analysis
b.) performance analysis
c.) limitation analysis
a.) gap analysis
Which of Newton’s laws of motion is demonstrated when a SCC measures the ground reaction force an athlete is subjected to when jumping on a force plate?
a.) Newton’s first law
b.) Newton’s second law
c.) Newton’s third law
c.) Newton’s third law
The oxidation of fatty acids is more prevalent in which types of fibers?
a.) Type I
b.) Type II
c.) they have the same amount
a.) Type I
What is the difference between absolute VO2 and relative VO2?
a.) Absolute VO2 is more accurate, as it takes a longer time to calculate during an exercise bout.
b.) Absolute VO2 considers O2 being used per minute to support aerobic metabolism, and is expressed as L/min. Relative VO2 also takes into account body mass and is expressed as mL/kg/min.
c.) Absolute VO2 considers the VO2Max of the athlete based on O2 being delivered per minute, while relative VO2 cannot measure VO2Max.
b.) Absolute VO2 considers O2 being used per minute to support aerobic metabolism, and is expressed as L/min. Relative VO2 also takes into account body mass and is expressed as mL/kg/min.
____________ training sessions are often referred to as “speed play sessions”, because they allow an athlete to speed up and slow down to a large degree over the course of the session.
a.) Long Slow Distance
b.) Tempo
c.) Interval
d.) Fartlek
d.) Fartlek
_________________ is a sports science device used to indirectly assess the readiness of the neuromuscular system and adaptation to training stimuli.
a.) Inertial Measurement Unit
b.) Global Positioning System
c.) Force Platform/Force Instrumented Device
c.) Force Platform/Force Instrumented Device
Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?
a.) cytosol
b.) mitochondria
b.) mitochondria
Stroke volume refers to the amount of blood pumped through the ______________.
a.) veins
b.) aorta
c.) left ventricle
d.) right ventricle
c.) left ventricle
Why is pre-exercise HR typically 10-20 beats higher than RHR?
a.) release of epinephrine
b.) release of norepinephrine
c.) withdrawal to parasympathetic vagal tone
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
Muscle contractions end shortly after ____________ is pumped back into the sarcolemma.
a.) Na+
b.) Ca2+
c.) tropomyosin
b.) Ca2+
Which of the following is NOT considered one of the three main categories of neurons?
a.) projector
b.) interneuron
c.) sensory
d.) motor
a.) projector
What is the order by which muscle fiber types are recruited as additional force output is required?
a.) Type I, Type IIx. Type IIa
b.) Type IIa, Type IIx, Type I
c.) Type I, Type IIa, Type IIx
c.) Type I, Type IIa, Type IIx
Motor neurons are _________ and send information from the brain/spinal cord to muscle. Sensory neurons are __________ and send info from the muscles to the brain/spinal cord.
a.) afferent, efferent
b.) efferent, afferent
c.) afferent, afferent
b.) efferent, afferent
In the Fitness-Fatigue model, fitness and fatigue decay over time, but….
a.) fitness decays twice as fast
b.) fatigue decays twice as fast
d.) they decay at the same rate
b.) fatigue decays twice as fast
What is the primary role of thyroid hormone?
a.) increase urine production
b.) increase metabolic rate and heat production
c.) stimulate proteolysis
d.) inhibit muscle protein synthesis
b.) increase metabolic rate and heat production
Which of the following is an internal training load?
a.) speed and acceleration
b.) sleep quality
c.) weight lifted
d.) distance covered
b.) sleep quality
A decline in blood glucose stimulates the secretion of _______________ from the adrenal cortex, which acts to increase blood glucose.
a.) cortisol
b.) growth hormone
c.) epinephrine
a.) cortisol
Primary muscles involved in performing a goblet squat include all of the following except…
a.) gluteus maximus
b.) biceps femoris
c.) gastrocnemius
d.) erector spinae
c.) gastrocnemius
____________ indicates that a test actually measures the skill or aspect of performance that is being measured.
a.) face validity
b.) specificity
c.) reliability
d.) construct validity
d.) construct validity
The statistical relationship established between a new test and a gold standard test of the same ability is known as __________.
