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1
Q

ƒeWhat are the precise definitions for lewis acid/lewis base?

A

Lewis acid: electron pair acceptor

Lewis base: electron pair donor

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2
Q

What is specific gravity?

A

Ratio of density of a substance compared to density of water

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3
Q

What does ρ (rho) represent?

A

Density

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4
Q

What are STP conditions? What is standard state? When is each used?

A

STP: 273 K, 1 ATM, used for ideal gas law stuff

Standard state: 298 K, 1 ATM, 1M solutions. pure solids/liquids, used for thermodynamic calculations

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5
Q

Whats the volume of 1 mol of an ideal gas at STP?

A

22.4 liters

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6
Q

What is the Formal Charge of Nitrate?

A

-1 (NO3 1-)

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7
Q

What does having a high oxidation potential entail?

A

A higher tendency to be oxidized; i.e., A higher tendency to lose electrons

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8
Q

When a transition metal becomes cationic, form which orbital are the electrons removed from?

A

The s orbital, rather than the d orbital. For example, Ni 2+ would love electrons from the 4s orbital rather than the 3d orbital, even though the 3d orbital is in theory higher in energy

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9
Q

VSEPR THEORY: Order the set from greatest to least repulsion: LP-LP, BP-LP, BP-BP

A

As written: LP-LP has the greatest repulsion, then BP-LP, then BP-BP

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10
Q

What is the Solubility Product Constant, and what does it describe?

A

Ksp= [A+]a[B+]b, A+ being cation in aqueous solution, B= being anion in aqueous solution. Describes the equilibrium between AB(s) ←→ A(aq)+ B(aq)

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11
Q

Which is the more oxidized compound; one that ends with -ric or one that ends with -ous? (ferric vs ferrous)

A

-Ric is more oxidized (remember the mnemonic- ric ate o)

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12
Q

What does a mass spectrometer measure?

A

Mass to charge ratio

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13
Q

What occurs in beta+ decay?

A

A proton converts to a neutron, and emits a positron

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14
Q

What occurs in beta- decay?

A

A neutron converts to a proton, and ejects an electron

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15
Q

What occurs in electron capture?

A

An inner shell electron is absorbed into the nucleus, followed by the conversion of a proton to a neutron.

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16
Q

What occurs in alpha decay?

A

a nucleus of two protons and two neutrons (helium) are ejected from the nucleus

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17
Q

What occurs in gamma decay?

A

Nucleus changes from higher to lower energy state and releases a photon, but the #of protons and neutrons remains the same

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18
Q

What is the difference between paramagnetic and diamagnetic species?

A

Paramagnetic: At least one unpaired electron, attracted to magnets. Diamagnetic: no unpaired electrons, slightly repelled by magnets.

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19
Q

In what order are the p orbitals filled?

A

Px (ml=-1) , Py (ml=0), Pz ml= +1)

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20
Q

How do you find number of d electrons in a complex ion?

A

d electrons= Group # (column number) - oxidation state

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21
Q

What is the equation for the energy of an electron in hydrogen?

A

E= -2.178e-18 (Z^2/n^2)

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22
Q

What is copper’s ground state electron configuration?

A

[Ar}4s1 3d10 (Will prefer to fill d orbital before filling s orbital)

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23
Q

What is chromium’s ground state electron configuration?

A

[Ar] 4s1 3d5 (will prefer to half fill d orbital before filling s orbital)

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24
Q

When Calculating Cell potential (ERxn), do you multiple Ereduction/EOxidation based on how many electrons are changed?

A

No; Ereduction/EOxidation are both intrinsic characteristics; therefore, just use the standard reduction potentials in the table without considering # of electrons exchanged.

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25
Q

Between the anode/cathode, where does oxidation/reduction occur?

A

Oxidation occurs at the Anode, Reduction occurs at the Cathode

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26
Q

What does a high oxidation state entail?

A

Entails a loss of electrons. For example, Calcium tends to have a higher oxidation state (+2) than Sodium (+1)

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27
Q

What are the molecular formulas of sulfate, sulfite, and sulfide?

A

Sulfate: SO4 2-, Sulfite: SO3 2-, Sulfide: S 2-

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28
Q

What is the equation you use to calculate the pH of a buffer solution?

A

Henderson hasselbach; pH= pkA + log([A-]/[HA])

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29
Q

What is the buffering range (pH at which a buffer is most effective)?

A

desired solution pH +/- 1 pH of the acid pka

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30
Q

In a diprotic acid titration, what is the formula to calculate the pH at the first equivalence point?

A

pH= (pK1 + pK2)/2

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31
Q

What microscopic measurements are the pressure of a gas proportional to?

A

Collision force and collision frequency

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32
Q

Which elements have d orbitals?

A

Any element from the third row onwards (highest principle quantum electron at least n=3)

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33
Q

What is the difference between electron geometry and molecular geometry?

A

Electron geometry: include lone pairs (h2o is tetrahedral electron geometry)

molecular geometry: do not include lone pairs (h2o is bent molecular geometry)

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34
Q

What does coordination number of a complex ion refer to?

A

The # of bonds to the central metal ion, NOT the # of ligands attached to the central metal ion

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35
Q

In complex ions, do metal ions act as lewis acids or lewis bases?

A

Lewis acids, because they have an empty orbital

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36
Q

What is the definition of boiling point?

A

Temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure

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37
Q

What are the only atoms (other than hydrogen) that can engage in hydrogen bonding?

A

N, O, F

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38
Q

What is raoults law, and what does it describe?

A

Pvapor= Xi Pvapor (pure); xi= mole fraction of liquid in solution.

Describes the contributing vapor pressure of a miscible liquid in solution

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39
Q

What is the critical point in a phase change diagram?

A

The highest pressure and temperature at which a liquid can be observed; beyond this point, you cannot distinguish between a gas or a liquid, so anything in that region is referred to as a a supercritical fluid

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40
Q

How does the density of a supercritical fluid compare to liquid and gas?

A

Density between liquid and gas

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41
Q

A gas is most ideal under what pressure and what temperature?

A

Under low pressure and high temperature

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42
Q

What are the 5 general solubility rules?

A
  1. ) Most salts composed of a +1 cation (excluding transition metals) and a -1 anion are soluble in water
  2. ) Nitrate (NO3 -) salts are water soluble
  3. Most salts containing sulfate anions (SO4 2-) with +1 cations (excluding transition metals) are soluble
  4. ) Most salts with 2- or 3- anions (with the exception of sulfate) are insoluble
  5. ) Most oxide (O 2-) and hydroxide (OH-) salts are only slightly soluble. KOH and NaOH are exceptions.
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43
Q

What is the definition of molar solubility?

A

Maximum number of moles of solid that can dissolve to make one liter of solution

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44
Q

What does carbonic acid (H2CO3) decompose into?

A

Water and Carbon Dioxide

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45
Q

What is the most accurate way to measure pH?

A

pH meter

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46
Q

What does repolarization mean?

A

Any movement that attempts to return the membrane potential to its resting membrane potential, regardless of whether it is coming from a more positive origin or a more negative origin

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47
Q

Do sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves have secondary ganglia that are closer to the target organ?

A

Parasympathetic nerves

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48
Q

What neurotransmitters do each of the two neurons use from CNS to effector organ for parasympathetic nerves?

A

1st (preganglionic) : acetylcholine, 2nd (postganglionic) : acetylcholine

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49
Q

What neurotransmitters do each of the two neurons use from CNS to effector organ for sympathetic nerves?

A

1st: acetylcholine, 2nd: norepenephrine

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50
Q

What makes cardiac muscles unique from smooth muscles or skeletal muscles?

A

They have intercalated disks, which prevents cells from separating during contraction and allows for synchronized contraction.

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51
Q

What is the purpose of T-Tubules in muscles?

A

To bring the depolarizing current deep through the muscle fiber near the sarcoplasmic reticulum

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52
Q

Which side product (“detour”) of glycolysis is also used to promotes the oxygen saturation curve observed in hemoglobin?

A

2-3 BPG

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53
Q

Do arteries or veins contain valves? Why?

A

Veins, because unlike arteries the pressure is not strong enough to maintain unidirectional flow

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54
Q

How does the resistance of a vessel vary with vessel radius?

A

Decreasing a vessel radius by two will increase vessel resistance by 16

(Poisuelles equation: Flow rate proportional to r^4. Flow rate inversely proportional to vessel resistance)

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55
Q

Which cell does not have a mitochondria?

A

Red Blood Cells

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56
Q

What does distensibility refer to?

A

How flexible a vein or artery is.

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57
Q

Are veins or arteries more distensibile?

A

Veins

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58
Q

What muscle is the primary effector of breathing?

A

Diaphragm

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59
Q

Which group of pacemaker cells directly triggers depolarization and is considered the pacemaker of the heart?

A

SA (sinoatrial) node

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60
Q

What are two conditions where RBC’s are too small and too large, respectively?

A

MIcrocytic anemia, macrocytic anemia

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61
Q

Do vitamin compositions last longer in blood plasma or blood cells?

A

Blood plasma; the plasma is cleared out constantly by the kidneys, where as the composition of the RBC reflects the vitamin intake over its 120 day lifespan

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62
Q

What value/number dictates whether flow is turbulent or laminar?

A

Reynolds number; flow is turbulent above a reynolds number of 3500

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63
Q

What are the functions of schwann cells?

A

Myelination, maintenence, and regeneration of PNS axons

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64
Q

What functions are Glutamate responsible for?

A

Excitatory signals; cognition, memory, and learning

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65
Q

Do cell membranes become more or less fluid with more unsaturated phospholipids

A

More fluid with more unsatured phospholipids

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66
Q

What brain activity does fMRI measure?

A

Blood flow

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67
Q

What is the difference between single unit and multiunit smooth muscle cells

A

Single unit: electrically coupled by gap junctions, single stimulation of one cell will stimulate all adjacent cells
Multiunit: not electrically coupled by gap junction

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68
Q

What is the structure of urea?

A
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69
Q

How is a majority of the CO2 in blood transported?

A

Carbonic acid

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70
Q

What is the approximate pH of the stomach?

A

1.5-3.5

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71
Q

Which cells of what organ secrete insulin?

A

Beta cells of the pancreas

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72
Q

What is the role of the hepatic portal?

A

A veinous system that returns blood from the digestive tract back to the liver

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73
Q

What cells of what organ secrete glucagon?

A

Alpha cells of the pancreas

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74
Q

What is the function and mechanism of aldosterone?

A

To promote reabsorption of sodium and secretion of K+ in the nephron (because action is via sodium potassium pumps, which pumps 3 Na+ out for every 2 K+ in) ; acts at DCT and collecting ducts, stimulating them to reaborb sodium

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75
Q

Where is aldosterone secrete from?

A

The cortex of the adrenal gland, above the kidney

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76
Q

What is the function and mechanism of ADH?

A

To promote reabsorption of water in the collecting duct via insertion of more aquaporins

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77
Q

Where is ADH secreted from?

A

The posterior pituitary, which is stimulated by the hypothalamus

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78
Q

In the PCT of the nephron, how is sodium transported across the apical membrane (membrane lining the PCT)?

A

Through symports, such as glucose/sodium or amino acid/sodium

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79
Q

What effect does vasoconstriction of the afferent kidney arterioles have on glomerular filtrationrate?

A

Will decreases GFR

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80
Q

What effect does vasoconstriction of the efferent kidney arterioles have on glomerular filtrationrate?

A

Increases glomerular filtration rate

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81
Q

What does the renin-angiotensin system do?

A

Increase blood volume (to increase blood pressure)

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82
Q

What steroid hormone does the renin-angiotensin system activate?

A

Aldosterone

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83
Q

Which muscles of the urinary tract contract/dilate during urination?

A

The detruser muscles contract, and the two urethal tract sphincters relax

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84
Q

What forms does a spermatogenia go through as it matures?

A

Spermatogenia (stem cell)— (Mitosis, one remains a stem cell)—-> Primary spermatocyte —(Meiosis 1)—> Secondary spermatocyte —- (meiosis 2)—> spermatids —- (transformation via formation of acrosome, loss of cytoplasm)—> spermatozoa

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85
Q

Which cells are spermatogenia always in contact in as they mature?

A

Sertoli Cells

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86
Q

What are the two compartments of the seminiferous tubes called, and what are they separated by?

A

Basal compartment, luminal compartment, separated by tight junction

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87
Q

As the spermatogenia matures, from which comparment to which compartment in the seminferous tubes does it travel?

A

From the basal comparment (on the outside) to the luminal compartment (at the center)

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88
Q

What step in oogenesis are oocytes arrested until puberty/ovulation?

A

The meiotic division between the primary oocyte and secondary oocyte, where it is stuck in prophase of meiosis 1

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89
Q

What phase are oocytes arrested in prior to fertilization?

A

Arrested in Metaphse of Meiosis 2, where it will only finish meiosis 2 and become an ovum after fertilization

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90
Q

What structures do eggs develop in in the ovaries?

A

Granulosa cells. Granulosa cells + ooctye= follicle cell

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91
Q

As the follicle progresses, what causes its expansion and eventual rupture?

A

Continual growth of the follicle causes an LH surge which mediates rupture. Expansion of the antrum (fluid cavity formed from fluid from granulosa cells). Rupture itself is additionally mediated by enzymes that weaken the cell wall

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92
Q

Which hormone signals for the rupture of the follicle wall to release the secondary oocyte?

A

Lutinizing hormone (LH).

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93
Q

At what point in meiosis 1 is the primary oocyte arrested?

A

prophase

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94
Q

At what point in meiosis 2 is the secondary oocyte arrested?

A

Metaphase

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95
Q

Which compound directly stimulates contraction of the smooth muscle of the uterus, causing explusion of the uterine lining?

A

Prostaglandins

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96
Q

Which hormones prepare the endometrium for implantation?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

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97
Q

Which hormone inhibits uterine contractions and promotes cervix contriction to prevent expulsion of the implanted embryo?

A

Progesterone

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98
Q

What are the functions of leydig cells, and what is the female equivalent cell called?

A

In males, activated by LH, thus converting cholesterol to testosterone. Female counterpart is called Theca cells

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99
Q

What is the second half of the menstrual cycle called? What occurs in this half?

A

Luteal phase; egg is released from follicle and implants into endometrium, the remaining follicular cells (granulosa) becomes a corpus luteum, which continues to release progesterone and estrogen

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100
Q

Estrogen and progesterone released from the corpus luteum has what effect on LH and FSH secretion?

A

Suppresses LH and FSH secretion

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101
Q

What can be said about progesterone and estrogen levels through pregnancy?

A

They increase steadily through pregnancy

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102
Q

What does menses refer to?

A

The shedding of blood/uterine lining during menstruation

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103
Q

What hormone stimulates the growth of the ovarian follicle?

A

FSH

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104
Q

What hormones do granulosa cells secrete?

A

Estrogen (early in cycle), then inhibin and progesterone (later in the cycle)

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105
Q

What affect does LH have on the theca cells of the ovarian follicle?

A

Convert cholesteral to testosterone, which is then fed to the granulosa cells so they can produce estrogen

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106
Q

What is the luteal surge caused by?

A

Continued growth of the follicle increases number of granulosa cells, which continually release estrogen. When estrogen levels are low, there is negative feedback on FSH and LH release. However, at very high levels of estrogen, there is actually positive feedback on LH secretion, causing luteal surge. Inhibin also released by granulosa cells simulatneously inhibit FSH release.

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107
Q

What is inhibin secreted by, and what is its effect?

A

Secreted by mature follicles prior to ovulation. Causes suppression of FSH release from anterior pituitary

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108
Q

What is the primary hormone the corpus luteum secretes?

A

Progesterone

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109
Q

What induces the natural atrophy of the corpus luteum?

A

Corpus luteum requires FSH and LH to maintain itself, but suppresses both hormones via its estrogen and progesterone release

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110
Q

What organ and what cell type does gluconeogenesis occur in?

A

Hepatocyte cells of the liver

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111
Q

Which hormones are required to maintain the endometrium?

A

Estrogen and progesterone both

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112
Q

What does low levels of estrogen release from the follicle inhibit?

A

FSH

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113
Q

What does high levels of estrogen release from the follicle promote?

A

LH release

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114
Q

What are endothelial cells?

A

Cells that line the inside of the cardiovascular system (arteries, veins, heart) in a one cell thick layer

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115
Q

What is responsible for the contraction/relaxation of blood vessels?

A

Smooth muscle

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116
Q

Which structure releases corticosteroids?

A

Adrenal Cortex

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117
Q

What is the pathway of the HPA axis? (organs + what is released from each organ)

A

Hypothalamus (releases corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)) -> pituitary (adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACH)) -> adrenal cortex (cortisol)

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118
Q

What two compounds are released during low blood sugar and from which organs? What is their target organ?

A

Epinephrine (from adrenal medulla) and glucagon (from pancreas). Target is the liver so that it may begin releasing glucose

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119
Q

Which lobe of the pituitary contains neurons projecting from the hypothalamus that directly release hormones into the bloodstream?

A

Posterior Pituitary

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120
Q

Which lobe of the pituitary has neuron projections from the hypothalamus first release releasing factors, which then cause the pituitary endocrine cells to release hormones?

A

Anterior pituitary

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121
Q

Which lobe of the pituitary only releases direct (non tropic) hormones? What are the two hormones this lobe releases?

A

Posterior PItuitary (releases only ADH and oxytocin, which are both direct hormones)

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122
Q

What does the binding of Ca 2+ to troponin directly cause?

A

Exposes myosin binding sites on the actin, allowing for the power stroke

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123
Q

What event immediately precedes the power stroke in actin/myosin interaction?

A

The dissociation of Pi from myosin

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124
Q

What is the function of calcitonin?

A

Lowers blood calcium levels by suppressing osteoclast activity (thus, preventing osteoclast bone breakdown) and increasing calcium secreted by urine

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125
Q

Which hormone has the opposite effect to calcitonin? What is this effect?c

A

Parathyroid hormone; increases blood calcium concentration by promoting osteoclast activity

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126
Q

What precursor do all steroid hormones arise from?

A

Cholesterol

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127
Q

Which Hemisphere of the brain is specialized for langauge and speech production?st

A

Left hemisphere

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128
Q

What is instinctual drift?

A

The tendency of animals to revert back to instinctual behaviors

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129
Q

What view does an individual with external locus of control belief?

A

Successes and failures result from external factors beyond their control

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130
Q

What are the symptoms of PTSD?

A

Hyperarousal, intrusive symptoms (nightmares), avoiding reminders of trauma, negative thoughts and moods. and emotional numbing

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131
Q

What is absolute threshold?

A

Intensity value at which an individual is able to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time

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132
Q

What is Signal Detection Theory?

A

The ability to properly detect or reject a certain stimulus in light of distractions. There are four possible ways a participant in an SDT study can respond: a hit, a false alarm, a miss, and a correct rejection

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133
Q

What is Role Conflict?

A

When multiple competing and incompatible demands are placed upon an individual

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134
Q

What are the tree stages of General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Alarm, resistance, exhaustion

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135
Q

What is General Adaptation Syndrome a response to?

A

Stress

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136
Q

What Does Humanistic Psychology Therapy focus on?

A

Higher aspects of human nature, such as self-actualization (achieving one’s full potential) and personal growth. An optimistic view of human nature that people have an innate drive towards self improvement

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137
Q

What does Cognitive Behavioral Therapy focus on?

A

Attempting to change negative thoughts/beliefs and maladaptive behaviors; replacing destructive thoughts/behaviors with healthy ones

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138
Q

What does Psychoanalytic therapy focus on?

A

Uncovering how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shapes behaviors

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139
Q

What is external validity concerned with?

A

Generalization; if the observed relationship applies outside the experiment

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140
Q

What is internal validity concerned with

A

Causality; if the change in the independent variable is really causing a change in the dependent variable

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141
Q

Does the dorsal or ventral horn contain the cell bodies of motor neurons?

A

Ventral horns

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142
Q

Does the dorsal or ventral horn contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons?

A

Dorsal horn

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143
Q

Which components of the brain comprise the metencephalon

A

Cerebellum, pons

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144
Q

Which components of the brain comprise the myelencephalon

A

Medulla

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145
Q

Which components of the brain comprise the mesencephalon

A

Tectum (inferior colliculi, superior collucili) and the tegmentum (substnatia nigra, red nucleus)

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146
Q

What parts of the brain compose the diencephalon

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus

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147
Q

What does damage to the cerebullum result in?

A

Disruption of fine motor skills

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148
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Coordinate balance, fine motor skills, equillibrium, coordination

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149
Q

What are the four lobes of the brain and which senses/functions are they associated with?

A

Frontal: motor
Parietal: Somatosensory
Occipital: vision
Temporal: Auditory

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150
Q

What is the moro reflex?

A

A startle reflex in infants that is caused by a loud sound or sudden movement and involves spreading out arms, throwing back head and opening hands

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151
Q

What are Phosphodiesterases responsible for?

A

Break phosphodiester bonds, such as those found in ATP and cAMP. Hydrolyzes cAMP, so inhibits cAMP pathways

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152
Q

Where is the amygdala located (telencephalon, diencephalon, metencephalon, etc)

A

Telencephalon

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153
Q

What is a quasiexperiment?

A

A study in which there are certain experimental groups, but individuals within those groups cannot be randomly assigned.

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154
Q

What is the weber fraction?

A

Just noticeable differences in stimuli are a function and ratio of the current intensity stimulus

Weber fraction= (Just noticeable difference)/Intensity

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155
Q

What is the difference between tonic and phasic firing?

A

Tonic firing: long and sustained response
Phasic Firing: Transient immediate response

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156
Q

Are nociceptors tonic or phasic?

A

Tonic; perception of pain comes on slowly after application of stimulus, and may sometimes persist even after stimulus is removed

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157
Q

What is the figure ground relationship?

A

How visual perception processing begins first by distinguishing figure (the object ) from its surroundings (the ground). The vase illusion takes advantage of this

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158
Q

Do cones facillitate phototopic or scotopic vision

A

Cones work in high light conditions and allow us to see color; therefore, they facilitate phototopic vision

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159
Q

Are rods or cones responsible for edge perception?