a.) predictive validity
b.) concurrent validity
c.) content validity
d.) intrarater reliability
b.) concurrent validity
When should an unload week be prescribed for an advanced athlete?
a.) 4-6 weeks
b.) 3-4 weeks
c.) 2-3 weeks
d.) 6-8 weeks
b.) 3-4 weeks
Improved cardiovascular fitness and mitochondrial density are benefits attributed to…
a.) sprint training
b.) long slow distance
c.) plyometric training
b.) long slow distance
When designing a training conditioning program for a “transition-game” sport, long slow distance training would best fit in which phase of training?
a.) pre-season
b.) in-season
c.) off-season
c.) off-season
True or False: tapering refers to the reduction of training volume at the end of competition.
False
Following a transitional period, the recommended starting point for work to rest is…
a.) 1:12
b.) 1:8
c.) 1:4
d.) 1:1
c.) 1:4
Which HIIT Type focuses solely on aerobic development with large demands placed on the oxygen transport and cardiopulmonary system, and largely targets oxidative muscle fibers?
a.) Type 1
b.) Type 2
c.) Type 3
d.) Type 4
a.) Type 1
_____________ is a HIIT weapon that contains 3-10 second efforts followed by variable recovery.
a.) long intervals
b.) short intervals
c.) repeated sprint training
c.) repeated sprint training
At what time is full speed (max velocity) reached within an explosive run?
a.) 1 second
b.) 4 seconds
c.) 7 seconds
d.) 20 seconds
c.) 7 seconds
What is the difference between repeated sprint training and sprint interval training?
a.) repeated sprint training does not have any neuromuscular strain
b.) repeated sprint training hits the Type 4 target
c.) sprint interval training takes place in shorter time periods with 3-10 second work intervals
b.) repeated sprint training hits the Type 4 target
Which of the following work:rest ratio represents a long interval HIIT session?
a.) 45 seconds: 45 seconds
b.) 20 seconds: 4 minutes
c.) 90 seconds: 3 minutes
c.) 90 seconds: 3 minutes
Typical strength work is unlikely to be intense enough to fully replicate sprint demands, only ever reaching less than ___% of the muscle electromyography activity achieved during sprinting.
a.) 65%
b.) 75%
c.) 85%
d.) 95%
b.) 75%
______________ is defined as continuous training with random interval training.
a.) aerobic conditioning
b.) Fartlek training
c.) tempo training
d.) interval training
b.) Fartlek training
______________ is defined as training that uses predetermined work-to-rest ratios.
a.) tempo training
b.) Fartlek training
c.) aerobic conditioning
d.) interval training
d.) interval training
______________ is a HIIT weapon using maximal effort sprints up to 10 seconds with complete recovery between that enhances power and power-endurance.
a.) Repeated Sprint Training
b.) Long Intervals
c.) Short Intervals
d.) Sprint Interval Training
a.) Repeated Sprint Training
What makes agility training unique from linear sprint training?
a.) the added emphasis on deceleration
b.) the emphasis on acceleration
c.) the intensity of the drills are lower
a.) the added emphasis on deceleration
What ground-based explosive lift involves catching the implement above the head?
a.) clean
b.) jerk
c.) snatch
d.) both snatch and jerk
d.) both snatch and jerk
Which of the following exercise prescriptions best matches the expectation of Short Interval training?
a.) 75 secs : 90 secs
b.) 30 secs : 2 mins
c.) 5 secs : 15 secs
d.) 45 secs : 45 secs
d.) 45 secs : 45 secs
Which of the following exercise prescriptions best matches the expectation of Sprint Interval training?
a.) 75 secs : 90 secs
b.) 30 secs : 2 mins
c.) 5 secs : 15 secs
d.) 45 secs : 45 secs
b.) 30 secs : 2 mins
Which of the following is true regarding tempo training?
a.) benefits include improving lactate threshold
b.) frequency of this method should be 4-5x per week
c.) intensity should be 70% VO2Max or lower
d.) session duration should be 45-60 minutes
a.) benefits include improving lactate threshold
Implementing brief 20-40 secs rest intervals between repetitions within a set is known as which of the following?
a.) block training
b.) conjugate training
c.) cluster training
c.) cluster training
Which muscle architecture characteristic is most associated with the maximal velocity generating capability of a muscle?
a.) fascicle length
b.) pennation angle
c.) physiological cross-sectional area
a.) fascicle length
The amount of energy obtained per liter of oxygen consumed when carbs are the only source of fuel is different than when fatty acids are the only source of fuel. Which substrate yields the highest kcal per liter of O2 consumed?
a.) carbohydrate
b.) fatty acid
a.) carbohydrate
During the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle, energy is stored in the musculotendinous unit. Which of the following qualities would be beneficial to an athlete during the eccentric phase of a stretch-shortening cycle activity?
a.) high velocity muscle stretch
b.) high compliance (less stiffness) of the muscle being stretched
c.) low magnitude of muscle stretch
a.) high velocity muscle stretch
Exercise-induced hypoxemia that may occur in elite endurance athletes during heavy exercise is likely due to…
a.) a diffusion limitation secondary to a rapid red blood cell transit time
b.) reduced alveolar ventilation due to exercise-induced asthma
c.) overt lung disease
d.) a right-to-left shunt
a.) a diffusion limitation secondary to a rapid red blood cell transit time
______________ delineates the modes and methods that are used to structure the training stimulus the athlete is exposed to.
a.) programming
b.) periodization
c.) peaking
a.) programming
During _______________, the primary focus is development of the physiological, psychological and technical base from which peak performance is developed.
a.) in-season
b.) off-season
c.) preparation period
c.) preparation period
_________________ is the time period where the primary goal is managing cumulative fatigue, continuing to elevate performance capacity and maximizing the athlete’s competitive performance.
a.) in-season
b.) off-season
c.) preparation period
a.) in-season
During a transition period when a multilateral approach is warranted, it may be beneficial to use a __________ training model, in order to target all of the key training factors simultaneously within a training period.
a.) sequential
b.) emphasis
c.) parallel
c.) parallel
The highest frequency and intensity prescriptions within an annual training program occur during which period?
a.) specific preparation
b.) pre-competitive
c.) main competitive
b.) pre-competitive
Which season is the most appropriate for an athlete to experiment with different variations of pre-competition carb-loading techniques?
a.) off-season
b.) pre-season
c.) in-season
b.) pre-season
How would you classify an L-drill?
a.) agility drill
b.) quickness drill
c.) multidirectional speed drill
a.) agility drill
Fundamental differences between the acceleration phase and max velocity phase of sprinting include the following EXCEPT…
a.) arm action during max velocity is greater than during acceleration phase
b.) torso is upright during max velocity phase vs. 45 degree lean during acceleration phase
c.) foot contacts the ground below center of gravity in max velocity phase vs. behind athlete in acceleration phase
a.) arm action during max velocity is greater than during acceleration phase
The equation for velocity is…
a.) force * time
b.) velocity / time
c.) mass * velocity
d.) displacement / time
d.) displacement / time
The equation for impulse is…
a.) force * time
b.) velocity / time
c.) mass * velocity
d.) displacement / time
a.) force * time
The equation for momentum is…
a.) force * time
b.) velocity / time
c.) mass * velocity
d.) displacement / time
c.) mass * velocity
Which myofilament attaches to the Z-line of a sarcomere via the spring-like titin molecule?
a.) myosin
b.) actin
c.) troponin
d.) tropomyosin
a.) myosin
Oxygen is involved as a substrate in which of the following bioenergetic pathways?
a.) electron transport chain
b.) citric acid (Krebs) cycle
c.) glycolysis
a.) electron transport chain
The specific muscle activation pattern that is used during the acceleration phase of sprint running is known as which of the following?
a.) rotation-extension strategy
b.) reciprocal ponderal index
c.) active leg motion
a.) rotation-extension strategy
Where should the foot strike the ground during a falling start drill?
a.) behind the athlete’s center of gravity
b.) directly below the athlete’s center of gravity
c.) in front of the athlete’s center of gravity
a.) behind the athlete’s center of gravity
If you are training for maximal-strength, speed-strength, and strength-endurance concurrently, you are following which periodization model?