A

Rods

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160
Q

What type of visual perception do parvocellular cells participate in?

A

Spatial resolution of an object; primarily receieve input from cones and are sensitive to color and fine pattern details

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161
Q

What type of visual perception are magnocellular cells responsible for?

A

Temporal resolution of an object; receive input from rods and are sensitive to movement

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162
Q

What layers in the striate cortex do parvocellular ganglionic cells project to?

A

Top four layers

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163
Q

In the basilar membrane, where are the neurons that are most sensitive to low frequency sound located?

A

At the tip (apex of the membrane)

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164
Q

Tonotopy is further preserved as neurons are projected to the auditory cortex. Are neurons that receive high frequencies deeper or shallower in the sylvian fissure?

A

Deeper

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165
Q

Is the utricle or saccule of the otolith organs in the vestibular system responsible for detection of horizantal, translational movement?

A

Utricle

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166
Q

What organs of the vestibular system are responsible for head rotation?

A

Semicircular canals

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167
Q

Which temperature/pain nerve fibers are responsible for sharp, acute pain? What is their myelination/diameter?

A

Adelta fibers, myelinated, medium diamater?

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168
Q

Which temperature/pain nerve fibers are responsible for slow, dull pain? What is their myelination/diameter?

A

C fibers, unmyelinated, small diameter

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169
Q

Why do odorants often have the ability to affect our moods?

A

Because olfactory information does not pass through the thalamus to primary processing centers, but rather is direclty relayed to the limbic system after reaching the primary olfactory cortex

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170
Q

What are the four gestalt principles? What is an example of each?

A

Gestalt principles demonstrate how the sum of perceptual parts differs from the perceived whole.

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171
Q

What is interposition?

A

A monocular perceptual cue; when one object seems to obscure another, it can be assumed that one is closer

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172
Q

What is multimodal sensory integration?

A

How completely disparate senses come together in the CNS to produce meaningful perception experiences

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173
Q

What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the visual system?

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus

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174
Q

What is the thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system?

A

Medial Geniculate Nucleus

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175
Q

What is a neuroleptic associated with?

A

Tranquilizing, depressed nerve function

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176
Q

What is generativity vs stagnation in Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, and when does it occur?

A

Generativity: Being able to do what one feels is contributing to society, thus gaining the sense they are part of a bigger picture
Stagnation: Failing to contribute, leading to feeling unproductive

This conflict usually occurs around 45-60

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177
Q

What are Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, and what ages do they correspond with?

A
  1. ) Sensorimotor, birth through 18-24 months
  2. )Preoperational, toddler through early childhood
  3. ) Concrete operational, 7-11
  4. ) Formal operational, adolesence through adulthood
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178
Q

What does place theory refer to?

A

A theory of hearing that states that our perception of sound depends on where each component frequency produces vibrations along the basilar membrane

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179
Q

What is shaping in operant conditioning?

A

A method of training that reinforces successive approximations towards a desired response; i.e, want pigeon to play a tune on keyboard, first key pecked pigeon rewarded (positive reinforcement), next pigeon is only rewarded after two keys are pecked

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180
Q

What is a fixed ratio schedule?

A

Operant conditioning; Reinforcement only occurs after a fixed number of responses

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181
Q

What is a fixed interval schedule?

A

Operant conditioning: reinforcement occurs at a fixed interval of time completely independent of correct response (i.e. paychecks every two weeks)

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182
Q

What is a variable ratio schedule?

A

Operant conditioning: reinforcement occurs after a variable number of correct responses

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183
Q

What are the four components for short term memory, and what do they do?

A

Phonological loop: temporary storage of auditory information
Visuospatial sketchpad: Temporary storage of visual information
Episodic buffer: Integrate representations from loop and sketchpad in ordered timely and coherent manner
Central executive: controlling and coordinating the activities of the other three stm systems

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184
Q

What are the two types of implicit memory, and what do they refer to?

A

Procedural: Like how to ride a bike
Priming: Previous knowledge affects how you perceive new information; i.e., lots of exposures to hares in your line of work, when someone says “hair” you think of a bunny and not the stuff on your head

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185
Q

What does “encoding” refer to in memory?

A

The input of information from physical stimuli into memory (either short term or long term),

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186
Q

What does “chunking” refer to in memory?

A

An encoding strategy that organizes new information into groups to help you remember them better; more effective than simple rote memorization

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187
Q

What does “retrieval” refer to in memory?

A

Accessing stored memories, moving them from long term memory back into working (short term) memory

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188
Q

What is the serial position effect in memory?

A

In a list of items, you are more likely to remember the first and last items

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189
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for memory association and retrieval?

A

Hippocampus

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190
Q

What is the difference between elaborative and maintenance rehearsal?

A

Maintenance: rote rehearsal, simple repeating
Elaborative: relating the rehearsal of each items to other things you know, such as mnemonics

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191
Q

Which sort of classical conditioning is most effective?

A

Delayed conditioning, where the conditioned stimulus is presented before the unconditioned stimulus and contineues throughout the presentation of the unconditioned stimulus

(aka: bell, then dog food)

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192
Q

What is overshadowing in conditioning?

A

When two stimuli are both associated with a response, but the more salient one will weaken the association between the less salient one and the response

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193
Q

What is the difference between reliability and validity?

A

Reliability: consistency of an study (same conditions/subjects will have same outcomes in multiple trials)

Validity: accuracy of a study (whether the results are actually correct)

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194
Q

What is the difference between an Imine and an enamine?

A
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195
Q

What is the general structure of an imide?

A
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196
Q

What are epimers?

A

Two stereoisomers that differ in the arrangement of groups on a single carbon (opposite configuration at only one stereocenter out of at least two)

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197
Q

What is the formula for specific rotation?

A
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198
Q

What are do Z and E configurations imply in terms of adjacent/ diagonal groups?

A

Z: highest priority groups are adjacent
E: highest priority groups are diagonal

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199
Q

What is considered a unit of unsaturation on an alkene?

A

A double bond or a ring

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200
Q

What structural component in a molecule is UV-Vis used to detect ?

A

Double bonds

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201
Q

The oxarine functional group is also known as

A

The epoxide group

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202
Q

In trans decalin, is are the connecting carbons (bonds extending laterally from the carbons shared by both rings) in an axial or equatorial conformation?

A

Equatorial

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203
Q

In cis decalin, is are the connecting carbons (bonds extending laterally from the carbons shared by both rings) in an axial or equatorial conformation?

A

One axial, one equatorial

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204
Q

How can you tell the difference between alpha and beta anomers of sugar monomers? How does this relate to naming glycosidic linkages?

A

For D Sugars only:

If anomeric -OH facing down, alpha. If up, beta.

To be more precise: if trans with c6 carbon, alpha. If Cis, beta

For linkages, look at the anomeric carbon that is participating in the linkage. If it is alpha, it is an alpha glycosidic bond. If both anomeric carbons are participating in the linkage, then use the nomenclature alpha-1 beta-2 linkage, for example

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205
Q

How can you tell the difference between L and D sugars?

A

“Flatten” out cyclic molecule into fischer projection. If carbon 5 (anomeric carbon is carbon 1) has -OH group on right side, then it is a D sugar. If its on the left side, then its an L sugar.

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206
Q

What is the iupac name for this compound?

A

Butyl (the alkyl group after the ester) ethanoate (the carbons leading up to the carbonyl)

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207
Q

What is the strecker synthesis?

A

From an aldehyde, you can synthesize an amino acid via an aminonitrile intermediate. You get a mixture of both L and D enantiomers because the aldehyde reaction is not stereospecific.

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208
Q

What information does a chromatogram provide?

A

A time based, graphical output of a chromatography run.

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209
Q

How can you tell the difference between D and L amino acids?

A

Very similar method as for sugars. Most oxidized carbon at the top (-COOH), if the amine group is to the left, it is an L amino acid, if it is to the right, it is a D amino acid

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210
Q

What is the formula to figure out how many possible stereoisomers can be formed from a compound with N stereocenters?

A

= 2^n

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211
Q

What does enantiomeric excess indicate, and what is its formula?

A

EE: The extent to which one enantiomer exists over the other in a mixture with both enantiomers. Racemic mixture= EE of 0.

Formula: enantiomeric excess = % of major enantiomer - % of minor

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212
Q

Where does the carbonyl ir peak generally lie?

A

1600-1900 cm-1

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213
Q

What type of solvent does SN2 prefer and why?

A

Polar aprotic; polar enough to solvate nucleophile, but not too polar as to lock nucleophile into “solvent cage”

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214
Q

Is saponification (hydrolysis of ester bonds with strong base), do you need 1 equivalent of base per ester bond, or simply a catalytic amount?

A

1 equivalent of base per ester bond

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215
Q

Which is a common method used to separate between cis and trans isomers? (geometric isomers)

A

Gas chromatography, which can separate them due to their different boiling points

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216
Q

What is the nmr ppm value for carboxylic acid hydrogen?

A

10-12

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217
Q

What is the nmr ppm value for an aldehyde hydrogen?

A

9-10

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218
Q

What is the nmr ppm value for aromatic hydrogens?

A

7-8

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219
Q

What IR stretch is indicative of C=C bond in an alkene?

A

~1640-1680

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220
Q

Which common bonds exhibit IR stretch peaks above 3000?

A

=C-H, O-H (alcohol only ), N-H,

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221
Q

What is the difference in IR stretch values between alcohol -OH and acid -OH?

A

Alcohol -OH is higher ((3200-3500, vs 2500-3200 for acid) because it is a stronger bond (dissociates less)

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222
Q

Are amides slightly acidic or slightly basic and why?

A

Slightly acidic, because upon deprotonation there is resonance stabilization with the oxygen

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223
Q

If two objects are launched at complementary angles at the same velocity, will they land the same distance away from where they are launched?

A

Yes, but only if the landing area is at the same elevation at which they were both launched

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224
Q

What is the formula for the range of a projectile? (2D kinematics)

A

R= (Vo2sin2(theta))/g

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225
Q

How do you calculate the force reduction associated with a pulley system?

A

Frequired to lift an object= Weight of Object/(# of “wheels)

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226
Q

What is poiseuilles equation (describes flow rate through a pipe),

A
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227
Q

What are the equations for: 1.) force applied by a spring and 2.) potential energy stored by a spring?

A

1.) F=-kx 2.) PE=½ kx^2

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228
Q

What is the relationship between number of coils and spring constant?

A

The greater the number of coils, the lower the spring constant

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229
Q

What direction does the carnot diagram of an engine flow?

A

Clockwise

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230
Q

What direction does the carnot diagram of a refridgerator flow?

A

Counterclockwise

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231
Q

What is mean free path?

A

In ideal gas: the mean distance a given particle travels before colliding with other particles

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232
Q

What quantity of a gas sample affects mean free path values?

A

Only density (of particles)

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233
Q

What does “X” stand for (In gasses?)

A

Relative abundance

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234
Q

How does one increase the velocity of a standing wave in a string?

A

Increase tension or decrease density of the string

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235
Q

What is the formula for the period of simple harmonic motion for both a spring and a pendulum?

A

T=2pi * sqrt(m/k) for a spring,

T= 2pi * sqrt(L/g) for a pendulum

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236
Q

What is the formula for the frequency of a standing wave on a string?

A

Fn= (nv)/2L, n= which harmonic, meaning how many “humps” you see

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237
Q

Does sound propogate faster in harder materials or softer materials?

A

Harder materials

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238
Q

Order the mediums in terms of propogation speed of sound through it: Liquid, Gas, Solid

A

Slowest: Gas, Liquid, Solid (fastest)

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239
Q

?What is the formula for calculating a decibel value based on intensities?

A

D= 10log(I/Is), where I is the intensity of the sound, Is is the lowest audible sound a human can hear, or any other source/standard intensity sound

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240
Q

What is the magnitude multiplier for the prefix”mega”?

A

10^6

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241
Q

What is the magnitude multiplier for the prefix”Giga”?

A

10^9

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242
Q

How can the doppler effect be estimated?

A
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243
Q

What occurs to sound intensity after entering another medium and why?

A

Decreases; some of the wave is reflected at the interface between the two mediums

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244
Q

What is the equation for pressure felt at different heights in a water column?

A

P1-P2=p(y2-y1)g, where P1 and P2 are the pressures felt at depths y1 and y2, and p is the density of the fluid

(in simpler terms- P=pgh, as long as h refers to the height below surface of water)

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245
Q

What is the equation for buoyant force?

A

B= pfluid * Vfluid displaced * g

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246
Q

What is the formula for a fluid’s retarding force as it moves through the center of a pipe?

A

F= 4pi n(viscocity) L v

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247
Q

What is the continuity equation in fluid dynamics?

A

Q= A1V1= A2V2

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248
Q

What is the conversion from g/L to kg/m^3?

A

1:1

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249
Q

What occurs in transamination?

A

An amino group (-NH2) is transferred from an amino acid to a keto-acid to form the amino-acid version of the keto acid and the keto acid version of the original amino acid.

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250
Q

What is lipolysis, and what enzyme controls lipolysis?

A

Lipolysis is the hydrolysis of triacyglycerols to a glycerol and three fatty acid chains. It is controlled by hormone sensitive lipase

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251
Q

Where in the body are proteins broken down into amino acids?

A

The small intestine, by proteases such as trypsin and chymostypsin, as well as in the stomach by the protease pepsin

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252
Q

What is the difference between Ketogenic and Glucogenic amino acids?

A

Ketogenic: Carbon backbone feeds into fatty acid synthesis (can be converted into acetyl coa)
Glucogenic: Carbon backbone feeds into glucose synthesis (can be conerted into glucosee)

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253
Q

What are the two exclusively ketogenic amino acids?

A

Lysine and Leucine

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254
Q

Where are amino acids sent after the small intestine? What can occur here?

A

The liver. Using these amino acids, protein synthesis, glucose synthesis or, fatty acid synthesis can occur

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255
Q

What is the primary amino group acceptor in transamination?

A

alpha-ketoglutarate

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256
Q

After transamination, what is alpha-ketoglutarate converted to?

A

Glutamate

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257
Q

After transamination and the conversion of alpha-ketoglutarate to glutamate, to what cycle is the amino group transferred to?

A

Urea cycle

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258
Q

What is the difference between a reducing sugar and a non-reducing sugar?

A

Reducing sugar: anomeric carbon has -OH group that can reduce other compounds
Nonreducing sugar: anomeric carbon does not have -OH group

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259
Q

In nucleic acids, sugars are bound to nitrogenous bases using what bond?

A

Glycosidic bond

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260
Q

What does the x intercept and the y intercept of a lineweaver burke plot represent?

A
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261
Q

What is the definition of a Zymogen?

A

An enzyme that must be cleaved before it can be in its active form

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262
Q

What does a hill coefficient that is 1, less than 1, and greater than 1 indicate?

A

Less than 1: Negative cooperativity, binding of one ligand prevents binding of another
1: independent cooperativity, independent binding
Greater than 1: Positive cooperativity, binding of one ligand promotes binding of the other

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263
Q

What is the average weight of an amino acid in daltons?

A

110 Da

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264
Q

How does insulin promote glycolysis, and by what mechanism?

A

Upregulates glycolysis; activates synthesis of F2,6BP (by upregulating PFK-2), which then allosterically activates PFK-1 to synthesize more F1,6BP

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265
Q

Which two amino acids disrupt alpha helix formation?

A

Glycine and proline

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266
Q

Match the following:
Tertiary structure is mainly mediated through interactions between (side chains/backbones), whereas secondary structure is mainly mediated through interactions between (side chains/backbones)

A
  1. Side chains, 2. Backbone
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267
Q

What is a native gel?

A

One without SDS; used when 3d protein structure needs to be preserved

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268
Q

What is a signal peptide sequence?

A

Peptide sequence at the N terminus of newly synthesized proteins that tells the protein where to go,

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269
Q

What is transcytosis?

A

Transport of vesicular transport of macromolecules form one end of the cell to the other

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270
Q

What does the complement system do?

A

Recognizes antibody antigen (commonly microorganisms) complex, becomes activated, cascade of proteolytic cleavages until it is able to poke holes in microorganism

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271
Q

Where do B -Cells develop and mature?

A

First develop in the bone marrow, then go onto continue maturation in the spleen + lymph nodes

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272
Q

What is histamine released by, and what are its effects?

A

Released by Mast cells (basophils), promotes vasodilation, inflammation, and vessel permeability

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273
Q

Where do T-Cells develop and mature?

A

Thymus, and then spleen + lymph nodes

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274
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs and what is their purpose

A

Lymph nodes, spleen; Where close to mature B cells and T cells can “hang out” and react with foreign antigens

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275
Q

What are the two types of corticosteroids?

A

Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids

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276
Q

Between beta cells and alpha cells of the pancreas, which is activated with the sympathetic system and which is activated by the parasympathetic system

A

Beta cells: parasympathetic
Alpha cells: sympathetic

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277
Q

What is glucagon’s target(s)?

A

Liver

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278
Q

What is the effect of thyroid hormone?

A

To increase metabolic rate of all cells affected

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279
Q

Which cells are responsible for the laying down and reabsorption of bone tissue, respectively?

A

Osteoblasts, osteoclasts

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280
Q

What is the function of parathyroid hormone?

A

Causes calcium absorption by stimulating osteoclastic activity and inhibiting osteoblast acitivity (opposite to calcitonin)

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281
Q

What is the effect of calcitonin

A

Reduce born resorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity

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282
Q

What is the cannon bard theory of emotion?

A

The conscious experience and physiological response of the motion are experienced simultaneously

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283
Q

What is the james lange theory of emotion

A

Physiological arousal and behavioral response precede the conscious experience of emotion

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284
Q

What is the schachter singer. or two factor theory of emotion?

A

Exposure to stimulus -> physiological arousal -> cognitive evaluation of physiological arousal in context with situation -> subjective experience of emotion

Similar to James Lange, except physiological arousal must be interpreted with situational conext in mind

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285
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation on pupils

A

Dilation

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286
Q

What are ambient stressors?

A

Global challenges that affect individuals subconsciously, and affect all people in. agiven area, like pollution, city noise. crime

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287
Q

What are the two types of attribution conflict in attribution theory?

A
  1. External vs Internal (also known as situational vs dispositional) 2. Stable vs unstable
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288
Q

What is a fixed action pattern?

A

An action that will invariably occur upon trigger

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289
Q

What is the allostasis theory of drug addiction?

A

As one takes more and more of an abused drug, the brain will have countermeasures to oppose the effects of the drug (less dopamine receptors, etc). Thus, addiction is primarily motivated not be positive reinforcement (to get high) but by negative reinforcement (don’t want to feel shitty)

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290
Q

What is the reward circuitry pathway in the brain called?

A

Mesolimbic pathway

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291
Q

What is kluver bucy syndrome?

A

Bilateral lesion of temporal lobe resulting in hypersexuality, hyper orality (putting things in mouth), and overeating

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292
Q

What is arousal theory in motivation?

A

People are motivated to do certain behaviors in order to maintain an optimal level of arousal

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293
Q

What is an incremental theory of intelligence?

A

That one’s intelligence may grow and change

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294
Q

What is the formula to determine iq?

A

iq= (mental age)/(chronological age) * 100

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295
Q

Where does fatty acid synthesis occur?

A

Cytosol

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296
Q

Where does fatty acid oxidation occur?

A

Mitochondria

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297
Q

What are kcat and Km?

A

kcat is a rate constant, describes the turnover of enzyme (once enzyme substrate complex, how fast does it actually catalyze). Km is an equillibrium constant, describes the affinity of the substrate for enzyme

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298
Q

What is catalytic efficiency and how is it calculated?

A

catalytic efficiency = kcat/Km. Therefore, higher efficieny= greater turnover and lower affinity

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299
Q

What are the first two steps of glycogenolysis, and what are the enzymes that catalyze these steps?

A
  1. ) Glycogen to G1P; catalyzed by glycogen phosphorylase
  2. ) G1P to G6P; catalyzed by phosphoglucomutase
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300
Q

How are glucose residues removed from linear (not branch point) glycogen chains? (Phosphorolysis or hydrolysis)

A

Phosphorolysis

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301
Q

What must be true to go from products back to reactants in an irreversible metabolic step?

A

To go back to reactants, must use a different pathway altogether

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302
Q

What does the cori cycle describe?

A

The opposing pathways of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. specifically in regards to lactic acid fermentation by muscles. This lactate is then sent to the liver, converted to pyruvate, and is used in gluconeogenesis to then regenerate glucose.

It is a “futile/substrate” cycle, in which there are two opposite metabolic pathways that are controlled by different enzymes

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303
Q

How many molecules of NTP (ATP or GTP) are required to synthesize one glucose molecule in gluconeogenesis?

A

6

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304
Q

What metabolic process provides the energy for gluconeogenesis and why?

A

Fatty acid oxidation; gluconeogenesis is required in times of fasting; gluconeogenesis requires 6 NTP; this cannot come from glycolysis due to fasting, therefore it must come from fatty acid oxidation

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305
Q

What is the function of F2,6BP, what is its precursor, and what are the enzymes that convert to and from the precursor to F2,6BP?

A

Function: Allosterically activate PFK-1 to promote glycolysis; allosterically inhibit F1,6BPase to inhibit gluconeogenesis
Precursor: F6P
Enzymes: To F2,6BP: PFK-2. Back to F6P: F2,6BPase

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306
Q

What overarching function does the hypothalamus regulate?

A

Homeostasis

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307
Q

Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for the physiological component of emotion?

A

Hypothalamus

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308
Q

What are mirror neurons?

A

Neurons that are involved when an individual observes and performs a behavior; they play a central role in obvservational learning and in vicarious emotions (empathy)

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309
Q

What is the interactionist theory of language?

A

Language acquisition in children is the result of both biological (normal brain development) and social factors, especially the interaction between caregivers and children

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310
Q

What is the fundamental attribution error? How is this distinguished from the actor-observer bias?

A

Tendency to blame others’ behavior on internal (she got into a car accident because she sucks at driving) rather than external (she got into a car accident because it was raining really hard) factors

Actor observer bias, in addition to attributing others’ bad behavior on internal factors, also attributes one’s own actions to external causes

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311
Q

What cognitive functions are primarily mediated by the right hemisphere?

A

Spatial processing, emotion, art, music, visualizatoin

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312
Q

What cognitive functions are primarily mediated by the left themisphere?

A

Language, math/logic/reasoning, science

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313
Q

Where inside a solenoid is the magnetic field strongest?

A

Trick question, the magnetic field is the same strength inside a solenoid regardless of how close one is to the center

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314
Q

What are the functional characteristics of paramagnetic/diamagnetic species?

A

Paragmagnetic: will align with and strengthen a magnetic field

Diamagnetic: will partially expel a magnetic field; magnetic field creates a field within the species that is opposite to the field,

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315
Q

What is the formula for the electric field generated by two plates with voltage difference V at distance D from each other?

A

E=V/D

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316
Q

Which cells degrade bone?

A

Osteoclast

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317
Q

Which cell helps build up bone?

A

Osteoblast

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318
Q

Which enzyme stimulates vitamin D conversion to calcitriol?

A

PTH

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319
Q

What are the two main functions of calcitriol?

A

Minor stimulation of osteoclast activity, increase phosphorus reabsorption, increase intestinal absorption of calcium (somewhat opposite to calcitonin)

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320
Q

Where is calcitonin produced?

A

Thyroid

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321
Q

What layers of the skin are sensory receptors located in?

A

Epidermis, dermis

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322
Q

Where and How are keratinocytes formed?

A

They are formed in the epidermis. At the most basal layer of the epidermis (stratum basale), there exists a layer of continously replicated stem cells. Daughters of these cells continue to push up, die, and keratinize until they are at the surface.

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323
Q

What are/ what is the function of desmosomes and what gives them this quality?

A

Cell-cell junction that provides strong adhesion between cells. This adhesion results from filaments extending through the junction

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324
Q

What is the purpose of tight junctions?

A

To prevent leakage between cells

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325
Q

What is the sequence of events that lead to the activation of a B-Cell?

A

Binds antigen, endocytose antigen and present on surface with MHC 2, helper T binds and releases cytokines which activate the B-Cell, b-cell proliferates and progeny differentiate into either plasma cells or memory B cells.

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326
Q

What is the side chain pKa of cysteine?

A

8

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327
Q

What is the side chain pka of lysine

A

10.5

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328
Q

What is the side chain pka of arginine

A

12

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329
Q

What is the side chain pka of tyrosine?

A

10

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330
Q

What is a pneumonic to remember the essential amino acids?

A

VH MILK, WTF? (Very heavy milk, wtf)

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331
Q

What is the definition of an essential amino acid?

A

One that the body cannot synthesize itself

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332
Q

Which amino acid is a serotonin precursor?

A

Tryptophan

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333
Q

What is the formula for calculating the isoelectric point of a zwitterion?

A

pI= (pk1 + pk2)/2

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334
Q

What is the membrane difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria? Which is resistant to antibiotics?

A

Gram positive: Peptidoglycan cell wall directly outside membrane

Gram negative: Peptidoglycan cell wall sandwiched between two membranes

Gram negative is resistant to antibiotics and lysozyme, because both act on the peptidoglycan layer which is blocked by the outer membrane

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335
Q

What is the effect of cholesterol on membrane fluidity?

A

When temperature is low, increase fluidity. When temperature is medium or high (including at physiological temperture), decrease fluidity/increases rigidity . (tries to maintain membrane fluidity homeostasis)

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336
Q

Is e coli gram positive or gram negative?

A

Gram negative

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337
Q

Downs syndrome is trisomy __

A

21

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338
Q

Which cells remain in G0 permanently

A

Neurons, cardiac cells

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339
Q

`What colors do gram positive and gram negative bacteria turn after gram stain, respectively?

A

Gram pos: Violet

Gram neg: Red or pink

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340
Q

For capacitors in parallel, how do you calculate the equivalent capacitance?

A

Ceq= C1 + C2 + Cn

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341
Q

For capacitors in series, how do you calculate the equivalent capacitance?

A

Ceq= 1/(1/C1 + 1/C2 + … )

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342
Q

What is the range of visible wavelengths?

A

380 nm (violet) to 750 (red)

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343
Q

What is special about the boiling points of two enantiomers? How does this differ from diastereomers?

A

Enantiomers have the same boiling point. Diastereomers do not

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344
Q

What is a special quality of ethers?

A

They are inert

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345
Q

Below what BP difference is fractional distillation required?

A

If the BP difference between two liquids is less than 30 degrees c

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346
Q

What are the two assumptions of raoults law?

A
  1. ) That the intermolecular interactions exhibited by the mixture are the same as the interactions exhibited by each mixture component alone (i.e., no new intermolecular interactions arise when the two components are placed together )
  2. ) perfect homogeneity
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347
Q

What are the two water soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamin B and Vitamin C

(pneumonic, jesus walked on water in 0 BC)

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348
Q

What subunits are terpenes formed from?

A

Isoprene subunits

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349
Q

What is another word for cis-trans isomerism?

A

Geometric isomerism

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350
Q

What increases max absorbance wavelength in UV Vis spectropy? Why?

A

More conjugated bonds= energy gap between excited and ground state lower= higher wavelength/ lower energy photon

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351
Q

What is the formula for number of carbons in a completely saturaed hydrocarbon?

A

Cn H 2n+2

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352
Q

When is 1,4 addition possible?

A

In a conjugated diene:

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353
Q

What is the difference between a terpene and a terpenoid?

A

Terpene is hydrocarbon, terpenoid contains heteroatoms

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354
Q

How is biological isoprene synthesized?

A

Three acetyl coa molecules condense followed by a decarboxylation

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355
Q

Do carbonyls or alkenes have a higher lambda max wavelength value in uv vis?

A

Carbonyls

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356
Q

What is the chemical purpose of antioxidants in the body?

A

To “absorb” free radical species. i.e. can react with free radicals and contain the radical, rather than propogating the radical chain reaction

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357
Q

How do lipid soluble proteins travel through the blood stream?

A

Via chylomicrons (low density lipoprotein)

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358
Q

If a solution absorbs red light what color will it appear? How do you figure out complementary colors?

A

Green

Arrange the colors ROYGBV in a circle, with R next to V. The color directly across from that color is its complement.

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359
Q

What is a resolving agent used for and how does it work?

A

To separate enantiomers; it is a chiral auxillary that converts the enantiomers into chemically distinct diastereomers that can then be separated using traditional methods

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360
Q

What characteristic does gas liquid chromatography primarily separate compounds by ?

A

Boiling point; those with a higher boiling point have more IMF’s and therefore will exhibit longer retention times

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361
Q

What is reversed phase chromotography in contrast to normal chromotography?

A

In normal chromotography, the the stationary phase is polar and the solvent is nonpolar. In reverse phase chromotography, this is reversed: the stationary phase is nonpolar, the solvent is polar

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362
Q

What is the difference between a kinase and a phosphorylase?

A

Kinase: transfers phosphate group from one species to another

Phosphorylase: uses a Pi to break a bond

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363
Q

What are the 7 amino acids with ionizable side chains and what are their corresponding side chain pKa’s?

A

D 3.7

E 4.3

H: 6

K: 10.5

R: 12

Y: 10

C: 8.2

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364
Q

What does a low Km entail for substrate affinity?

A

Lower Km= higher substrate affinity (On michaelis menten graph, Km is the substrate concentration at which Vo reaches ½ Vo max)

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365
Q

Under what condition does pH+ pOH = 14? (i.e., does kw= 10e-14?)

A

Only at 25 degrees c

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366
Q

What are the definition of a strong acid, a weak acid, and a very weak acid?

A

Strong acid: Fully dissociates in water, pKa< 0

Weak acid: partially dissociates in water, 0 < pKa< 14

Very weak acid: dissociates less than H2O, pKa > 14

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367
Q

What is the michaelis menten equation?

A

V= Vmax[s]/([s] + Km)

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368
Q

What is the LIneweaver Burke equation?

A
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369
Q

What is a characteristic of a competitive inhibitor on a lineweaver burke plot? What happens to Km and Vmax?

A

Y intercept stays the same with increasing inhibitor (Vmax remains constant), while x intercept becomes less negative (Km increases)

Km increases, Vmax remains constant

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370
Q

What is a characteristic of a noncompetitive inhibitor on lineweaver burke plot? What is the effect on Km and Vmax?

A

X intercept constant (Km remains unaffected), Y intercept increases (Vmax decreases)

Km remains constant, Vmax decreases

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371
Q

What is the difference between a noncompetitive inhibitor and an uncompetitive inhibitor?

A

Noncompetitive: binds allosteric site of free enzyme or enzyme substrate complex

Uncompetitive: only binds allosteric site of enzyme substrate complex

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372
Q

What is the effect of an uncompetitive inhibitor on the lineweaver burke plot? What is its effect on km and vmax?

A

Both y intercept and x intercept change, slope (Km/vmax) remains constant

Km decreases, vmax decreases

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373
Q

Which vitamin is bound to co enzyme A?

A

Vitamin B5

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374
Q

Between alpha helixes and beta sheets, which is more strong and which is more flexible?

A

Beta sheets- more flexible

Alpha helix- more strong

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375
Q

What does a ca2+ na+ exchanger do?

A

In heart cells, maintains Ca2+ levels. Calcium out of cell, sodium into cell, using Na+ gradient

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376
Q

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for processing spatial information and cognitive mapping? (i.e., the relation of objects to each other in space)

A

Parietal lobe

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377
Q

What is the phi phenomenon?

A

An illusion of movement when two adjacent lights blink on and off

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378
Q

What is motion parallax?

A

When things that are closer tend to move faster than things that are further away

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379
Q

What is retinal disparity?

A

Two eyes see different images, allowing us depth perception

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380
Q

What does the psychoanalytic concept of regression entail?

A

A defense mechanism; Behaving as if were much younger in order to avoid consequences

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381
Q

What is the formula for the resistance of a wire?

A

R= p(resistivity) (L/A)

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382
Q

What are the formula for electrical power?

A

P= IV, P= V^2/R, P= I^2R

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383
Q

What is the formula for Capacitance as it relates to charge on the capacitor and voltage?

A

C= q/v

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384
Q

What is the equation related capacitance to dielectric constant?

A

C= keA/d

e is the permitivity of free space, which is altered by k, the dielectric constant

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385
Q

What is the formula for the electric potential energy needed to charge a capacitor?

A

PE= qVavg

Functional derivations: PE= ½ CV^2 or PE= 1/2 q^2 /C

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386
Q

What is kirchoff’s loop rule?

A

Sum of the voltage changes in any closed circuit is equal to zero

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387
Q

What is kirchoff’s junciton rule?

A

At any junction in a circuit, I(before junction) = I1 + I2

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388
Q

What are the formulas for resisters in series vs parellel? How do they compare to capacitors in series vs parallel?

A

Resistors:

Series: Req= r1 + r2 + …

Parellel: Req= 1/(1/r1 + 1/r2 + 1/r3.. )

This relationship is flipped for capacitors

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389
Q

What the the equation for the time dependence of charge on a capacitor in an RC circuit?

A

q=qo (1-e^(-t/(rc)))

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390
Q

What the the equation for the time dependence of current on a capacitor in an RC circuit?

A

I=Io (e^(-t/(rc)))

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391
Q

Does host genome degradation occur for both lytic and lysogenic cycles?

A

Yes

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392
Q

Which cycle (lytic/lysogenic) involves integration into host genome?

A

Lysogenic

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393
Q

Which motor proteins, respectively, control anterograde and retrograde transport? Along which cytoskeleton fiber type do they travel along?

A

Anterograde: Kinesin

Retrograde: Dynein

Along microtubules

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394
Q

Viruses with which type of genome (DNA or RNA) utilize the host machinery more?

A

DNA- need RNA pol to transcribe to RNA, then ribosomes to make viral proteins. In RNA genomes, can directly use their own RNA to make viral proteins.

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395
Q

What distinguishes a retrovirus from normal RNA viruses?

A

Retroviruses have reverse transcriptase and integrase activity to allow their RNA genomes to be transcribed into DNA and integrated into the host genome. Normal RNA viruses simply allow their RNA genomes to be replicated by host machinery.

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396
Q

What effect does withdrawal of female sex hormones have on bone density?

A

Would decrease bone density

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397
Q

What is the formula for the pH of a solution of weak acid?

A

Find [H+] from pKa (using the correct approximations, as Ka will be <<1), then from [H+] find pH

pH= (pKa- log[HA]) /2

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398
Q

How do you calculate equivalence point pH in a weak acid / strong base titration?

A

Find final concentration of conjugate base, use pKb (remember, pka+ pkb=14) to find [OH-], then convert to pH

Alternatively,

pH= (pKa + pH(titrant solution)) /2

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399
Q

How do you calculate the pH of the first equivalence point of a polyprotic acid titration?

A

pH= (pk1 + pk2)/2

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400
Q

In the titration of a strong acid by a strong base or vice versa, what is always the pH at equivalence point?

A

pH= 7

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401
Q

What is the numerical relationship between pka and pkb for the same proton?

A

pka + pkb = 14 (only at 25 degrees c)

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402
Q

What is true of the pH of a titration at the half equivalence point?

A

pH= pKa

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403
Q

What is the pH range of a single pH indicator?

A

Around 2

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404
Q

What can be said of the charge of an amino acid when the pH exceeds its pI?

A

It is negatively charged

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405
Q

What do granulosa cells secrete?

A

Estrogen

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406
Q

What is the difference between a feature search and a conjunction search?

A

Feature search: searching for target stimulus with one distinct feature

Conjunction search: searching for target stimulus with by scanning for a combination of features

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407
Q

What is the Stroop effect?

A

When a task becomes automized, there may be errors associated with it. (i.e., ask to as quickly as possible name the ink color of a set of words. If these words are colors, like “red” but ink color blue, it is harder”

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408
Q

What are the similarities and differences between feature based theory, prototype theory, and exemplar based reasoning ?

A

They are all means by which we define whether something fits within a category.

Feature based theory: things with certain features fit within a category

Prototype theory: its similarity to an abstract, simplest form prototype decides whether something fits in a category

Exemplar based reasoning: its similarity to an exemplar (i.e., apple for category fruit) decides whether something fits in a category

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409
Q

What is a problem space? What needs to occur to the problem space as one attempts to solve a problem?

A

A problem space is the mental representation of a problem and all the possible paths to solving it.

In order to solve a problem, need to minimize problem space

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410
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

When making decisions or judgements, one is biased towards choosing the choice in which accessing its pertinent data is most accessible; i.e. “are there more words that start with r or have r as third letter?” people more likely to say the former because those words are more easily accesible

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411
Q

What is the representativeness heuristic?

A

.The more likely an event appears to resemble a standard mental “prototype” of an event, the more likely it is deemed. In doing so, people often ignore the “base rate”, i.e. in the absence of knowledge of the event, whether that event has a low/ high probability

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412
Q

How is the theory of multiple intelligences related to “g”, general intelligence?

A

it states that there is no general intelligence; rather, there are separate domains of intelligence that are independent from one another

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413
Q

What is the age range of the Piaget’s sensorimotor stage of development? What are its characteristics and what is attained?

A

Spans from birth to aquisition of language (2 years old). Attempts to understand world with exploration. Develops object permanence.

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414
Q

What is the age range of the Piaget’s preoperational stage of development? What are its characteristics and what is attained?

A
  • From 2 years to 7 years.
  • Cannot perform mental operations like reasoning, but begin to think in terms of images/ are able to use symbols in play/language
  • Children in this stage are egocentric; i.e., if hiding behind couch and can’t see parent, thinks parent definitely can’t see them.
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415
Q

What is Theory of mind?

A

Ability to infer another person’s mental state and thus explain/predict their behavior

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416
Q

What is the age range of the Piaget’s concrete operational stage of development? What are its characteristics and what is attained?

A

7 to 11 years old. Characterized by ability to think logically about concrete events, but inability to comprehend hypothetical or abstract concepts. Also gain the ability of theory of mind (no longer egocentric)

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417
Q

What is the age range of the Piaget’s formal operational stage of development? What are its characteristics and what is attained?

A

From 12 onwards. Children can now think logically about abstract and hypothetical instances.

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418
Q

What is the learning perspective of language?

A

Children develop use of language through both classical and operant conditioning, as well as observational learning

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419
Q

What is the nativist perspective of language development?

A

Language is something individuals are are naturally predisposed to; it cannot be learned from experience alone

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420
Q

What does a lesion in broca’s area lead to?

A

Broca’s aphasia; loss of ability to speak words but retain ability to comprehend langauge

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421
Q

What does a lesion in wernicke’s area do?

A

Lose ability to comprehend language, but can still string together fluid (but nonsensical) sentences)

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422
Q

What EEG waves are associated with alertness?

A

Beta waves

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423
Q

What eeg waves are associated with each sleep stage?

A

Stage 1: Theta waves

Stage 2: Theta + k complex

Stage 3 and 4: delta waves

REM: beta waves (similar to wake)

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424
Q

What is the theory of linguistic relativity?

A

The structure of a language affects the speaker’s worldview/cognition

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425
Q

What sort of statistical test is an F statistic associated with?

A

ANOVA

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426
Q

What theory of language did noam chomsky support?

A

Nativist Theory of language

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427
Q

What is noam chomsky’s language acquisition device?

A

A instinctive quality of infants that allow them instinctive ability to acquire and produce language

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428
Q

What is the IR wavenumber for an aromatic C-H stretch?

A

~3030 cm-1

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429
Q

What does SOCl2 alone do to an alcohol?

A

Through SN2, substitutes an alchohol into an alkyl chloride

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430
Q

What generally happens to a solution in which a transition metal changes oxidation states?

A

A color change occurs

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431
Q

What is the difference between vicinal and geminal?

A

Vicinal- both groups are on neighboring carbons

Geminal- both groups are on the same carbon

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432
Q

What do LAH and NaBH4 do in a reaction, and what is the difference in their reactivities?

A

LAH and NaBH4 reduce carbonyls to alcohols. In contrast to NaBH4, which can reduce aldehydes, ketones, and acid chlorides/anhydrides, LAH can also reduce esters and carboxylic acids

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433
Q

What is the difference between an aldol and a claisen condensation?

A

Aldol: addition of enolates to to aldehydes or ketones

Claisen: addition of enolates to esters

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434
Q

How does PCC react with a primary alcohol?

A

Oxidizes primary alcohol to an aldehyde (rather than all the way to a carboxylic acid)

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435
Q

What can be said about CrO3, H2CrO4, and Na2Cr2O7?

A

They are all equivalent, and oxidize alcohols to carbonyls

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436
Q

What does SOCl2 do to a carboxylic acid?

A

Turns it into an acid chloride

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437
Q

What enzyme interconverts DHAP and GAP?

A

Triose Phosphate Isomerase

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438
Q

What enzyme converts GAP to its produce? What are the products of this reaciton?

A

GAPDH

Products: 1,3 BPG, NADH

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439
Q

What enzyme converts 1.3 BPG to its product? What products are yielded in this reaciton?

A

Phosphoglycerate kinase; 3PG and ATP

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440
Q

What metabolite helps hemoglobin bind oxygen? What reaction is the metabolite derived from? What is special about the enzyme that catalyzes this reaction that allows for this?

A

2,3 BPG; derived from 3PG to 2PG reaction catalyzed by PGM; the intermediate di-phosphorylated compound of this reaction is 2,3 BPG

PGM is a phosphorylated enzyme, meaning that it comes phosphorylated and therefore phosphorylates the two position in 3PG before dephosphorylating its 3 position

Note: 2,3 BPG can also be catalyzed directly from 1,3 BPG by 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate

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441
Q

What enzyme converts 2PG to its product? What is the product?

A

Enolse; PEP

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442
Q

What is special about TPI (triose phosphate isomerase) in glycolysis?

A

It is catalytically perfect

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443
Q

What is the main purpose of converting pyruvate to lactate under anaerobic conditions?

A

To regenerate NAD+

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444
Q

What are the regulators of PFK?

A

Inhibitors: Citrate, ATP

Activators: AMP, F 2,6 BP (made from F6P detour by PFK-2, stimulated by insulin)

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445
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm

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446
Q

What enzyme (complex) is used to convert pyruvate to the first reactant in the citric cycle? What are its products?

A

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex; Acetyl coa, NADH, CO2

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447
Q

In the citric acid cycle, what two enzymes catalyze reaction steps where decarboxylation occurs?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

448
Q

How many NADH’s, FADH’s, and GTP’s are produced per turn of the citric acid cycle?

A

3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP

449
Q

in the citric acid cycle, what enzymes catalyze reactions that produce NADH?

A

Isocitrate Dehydrogenase, alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, malate dehydrogenase

(all. the ones that are dehydrogenase)

450
Q

What portion of the mitochondria has the highest proton concentration?

A

Intermembrane space

451
Q

Where in the cell does the citric acid cycle occur?

A

In the matrix of the mitocondria

452
Q

What enzymes catalyze ATP yielding steps in glycolysis?

A

Phosphoglucokinase, Pyruvate kinase

453
Q

What enzyme in the Citric Acid Cycle catalyzes GTP production?

A

Succinyl Coa Synthetase

454
Q

Which complexes do NADH and FADH2 enter in the ETC, respectively?

A

Complex 1, compelx 2

455
Q

Which complexes in the ETC are actively involved in pumping H+ into the interstitial space?

A

Complexes 1, 3, and 4

456
Q

What are the P/O ratios for NADH and FADH2, respectively?

A

3, 2

457
Q

What is the total number of ATP’s produced during oxidative phophorylation from one glucose moleucle?