a.) conjugate
b.) linear
c.) block
a.) conjugate
What is the first exercise progression of the glute hamstring raise?
a.) double leg back extension
b.) Russian curl
c.) single leg back extension
a.) double leg back extension
Blood pressure drops to almost 0 by the time it reaches the venous side of the cardiovascular system. Where within the arterial side does the largest drop in pressure occur?
a.) arterioles
b.) aorta
c.) capillaries
a.) arterioles
What is the main mechanism of a warm-up in enhancing athletic performance?
a.) Right shift in the force velocity curve
b.) Decrease in baseline oxygen consumption
c.) Psychosocial effects of increased preparedness
d.) Temperature-related mechanisms in the body affecting physiological preparendess
c.) Psychosocial effects of increased preparedness
In order to improve short-term performance in activities that require maximal effort for less than 10 seconds, which of the following are important to consider?
a.) Increase in muscle temperature
b.) Availability of high-energy phosphates
c.) Removal of metabolites
d.) All of the above
d.) All of the above
What should be tried after several attempts to correct pelvic fault, but it still doesn’t seem right?
a.) try a couple more times
b.) try a different technique
c.) talk to your trainer
d.) check with your doctor
c.) talk to your trainer
Mobility/self-care should be worked into workouts how often?
a.) once a week
b.) when it feels like it’s needed
c.) every day for 15 minutes
d.) every other day
c.) every day for 15 minutes
What is “mobilizing in a position of emphasis?”
a.) finding a position that gives feedback as sensitive or painful
b.) a position that has always been sensitive or painful
c.) both A & B
d.) this is a position that a trainer has always said is good to work from
c.) both A & B
What technique can challenge the tissue and capsule to help return mobility and regain full range of the joint?
a.) PNF technique
b.) contract-relax
c.) joint distraction
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
When raising an arm, supinating the wrist, and translating the head of the humerus, what happens to the head of the humerus?
a.) the elbow moves back as the shoulder is protracted
b.) the hand moves forward away from the chest
c.) the head of the humerus moves down
d.) none of the above
c.) the head of the humerus moves down
If the ankle is dysfunctional, is can…
a.) cause problems in the knee
b.) cause dysfunction in the hip
c.) cause low back pain
d.) all of the above
c.) cause low back pain
What is the primary use of voodoo floss?
a.) to improve tendonitis
b.) improve blood and lymphatic flow
c.) move all blood, lymph and interstitial fluids out of the area
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
What is the primary use of ball whacking?
a.) mobilize tissue that is sticking together
b.) remove adhesion
c.) improve ROM
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
What is the concept of upstream and downstream in regards to assessment of tissue?
a.) checking tissue above and below a joint
b.) checking the fascia tension above and below a joint
c.) checking the kinetic chain above and below a joint
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
What are the three main purposes of using kinesio tape?
a.) decompress tissue, support muscles, aid connective tissue
b.) mitigation of pain, support the nervous system, aid muscle use
c.) neurosensory input, decompression of tissue, pain mitigation
d.) support muscles, aid nervous system, keep you moving
c.) neurosensory input, decompression of tissue, pain mitigation
What are the main purposes of using vibration therapy?
a.) decompress tissue, support muscles, aid connective tissue, mitigation of pain
b.) mitigation of pain, support nervous system, aid muscle use, decompression of tissue
c.) neurosensory input, decompression of tissue, hyper-contracted muscle and pain mitigation
d.) support muscles, aid nervous system, keep you moving, neurosensory input
c.) neurosensory input, decompression of tissue, hyper-contracted muscle and pain mitigation
Which anatomical structure in relation to flexibility provides static stability and maintains dynamic stability via consistent sensory feedback?
a.) neural tissue
b.) muscle spindles
c.) skeletal muscle
d.) ligament
d.) ligament
Which region of the tendon stress-strain graph represents when the collagen fibers are being straightened?
a.) toe region
b.) elastic region
c.) failure point
d.) plastic region
a.) toe region
_______________________ is a protective mechanism used to avoid muscle damage due to high force output.
a.) autogenic inhibition
b.) reciprocal inhibition
c.) contract-relax stretch
a.) autogenic inhibition
Which of the following soft tissue mobilization techniques utilizes decompression of the tissue to exert its effects?
a.) contract-relax
b.) kinesio taping
c.) IASTM
d.) ball whacking
b.) kinesio taping
Which mobilization technique forces blood and lymph out of the affected tissue, and allows for fresh blood and lymph to flow back into the tissue to enhance the healing process?
a.) distraction
b.) PNF stretching
c.) contract-relax
c.) contract-relax
What should the strength coach do if the amortization phase is too long when performing a depth jump?
a.) lower the height of the box that the athlete jumps to
b.) cue the athlete to jump off the first box rather than step from it
c.) lower the height of the box that the athlete leaves from
c.) lower the height of the box that the athlete leaves from
What is the recommended total stretch duration to improve flexibility?
a.) 60 secs
b.) 90 secs
c.) 120 secs
a.) 60 secs
Which of the following proteins found within sarcomeres are responsible for the elasticity of sarcomeres during a stretch?
a.) myosin
b.) actin
c.) titin
d.) troponin
c.) titin
True or False: results from research studies have consistently shown that the FMS has a high sensitivity and specificity, and is therefore a good predictor of serious injury in athletes.
False
Which ground-based explosive jumping drill will likely have the longest amortization phase simply based on the set up and execution of the drill?
a.) single leg box jump
b.) single leg plyo step up
c.) single leg mini hurdle with catch
b.) single leg plyo step up
Which of the following is FALSE with regard to torque?
a.) when total muscular torque > total resistive torque, a net positive torque results.
b.) when total muscular torque < total resistive torque, a net negative torque results.
c.) when total muscular torque > total resistive torque, a net negative torque results.
d.) when total muscular torque = total resistive torque, the net torque is 0.
c.) when total muscular torque > total resistive torque, a net negative torque results.
Research studies examining the learning effect of an intervention often uses which of the following?
a.) mixed methods design
b.) between subjects design
c.) within subjects design
b.) between subjects design
A typical set of 12-15 repetitions of a resistance exercise lasts 30-45 seconds. Given this information, which of the following supplements may be the most beneficial to an athlete who regularly resistance trains with this rep range?
a.) carbohydrate
b.) beta alanine
c.) creatine
b.) beta alanine
What is unique about the metabolism of fructose as compared to glucose, with regards to the process of glycolysis?
a.) glucose enters glycolysis after the step involving phosphofructokinase
b.) fructose enters glycolysis after the step involving phosphofructokinase
c.) fructose enters glycolysis before the step involving phosphofructokinase
b.) fructose enters glycolysis after the step involving phosphofructokinase
True or False: Long slow distance training is often referred to as “threshold training.”
False
Which of the following KPIs will have the LEAST validity and reliability?
a.) barbell velocity during an olympic snatch exercise
b.) ground reaction forces when landing from a simulated volleyball serve onto a force plate
c.) knee flexion angles during cutting tasks in a lab setting without opponents
c.) knee flexion angles during cutting tasks in a lab setting without opponents
Which of the following is one of the primary muscles involved in upper extremity pulling exercises?
a.) serratus anterior
b.) trapezius
c.) rhomboids
c.) rhomboids
Consider a 30 year old male with a body mass of 100kg and a height of 1.8m who intends to complete ADLs and 60 mins of moderate physical activity today.
If this athlete was able to exactly balance his EI with his EER today and consumed 55% of his total calories from carbohydrate, will he have met the recommendation for total daily carbohydrate consumption relative to his body mass for today?
a.) no, he is below the recommended relative carb intake for the day
b.) yes, he is within the recommended carb intake for the day
c.) no, he is above the recommended carb intake for the day
a.) no, he is below the recommended relative carb intake for the day
Resisted sprint running drills should not slow the athlete down more than ______% of maximum speed.
a.) 5%
b.) 10%
c.) 15%
b.) 10%
True or False: making learners struggle to achieve a goal or perform a task during a practice session forces them to concentrate harder and leads to more effective motor learning.