A

34; P/O for NADH is 3, P/O for FADH2 is 2, there are 10 NADH and 2 FADH2 total; 10*3 + 2*2= 34

458
Q

What are the general purposes of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

Generate reducing power in the form of NADPH, which is used for anabolic processes. Also to generate five carbon sugars like Ribose 5 phosphate

459
Q

Do all bacteria and archaea have circular chromosomes?

A

Yes

460
Q

What is a fundamental difference between bacteria and archea?

A

Bacteria possess a peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall; archaea do not

461
Q

What does synapsis refer to?

A

The fusion of homologous chromosomes into a tetrad in the beginning of meiosis 1

462
Q

What is the purpose of the fallopian cillia?

A

To propel the released egg to the uterus for implantation

463
Q

What is the difference between transduction, conjugation, and transformation? How do they all differ from transfection?

A

All three are only in prokaryotes:

Transduction: picking up novel genetic material via infection by bacteriophage

Conjugation: direct transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another

Transformation: picking up novel genetic material from the environment

Transfection refers to this similar process but only in eukaryotic cells

464
Q

What is a common cell type that does not possess a mitochondria?

A

Blood cells (erythrocytes)

465
Q

Where in the body is lactate from lactic acid fermentation converted back into pyruvate?

A

In the liver; part of the gluconeogenesis pathway (cori cycle)

466
Q

In gluconeogenesis, what intermediate is pyruvate converted into first?

A

Oxaloacetatee

467
Q

In gluconeogenesis, what intermediate is used to convert pyruvate “backwards” to PEP? What enzymes are used to convert pyruvate to this intermediate, then this intermediate to PEP?

A

Oxaloacetate; pyruvate carboxylase, then PEP carboxykinase

468
Q

How are fatty acids activated and transferred from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria?

A
  1. Fatty acid chains are activated by CoA-SH, forming acyl CoA
  2. Acyl coa is activated by Carnitine to to form acyl carnitine.
  3. 3.Acyl carnitine can easily pass through outer mitochondrial membrane through porins. Crosses inner mitochondrial membrane using acyl carnitine transferase 4.
  4. Carnitine is transformed back into acyl coa
469
Q

What is the formula for the standard change in reduction potential?

A

deltaEnaught= Enaught(electron acceptor) - Enaught (electron donor)

Note: these Enaught values are all standard reduction potentials, even in the Enaught(electron donor); this. is the reason why there is a negative sign

470
Q

Which lipoprotein carries dietary lipids to the liver?

A

Chylomicrons

471
Q

rWhat is the formula for the wavelengths (first harmonic, second harmonic, third harmonic) of a standing wave on a fixed end string?

A

wavelength= 2L/n, where n is the nth harmonic

472
Q

How do you calculate the harmonic frequencies of a closed pipe? How does this differ from the harmonic frequencies of an open pipe and a fixed string?

A

f= nv/(4L), where n = 1,3,5 etc

For both open pipe and fixed string, f= nv/(2L), where n = 1,2,3,4,5, etc

473
Q

Do lower or higher frequency wavelengths travel further?

A

Lower

474
Q

What are the differences between a longitudinal and a transverse wave?

A

Longitudinal: like a spring (back and forth)

Transverse: like a string (up and down)

475
Q

What is the only factor that will alter an equillibrium constant?

A

Temperature

476
Q

How do you find the equillibrium constant for a complex equillibrium? (i.e., product of first reaction is reactant of second reaction)

A

Multiply two equillibrium constants together

477
Q

What is the formula for the temperature dependence of the equillibrium constant?

A
478
Q

What is the function of myoglobin? What are its characteristics in comparison to hemoglobin?

A

Binds oxygens in muscle cells. Is a monomer, in comparison to the tetramer hemoglobin, and therefore only has one heme prosthetic group rather than four

479
Q

How do you convert form torr to atm?

A

1 atm= 760 torr

480
Q

What is the formula for the beat frequency of two interfering sound waves?

A

f beat= abs(f1-f2)

481
Q

How many cycles of beta oxidation will occur for an 18 carbon fatty acid?

A

8 cycles; you cannot oxidize the last two carbons, because you require a beta carbon to continue.

However, the last two carbons will end up being acetyl coa anyways, so 9 total acetyl coa’s are produced even though there are only 8 cycles of beta oxidation

482
Q

How many NADH, FADH2, and NTP (specifically, which NTP) are produced per acetyl coa molecule in the Krebs cycle?

A

3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP

483
Q

What are the reactants and products of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? What other enzyme complex is very similar to the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A

Reactants: Pyruvate, NAD+, CoASH

Products: Acetyl CoA, NADH, CO2

484
Q

What is the primary function of VLDL?

A

To carry triglycerides to cells across the body

485
Q

Which carbon of pyruvate is removed by pyruvate dehyrogenase?

A

The most oxidized carbon (releases as CO2 in a decarboxylation reactino)

486
Q

Which biomolecules can enter gluconeogenesis?

A

Lactate, Pyruvate, all amino acids excluding lysine and leucine. Notably, lipids cannot be converted into glucose via gluconeogenesis

487
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

A microsociological perspective. Action is spurred by the meaning we assign to things. Different people may assign different meanings to the same things. These meanings, however, can change over time (i.e.,I see a tree, i view it as a source of shade , I sit under it. Bob sees the same trees, and views it as a source of bugs, and tells me to leave).

488
Q

What is the difference between Power and Authority?

A

Power: the ability to influence and control others

Authority: Whether those that are being influenced and controlled believe this power to be legitimate

489
Q

What is a folkway?

A

A norm that is common to a society; breaking it has little consequence (waiting in line, shaking someones hand)

490
Q

What is a more?

A

A norm based on the societal morals of wrong and right; i.e. not cheating on your significant other. Consequences are still quite low.

491
Q

What is a taboo?

A

A strongly societally enforced deviant behavior, such as incest

492
Q

What is stereotype boost?

A

Those that are told a positive stereotype about their group perform better on a task; i.e. when asians are told “asians are good at math”, they perform better on the task

493
Q

What is the master status?

A

The social position/status that is singularly defining of an individual, above all others statuses they may hold

494
Q

What is the difference between ascribed and achieved statuses?

A

Ascribed: Born with it

Achieved: you achieve it

495
Q

What does labeling theory imply?

A

Those that are labelled as “deviant” are more likely to commit deviant behaviors in the future

496
Q

What is an ethnography study?

A

The study of a certain culture/social phenomena in which the researcher is not an ingroup in; could go as far as living with the group being studied

497
Q

What is the definition of social loafing?

A

When an individual expends less effort in a group than they would have alone (clap less loudly after a performance when part of a crowd)

498
Q

What is a structural functionalist view of society?

A

Society as an organism; all parts of society serve a purpose and work together to reach equillibrium; every part of society depends on other parts of society, balancing their cause and effect is emphasized

499
Q

What is atmospheric pressure in pascal? What are the SI unit breakdown of a pascal?

A

101,325 pascals. 1 pascal= 1 n/m^2

500
Q

What is bernoullis equation, which relates the pressure, height, and velocity of water at two separate points?

A
501
Q

What is the N-H IR stretch?

A

3200-3600

502
Q

What affect does atom mass and bond strength have on IR wavenumber?

A

Higher mass, lower wavenumber; stronger bond, higher wavenumber

503
Q

What functional group does BH3 + THF selectively react with? What is its effect?

A

Selectively reacts with carboxylic acids to produce primary alcohol

504
Q

What is the relationship between the id, ego, and superego?

A

Id: primal instincts, like sex, aggression, immediate gratification

Superego: moral compass, sense of conscience

Ego: mediates the id and superego

505
Q

What is neuroticism? What is the opposite to neuroticism?

A

Neuroticism is emotional instability, where one tends to become easily upset or emotional. The opposite of neuroticism is therefore emotional stability

506
Q

What are Eysenck’s 3 dimensions of personality? Which dimensions are gradients, which are binary?

A

Extraversion-introversion (gradient), emotional stability - emotional instability (neuroticism) (gradient), Pyschoticism (binary)

507
Q

What are the big 5 personality traits?

A

Openness, conscientiousness (hard working, well organized, etc), extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

(Remember the acronym OCEAN)

508
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

When one suffers from a sense of powerlessness, after a persistent failure to avoid some aversive stimulus. Thought to be an underlying cause of depression

509
Q

What are the affective, behavioral, and cognitive components of an attitude towards something?

A

Affective: Feelings towards it

Behavioral: intent/action towards it

Cognitive: beliefs about it

(Affective) I do not like X

(Behavioral) I will not hang out with X

(Cognitive) I think X is bad because..

510
Q

What is the elaboration likelihood model? What are the two routes it can take?

A

A model that describes the dynamics of persuasion

  1. Central: Logic driven, results in long lasting change in believes, requires active engagement by the audience
  2. Peripheral: An unmotivated, nonanalytical audience, persuaded by cues outside of the central message to cause only a temporary change in attitude
511
Q

What is the theory of planned behavior?

A

Ones intentions to perform a behavior are based on both his attitude towards the behavior and his perception of its related subjective norms

512
Q

What does genetic leakage refer to?

A

Gene flow from one species to another via the creation of 1.) a viable hybrid of two species then 2.) mating this viable hybrid back to one of the parentals

513
Q

Do lipid rafts generally possess a higher or lower concentration of sterols (cholesterol is a sterol btw)

A

higher concentration; although cholesterol lowers fluidiity at high temperatures and raises fluidiity at low temperatures, at physiological temperatures it still tends to decrease fluidity, thus making it good for the structure of lipid rafts

514
Q

What is a general way to describe the structure of a wax?

A

Long chains of hydrocarbons linked together by esters

515
Q

What sort of inflammatory response are prostalgandins responsible for?

A

Localized inflammatory response (autocrine/paracrine signaling)

516
Q

What is the ratio of carbons, hydrogens, and oxygens in a carbohydrate?

A

1:2:1

517
Q

What are the easy ways to remember D Glucose. D Mannose, D Ribose,?

A
518
Q

What are easy ways to remember D Fructose and D Galactose, as they relate to D Glucose?

A
519
Q

What is the effect of nitric acid (HNO3) on an aldohexose?

A

Both terminals of aldohexose are oxidized to carboxylic acids; using the chirality of this compound, (whether meso or optically active), can determine the original chirality of the hydroxyl groups

520
Q

What is the tollens test sensitive for? What is a positive tollens test?

A

Sensitive for aldehydes (or alpha-hydroxy ketones, which may tautomerize to an aldehydee) ; positive test is the presence of a silver mirror

521
Q

What is the way in which you can extend an aldose by one carbon?

A

Killiani fischer synthesis

522
Q

What is the synthetic method to remove a carbon from an aldose?

A

Ruff Degradation

523
Q

What is the difference between an acetal and a hemiacetal?

A
524
Q

What are the configurations of naturally occurring carbohydrates and amino acids, respectively? ( L vs D)

A

Carbohydrates: D

Amino Acids: L

525
Q

What can HNO3 be characterized as, in addition to being a strong acid?

A

Strong oxidizing agent

526
Q

In both electrolytic and galvanic cells, which pole (anode vs cathodes) are anions/electrons attracted to?

A

The cathode

527
Q

What is the equation for the photoelectric effect?

A

hv= theta(work function) + ½ mv^2

hv= energy of incident photon

½mv^2 = kinetic energy of the electron displaced

528
Q

What occurs to a wave of light when it reflects off a denser medium (a medium light travels slower in)?

A

Its phase flips 180 degrees (a peak turns into a trough)

529
Q

What occurs to the speed, wavelength, and frequency of a wave as it travels from one medium to another?

A

Speed will change; because of this, wavelength will change. Frequency, however, will remain the same

530
Q

What is the index of refraction n defined as?

A

n= c/(speed of light in medium)

531
Q

How much does a polarizer reduce the intensity of unpolarized light by?

A

50 percent

532
Q

What are the values of sin 0 degrees, 30 degrees, 45 degrees, 60 degrees, and 90 degrees?

A

0, ½, √2/2, √3/2, 1

533
Q

What are the values of cos 0, 30, 45, 60, 90?

A

1, √3/2, √2/2, ½, 0

534
Q

What are the values of tan 0, 30, 45, 60, 90?

A

0, √3/3, 1, √3, not defined

535
Q

What is the relationship between indeces of refraction and angles of refraction when light goes from one medium to the other?

A

n1sin∅1= n2sin∅2

theta refers to angle made with vertical

536
Q

What are the four mechanisms of polarizing light?

A
  1. ) Running light through a material where chemicals are all oriented in the same direction and thus all absorb light in the same direction (polaroid filter)
  2. ) Reflection
  3. ) Refraction
  4. ) Scattering
537
Q

What is the definition of an adiabatic process?

A

Heat does not enter or leave the system

538
Q

What is the difference between Prejudice, stereotype, and discrimination?

A

Stereotype: Cognitive beliefs (negative or positive)about a group

Prejudice: Beliefs and, more importantly, feelings about someone based upon their membership within a social group

Discrimination: Action against someone based upon their membership within a social group [

539
Q

What are the differences between a Dominant culture, subculture, and counterculture?

A
540
Q

What defines an aggregate? (when referring to groups of people)

A

Group of individuals that share a common location but do not identify as a mutual group

541
Q

What is the difference between a primary group and a secondary group?

A

Primary group: composed of members who have frequent and emotional connections with each other (family, close friends)

Secondary group: members that work towards a common goal (coworkers)

542
Q

What is cultural relativism?

A

A mode of thought that considers no cultural practice to be concretely right or wrong; a person’s own beliefs should be understood within the context of their own culture (opposite of ethnocentrism)

543
Q

Between a dyad, triad, and tetrad of people. which group is most stable which group is most intimate? Which group is least stable? Why?

A

Most stable: Triad, one person can leave and the group still exists

Most intimate: Dyad, only has one social tie

Least stable: Tetrad, because likely splits into two groups of two people

544
Q

What is self serving bias?

A

Patients attribute success to internal factors, but failures to external factors

545
Q

What does operationalization refer to?

A

The strict defining of variables into measurable factors

546
Q

ƒWhat is exchange rational choice theory?

A

Assumes everyone operates rationally to gain an advantage (i.e., weighing the costs and benefits of everything before doing it, AKA rational theory). Applies this theory to social interactions

547
Q

What does social constructionism refer to?

A

The view that knowledge and facts do not exist until society gives them meaning.

Ideas and beliefs about reality occur from collaborative consensus with others, rather than pure observation by the individual. (i.e. money has no value until society says so, aka it is a social construct )

548
Q

What is the definition of social capital?

A

Ones social network that can be leveraged for the purpose of economic gain

549
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

When the presence of others enhances performance on a tastk

550
Q

What phenomenon does deindividuation refer to?

A

When in a group, individuals are more likely to act inappropriately because the crowd conceals their identity

551
Q

What is the difference between “front stage” and “back stage” selfs in the dramaturgic approach to understanding behavior?

A

Front stage: The behavior of individuals in social settings, which is involved in impression management (process of trying to influence how one is perceived by others)

Back stage: the behavior of individuals when alone, free from evaluation or judgement by others

552
Q

What are Charles’ Law, Boyles’ law, Avogadro’s law, and Gay lussac’s law??

A

Charles: V=kT

Boyles: V= k/P

Avogadros: V= kn

Gay lussac: P= kT

Pneumonic to remember three of them:

Can These Girls Possibly Be Virgins

Every other word represents a Gas Law name

Can = Charles Law → V/T (Virgins/These)

Girls = Gay-Lussac → T/P (These/Possibly)

Be = Boyle’s Law → PV (Possibly * Virgins)

553
Q

Hyperactivity of which neurotransmitter is associated with Schizophrenia?

A

Dopamine

554
Q

Loss of which neurons in what area cause Parkinsons?

A

Loss of dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra (in the basal ganglia).

555
Q

What is the monoamine theory of depression?

A

Depression is aused by decreased activity of monoamines (serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine)

556
Q

Are positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia more easily treated?

A

Positive

557
Q

Do

A
558
Q

Is the DSM more concerned with diagnosis or classification or illnesses?

A

Classification

559
Q

What is the primary biological basis for Alzheimers?

A

Decreased output of acetylcholine from cholinergic cells

560
Q

What are the cluster b (dramatic) personality disorders and briefly what are they characterized by?

A

Antisocial: Disregard for others, impulsive and aggressive behavior (psychopath, sociopath), notably intentially malevolent/sadist

Borderline personality disorder: Unstable moods, self image, emotions, issues with relationships (think typical teenager)

Histrionic: Constantly seek attention, susceptible peer pressure

Narcissistic: Lack of empathy, sense of entitlement, inflated self importance

561
Q

What does sanger’s reagent (2,4, dinitrofluorobenzene) do to a polypeptide, and what is its mechanism?

A

Binds the N terminus amino acid, even through peptide cleavages; therefore, allows you to figure out what the first amino acid in a polypeptide is

Through NAS, substitues Flourine for the amino group

562
Q

What is the mechanism of cation exchange columns ?

A

Resin within column is negatively charged; positively charged molecules are thereby bound.

The buffer running through the column gradually has either its pH or salt concentration increased;

For pH increase specifically by doing so, positively charged molecules continue to lose more protons, losing positive charge, and eluting. Longer retention time= higher pKa of functional group

563
Q

If there is a membrane protein that transports molecule A against its concentration gradient by also transporting molecule B down its concentration gradient, and both molecules are traveling the same direction, what would you call this membrane protein? (active/passive and uniport/symport/antiport)

A

Active (against concentration gradient) symport (both molecules traveling same direction)

564
Q

What does treatment of a protein with beta mercapthenol do?

A

Beta mercapthenol is a reducing agent; therefore will break cysteine disulfide bonds

565
Q

In size exclusion chromotography (also known as gel filtration chromotography) , how is size related to elution time?

A

Size is inversely proportional to elution time; this is because the beads are porous, and therefore the smaller the molecule, the more likely it is to get “stuck”

566
Q

In as little words as possible, what are the three laws of thermodynamics?

A

First law: Energy is not created nor destroyed

Second law: Any process increases entropy

Third law: Entropy of a solid at absolute zero is zero

567
Q

If a piston expands adiabatically against an external pressure, is this work done on the system by the surroundings or on the surroundings by the system?

A

Expansion is work done on the surroundings by the system

(Won system= -PdeltaV)

568
Q

How is the melting curve of DNA measured/ monitored?

A

UV Vis, i.e. absorbance @ 260nm. When double stranded DNA melts, absorbance increases dramatically; therefore, absorbance is proportional to amount of DNA denatured

569
Q

What is the difference between self esteem and self efficacy?

A

Self esteem: Respect one has for oneself

Self efficacy: Belief in one’s ability to succeed in a certain situation

570
Q

How does social modeling contribute to one’s sense of self efficacy?

A

If we see others similar to ourselves complete a task properly, this raises our belief in our self efficacy

571
Q

Why does lactose intolerance cause gas production + diarrhea when lactose is injested?

A

Gas production: bacteria and gut ferment the lactose both alcoholically and lactically– alcoholic fermentation produces CO2, which causes gas

Diarrhea: Extra lactose results in overall higher solute concentration in intestine, drawing water in

572
Q

For hormones that affect gene transcription, how do steroid hormones and peptide hormones differ in their action?

A

Peptide hormones: receptors extracellular, cause signal transduction cascade to affect gene transcription

Steroid hormone: receptors intracellular, steroid-receptor complex binds directely to DNA

573
Q

How does a nuclear pore selectively allow proteins through to the nucleus?

A

By recognition of the protein’s nuclear import signal

574
Q

What are activity, continuity, disengagement and lifecourse approaches to aging?

A

Activity: Remaining physically and socially active improves health for oldheads

Continuity: Older adults attempt to maintain habits and behaviors from youth

Disengagement: withdraw from society

Lifecourse: Aging viewed holistically

575
Q

What is the depedency ratio?

A

of people less than age 14 or greater than age 65 / # of people between 14 and 65

Higher the ratio, greater proportion of dependents

576
Q

What does the demographic transition model entail?

A

The population in country will stop growing when it transitions from high birth/death rates to low birth/death rates, thus stabilizing the population

577
Q

What can be said about the equillibrium (reactant favored/product favored) versus the reaction rate as you increase the temperature?

A

Reaction rate: will always increase with increasing temp

Equillibrium: depends; will change Keq, but depends on deltaH and deltaS as to whether reactants or products will become more favored

578
Q

What is the formula for (first order, aka half life is constant)) exponential decay when you know half life? How about when you know rate constant?

A

When you know rate constant: N= No e^-kt

When you know the half life: (picture below)

579
Q

What is characteristic of the half life of second order decay?

A

Half life (i.e. amount of time it takes to reduce amount of substance by 50 percent) is doubled per halving of reactant

580
Q

What do beta particles refer to?

A

Either an electron or a proton

581
Q

What is the difference between personal identity and social identity?

A

Personal Identity: things unique to each person irregardless of which groups they identify with, such as hobbies or character traits

Social identity: What groups one feels they belong to

582
Q

What is the difference between manifest functions and latent functions of an instutitution??

A

Manifest function: An intended consequence of an institution (media meant to disseminate information)

Latent function: an unintended consequence of an institution (media polarizes politics)

583
Q

What is the difference between race and ethnicity?

A

Race: biological, refers to genetic origins

Ethnicity: More of a social construct, cultural identification etc

584
Q

Through what mechanism do PET scans monitor physiological activity?

A

Measuring labeled glucose metabolism

585
Q

What is a stigma defined as?

A

Extreme dissaproval of a person based on some behavior or quality of the person, i.e stigma against an individual because they smoke weed

586
Q

What is popular culture defined as?

A

Ideas, attitudes, and perspectives that are mainstream, i.e. relevant to most people in society)

587
Q

What distinguishes cultural diffusion and cultural transmission?

A

Diffusion: spread of beliefs and behaviors form one cultural group to another

Transmission: spread of knowledge and values to the next generation; occurs within in groups only

588
Q

When traveling through a prism, do higher frequency or lower frequency wavelengths get refracted more (thus, higher index of refraction) and why?