False
Imagine an Olympic 5K athlete completing a race at an intensity equivalent to 100% of their VO2max. Which of the following substrates is fueling this athlete during the race?
a.) carbohydrate
b.) fat
c.) carbohydrate and fat
a.) carbohydrate
Current evidence for the use of cold water immersion suggest that water temperature should range between what temperature?
a.) 41 to 50 F
b.) 50 to 59 F
c.) 32 to 50 F
d.) 59 to 68 F
b.) 50 to 59 F
An athlete who is not acclimatized to a hot environment experiences orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following heat illness is most likely occuring?
a.) heat syncope
b.) heat rash
c.) heat exhaustion
d.) exercise associated muscle cramping
a.) heat syncope
An athlete talks to their SCC and informs them that they recently assessed their peak flow and obtained a “yellow” reading. Which of the following should occur?
a.) athlete has normal peak flow
b.) athlete should exercise with caution; athlete must have pre-established medical plan on what needs to take place.
c.) athlete should be transported to Emergency Department
d.) none of the above
b.) athlete should exercise with caution; athlete must have pre-established medical plan on what needs to take place.
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in older male athletes?
a.) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
b.) coronary artery disease
c.) myocarditis
b.) coronary artery disease
Which phase of the healing process involves the formation of a hematoma to bridge the gap between the ruptured muscle fibers?
a.) remodeling
b.) repair
c.) destruction
c.) destruction
Which of the following conditions is an athlete likely to suffer from if they are unfit, not acclimated to heat and humidity, and are asked to suddenly move from a sitting to standing position an hour into an outdoor practice in Florida in mid-August?
a.) heat stroke
b.) heat exhaustion
c.) heat rash
d.) heat syncope
d.) heat syncope
Which of the following statements is true regarding the early treatment of muscle contusions?
a.) regularly and actively use modalities that enhance muscle blood flow in the first 48-72 hours post-injury
b.) immobilize the joints above and below the contusion for 48-72 hours post-injury
c.) limit modalities that enhance blood flow for at least 48-72 hours post-injury
c.) limit modalities that enhance blood flow for at least 48-72 hours post-injury
Which stroke volume characteristic describes the capacity of the ventricles to relax and expand during diastole?
a.) venous return
b.) ventricular distensibility
c.) vascular resistance
d.) ventricular contractility
b.) ventricular distensibility
True or False: pain is now considered an input into the CNS from the injured tissue.
False
Rhabdomyolysis is considered a medical emergency due to its impact on what organ?
a.) liver
b.) kidneys
c.) brain
d.) lungs
b.) kidneys
Which of the following values is suggested as the optimal Energy Availability value for an athlete?
a.) <30 kcal/kg FFM per day
b.) 40-45kcal/kg FFM per day
c.) 30-40 kcal/kg FFM per day
b.) 40-45kcal/kg FFM per day
What are the two forms of non-self-determined extrinsic motivation?
a.) external regulation and identified regulation
b.) introjected regulation and integrated regulation
c.) external regulation and introjected regulation
d.) identified regulation and integrated regulation
c.) external regulation and introjected regulation
What are the two forms of self-determined extrinsic motivation?
a.) external regulation and identified regulation
b.) introjected regulation and integrated regulation
c.) external regulation and introjected regulation
d.) identified regulation and integrated regulation
d.) identified regulation and integrated regulation
What does it mean to be autonomy supportive?
a.) giving athletes opportunities for choice
b.) considering athletes’ perspectives
c.) providing athletes with important information
d.) all of the above
d.) all of the above
What basic psychological need involves the athletes’ perception that their actions are in line with their own values?
a.) competency
b.) autonomy
c.) relatedness
b.) autonomy
What micronutrient plays a significant role in bioenergetic pathways?
a.) Vitamin B
b.) Calcium
c.) Vitamin D
a.) Vitamin B
The people that make up a sports organization interdisciplinary team (IDT) should be held together with a set of values and behaviors that align to a common vision and are upheld by all who enter the work environment. This is referred to as which of the following?
a.) Shared Mental Model
b.) High Performance Unit
c.) Competence
a.) Shared Mental Model
True or False: the physical challenge must be beyond the current capabilities of the athlete in order for them to enter a flow state.
False
What is the frequency and associated conditions with beta waves?
a.) 1-3.9 Hz, non-REM sleep, sleepiness in fatigued states
b.) 4-7.9 Hz, REM sleep, hypnagogic state
c.) 8-12.9 Hz, wakeful relaxation, daydreaming
d.) 13-30 Hz, excitement, fear, anxiety
d.) 13-30 Hz, excitement, fear, anxiety
What is the frequency and associated conditions with alpha waves?
a.) 1-3.9 Hz, non-REM sleep, sleepiness in fatigued states
b.) 4-7.9 Hz, REM sleep, hypnagogic state
c.) 8-12.9 Hz, wakeful relaxation, daydreaming
d.) 13-30 Hz, excitement, fear, anxiety
c.) 8-12.9 Hz, wakeful relaxation, daydreaming
What is the frequency and associated conditions with theta waves?
a.) 1-3.9 Hz, non-REM sleep, sleepiness in fatigued states
b.) 4-7.9 Hz, REM sleep, hypnagogic state
c.) 8-12.9 Hz, wakeful relaxation, daydreaming
d.) 13-30 Hz, excitement, fear, anxiety
b.) 4-7.9 Hz, REM sleep, hypnagogic state
What is the frequency and associated conditions with delta waves?
a.) 1-3.9 Hz, non-REM sleep, sleepiness in fatigued states
b.) 4-7.9 Hz, REM sleep, hypnagogic state
c.) 8-12.9 Hz, wakeful relaxation, daydreaming
d.) 13-30 Hz, excitement, fear, anxiety
a.) 1-3.9 Hz, non-REM sleep, sleepiness in fatigued states
Which macronutrient is associated with the highest thermic effect of food (the greatest amount of energy required to digest and absorb it)?
a.) fat
b.) carbohydrate
c.) protein
c.) protein
The stretch-shortening cycle is least relevant to performance in…
a.) heavy resistance exercises
b.) plyometric drills
c.) linear sprinting
a.) heavy resistance exercises
Research studies examining the learning effect of an intervention often use which of the following?
a.) between subjects design
b.) within subjects design
c.) mixed methods design
a.) between subjects design
An SCC measures heat and humidity, and calculates a heat stress index of 103F. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the most appropriate action?
a.) Risk of EHI complication is low, and exercise can proceed as normal.
b.) Risk of EHI is high and coach should cancel and reschedule the activity.
c.) Risk of EHI is moderate, and exercise can proceed with caution and adjustment.
d.) Risk of EHI is moderate, and only fitter athletes should exercise as normal.
c.) Risk of EHI is moderate, and exercise can proceed with caution and adjustment.
Which of the following is NOT a desired acclimatization outcome to exercise in the heat?
a.) increased sweat rates and earlier onset of sweating
b.) decreased sodium concentration in sweat over time
c.) increased blood plasma volume
d.) increased reliance on carbs as a fuel source
d.) increased reliance on carbs as a fuel source
What is the problem with using the controlled work rate method to induce heat acclimatization?
a.) as the body adapts to the exercise stress, the internal body temperature will. be lower at the controlled exercise work rate
b.) as the body adapts to the exercise stress, the lactate response will be higher at the controlled exercise work rate
c.) as the body adapts to the exercise stress, the heart rate will be higher at the controlled exercise work rate
a.) as the body adapts to the exercise stress, the internal body temperature will. be lower at the controlled exercise work rate
An elevation in internal body temperature due to the body’s inability to thermoregulate efficiently is formally defined with what term?
a.) heat exhaustion
b.) heat illness
c.) uncompensable heat stress
c.) uncompensable heat stress
Which of the following categories of sport, as classified by Vern Gambetta, does volleyball fall under?
a.) transition-game sport
b.) intermittent-sprint sport
c.) endurance sport
d.) sprint sport
b.) intermittent-sprint sport
Conducting a vertical jump test where the measurements taken involve trunk and lower extremity movements during the landing phase rather than the jump height would make this test fall under which of the following categories?