A

Higher frequency, because they travel slower through the medium (thus, for them, index of refraction is higher). This is the same all the way up to ultra long wavelengths like radio- longer wavelengths are able to travel around larger objects, therefore getting refracted less

Side note: this results in dispersion

589
Q

What is the thin lens equation?

A

1/f=1/s + 1/s’

where f is focal length, + for a converging/convex mirror, - for a diverging/concave mirror,

s is object distance+ if object to left of lens, - if to right (only matters for multilens- for single lens, always postive)

s’ is image distance, real images + , virtual images -

590
Q

What are the two ways of determining the magnification of an object due to a lens?

A

m= h’/h

m= s’ (image distance) /s (object distance)

591
Q

For a convex lens, what happens to the image if the object is placed outside the left focal point?

A

The image is inverted

592
Q

A real image is always (upright/inverted) and (on the same side/on the opposite side) of an object while a virtual image is always (upright/inverted) and (on the same side/on the opposite side) of an object

A

Real: inverted, opposite side

Virtual: Upright, same side

(Pnemonic to remember IR, UV)

593
Q

How do you find the total magnification of a multi lens system?

A

Multiply the magnification of each lens

594
Q

(Diverging, converging) lenses can only create virtual images , while (diverging, converging) lenses can create both real and virtual images

A

Diverging, Converging

595
Q

Do those with nearsightedness have corneas or lenses that are too curved or not curved enough?

A

Too curved; the rays coming from an object therefore focus before reaching the retina

596
Q

Does boiling require vapor pressure= atmosphere pressure, or vapor pressure > atmosphere pressure?

A

Vapor pressure= atmosphere pressure

597
Q

What are colligative properties defined by, and what are the four colligative properties?

A

Colligative properties: Properties of a solution that are altered not by the type of solute in solution, but rather the number of molecules of solute in solution

Vapor pressure reduction, boiling point elevation, freezing point reduction, osmotic pressure

598
Q

What do IC50 value refer to?

A

Concentration of an inhibitor required to reduce enzyme activity or any other biological funcrtion by 50%

599
Q

What is Newton’s third law?

A

Any force must have an equal and opposite reaction force. (you push on a table, the table pushes back on you in an equal and opposite fashion_

600
Q

What is a notable quality of N2 gas that makes it useful for experiments?

A

it is inert

601
Q

What kind of hormone is Insulin?

A

Peptide hormone

602
Q

What kind of hormone is aldosterone, estrogen, testosterone, and cortisol? What precursor(s) are they derived from?

A

All steroids. Dervied from cholesterol, which itself is derived from terpenes, which itself is derived from repeating 5 carbon isoprene units

603
Q

What is a lyase? How does this differ from a ligase?

A

An enzyme that causes the breaking of a bond without redox or water

A ligase catalyzes the formation of a covalent bond between two large molecules

604
Q

What affect does conjugation have on carbonyl IR stretch?

A

Lowers the wave number. This is because conjugation lowers the bond energy

605
Q

Electrons are passed from species with (lower reduction potential/higher reduction potential) to (lower reduction potential/higher reduction potential)

A

Lower reduction potential, higher reduction potential

606
Q

In oxidative phosphorylation, protons are pumped from ____ to _____ by Complexes 1, 3, and 4?

A

Matrix, intermembrane space

607
Q

How can the change in enthalpy of a reaction be calculated from the heats of formations of products/reactants?

A

Note: when calculating sum(deltaHformation) of reactants and products, must multiply each individual reactant/product with their respective coefficient

608
Q

What is the enthalpy of formation (Hf) for any element in its naturally occurring form? (C, O2, N2, etc)

A

0

609
Q

Is gel electrophoresis an electrolytic or a galvanic cell and why?

A

Electrolytic, because it is not a spontaneous process

610
Q

What are the precursors to Dopamine?

A

Tyrosine → L-DOPA → Dopamine

611
Q

What is the definition of passive immunity?

A

When immunity is transferred from one individual to another, such as a mother to her child

612
Q

What is the relationship between lymphocytes and leukocytes? What are the types of lymphocytes?

A

Leukocytes is the term used for all immune cells. Lymphocytes are a subset of leukocytes, and include T cells and B cells

613
Q

Which cell in the body contains neither a mitochondria nor a nucleus?

A

Erythrocyte (red blood cell)

614
Q

What is the difference between a phosphoryalse and a kinase?

A

A phosphorylase adds an inorganic phosphate to a substrate. A kinase transfers a phosphate from one substrate to another

615
Q

What is a double crossover event?

A

Chromosomal arms of homologous chromosomes cross over twice along their length

616
Q

What muscle types is troponin used in

A

Skeletal and Cardiac, NOT smoth

617
Q

What is the function of the alveoli?

A

Sacs in the lungs that are designed for high surface area, where gas exchange via capillaries occurs

618
Q

What cytoskeleton component is the mitotic spindle comprised of?

A

Microtubules

619
Q

What is the difference between a confounding, mediating, and moderating variable?

A

Confounding: A seems to affect B, but in reality it is a third variable C which is simultaneously affecting A and B, and thus gives the illusion that A is affecting B. (i.e., higher mcat score = better med school acceptance, but actually higher SES = higher mcat and better med school acceptance)

Mediating: A affects B, but through a third variable C. A→ C→ B, so C is simply the mechanism by which A affects B

Moderating: A affects B, but the strength of this association depends on a third variable C

620
Q

In a normal distribution, what proportion of data is represented by +/- 1 SD, 2SD, and 3SD from the mean?

A

68, 95, 99.7

621
Q

What class of endogenous hormones do opiods mimic, and where are these hormones naturally secreted from?

A

Endorphins, secreted from anterior pituitary

622
Q

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence- New cases per year

Prevalence how many people have the condition at a certain point in time

623
Q

What is a schema? How does it differ from a script?

A

The way in which information we know is organized; i.e. a child may have a schema for a dog that has characteristics a.) furry b.) four legs. Sees a cat, according to this schema the cat is also a dog.

A script is how to act in a certain situation; a child may have the script to go over and pet the dog

624
Q

What perspective is BF. Skinner associated with?

A

Behaviorist, i.e. operant conditioning

625
Q

What is the difference between behaviorism and Social cognitive theory?

A

Both want to elucidate what determines behavior change

Behaviorism: How behavior modulated primarily via operant conditioning; does not take cognition into account (behavior a → operant conditioning →behavior b, simplistic input/output)

Social cognitive theory: Cognition (willpower, efficacy, locus of control) and environment (social learning, social structures) also have an appreciable effect on behavior. I.e. learning through observing others has a relatively greater impact

626
Q

What is social desirability bias?

A

When confronted with research questions, individuals respond in a socially desirable/acceptable way rather than completely honestly

627
Q

What is attrition bias?

A

When individuals drop out of a longitudinal study

628
Q

What is reconstructive bias?

A

It is well known that memory is is quite inaccurate. When individuals are surveyed on past events for research, they may fuck up the remembering part

629
Q

What is the difference between distress, neustress, and eustress?

A

Distress: negative stress, not enjoyable

Eustress: Positive stress: challenging, motivating situation

Neustress: Neutral stress; Exposed to something stressful, but doesn’t affect u, i.e. natural disasters

630
Q

What are the three core components of emotion? How does this compare wiht the three components of attitude?

A

Physiological arousal (faster heartbeat), cognitive, behavioral (gasping)

Attitude: Affective, behavioral, cognitive (ABC’s of attitude)

631
Q

Are fixed ratio or variable ratio reinforcement patterns more resistant to extinciton?

A

Variable ratio

632
Q

What does construct validity refer to?

A

Validity as it relates to the manner in which the terms of the study are defined (i.e. study trying to see relationship between SES and depression, need to define what SES means– income? education? )

633
Q

What is the hawthorne effect?

A

How, in an observational study, participants change their behavior because they know they are being observed

634
Q

What is the main neurotransmitter invovled in fight or flight?

A

Norepinephrine

635
Q

What are formal norms?

A

Norms encoded into law

636
Q

What is approach-approach, avoidance-avoidance, aproach-avoidance, and double approach-avoidance conflict?

A

All describe conflict/indecision between choosing an option over another

Approach-approach: Two options are both appealing

avoidance-avoidance: Two options are both unappealing

aproach-avoidance: One option has both positive and negative aspects

Double approach-avoidance: Both options have both positive and negative aspecrts

637
Q

What is asch’s conformity study?

A

Length of lines; in each trial, only one subject, rest confederates. Confederate in each trial either all give the right or wrong answer, found that even when the right answer was obvious, 75% of participants conform wrongly at least once, and 37 % conform wrongly every time

638
Q

What does the opponent-process theory state?

A

Usually mentioned in the context of addiction, but can be applied to color vision as well

Drugs elicit two opposite states: the high, then the withdrawal as the body attempts to counteract its effect in the opposite direction. When a certain drug is taken repeatedly, the high becomes less, and the withdrawal more, and eventually an addicts motive for using drugs is not its high but the cessation of the withdrawal

639
Q

What are the catecholamines? Where are they released from?

A

Dopamine, noradrenaline (norepenephrine), epinephrine (adrenaline). Released from adrenal medulla

640
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary socialization?

A

Primary socialization: learning the basic norms of one’s culture, typically takes place in the home at a young age

Secondary socialization: Learning norms appropriate to a smaller group within a larger society, such as an academic or formal environment

641
Q

What is dependent personality disorder characterized by?

A

Excessive, pervasive need to be taken care of. Children with DPD more likely to accept abuse from caretakers

642
Q

What occurs in prophase?

A

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear envelope disentegrates

643
Q

What are the four main tissue types?

A

Epithelial, Muscle, Connective, Nervous

644
Q

What main tissue examples comprise connective tissue?

A

Bone, blood, fat, tendons/ligaments, cartilage

645
Q

What is the gabriel synthesis and what is it used for?

A

A method that uses potassium phthalimide and diethyl bromomalate to synthesize amino acids (in reality, can synthesis any primary alkyl amine). Will create a mix of l and d amino acids

646
Q

What color is litmus paper in basic and acidic conditions respectively?

A

Basic: Blue

Acidic: Red

647
Q

What is the difference between ligaments and tendons?

A

Ligaments: attach bone to bone

Tendons: attach muscle to bone

648
Q

What can be said about the nuclear envelope in telophase?

A

It is reformed around each separated set of chromosomes

649
Q

What is the conversion from liters to cubic centimeters?

A

1 liter= 1000 cm^3

650
Q

What can be said about the thermal expansion of a liquid? What is the corresponding equation?

A

Expansion in terms of volume is linearly proportional to change in temperature

651
Q

What is the difference between a closed and an isolated system?

A

Closed: Matter cannot be exchanged between the system and the surroundings, but energy can

Isolated: No matter nor energy can be exchanged between the system and the surroundings

652
Q

What is the difference between Consanguinal, Affinal, and Fictive kinship?

A

Consanguinal: Based on genetic relationship

Affinal: Based on marriage

Fictive: Kinship that is not consanguinal or affinal (like adoptive children)

653
Q

What are the similarities and differences between Freud’s and Erikson’s approaches to development?

A

Similarities: Both deal with personality development, both agree that unresolved conflict in any of the developmental stages will impact adult personality

Differences: Freud has 5 stages, Erikson has 8; freud’s stages only happen in childhood, Erikson’s happen throughout adulthood, erikson’s has to do more with overcoming prescribes conflicts

654
Q

What is the just world phenomenon?

A

An attributional bias (a type of cognitive bias that attempts to rationalize one’s own behavior or the behavior of others) in which one believes good things happen to people that work hard and bad things happen to people who are lazy

655
Q

When is group polarization more likely to occur?

A

When group members already have similar opinions prior to group discussion

656
Q

What is sick role theory?

A

Conceptualizes illness as a societally accepted form of deviance; therefore, sick people have special:

Rights, where they can be exempt from things (like going to work, etc)

and Obligations, where they must make every possible effort to get better, and seek + follow through with medical treatment

657
Q

What kind of hormone is thyroxine, and how does it exert its effects on a cell?

A

Thyroxine are modified amino acid hormones released by the thyroid; they are hydrophobic however, and therefore act similarly to steroid hormones, using transport proteins in the blood and binding to intracellular receptors

658
Q

What kind of hormone is ACTH?

A

Peptide hormone

659
Q

What is the sequence of the portions of the small intestine?

A

duodenum → jejunum → illeum

660
Q

What is the sequence of the portions of the large intestine?

A

cecum → colon → rectum

661
Q

Where do microtubules inside of a cell originate from?

A

The centrosome, which is composed of two centrioles

662
Q

What are the sequences a vesicle goes through in the endosomal pathway?

A

Endocytosis → vesicle → early endosome → late endosome → lysosome

The lysosome environment is highly acidic and acts as the digestive destination of the cell

663
Q

What is the difference between enveloped and unenveloped viruses?

A

Enveloped: possesses a phospholipid bilayer in addition to protein capsid

Unenveloped: does not possess a phosholipid layer

664
Q

Where are epinephrine and norepinephrine secreted from?

A

Adrenal medulla

665
Q

What class of hormones are released from the adrenal cortex? What about the adrenal medulla?

A

Cortex: Lipophilic steroid hormones derived from cholesterol, such as cortisol and aldosterone

Medulla: catecholamines; epinephrine, norephinephrine, dopamine

666
Q

Between pyranoses and furanoses, which one is 5 membered and which is 6 membered?

A

Pyranoses: 6 membered

Furanoses: 5 membeered

667
Q

What physical quantity does the area on a graph represent?

A

The product of the axes’ quanitity

668
Q

Where do all leukocytes (white blood cells) originate from?

A

Bone marrow

669
Q

When fluid containing plasma proteins leaks out of capillaries, how are these proteins returned back to the bloodstream?

A

First leaks into interstitial space, drains into the lymphatic system which ultimately drains into veins found near the heart

670
Q

What route do large lipid droplets absorbed by intestinal epithelial cells (chylomicrons) take to enter the bloodstream?

A

Because so large, cannot be deposited directly into bloodstream. Therefore, leaks into interstitial space and through the lymphatic system to re enter the blood stream via a vein near the heart

671
Q

What are the epiphysis, diaphysis, and metaphysis of a bone?

A

All refer to “long bones”, like ones in limbs

Epiphysis: rounded ends of the bone covered in cartilage

Diaphysis: middle shaft containing yellow bone marrow

Metaphysis: where epiphysis and diaphysis meet

672
Q

What are the three cartilage types and and briefly what are their functions? What is common about all types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline: Reduces friction between bones at joints, also the cartilage in your nose

Elastic: Withstands distortions, in your ear

Fibrous: Limits movement, resists compression and stretch - the cartilage between vertebrae of the spine

All cartilage lacks nerves and blood supply

673
Q

Give an overview of the most important components of a mature sperm. What is special about the internal structure of a sperm?

A

Acrosome: at tip, enzymes to aid fertilization

Nucleus: Takes up majority of space in head

Mitochonrial spiral: Takes up all of midpiece, used to power flagellum

Flagellum: Tail that allows for motility

Mature sperm (spermatocyte) has little to no cytosol

674
Q

What was Carl Roger’s view? How did it differ from Freud’s?

A

He was the first to develop humanism (humans are inherently good, can use willpower to strive towards proper self actualization), which is in contrast to Freud’s view which was largely deterministic (behavior determined by unconscious desires)

675
Q

What is the relationship between conformity and obedience

A

Conformity is not driven by obedience; conformity is just about following people around you, obedience is about receiving awards/ avoiding punishments from authority

Can also think about conformity vs obedience on a spectrum, obedience is more extreemee

676
Q

What does the Theory of Differential Association imply?

A

Deviance is a learned behavior that results from continuous exposure to others who violate norms/laws - learn that the rejection of norms is the new norm.

Used as a critique of prisons; prisoners stuffed together will learn deviance from one another

677
Q

How are conformity, peer pressure, persuasion, and obedience related?

A

They are all concerned with how the presence of others affects individual behavior, on a gradient of implicit to explicit influence by individuals of a group.

678
Q

What are the two types of social influence that contributes to conformity? What are they characterized by and when are they most likely to occur?

A
  1. ) Normative, individual conforms in order to fit in/ avoid disapproval, occurs when individuals identify with fellow group members and thus want to be accepted
  2. ) informational, individual conforms because of uncertainty of what to do/ believing that others know better what to do, occurs when individuals view other group members as having more expertise
679
Q

What is groupthink, and when is it likely to occur?

A

Groupthink is when individuals in a group reach an incorrect or irrational decision because members are willing to sacrifice critical evaluation of decisions for group harmony and progress towards a final decision.

Likely to occur with groups that exhibit high harmony, homogenous, and with biased, powerful leadership

680
Q

What are kohlberg’s three overall stages of moral development? What are they characterized by?

A

Kohlberg’s stages of development discuss how individuals develop morally, aka “what they consider is the right thing to do” .

Stage 1.) Pre conventional, one acts based upon direct reward/punishment to the self

Stage 2.) Conventional, one acts based upon society’s norms and values

Stage 3.) Post conventional, one acts based upon their own ethical principles

681
Q

What is the difference between culture shock and culture lag?

A

Culture shock: When individuals are exposed to a new culture (such as immigrants) and experience disorientation uneasiness and fear due to the new culture

Culture lag: Social problems created by time delay between rapid changes in material culture (technology, fashion) and slower changes in non material culture (values, beliefs, laws)

682
Q

What is social reproduction?

A

People with rich parents tend to be rich themselves due to a plethora of factors, those including social capital and cultural capital

683
Q

Do interval or ratio reinforcement schedule provide the most rapid behavioral response? Between fixed and variable schedules, which is more resistant to extinction?

A
  1. Ratio reinforcement
  2. Variable schedule
684
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary reinforcers?

A

Primary reinforcer: innately desirably reward (food, praise)

Secondary reinforcer: Learned reward (money, good grades)

685
Q

What amino acids are both ketogenic and glucogenic?

A

Phenylalanine, isoleucine, tyrosine, tryptophan, threonine

(remember: PITTT)

686
Q

What are the similarities/ differences between miRNA and siRNA?

A

Both silence mRNA’s at the post transcriptional level by binding a complementary mRNA sequence.

siRNA’s are more specific: siRNA’s require perfect complementarity and will cleave the transcript everytime

miRNA’s are less specific: miRNA’s can bind without being perfectly complementary, and will simply prevent translation, However, if there is perfect complementarity, will also cleave the transciprt.

687
Q

What are the start and stop codons?

A

Start: AUG

Stop: UAA, UAG, UGA

688
Q

What does gastrulation refer to in development?

A

The formation of the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm)

689
Q

What important tissues form from the endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm of a gastrula?

A

Endoderm: Digestive organs (pancreas, liver) as well as the lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts

Ectoderm: Nervous system and intugementary system (skin, hair, nails, lining of mouth, nostril, anus, aka anything that has physical contact with outside)

Mesoderm: Circulatory system, muscles. bones (connective tissue)

690
Q

What is the difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent stem cells?

A

Totipotent: can multiply into an entire organism, (including placenta)

Pluripotent: can differentiate into any cell type, but cannot itself diffeerentiate into an entire organism (excluding placenta)

Multipotent: Can differentiate into different cells of a specific tissue (like different blood cells)

691
Q

What is the purpose of bile? What type of digestion is it involved in? Where is it synthesized?

A

Purpose: to act as a detergent in order to solubilize fats during digestion. Bile composed of bile salts, which has a hydrophillic head and hydrophobic tail

Involved in mechanical digestion, because it is a nonenzymatic procses that physically breaks large lipid globules into smaller pieces

Synthesized in liver.

692
Q

What are the cardiac and pyloric sphinctors?

A

Cardiac: Muscular junction between lower esophagus and stomach, controls entry into stomach

Pyloric: Muscular junction between stomach and duodenum of small intestine, controls entry into duodenum

693
Q

Where is pepsinogen, trypsinogen, and chymotrypsinogen produced and secreted into?

A

Pepsinogen: produced by chief cells of the stomach, secreted into stomach

Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsinogen: produced by pancreas, secreted into duodenum (of the small intestine) via pancreatic duct.

All three are proteolytic enzymes

694
Q

What is the relationship between intrapleural pressure and alveolar pressure?

A

As the diaphagm contracts, intrapleural pressure decreases. In doing so, the lungs expand, forcing air into the alveolars and thus increasing alveolar pressure

695
Q

What effects do PTH and calcitriol have on blood phosphate levels, respectively?

A

PTH: lowers phosphate levels

Calcitriol: Raises phosphate levels

696
Q

What is homotropic regulation? What is an example?

A

Homotropic regulation: when a molecule serves as both a substrate and a regulatory molecule of an enzyme’s activity.

An example: oxygen is a homotropic regulator of hemoglobin

697
Q

What is the speed of light?

A

3 e 8

698
Q

Are acid chlorides or acid anhydrides more reactive? Why?

A

Acid chlorides; the leaving group (Cl-) is more stable that an acid anhydride’s leaving group (carboxylate ion). Consider that HCl is a strong acid, while carboxylic acid is a weak acid

699
Q

What is the difference between competitive inhibition and suicide inhibition?

A

Competitive inhibition is reversible; suicide inhibition is not. In fact, non competitive and uncompetitive is also not reversible

700
Q

When are compounds with transition metals colored?

A

When there are unfilled D orbitals, allowing d-d orbital electron transfers or (in the case of complex ions) metal to ligand electron transfers, resulting in the absorption of light resulting in a colored solution

701
Q

How many liters are in a m^3?

A

1000 liters

702
Q

What is the difference between a lactone and a lactam?

A

Lactone: cyclic ester

Lactam: Cyclic amide

703
Q

How many fused rings do steroids have?

A

Four usually

704
Q

What is a counterbalancing measure?

A

A measure to control for the order in which treatments are given. I.e. if A then B is given in one subject, then B then A is given in another

705
Q

In psychoanalytic theory, when are defense mechanisms employed?

A

When the ego is overwhelmed or weaker than the id, it will employ defense mechanisms

706
Q

What is the expectancy theory of motivation? How does this differ from the incentive theory of motivation?

A

Motivation results from expectancy (believing one is capable of achieving the outcome) and Value/valence (is the outcome something they want)

Incentive theory only involves extrinsic rewards motivating behavior; aka includes only the valence aspect of expectancy theory

707
Q

What are maslow’s 5 hierarchies of needs?

A

From base to top:

Physiological, Safety, belongingness/love, Esteem, Self actualization

708
Q

What is the drive reduction theory of motivation?

A

Motivation is a result of disruption of homeostasis, which generates a biological need

A need (thirst) produces a drive (to drink water)

709
Q

What is the role playing effect?

A

Pretending to play a role will cause ones attitudes to align with the behavior being role played, i.e. defending an assigned debate topic causes someone to agree with it

710
Q

What is the difference between optimism bias and overconfidence bias?

A

Both are cognitive biases (irrational thought processees leeading to illogical conclusions)

Optimism: underestimates probability that bad things will happen to self

Overconfidence: degree to which people are sure of their belief is greater than the accuracy of their belief

711
Q

What are the lacteals?

A

Structures in the intestines that are associated with fat absorption into the lymphatic system

712
Q

What are the viable trisomies? What about viable monosomies?

A

Viable trisomies: 13, 18, 21

There are no viable monosomies

713
Q

What can be said about an acrocentric chromosome?

A

The centromere is closer to the ends of the chromosome rather than in the middle; therefore, there is along q arm and a short p arm

All the genes on the short arm of a given acrocentric chromosome are also on the short arms of other acrocentric chromsomes in the genome

714
Q

In what stage of mitosis do microtubles attach to the centromere?

A

Metaphase

715
Q

What is the difference between sister and homologous chromosomes?

A

Sister: Exact replicates

Homologous: Same chromosome/genes, different alleles

716
Q

How are ketone bodies generated, and what is their main use?

A

Generated from the beta oxidation of fatty acids (through acetyl-coa intermediate)

Main use: for the brain to use in periods of starvation (i.e. no glucose)

717
Q

Between a 4 year old and an 8 year old, who exhibits more parallel play and who exhibits more cooperative play?

A

4 year old, more parallel, 8 year old, more cooperative

718
Q

When at what Piaget stage and what corresponding age do children stop being egocentric?

A

Concrete operational, age 7-11

719
Q

What is the defining feature between more and folkways?

A

Folkways: are norms that are somewhat arbitrary and simply custom, whereas

Mores are norms that if broken break a certain moral code

720
Q

What is a case control design?

A

Compares individuals with a disease or characteristic of interest to similar individuals without that disease or characteristic

721
Q

What is a kinship of affinity?

A

When individuals are related by choice and not by blood (married couples, step siblings)

722
Q

What does anomie refer to and what is it caused by?

A

Breakdown of cultural norms within a population, causing fragmentation and lack of cohesiveness. Caused by low income, heterogeneity, or rapid changes in society

723
Q

What brain imaging methods are functional? (i.e., can view brain activity, not just structure)

A

fMRI, PET

724
Q

What is the difference between schacter singer and cognitive appraisal (lazarus) theories of emotion?

A

Cognitive appraisal: stimulus -> appraisal –> physiological arousal –> emotion
Schachter Singer: stimulus -> physiological arousal –> appraisal –> emotion

725
Q

What is thinning vs fading in operant conditioning?

A

Thinning: reducing the frequency of awards for a given correct response

Fading: reducing the frequency of prompts given

726
Q

What is role strain vs role conflict?

A

Role strain: Stress from too many competing demands within a single role

Role conflict: stress from competing demands between two roles

727
Q

In erikson’s stages of development, when does integrity vs despair occur?

A

65 and over, as they are reflecting on their lif e

728
Q

In erikson’s stages of development, when does intimacy vs isolation occur?

A

Young adulthood (19-40)

729
Q

In erikson’s stages of development, when does identity vs role confusion occur?

A

In adolesence (12-18)

730
Q

What is primary vs secondary aging?

A

Primary: Aging due to biological factors and the physical body

Secondary: aging due to behavioral aspects such as diet and exercise

731
Q

What is the gamblers fallacy?

A

If a completely random event happens a lot in a certain time period (5 tails in a row), it will be less likely to happen in the future (less likely to get tails in the next 5 flips)

732
Q

What is the house money fallacy?

A

After a prior gain of money, people are more open to assuming risk because the new gain is not treated as their own

733
Q

What is the difference between an individual assimilating versus integrating into a new culture?

A

Assimilating: identify with new culture, reject old culture

Integration: Identifying with both native and new culture simultaneousy

734
Q

Between the id, ego, and superego, which are conscious/unconsious or both?

A

Ego: Mostly conscious, small portion unconscious

Superego: Small portion conscious, mostly unconscious

Id: Completely unconscious

735
Q

What is reciprocal determinism? What personality theory is it related to?

A

How a persons behavior both influences and is influenced by personal factors and their surrounding environment

Related to Social Cognitive theory

736
Q

What is a Positive vs Negative sanction? How are the words “positive” and “negative” used differently in these terms versus in positive and negative reinforcement/punishment?

A

Positive sanction: An action that supports a given behavior to make it more normative

Negative sanction: An action that shames a given behavior to make it less normative

Positive in reinforcement/punishment is used in the “give” vs “take away” context, rather than positive/negative valence context

737
Q

What can occur during distillation if you heat the liquid too quickly?

A

Impure end product, because when heating too fast, both liquid molecules may evaporate simultaneously

738
Q

Which type of molecule can undergo decarboxylation?

A

Beta keto acids

739
Q

What characterizes the exocrine vs endocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

Exocrine: secrete digestive enzymes, such as trypsin and chymotrypsin, into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct

Endocrine: secrete hormones (insulin and glucagon) into the bloodstream

740
Q

What is the general sequence of events after a ligand binds a G protein coupled receptor?

A

Ligand binds, alpha subunit of g protein exchanges GDP for GTP, alpha unit dissociates and activates adenylate cyclase, which converts ATP to cAMP. cAMP activates protein kinase A, which then goes on to cascade

741
Q

Does binary fission use spindle fibers?

A

No, only mitosis/meiosis in eukaryotes does

742
Q

What is the function of clotting factors, and where are they synthesized?

A

After formation of the platelet plug, clotting factors induce the conversion of prothrombin to thombrin via cleavage, which will then convert fibrogen to fibrin also via cleavage, forming a mesh over the platelet plug

Synthesized in the liver

743
Q

What are the three components of a flagella and what are their functions?

A
  1. ) Basal body, the motor of the flagellum
  2. ) Hook, transmits force to the filament
  3. ) Filament, what actually propels the bacteria forward
744
Q

Is the T or R state of hemoglobin its higher affinity state?

A

R state

745
Q

What is the equation for the force experienced by a point charge in an electric field?

A

F= qE

746
Q

Fluid moves from areas of ___ (low/high) osmotic pressure to areas of ___ (low/high) osmotic pressure

A

Low, high; if a solution has a higher osmotic pressure, it means it has more solutes in it

747
Q

How do you calculate atmospheric pressure from a simple fluid tube barometer? What central concept does this equation rest on?

A

Patm= pgh

Rests on assumption that hydrostatic pressure at bottom of column is equal to pressure felt at surface exposed to atmosphere

748
Q

If a certain system has a mechanical advantage greater than one, does that mean it is mechanically advantageous (meaning, requiring less force) or mechanically disadvantageous?

A

Mechanically advantageous

749
Q

How does the beta oxidation products of fatty acids with an even versus an odd number of carbons differ?

A

In even number: final two carbons remain as acetyl coa

In odd number: final three carbons are converted into propionyl coa

750
Q

In unsaturated fatty acids, what needs to occur before beta oxidation can occur?

A

Cis bonds must be isomerized into trans bonds

751
Q

Does chemical denaturing generally involve disruption of hydrophillic or hydrophobic interactions?

A

Generally, tends to disrupt hydrophobic interactions, because those are in the interior and therefore their disruption will have a much greater effect on tertiary structure

752
Q

What is the situational approach to behavior/personality?

A

There are no enduring, constant personality traits; rather, there are variations in behavior that occur across different situations ; still allows for stability in personality because people behave according to their interpretation of situations

753
Q

What does superego development involve?

A

Similar to socialization; involves internalization of cultural values by parents

754
Q

What is the difference between self esteem and self concept?

A

Self esteem: what you feel your value is worth

Self concept: your overall perception of yourself/ your perception of your identity

755
Q

What does Vygotsky’s theory of development entail?

A

Children learn actively through social interactions with parents and caregivers, promoting acquisition of culturally valued behaviors and beliefs, as well as language (interactionist appraoch to language acquisition)

756
Q

How many isoprene subunits compose a monoterpene, diterpene, and triterpene?

A

2, 4, and 6

757
Q

Which Piaget stage does object permanence develop?

A

Sensorimotor

758
Q

Which piaget stage does theory of mind and law of conservation develop?

A

Concrete operational

759
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

Primary site of ribosome synthesis

760
Q

What is a nucleosome and what interactions hold its components together?

A

A nucleosome consists of DNA wrapped around a histone in a single ball. Positively charged AA’s on the histone interact with the negatively charged backbone of dna to keep them together.

761
Q

What are the purposes of Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate and B mercampthenol, respectively, in an SDS page gel?

A

Sodium dodecyl sulfate denatures the protein by disrupting hydrophobic core and coats it with a negative charge proportional to the protein length (normalizing m/z ratios)

B mercampthenol reduces disulfide bridge

762
Q

Between euchromatin and heterochromain, which is more condensed and untranscibable?

A

Heterochromatin

763
Q

Bacteria are removed from the blood in the ____, while removed from lymph in the ____

A

1.) Spleen, 2.) Lymph nodes

764
Q

Which muscle types are striated? Which are unstriated?

A

Striated: Cardiac, skeletal?

Unstriated (smooth): smooth muscle

765
Q

What muscle type lacks sarcomeres?

A

Smooth muscles (which is why its called smooth, sarcomeres usually gives appearence of striation in striated muscles)

766
Q

What are the components of the reward (mesolimbic) pathway in order?

A

VTA (produces dopamine) → hippocampus → amygdala → prefrontal cortex → nucleus accumbens

(how to remember: make it HAPN)

767
Q

What are the only memory types that do not decline with age?

A

Semantic (words, facts) and procedural (how to ride a bike) memory

768
Q

Betwen the internal and external urethral sphincters, which is under voluntary skeletal muscle control?

A

External urethral sphincters

769
Q

What are the sequence of events at the actin/myosin filaments after calcium is released from the sacroplasmic reticulum?

A

Calcium binds to troponin, causes tropomyosin to move and reveal myosin binding sites (which are situated on actin), myosin (which is already “cocked” due to atp hydrolysis) crosslinks with the myosin binding sites and performs the power stroke

770
Q

What is a viroid?

A

A single , exposed RNA molecule that is pathogenic because it silences host gene RNA and replicates within it

771
Q

What is the main function of albumin?

A

Helps carry hydrophobic metabolites in the blood, and

772
Q

What is the order of embryogenic stages after fertilization, as well as a description of each embryonic stage?

A

Fertilization → Zygote (single celled) → morula (ball of cells after successive mitosis of zygote) → Blastocyst (hallow ball of cells with two layers) → Gastrula (formation of three layers via formation of primitive streak) → formation of nervous system (neurulation, formation of nervous system from ectoderm)

“More Blasting Gas, I’m Nervous”

773
Q

What is the difference between sensation and perception?

A

Sensation: Conversion of physical stimuli into action potentials

Perception: Use of sensory information and pre-existing knowledge to create a functional representation of the world

774
Q

Is visual feature detection processed in series or in parallel? How is this in contrast to the processing that occurs before feature detection?

A

In series; everything before (M vs P ganglionic cells, different areas of the visual field, etc) is processed in parallel

775
Q

What sensory modality (visual, auditory, etc) is working memory most encoded as?

A

Auditory

776
Q

How do you convert focal length to diopeters (a measure of lens strength) ?

A

D= 100/F (f in centimeters)

777
Q

_____ (converging, diverging) lenses have positive focal lengths whereas (converging, diverging) lenses have negative focal lengths

A

Converging, Diverging

778
Q

For a system of thin lenses in close proximity, how can you calculate the combined strength of the thin lens system?

A

Stotal= S1 + S2

779
Q

What is intramolecular force is the primary driver behind protein folding (tertiary structure)

A

Hydrophobic effect, want to shield interior from water

780
Q

What is relationship between and the difference in binding affinities (Kd, where a smaller Kd= a stronger binding affinity) between mixed inhibitors and noncompetitive inhibitors? How do they both differ from uncompetitive inhibitors?

A

Mixed inhibitors can bind both the free enzyme and the enzyme substrate complex , and Kd1 (free enzyme) does not necessarily equal Kd2 (complex). Noncompetitive inhibitors are a special case of mixed inhibitors where the inhibitor can bind both equally well (Kd1= Kd2).

Uncompetitive inhibitors bind the ES complex only

781
Q

What does the x intercept, y intercept, and slope represent in a lineweaver burke plot?

A

X intercept: -1/Km

Y intercept: 1/Vmax

Slope: Km/Vmax

782
Q

What is the general formula for the work done by an engine?

A

Work output (W) / Work input (Q H)

783
Q

Do impurities usually result in melting points that are lower or higher?

A

Usually result in melting points that are lower (melting point depression due to impurities)

784
Q

What is the eluting strength of a mobile phase in chromotography dependent on?

A

Depends on how strongly the mobile phase adsorbs onto the stationary phase; i.e. in standard phase TLC, polar solvents have stronger eluting strength because the stationary phase is also polar

785
Q

What does the normality of a solution refer to?

A

Number of equivalents of a reactive species / Liter of solution

786
Q

What is the main function of Intermediate filaments? How does this contrast with the main function(s) of microtubules and microfilaments?

A

The main function of intermediate filaments is to create cell cohesion and provide mechanical strength to cells, especially epithelial cells (in the form of keratin). Connects desmosomes to each other

Microtubules: functions include cell trafficing of intracellular cargo (dynein/kinesin rides on it), mitosis and meiosis (connects to centromere, pulls them back) and flagellar motion

Microfilaments: pretty much actin, so contraction an dshit

787
Q

What does racial centrality refer to?

A

Extent to which one’s race is central to their identity (self concept)

788
Q

What is the difference between cross sectional and longitudinal studies? Are these two terms mutually exclusive when defining a study?

A

Cross sectional: A study that takes a “snapshot in time” of a certain group/phenomenon

Longitudinal: A study that compares a certain group/phenomenon at different time intervals

No; a study can be both, can have multiple cross sectional “snapshots” and different time intervals

789
Q

In which stage of sleep are limb muscles paralyzed?

A

REM

790
Q

What stage of sleep does bed wetting usuallly occur?

A

Stage 3

791
Q

What are the universally expressed emotions? What does it mean to say they are universally expressed?

A

Happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, surprise, anger

Means the physical expression of these emotions are consistent across cultures

792
Q

What is the Affect Heuristic?

A

Process of making a judgement based off the emotion it evokes

793
Q

What are stimulus motives?

A

Motives that stimulate people (satisfy our craving for stimulation) but aren’t necessarily necessary for survival, such as curiosity, adventure, etc

794
Q
A
795
Q

What is milgram known for?

A

His studies on obedience; most famous one was the experiment where participants acted as “teachers” who shocked confederates with increasingly intense shocks; predicted that most would stop shocking, but actually found that 65% of participants shocked all the way through

796
Q

What is the role of Microglia in the brain?

A

Act as the primary immune cells of the CNS, phagocytose pathogens, waste materials, and damaged cells

797
Q

What are the three ways a molecule may pass the blood brain barrier?

A
  1. ) If small and hydrophillic (like an ion), through the tight junctions of the endothelial cells
  2. ) If hydrophobic and relatively small, directly through the membranes of the endothelial cells
  3. ) If large and/or hydophillic, through carrier proteins of the epithelial cells
798
Q

Do all prokaryotes possess a cell well?

A

Yes, all prokaryotes have cell walls

799
Q

Between the small and large intestines, which one is involved in 1.) digestion 2.) absorption of nutrients and 3.) absorption of water?

A

Small intestine responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, whereas the large intestine is involved in the absorption of water

800
Q

What are the general rate law formulas for SN1 and SN2 reactions? What does this imply about the relative importance of having strong nucleophiles/electrophiles for each?

A

SN1: rate= k[electrophile] (zeroth order in respect to nucleophile, carbocation formation is only rate limiting step; therefore, it is only electrophile strength that matters, not nucleophile strength)

SN2: rate= k[electrophile][nucleophile] (both species affect rate, and thus both species strengths are important for reaction rate )

801
Q

Another name for Complex II of the ETC is

A

Succinate Dehydrogenase

802
Q

What is the sequence of events, from hypoxia to oxidative stress, eventually lead to apoptosis?

A

When hypoxia occurs, ETC activity slows; thus, electrons may leak from the ETC out into the intermembrane space, which may oxidize O2 to radicals;

in doing so, oxidative stress is increased, resulting in the increased permeability of the mitochondrial membranes; cytochrome C escapes, activates caspase proteases, the resultant cascade eventually leading to programmed cell death

803
Q

Between the separation of small proteins from each other vs the separation of large proteins from each other, which separation technique (HPLC or Gel electrophoresis) is better?

A

HPLC is better for small proteins, Gel electrophoresis better for large proteins

804
Q

Does peptidoglycan exist in any eukaryotic cell?

A

No, it is chiefly in prokaryatic ells

805
Q

What differentiates the endometrium and myometrium in the uterus?

A

Endometrium: The very inner layer of the uterus, where the egg implants

Myometrium: the layer of smooth muscle underneath the endometrium

806
Q

How many ligands are attached to a central atom with octahedral molecular geometry?

A

6

807
Q

Are the bonds between a metal and a ligand in a complex ion covalent or ionic?

A

Covalent, actually, because it is due to the overlapping of the empty metal orbital with the donated ligand orbital

808
Q

Which muscle types have gap junctions?

A

Smooth, cardiac

809
Q

What is the sympathetic effect on urination/bladder contraction?

A

Relaxes bladder, promotes urination (think- when you’re scared, your sympathetic system kicks on and you pee your pants)

810
Q

What are the characteristics/function of osteocytes, and how are the created?

A

Osteocytes are mature and mitotically inactive cells that control bone remodeling by releasing signals; they are created from osteoblasts, who build the bone matrix around themselves eventually encasing themselves;

Osteocytes are located within lacunae in the Haversian system; they are immobile but can release signals through the caniculae.

811
Q

What is the primary purpose of the collecting duct?

A

Reabsorption of water

812
Q

How does the osmolarity of the kidney change as you run deeper?

A

Kidney osmolarity increases as you go deeper into the kidney

813
Q

Which muscle type has multiple nuclei per cell?

A

Skeletal muscle

814
Q

What type of memory are the visuo-spatial sketchpad and the phonological loop a part of?

A

Working memory

815
Q

What is the purpose of the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN), and in what brain structure is it located in? By what mechanism does it act?

A

The purpose is to control circadian rythms/ internal pacemaking of cells in the body; it is located in the hypothalamus

Information about light from photoreceptors hit the SCN; when light is high, release less melatonin, when light is low, release more melatoninn

816
Q

When in Erickson’s theory of personality development does initiative vs guilt occur? What is this stage characterized by?

A

Occurs during ages 3-6; whether children can establish themselves (iniative) or fail to do so because they are stifled or discouraged (guilt)

817
Q

What is the central tenet of Mead’s social behaviorism, and what are its three stages?

A

Central tenet: The mind and the self emerge through the process of communicating with others

  1. ) preparatory stage, interact with other through imitation, but cannot take perspective of others (egocentric)
  2. ) Play stage: Pretend play, focused on role taking, therefore assuming the persepctive of others (not egocentric anymore)
  3. ) game stage: Start to understand views/beliefs of general other (society as a whole); children begin acting how they feel society asks them to act;
818
Q

What does horizantal social mobility refer to?

A

A change that does not result in moving up or down society’s status categories; i.e. a doctor moves his practice from florida to dallas (intragenerational horizantal mobility)

819
Q

What does memory consolidation refer to?

A

The conversion of temporary, labile memories into long lasting, stable memories

820
Q

Which eeg patterns are associated with sleep stages 1, 2, and 3?

A

1: Theta waves
2: Sleep spindles and k complexes
3: Delta waves

(REM has similar patterns to a waking brain)

821
Q

What does the semantic network refer to?

A

How semantic memory has “nodes” that are interconnected with other nodes; thinking of one of these nodes will activate other adjacent nodes via spreading activation (i.e. you have an uncle who is a firefighter; you see a firetruck, and you think of your uncle)

822
Q

In terms of variable type (categorical vs continuous), when can correlations be applied to a data set? Howabout regressions?

A

Correlations: only when both variables are continuous

Regressions: Dependent must be continuous, Independent can be either

823
Q

What does the biological theory of personality propose?

A

Personality is mainly determined by genes, the expression of which can be altered by the environment (so its not proposing that personality is 100% only influenced by genes)

824
Q

What are the prevalances of personality disorders, anxiety disorders, and mood disorders respectively?

A

Personality disorder: 10%, anxiety; 20%, mood: 10%

825
Q

What is the function of erythropoiten, and where is it secreted from?

A

Function is to increase number of red blood cells produced by bone marrow; secreted from the kidney

826
Q

What is insulin’s effect on fatty acid release from adipocytes? What about on fatty acid synthesis?

A

Decrease fatty acid release by decreasing activity of hormone sensitive lipase, while increasing fatty acid synthesis

827
Q

How is fat versus other nutrients absorbed from the small intestine differently?

A

Fat: packaged into chylomicrons by cells of small intestine, then enter the lymph where it drains back into the blood in a vein near the heart

Other nutrients: enter the hepatic portal to go directly to the liver

828
Q

Where in the nephron is glucose reabsorbed

A

Proximal tube

829
Q

What does racialization refer to?