a.) specific movement screen
b.) agility
c.) maximal anaerobic power
a.) specific movement screen
You have decided to incorporate 3 new sprint running drills into today’s speed training session with your athlete. Which of the following conditions will optimize the athlete’s ability to learn how to successfully complete the drills?
a.) allow the athlete to choose the order of the drills
b.) only provide verbal feedback when movement errors are identified during the drills
c.) have the athlete complete the drills in a pre-determined order you feel is best
a.) allow the athlete to choose the order of the drills
How much fluid would you recommend a 100kg athlete consume 4 hours prior to an exercise session according to the ACSM guidelines?
a.) 0.5L
b.) 1L
c.) 1.5L
a.) 0.5L
Heat acclimatization requires a minimum of how many days?
a.) 5
b.) 10
c.) 15
b.) 10
True or False: urine specific gravity tests are the gold-standard measure of hydration.
False
What adaptation occurs in both heat and altitude?
a.) increased production of EPO
b.) increased plasma volume
c.) increased production of 2,3 DPG
b.) increased plasma volume
In what aspect of motor performance does mental fatigue show up first?
a.) accuracy
b.) endurance performance
c.) reaction time
c.) reaction time
The body assumes a ____ degree angle relative to the ground during the acceleration phase of a linear sprint.
a.) 75
b.) 90
c.) 45
c.) 45
The body assumes a ____ degree angle relative to the ground during the acceleration phase of a linear sprint.
a.) 75
b.) 90
c.) 45
c.) 45
Both the nervous system and the endocrine system are responsible for communication within our bodies. The nervous system utilizes neurotransmitters as the primary chemical to impart a message, while the endocrine system utilizes hormones. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanisms of action for these two types of chemicals?
a.) neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the surface of a cell, whereas hormones are not capable of doing that
b.) neurotransmitters elicit changes in membrane potential whereas hormones elicit biochemical pathways to initiate
c.) neurotransmitters can impact a neighboring nerve cell, whereas hormones cannot impact a neighboring cell from the one that secreted it
b.) neurotransmitters elicit changes in membrane potential whereas hormones elicit biochemical pathways to initiate
The increased stroke volume that comes from chronic aerobic training is a result of which of the following?
a.) a decrease in ventricular distensibility
b.) an increase in plasma volume
c.) an increase in resting heart rate
b.) an increase in plasma volume
The citric acid cycle yields the MOST of which of the following substances?
a.) NADH
b.) ATP
c.) FADH2
a.) NADH
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the correct technique for the Medicine Ball Rotational Throw exercise?
a.) stand up when throwing the medicine ball
b.) rotate hips towards the wall to begin concentric phase
c.) bend the elbows when throwing the medicine ball
b.) rotate hips towards the wall to begin concentric phase
The strength coach who decides to refurbish an old weightlifting platform by sanding the bare wood, applying stain, and adding multiple coats of finish is conducting what kind of maintenance?
a.) preventative
b.) cyclical
c.) unforeseen
b.) cyclical
What neurochemical is known more broadly to enhance pleasure responses in the brain?
a.) nonepinephrine
b.) dopamine
c.) serotonin
d.) anandamide
c.) serotonin
Most hormones fall into which classification?
a.) peptide
b.) amine
c.) cholesterol
a.) peptide
What should the temperature and humidity of a strength and conditioning facility be maintained at?
a.) 70-74F, 20% or less humidity
b.) 72-78F, 60% or less humidity
c.) 76-82F, 70% or less humidity
d.) 66-72F, 50% or less humidity
b.) 72-78F, 60% or less humidity
________________ is the natural, direct and uninterrupted consequence of a failure to meet the standard of care.
a.) duty
b.) breach of duty
c.) causation
d.) damage
c.) causation
How high off of the ground should windows and mirrors be placed in a strength and conditioning facility?
a.) 12”
b.) 18”
c.) 20”
d.) 24”
c.) 20”
True or False: lower extremity ground based resistance exercises, such as the deadlift, are considered open chain exercises.
False