A

The process by which one group designates another with a racial identity ; i.e. “everyone from mexico doesn’t know how to speak english”; the designator group generally holds more power and exerts social control over the designated group

830
Q

What is the relationship between habituation, dehabituation, sensitization, and desensitization?

A
831
Q

What is a disproportionation reaction?

A

One in which an atom of the same element simultaneously gets oxidized and reduced

832
Q

Where in the nephron does most of the reabsorption , especially water, happen?

A

Proximal collecting duct

833
Q

What are the similarities and differences between a synthase and a synthetase?

A

Both catalyze linking of two molecules together; however, a synthase does not require the hydrolysis of a high energy molecule (like atp), whereas a synthetase does

834
Q

how can kcat (turnover rate) be calculated from Vmax and [E]?

A

Vmax/ [E]

835
Q

What muscle types have t tubules?

A

only skeletal

836
Q

What is the relationship between emf and terminal voltage?

A

emf - I(Rinternal)= terminal voltage

837
Q

What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary ?

A

Oxytocin and ADH

838
Q

What differentiates normative, utilitarian, and coercive organizations?

A

Normative: Organization bound. by shared values and/or goals

Utilitarian: Organization bound by compensation (either money or diploma)

Coercive: Organization bound by force

839
Q

What are the two dissociative disorders, and what are they characterized by ?

A
  1. Dissociative identity disorder, characterized by presence of two or more identities and amnesia
  2. Dissociative amnesia, characterized by inability to remember important autobiographical information
840
Q

In Operant conditioning, what is the relationship between a secondary reinforcer and a token?

A

A secondary reinforcer is one that is conditioned to be a positive reinforcement (not necessarily within the reinforcement regime itself, ie a sticker for getting a shot)

A token. isa type of secondary reinforcer that may be traded in for a desirable reward

841
Q

Does reverse transcriptase have rna dependent dna polymerase, dna dependent dna polymerase, or both?

A

both; creates double stranded DNA from rna, so first step is dna from rna (rna dependent dna polymerase), then dna from dna

842
Q

Which hormone is the direct trigger to release the egg from the follicle?

A

LH

843
Q

In a two step thermodynamic process, is it more favorable for the first step or second step to have a higher deltaH ? (both in comparison to the reactants)

A

Second step, because there is likely a smaller initial activation energy

844
Q

Which vitamin is largely considere an antioxidant?

A

Vitamin E

845
Q

What is the azimuthal quantum number?

A

It is l, which determines the shape of the orbital (whether the orbital is s, p, or d)

846
Q

Are gases more soluble in cold water. orhot water ?

A

Cold water, because entropy in the gas. todissolved transition decreases, and therefore it is more favorable at lower tmperatures

847
Q

how many electrons can NADH hold. andtransfer versus fadh2?

A

NADH: 2

FADH2: one or two

848
Q

What is the effect of application of ozone to an alkene?

A

Cleavage, resulting in formation of two carbonyls

849
Q

Another word for thrombocytes is

A

Platelets

850
Q

Which bands/zones shorten in a sarcomere of a striated muscle?

A

The I band and the H zone

851
Q

What protein structural elements are proline a part of? What elements do they disrupt?

A

Proline is rigid, and it therefore usually in the unstructured “turns” between secondary structure elements. It is therefore unlikley to be found in either alpha helices or beta sheets

852
Q

Can nondisjunction occur in both stages of meiosis?

A

Yes, can occur in either anaphase 1 or anaphase 2

853
Q

What does dithiothreital do to a protein

A

Similar to beta mercampthenol, reducing agent that breaks disulfide bridges

854
Q

What is the correct pathway through the male reproductive system sperm takes en route to ejaculation?

A

Seminiferous tubules → epididymus → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra → penis

855
Q

What is the purpose of the epididymus?

A

Where immature spermatozoa mature and become motile ; additionally, in. the event that no ejaculation occurs, this is where sperm are reabsorbed

856
Q

What energy source do sperm use in order to propel themselves?

A

Fructose

857
Q

Which three compounds, in which order, are reduced in ETC?

A

Coenzyme q (receives electrons from complexes 1 and 2), cytochrome c (receives electrons from complex 3), and oxygen (receives electrons from complex 4)

858
Q

What is psychoeducation?

A

providing knowledge about one’s condition and its treatment

859
Q

What are the 7 defense mechanisms, and. whatare their characteristics?

A
  1. ) Repression, unconsciously employed by ego to push distrubing thoughts. intothe subconscious
  2. ) supression, like repression but conscious
  3. ) Reaction formation: repressing a feeling by outwardly expressing the exact opposite of it
  4. ) Projection: Attributing one’s own negative thoughts to another person
  5. ) Displacement: Satisfying an impulse (like aggression) by redirecting it to another thing
  6. ) Regression: Regressing back to a child like state
  7. ) Sublimation: Satisfying an impulse in a socially acceptable way
860
Q

what differetiates the I and the Me and George Mead’s theory?

A

The “me” is the collection of values, pressures, attitudes, etc of society that are organized into the social self through role taking

The “i” is the part of the self that has desires, freedom, creativity, a reaction to the me

861
Q

What stage of George mead’s social behaviorism theory does the Me and the I emerge?

A

Third stage, “game stage”

862
Q

What is the looking glass self?

A

Individuals base their sense of self on how they feel others view them; ie. use social interactions as a mirror

863
Q

What are the components. ofthe limbic system?

A

hippocampus, hypothalamus , amygdala, thalamus

“hippo wears a hat”

864
Q

What is the preconscious in freud’s framework? Which components of the psyche are invovled in the preconscious?

A

Thoughts that are primarily unconscious, but. canbe recalled if necessary

Ego, superego

865
Q

What are the two types of declaritive memory?

A

Episodic (remembering events in a person’s life) , semantic (facts)

866
Q

What are the three bones of the ossicles from further to closer to the cochlea?

A

Malleus, incus, stapes

867
Q

What is the gestalt principle of symmetry?

A

Objets that are symmetrical tend to be viewed as whole or complete

868
Q

What is the gestalt law of continuity?

A

Individuals have a tendency to continue the perception of lines along the smoothest path

869
Q

What is a mechanical wave’s energy directly proportional to?

A

A(amplitude)^2

870
Q

Do sound waves travel faster in warm air or cold air ?

A

Warm air, because particles are moving faster and therefore can “transfer” the wave to the next more quickly

871
Q

How many nodes does the first fundamental frequency of a closed pipe, open pipe, and string have, respectively?

A

Closed: One node

Open: One node

String: Two nodes

872
Q

What distinguishes relative poverty from absolute poverty?

A

Relative poverty: Poor compared to those around an individual, but does not necessarily mean cannot sustain basic needs like food, water, shelter,

Absolute poverty: Cannot sustain basic needs

873
Q

What is symbolic culture?

A

Non material culture that conveys concrete meaning only. inthe mind i.e. thumbs up represents agreement

874
Q

What does a 1% solution imply?

A

1% of a solution given mass is by virtue of the solute

875
Q

What is the nmr shift value for alkyl hydrogens?

A

1-2 ppm

876
Q

What is the way in which hooke’s law can be used to approximate wavenumbers for IR?

A

Atoms can be represented as masses on each end of the spring (aka the bond); period=2pi sqrt(m/k); heavier the atoms, longer the period, smaller the wavenumber (which is directly proportional to frequency)

877
Q

What can be said about enzyme and substrate when at Vmax?

A

All active sites of of every enzyme is bound to substrate

878
Q

What is the difference between a physical property and a chemical property?

A

Physical property: aspect that can be observed without changing the chemical composition

Chemical property: Can only be observed when the molecule undergoes a chemical reaction, such as reactivity, flammability

879
Q

What does a catalyst do to the rates of the forward and the reverse reaction respectively?

A

Increases both rates

880
Q

What is frustration aggression theory?

A

Individuals react to frustration with aggression

881
Q

What differentiates generalized anxiety disorder from panic disorder?

A

They are both anxiety disorders; GAD is characterized by excessive uncontrollable worry about a variety of topics chronically, where as panic disorder is characterized by repeated acute panic attacks

882
Q

What is the defining characteristing of somatic symptom and related disorders category?

A

Bodily symptoms or illnesses are associated with psychological disorders;

Could either be excessive worry about a somatic symptom (somatic symptom disorder), or neurological symptoms such as paralysis or blindness that do not have a medical cause (conversion disorder), or preoccupation with getting a specific illness (illness anxiety disorder)

883
Q

What is the function of the bulbourethral (cowpers) gland?

A

To secrete alkaline mucus that lubricates the tip of the penis and protects sperm from acidic urine that may still be in the urethra

884
Q

After centrifugation, what are the three layers of blood composed of?

A

On top: Plasma , which includes blood proteins (like albumin) hormones, nutrients, metabolic waste

Middle: White blood cells and platelets

Bottom Red blood cells (which also includes the hemoglobin contained within them)

885
Q

In the context of harmonic frequencies, pipes closed at one end can only have n=1,3,5. Would n=3 be considered the second harmonic or the third harmonic?

A

Third harmonic

886
Q

What is the formula that describes ideal gas temperature from average molecular kinetic energy?

A

, Where kb is boltzmann constant, and Tk is temperature in kelvin

887
Q

What is the effect of a nonvolatile solute on the boiling point of a solution?

A

Will increase boiling point, because solutes decrease the surface area occupied by the solvent, thereby rdeducing vapor pressure

888
Q

In the dramaturgical approach, is the front stage or the back stage the “true self”

A

Neither; the dramaturgical approach states that both front stage and back stage are equally valid performances of self

889
Q

When does a fetus/infant become able to produce their own antibodies?

A

1 month after birth

890
Q

Between bound and unbound ribosomes, which synthesizes secretory/membrane bound proteins, and which synthesizes proteins for intracellular use?

A

Bound: Secretory/membrane bound

Unbound: Intracellular use

891
Q

How is cytosolic NADH produced by glycolysis transferred to ETC?

A

Through. the malate aspartate shuttle

892
Q

Mixed inhibitors have unequal affinities to the free enzyme and the enzyme substrate complex. Using Km, how can you differentiate between which it has a higher affinity for? Howabout their effects on Vmax?

A

If Km increases after inhibitor, acts more like a competitive inhibitor and therefore preferentially binds free enzyme

If Km decreases after inhibitor, acts more like an uncompetitive inhibitor and therefore preferntially binds complex

In either case, Vmax will decrease

893
Q

In the demographic transition model, does birth rate or death rate begin to decline first as a society transitions towards becoming more developed?

A

Death rate

894
Q

In the demographic transition model, does birth rate or death rate begin to decline first as a society transitions towards becoming more developed?

A

Death rate

895
Q

What characterizes the lifecourse approach to health?

A

Cumulative biological, psychological and sociocultural factors across a lifetime affect health and illness

896
Q

Is a negative or positive Ecell a spontaneous reaction?

A

A positive Ecell, because deltaG= -nFEcell

897
Q

What is the physical meaning of a faraday? What is its value?

A

It is a unit of charge; equal to the charge in one mol of electrons

96500 couloumbs/mole electron

898
Q

What is (usually) the oxidation state of nitrogen?

A

-3

899
Q

in eukaryotes, what types of RNA does RNA pol 2 transcribe?

A

mRNA, siRNA, miRNA

900
Q

What is the charge of an electron in coulombs?

A

1.6 e-19

901
Q

What are prosthetic groups?

A

Tightly bound cofactors, cofactors being inorganic or organic(in which they are called coenzymes) nonamino acids groups that are required for enzyme function.

902
Q

Visually, how does one discern between the half equivalence point and the equivalence point?

A

Half equivalence point is the middle of the “flat” portion prior to the steep incline, and the equivalence point is the middle portion of the steep incline

903
Q

How does one calculate PI from a titration?

A

Find the species with a charge of -1, 0, and 1, using half equivalence points determine the bounding pka values (pH=pka at the equivalence points), then take their average

904
Q

How do you calculate the ratio of rates of diffusion/effusion between two species, or the same species at two different temperatures/

A

Usually don’t calculate the actual value, but rather compare the effusion/diffusion rates of one species to another species at the same temperature, or the same species at two different tmperatures

Rate directly proportional to Velocity; v= sqrt(3rt)/m, r is gas constant, t is temperature in kelvin, m is molar mass. Therefore, can use ratio of velocities to determine ratio of effusions

905
Q

Which amino acids can be phosphorylated?

A

Serine, threonine, tyrosine, histidine

906
Q

Does a myopic eye have a lens that has too short or too long of a focal point?

A

Too short; the lens is too curved

907
Q

In a converging lens, where must you place the object to create a virtual and where for a real image? Howabout the same for a diverging lens?

A

Converging: outside of focal point, real, inside of focal point, virtual

Diverging: can only create virtual images

908
Q

Between an electrolytic and a galvanic cell, is the anode negatively or positively charged?

A

Galvanic: Anode negatively charged (occurs spontaneously, oxidation occurs here, therefore must be negative in order to “push” the electrons away)

Electrolytic: anode positively charged

909
Q

Can acetyl coa enter gluconeogenesis?

A

No; only pyruvate can (as can lactate and glucogeneic amino acids, but they must be converted into pyruvate first ). Acetyl coa cannot be converted into pyruvate, because pyruvate to acetyl coa is irreversible

910
Q

Where within a hepatocyte cell does gluconeogenesis occur?

A

Cytosol

911
Q

How many electrons does coenzymeq and cytochrome c transfer at a time respectively?

A

2, 1

912
Q

What is the input into the pentose phsophate pathway?

A

G6P

913
Q

What phase of the pentose phosphate pathway is NADPH produced?

A

Oxidative phase

914
Q

What pathway is important for the interconversion of sugars?

A

Pentose phosphate pathway

915
Q

What state of consciousness is alpha waves associated with?

A

Awake but sleepy

916
Q

What is mixed method research?

A

research that involves both quantitative and qualitative measures

917
Q

What is the halo effect?

A

When someone assumes that just because someone has one desirable quality, they must have other accompanying desirable qualities as well (he’s attractive, therefore he’s also charasmatic and smart)

918
Q

How long must an individual exhibit depressive symptoms in order to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder?

A

2 weeks; DSM says only one major depressive disorder is required in order to diagnose, and the minimum length of a depressive disorder is 2 weeks.

919
Q

What is the difference between superstructure and substructure (or base) in conflict theory?

A

Substructure: relations of production, means of production, i.e. anything that has to do with economy

Superstructure: The ideologies/institutions not directly related to economy that maintain the substracture i.e. anything. thatdoesnt have to do with economy

920
Q

In eukaryotes, which RNA pol transcribes rRNA?

A

RNA pol 1

921
Q

What are the reagents of the HVZ reaction, and what does it do?

A

Reagents: PBr3/Br2

Replaces a hydrogen on the alpha carbon of a carboxylic acid with a bromine

922
Q

Between a type 1 and a type 2 error, which is a false positive and which is a false negative?

A

Type 1: False positive

Type 2: False Negative

923
Q

How does one calculate ppm as opposed to a percent solution? (i.e. what ppm is a 1% solution)

A

mass %= (mass solute/ mass solution ) x 100

ppm= (mass solute/ mass solution) x 10e6

therefore, ppm= mass % x 10e4

924
Q

What are the two half reactions for the electrolysis of water?

A

In acidic solutions

Anode: 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e-

Cathode: 2H+ + 2e-→ H2

In basic solutions

Anode: 2OH- → H2O + ½ O2 + 2e-

Cathode: 2H2O + 2e- → H2 + 2OH-

Both have the same overall formula: 2H2O → O2 +2H2

925
Q

When does crossing over occur in meiosis?

A

Prophase 1

926
Q

What is the definition of the restriction checkpoint in cell division, and at what stage during cell division does it occur? What does this checkpoint check for/?

A

The restriction checkpoint is the checkpoint at which the cell is committed to undergoing meiosis.

It occurs during G2, and checks for damage to DNA

927
Q

What is avogadro’s number?

A

6.02e23

928
Q

What are newton’s three laws?

A
  1. ) Object will not change its motion unless a force acts upon it
  2. ) F=ma
  3. ) Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
929
Q

Are alkyl groups slightly electron donating or electron withdrawing?

A

Slightly electron donating

930
Q

If the main driver of protein folding is hydrophobic collapse, what is the purpose of disulfide bridges?

A

Not as. amain driver of protein folding, but rather to further stablize the protein

931
Q

Does the pyranose/furanose distinction describe the #of carbons in the sugar or the number of constituents in the ring?

A

of constituents in cyclic form; # of carbons is describe by the pentose/hexose distinction

932
Q

What is the function of pyruvate carboxylase?

A

Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis

933
Q

How does the -OH Ir stretch differ in the gas phase versus the liquid phase? Why do they differ?

A

In the gas phase, the -OH stretch is sharper because there is very little hydrogen bonding in the gas phase.

Hydrogen bonding results in differing strengths of each -OH bond in comparison to the , which results in the “blurring” of the peak when in liquid form

934
Q

Why can humans digest starch but not cellulose?

A

Due to different glycosidic linkage; humans can only cleave alpha 1,4 linkages, not beta 1,4

935
Q

In conventional electrical cell notation, which side represents the cathode and which reperesents the anode?

A

anode on left , cathode on right, separated by // representing salt bridge

936
Q

What process does bond dissociation enthalpy measure the enthalpy for?

A

The splitting of a covalent bond into two radicals

937
Q

What process does bond dissociation enthalpy measure the enthalpy for?

A

The splitting of a covalent bond into two radicals

938
Q

Are radicals electron rich or electron deficient

A

Electron deficient

939
Q

What is the more commonly used term for “optical isomers?”

A

Enantiomers

940
Q

What signaling pathway/cascade do TCR’s use?

A

tyrosine kinase (as opposed to GPCR)

941
Q

What are the general terms for sphere shaped and rod shaped bacteria, respectively?

A

Sphere shaped: Cocci

Rod Shaped: Bacilli

942
Q

Which face of the lipid biyaler are glycoproteins and glycolipids found only?

A

Only found in extracellular face, not cytoplasmic face

943
Q

Is the complement system innate or adaptive?

A

Innate

944
Q

What is the effect of chloesterol on membrane permeability?

A

Tends to decrease permeability, because at physiological temperatures decreases fluidity by packing between “kinks” in phospholipid tails.

Therefore, tighter packing and ultimately lower permeability

945
Q

What are the three types of symbiosis?

A

Mutualism (benefit to both), commensalism (benefit to one, no effect on other) and parasitism (harm. toone, benefit to the other)

946
Q

Between the sense and the antisense strand, which is directly bound to RNA polymerase during transcription?

A

Antisense strand, the sense strand gives the actual RNA code

947
Q

What are the only two hormones released from the posterior pituitary?

A

ADH and oxytocin

948
Q

What is the more common term for vasopressin?

A

ADH

949
Q

What is the effect of insulin on adipocytes?

A

Stimulates their growth

950
Q

What is the net ATP yield from glycolysis? What are the enzymes that catalyze ATP yielding steps?

A

2 ATP

Phosphoglycerate Kinase, Pyruvate Kinase

951
Q

What hormone has the opposite effect to aldosterone?

A

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide, which decreases Na + reabsorption in the DCT (in the same way that aldosterone increases NA+ reabsorption in the DCT0

952
Q

What differentiates birth rate from fertility rate?

A

Birth rate: births/ x number of people

Fertility rate: births/ x number of females

953
Q

What is the false consensus bias?

A

people tend to overestimate how common their behavior is and assume others do the things they do

954
Q

how long does sensory memory (iconic, echoic), short term memory, and long term memory last, respectively?

A

Sensory: milliseconds

Short term: 15-30 seconds

Long term: theoretically infinite

955
Q

What differentiates conformity, and obedience, and compliance?

A

Conformity: to bring yourself in line with norms exhibited by peers

Obedience: doing something as instructed by an authority figure

Compliance: a part of/a mechanism of obedience, doing something to get reward/avoid punishment

956
Q

In erikson’s stages, when does trust vs mistrust occur? What is. itcharacterized by?

A

0-1 yrs, whether needs. aremet (trust) or not (mistrust)

957
Q

In erikson’s stages, when does autonomy vs doubt occur?What is it characterized by?

A

1-3 years, whether parents allow children to start gaining independence (autonomy)

958
Q

In erikson’s stages, wen does industry vs inferiority occur?

A

6-12

959
Q

In erikson’s stages, when does intimacy vs isolation occur?

A

20-40

960
Q

In erikson’s stages, when does initiative vs guilt occur?

A

3-6

961
Q

In erikson’s stages, when does identity vs role confusion occur?

A

12-20

962
Q

In erikson’s stages, when does integrity vs despair occur?

A

65+

963
Q

What does internalization refer to?

A

An idea/belief/behavior that has been integrated into our own values; the strongest type of conformity, as. weexhibit this conformity even in private

964
Q

What does the observer expectancy. biasrefer to?

A

How a researcher’s expectations can affect the subjects’ behavior and ultimately the results of the study

965
Q

What does the Yerkes Dodson law imply?

A

Moderate levels of arousal illicit the highest performance

966
Q

What is another term for coenzyme q?

A

Ubiquinone

967
Q

What are the two mechanisms by which an enzyme with two substrates may proceed?

A
  1. ) Ping pong/double displacement, where one substrate enters the active site then leaves, then leaves, followed by the other substrate
  2. ) Ternary complex, where both substrates occupy different active sites simultaneously. This can be ordered, where one must enter before the other, or unordered.
968
Q

When varying substrate concentration on x axis and plotting initial reaction rate (Vo) on y axis, when do hyperbolic vs sigmoidal shapes come about?

A

Hyperbolic- when there is no cooperativity in substrates

Sigmoidal- when there is cooperativity in substrates

969
Q

Can water form a hydrogen bond with a ketone, even though the ketone does not have an -OH bond?

A

Yes; it is only the hydrogen bond donor the requires the -OH (or -NH or -FH) group; the hydrogen bond acceptor simply requires a lone pair on an electronegative element)

970
Q

Does the phrase “geoemtry. ofa molecule” or “shape of a molecule” refer to electron or molecular geometry?

A

When not specifically asking for electron geometry, it is the molecular geometry

971
Q

How does one find the period of a complex waveform when time (x) vs amplitude (y) of the waveform is graphed?

A

NOT defined by number of “humps”, but by when the entire waveform repeats again (which would equal one complete cycle)

972
Q

In psychology, particularly memory, what is the difference between shadowing and recall?

A

Shadowing refers to immediately repeating presented information, while recall refers to repeating presented information after a certain amount of time

973
Q

What formula can one use to determine the spacing of bands in single slit diffraction?

A

, Where theta represents angle between each band, lambda is the wavelength of incident light, and alpha is width of the slit

974
Q

What is the difference between an acetal and a ketal?

A

Acetal: formed from aldehydes, so will retain a hydrogen

Ketal: formed from ketones, so will not have a hydrogen

975
Q

What is the last common metabolite between aerobic respiration and fermentation?

A

Pyruvate

976
Q

What is the definition of amphipathic vs amphoteric?

A

Amphipathic: has both hydrophillic and hydrophobic portions

Amphoteric: Can react as both an acid and a base

977
Q

in an alpha helix, how many amino acids are there per 360 degree turn?

A

between 3 and 4 (3.6 AA per turn)

978
Q

How can an equillibrium constant be derived from a rate constnat?

A

Keq=k(forward) (at equillibrium) /k(reverse) (at equillibrium)

979
Q

What is the functino of adding a salt buffer in cation/anion exchange columns?

A

To displace the bound cations/anions, allowing them to elute. If working wiith acidicbasic species, can also slowly change pH until species elute

980
Q

What are the 4 most common forms of post-translational modifications?

A

Phosphorylation, methylation, acetylation, proteolysis

981
Q

Assume two glutamate residues are placed near each other vs are free floating. How does this affect their pKa?

A

if near each other, increase pH, because want to stay protonated more- because when protonated, can form hydrogen bonds, and when deprotonated, will experience repulsion.

982
Q

What is the standard deviation of iq scores ?

A

15

983
Q

Which layer of the skin prevents water loss?

A

Stratum corneum, the most superficial layer of epidermis, which itself is the outermost superdivision of skin

984
Q

Which layer of the skin (epidermis, dermis, hypodermis) is the stratum basale located in?

A

Epidermis

985
Q

What layer of skin is adipose tissue located in?

A

hypodermis

986
Q

cIn a coordination complex/complex ion, where do the electrons used in the coordinate covalent bonds come from?

A

both electrons come from the ligand (lewis base), as opposed to traditional covalent bonds in which one electron is donated from each participting species

987
Q

What bonds connect the ligand to the central metal ion in complex ions?

A

Coordinate covalent bonds, in which both electrons are contributed by the ligand but are equally shared upon contribution

988
Q

How long is each sleep cycle?

A

Around 90 minutes

989
Q

What can be said about sleep cycles as each consecutive sleep cycle progresses?

A

Proportion of time spent in REM per sleep cycle increases

990
Q

What is the definition of socialization? What are agents of socizliation?

A

Socialization refers to the process by which individuals learn the knowledge, attitudes, and values they need to be productive citizens.

Agents of socialization refer to any institution/ ideology/group of people that help instill this; examples include mass media, family, religion, etc

991
Q

From earlier in the tract to later in the tract, what are the four portions of the colon?

A

Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon

992
Q

Along with the thyroid, what other organs are involved in its associated endocrine axis?

A

Hypothalamus, pituitary (HPT Axis)

993
Q

Along with the thyroid, what other organs are involved in its associated endocrine axis?

A

Hypothalamus, pituitary (HPT Axis)

994
Q

Along with the thyroid, what other organs are involved in its associated endocrine axis?

A

Hypothalamus, pituitary (HPT Axis)

995
Q

Which vitamins are attached to NAD and CoA, respectively?

A

B3, B5

996
Q

What sort of reaction (E1/E2/SN1/SN2) is a dehydration reaction that leads to the formation of a double bond? Are tertiary or primary alcohols more prone to undergoing dehydration?

A

E1,tertiary due to carbocation intermediate

997
Q

Rank arteries, capillaries, and veins from highest to lowest blood pressure. Provide a verbal argument as to why

A

Arteries > capillaries > veins. Fluids flow from higher pressure to lower pressure; because fluids flow from arterires to capillaries to veins, this must be the rankings of pressure

998
Q

What two linkages are in glycogen?

A

alpha 1,4 (linear), alpha 1,6 (at branch points)

999
Q

Generally, what does increasing the temperature of a wire do to its resistance?

A

Increases resistance

1000
Q

How do hydrophobic molecules, such as steroids, pass through the cell membrane?

A

By diffusing directly through it

1001
Q

What two genomic elements do transciption factors bind to?

A

promoters, or distal enhancers

1002
Q

What differentiates Type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

A

Type 1: autoimmune disorder, attack pancreas beta cells, can no longer secrete insulin

Type 2: caused in part by environmental/behavioral effects, insulin receptors on cells no longer responsive even though insulin is secreted; caused by lifelong overstimulation of insulin receptors

1003
Q

What does the dual coding effect refer to?

A

How the retrieval of verbal items that are also mentally imageable is easier (retrieving car is easier than retrieving captialism because the term car can be visualized)

1004
Q

What is the misinformation effect?

A

The ability to falsely modify a memory after it was formed (most comonly by asking questions sugestive of a certain false quality of the memory, such as asking “how many windows were broken” when testing one’s memory of a car crash, even when no windows were actually broken)

1005
Q

What does general adaptation syndrome imply about how organisms respond to stressors of different modalities?

A

Implies that, regardless of the nature of the stressor, with still follow a similar course (alarm, resistance, fatigue)

1006
Q

What does general adaptation syndrome imply about how organisms respond to stressors of different modalities?

A

Implies that, regardless of the nature of the stressor, with still follow a similar course (alarm, resistance, fatigue)

1007
Q

What does general adaptation syndrome imply about how organisms respond to stressors of different modalities?

A

Implies that, regardless of the nature of the stressor, with still follow a similar course (alarm, resistance, fatigue)

1008
Q

What does linguistic relativity (sapir whorf hypothesis) say?

A

One’s language affects their perception of reality (those that knows eskimo language can point on more shades of blue)

1009
Q

What is the generally accepted range for the number of items an individual is able to hold in their working memory?

A

5-9 items

1010
Q

What differentiates a peer group from a reference group?

A

Peer group: individuals in the same social position/social role as you

Reference group: individuals you would like to emulate because you would like to join their group

1011
Q

What differentiates a peer group from a reference group?

A

Peer group: individuals in the same social position/social role as you

Reference group: individuals you would like to emulate because you would like to join their group

1012
Q

What differentiates a peer group from a reference group?

A

Peer group: individuals in the same social position/social role as you

Reference group: individuals you would like to emulate because you would like to join their group

1013
Q

What differentiates a peer group from a reference group?

A

Peer group: individuals in the same social position/social role as you

Reference group: individuals you would like to emulate because you would like to join their group

1014
Q

What differentiates a peer group from a reference group?

A

Peer group: individuals in the same social position/social role as you

Reference group: individuals you would like to emulate because you would like to join their group

1015
Q

What differentiates a peer group from a reference group?

A

Peer group: individuals in the same social position/social role as you

Reference group: individuals you would like to emulate because you would like to join their group

1016
Q

What differentiates a peer group from a reference group?

A

Peer group: individuals in the same social position/social role as you

Reference group: individuals you would like to emulate because you would like to join their group

1017
Q

Would a study investigating the proportion of adults that are gay or straight at a given time be quantitative or qualitative?

A

Quantitative; although the measure itself is categorical (gay or straight), its numerical treatment makes in quantitative

1018
Q

What is the arrhenius equation, and what does it describe?

A

Describes how the rate constant k of a reaction changes with activation energy and temperature

1019
Q

What is the differenece between proximal and distal stimuli?

A

Both refer to external stimuli that cause experiences of sensory perception.

Proximal= what is directly causing the perceptual experience (i.e. a photon from a tree)

Distal= the root cause of the perceptual experience (the tree itself)

1020
Q

What metrics does psychophysical discrimination testing test for?

A

Just noticeable difference, absolute threshold

1021
Q

In development, what is the sensitive/critical period?

A

A period of time early in development which can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning later in life

1022
Q

Transfer of DNA during conjugation occurs only between bacteria (with/lacking) the F plasmid to bacteria (with/lacking) the F plasmid

A

With, lacking; an F+ bacteria cannot transfer DNA to another F+ bacteria

1023
Q

Which layer of the skin gives skin its strength and flexibility due to connective tissues present?

A

Dermis

1024
Q

Which layer of skin is derived from ectoderm?

A

Epidermis only

1025
Q

What is the universalism perspective on language and cognition? What is the polar opposite of this stance?

A

States that language is determined solely by cognition

Polar opposite: Linguistic determinism, cognition is determined solely by language

1026
Q

In iupac naming for alkanes, how are functional groups ordered within the name? How are they numbered?

A

Ordered: alphabetically

Numbered: Its position on the parent chain (longest continuous chain), in the diretion that would minimize substituent number

1027
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1028
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1029
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1030
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1031
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1032
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1033
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1034
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1035
Q

What does social exclusion specifically refer to?

A

When individuals are marginizaled to the point where they can no longer participate civically, economically, and socially

1036
Q

What are the three components that contribute to an individuals social strata, and what are their definitions?

A

Social class: Economic assets

Social status: prestige, linked but not necessarily tied to social class

Power: ability to influence and control others

1037
Q

How can you relate mean arterial pressure, cardiac output, and vascular resistance? What is the circuit analogy?

A

Cardiac output= mean arterial pressure/vascular resistance

Similar to how I=V/R

1038
Q

Is the regulation of respiratory rate dependent on PCO2 or PO2 in the blood?

A

PCO2

1039
Q

What is the relationship between the fraction of an object submerged buoyantly and its density as compared to water?

A

Fraction submerged = Pobject/Pfluid

1040
Q

What does social epidemiology refer to?

A

Contribution of social and cultural patterns to disease, and more generally, health as a whole. Although epidemiology instantly calls to mind thoughts of infection, social epidemiology does not necessarily refer to social determinants of infectious disease spread

1041
Q

What is the difference between social capital and cultural capital?

A

Social capital: An individual’s Social circles one can directly leverage

Cultural capital: An individual’s level of “culture” (i.e. interest in arts, education level, dressing nice) that tends to indicate one’s social status

1042
Q

What is the difference between social capital and cultural capital?

A

Social capital: An individual’s Social circles one can directly leverage

Cultural capital: An individual’s level of “culture” (i.e. interest in arts, education level, dressing nice) that tends to indicate one’s social status

1043
Q

What is the difference between social capital and cultural capital?

A

Social capital: An individual’s Social circles one can directly leverage

Cultural capital: An individual’s level of “culture” (i.e. interest in arts, education level, dressing nice) that tends to indicate one’s social status

1044
Q

What does the venturi effect refer to? What equation is it based off of?

A

The venturi effect refers to how when fluid flows through a contrstricted region of a tube, its velocity will increase and therefore its pressure will decrease. This effect is a result of the bernouli equation

1045
Q

What does the venturi effect refer to? What equation is it based off of?

A

The venturi effect refers to how when fluid flows through a contrstricted region of a tube, its velocity will increase and therefore its pressure will decrease. This effect is a result of the bernouli equation

1046
Q

When do infants begin to display stranger anxiety

A

Around 8 months

1047
Q

Does alzheimers effect explicit memory, implicit memory, or both?

A

Affects both explicit and implicit memory

1048
Q

How can you convert daltons to grams?

A

1 dalton = 1 gram/mol of substance

1049
Q

Why does pfk have two ATP binding sites?

A

Because one is for the substrate level phosphorylation (active site), and the other is an allosteric site that mediates feedback inhibition (because pfk is inhibited by high levels of AP)

1050
Q

Why does pfk have two ATP binding sites?

A

Because one is for the substrate level phosphorylation (active site), and the other is an allosteric site that mediates feedback inhibition (because pfk is inhibited by high levels of AP)

1051
Q

Why does pfk have two ATP binding sites?

A

Because one is for the substrate level phosphorylation (active site), and the other is an allosteric site that mediates feedback inhibition (because pfk is inhibited by high levels of AP)

1052
Q

Why does pfk have two ATP binding sites?

A

Because one is for the substrate level phosphorylation (active site), and the other is an allosteric site that mediates feedback inhibition (because pfk is inhibited by high levels of AP)

1053
Q

What occurs when a protein is ubiquitinated/?

A

It is surrounded by a proteosome (NOT a lysosome) and degraded via proteolysi

1054
Q

What is the general structure of a phosphatide?

A

A glycerol with two of the “arms” being fatty acid esters and the third being a phsphate with any nitrogen base linked on it

1055
Q

What is the difference between the sensitivity and the specificity of a test?

A

Sensitivity: how good a test is at correctly identifying a positive result

Specificity: how good a tsest is at correctly identifying a negative result

1056
Q

What is the difference between the sensitivity and the specificity of a test?

A

Sensitivity: how good a test is at correctly identifying a positive result

Specificity: how good a tsest is at correctly identifying a negative result

1057
Q

What is the difference between belief perseverence and vconfirmation bias?

A

Opposites of each other:

Belief pereseverence: When you continue to believe in something even when presented with valid information of the contrary

Confirmation bias: when you are more likely to believe information that is already in accordance with your views

Both are types of BBelief bias

1058
Q

What does sampling bias refer to?

A

Sampling bias is a subset of selection biases. It is when a nonrepresentative sample is taken (as in, not everyone in your target population had an equal chance of being selected. Self selecting bias is an example)

1059
Q

What sort of intelligence do those that are able to delay gratification express?

A

Emotional intelligence

1060
Q

Where are FSH and LH released from? What hormone controls their release?

A

Released from anterior pituitary, controlled by gonadtotropin releaseing hormone from hypothalamus

1061
Q

In a bacterial operon containing multiple genes, is it a single mRNA transcript that contains multiple genes, or multiple mRNA transcripts each with an individual gene?

A

Single mRNA that contains multiple genes (polycistronic mRNA)

1062
Q

Which muscles have t tubules and sarcoplsmic reticulum?

A

Only striated muscles (i.e. skeletal, cardiac)

1063
Q

What branch of the peripheral nervous sstem does the aderenal medulla control?

A

Sympathetic, releases epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to short term stress

1064
Q

What branch of the peripheral nervous sstem does the aderenal medulla control?

A

Sympathetic, releases epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to short term stress

1065
Q

What branch of the peripheral nervous sstem does the aderenal medulla control?

A

Sympathetic, releases epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to short term stress

1066
Q

What branch of the peripheral nervous sstem does the aderenal medulla control?

A

Sympathetic, releases epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to short term stress

1067
Q

What does it mean to say a certain gene is maternally imprinted?>

A

A mutated allele of the gene will only see an effect within offspring is passed down maternally

1068
Q

Does the glomerulus filter proteins into the nephron?

A

No, the glomerulus only filters in small molecules (amino acids, not proteins) and ions

1069
Q

What does REM Rebound refer to?

A

When REM sleep one night is restricted, the individual will experience more REM sleep than usual the following night

1070
Q

What are the three main components of socioeconomic status?

A

Education, income, occupation; notably, social capital is not a component of socioeconomic status

1071
Q

What is a dichotic listening task?

A

When two different auditory messages are presented, one to each ear

1072
Q

Discussions of anomie and social solidarity are in line whith which sociological theory of society? Who invented this view?

A

Structural functionalism; durkheim

1073
Q

What are the two glutamate receptors?

A

AMPA, NMDA

1074
Q

What does self verification refer to?

A

Tendency for individuals to seek out and agree with information onsistent with their self concept

1075
Q

What regulatory functions is serotonin involved in?

A

Appetite, mood

1076
Q

What effect does sympathetic activation have on blood vessel dilation/constriction and blood pressure?

A

Blood pressure increase, blood vessel constriction

1077
Q

How does fMRI measure blood flow?

A

Can measure difference between oxygenated and unoxygenated hemoglobin

1078
Q

In malthusian theory, what are prevenatitive checks, positive checks, and malthusian catastrophes?

A

Each is a response, to differing levels, of when the exponential growhth of a population exceeds its carrying capacity

1079
Q

What is strain theory as. itrelates to deviance?

A

Deviance results when there is a disconnect between goals and the norms for achieiving these goals

1080
Q

What. isthe definition of capital ?

A

Anything that confers an advantage in society

1081
Q

What characterized type 1, type 2a, and type 2x muscle fibers?

A

Type 1: Slow twitch; high mitochondrial density, fatigue resistant, high capillarization, slow contraction

Type 2a; Fast twitch: high mitochondrial density, fatigue resistant, intermediate capillarization, fast contraction

Type 2x: fast twitch; low mitochondrial density, fatigue prone, low intermdiate capillarization, fast contraction

1082
Q

What are the roles of the RYR channel and the SERCA pump in the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

RYR channel; opens, allows faccilitated passive diffusion of CA2+ to cytoplasm

SERCA, active pump that transports CA2+ back into sarcoplasmic reticulum

1083
Q

What is the definition and an example of a tropic hormone?

A

A hormone that has other endocrine glands as its target; i.e. adrenocorticotropic hormone, which has the adrenal cortex (an endocrine gland) as its target

1084
Q

What is the definition and an example of a tropic hormone?

A

A hormone that has other endocrine glands as its target; i.e. adrenocorticotropic hormone, which has the adrenal cortex (an endocrine gland) as its target

1085
Q

What are the relative “complexities” of purines and pyrimidines?

A

Purines: G > A

Pyrimidines: T > U > C

1086
Q

Between nuclear localization signals and signal sequences, what is the implied destination for their associated proteins?

A

NLS: Nucleus

Signal Sequences: Secretory pathways

1087
Q

Which cells in the stomach produce HCl? Wchih produces proteolytic enzymes?

A

Parietal cells, Chief Cells

1088
Q

What is the purpose of chondrocytes?

A

Cells that lay down cartilage to lengthen long bones as they grow

1089
Q

Do graded potential occur in the cellbody, axon, or both?

A

Cell body only

1090
Q

What is the defining feature of a trasncription factor?

A

Directly binds dna

1091
Q

What is the formula for Henry’s Law? (describes solubioity of a gas)

A

S (solubility)= kh (Henry’s constant) * Pg (partial pressure of gas in air above )

1092
Q

What are the ribosomal sedimentation sizes for the small and large subunits for prokaryotes and eukaryotes, respectively?

A

Prokaryotes: Small (30s), large (50s), total (70s)

Eukaryotes: Small (40s), large (60s), total (80s)

1093
Q

In humanistic theory, what is incongruence?

A

Gap between real self and ideal self

1093
Q

Example: Ireland has the most red hair people in the world, even though red hair is overall very rare. Ask someone if you pick a random person from ireland, what color will their hair be? They still say red. What fallacy are they fallling prey to?

A

Base rate fallacy, ignore base rate in favor of other distinguishing information

1094
Q

What are discriminating stimuli?

A

Signals the avilaability of reinforcement or punishment

1095
Q

What does functional fixedness refer to?

A

How individuals use things with only their most intended function, while not realizing their other possible uses i.e. don’t realize that a matchbox can also be used as a notepad if needed

1096
Q

What does the malapdaptiveness criterion of abnormality refer to?

A

Whether behavior negatively impacts one’s life or poses a threat to toehrs

1097
Q

What does overextension refer to?

A

The tendency of young children to overapply words to objects that only have a superficial resemblance; i.e. calling a cow a dog

1098
Q

What sociological perspective is looking glass self associated with?

A

Symbolic interactionsm

1099
Q

is glycerol a gluconeogenic precursor?

A

Yes

1100
Q

Which enzyme is the cofactor lipoic acid associated with?

A

Pyruvaet dehydrogenase complex (pyruvate → acetyl coa)

1101
Q

Does the denaturing of proteins/DNA take a sigmoidal or hyperbolic shape with respect to increasing cocentration of denaturant?

A

Sigmoidal; denaturing of proteins/dna. isa cooperative process

1102
Q

How do you convert joules to ev? What is the fundamental charge?

A

1 ev = 1.6e-19 J

fundamental charge = 1.6e-19 couloumbs

1103
Q

When in a state of dissonance, are individuals more likely to change their attitudes to their behavior, or their behavior to their attitude?

A

Attitudes to behavior (will try to rationalize the dissonance)

1104
Q

What is the definition of a sanction?

A

Rewards or punishments for following/disobeying a norm, respectively

1105
Q

Can glucose diffuse freely through plasma membrane?

A

No, both too polar and too large

1106
Q

What is the definition of an iopnophore?

A

A molecule that may bind to and subsequently facilitate the crossing crossing of an ion through membrane; in mitochondria, can collapse concentration gradient

1107
Q

What is the definition of an iopnophore?

A

A molecule that may bind to and subsequently facilitate the crossing crossing of an ion through membrane; in mitochondria, can collapse concentration gradient

1108
Q

What do parietal cells. andchief cells secrete, respectively?

A

Hcl, pepsinogen

1109
Q

What is the only mechanical digestion the stomach is involved in?

A

Proteolytic

1110
Q

Between anxious-ambivalent and avoidant attachment styles, what are their reasons for resisting social contact in times of stress?

A

Anxious ambivalent: believe that those they desire contact with do not ant to contact them reciprocally

Avoidant: Find it difficult to depend on and trust others

1111
Q

What are the basic descriptors for the four attachment styles?

A

Secure: cries when caregiver leaves, comfortted when carefiver back

Avoidant : doesn’t care whether caregiver here or not cries when caregiver leaves, not comforted when caregiver back

Anxious ambivalnet: cries when caregiver leaves, not comforted when caregiver back

Disorganiczed: fear, freezing, hallmark of child abuse

1112
Q

Is cognitive dissonance caused by inconsistencies between a behavior and. an attitude, or between two attitudes?

A

Could actually. be caused by both

1113
Q

What do demand characteristics refer to?

A

When certain aspects of a study cue participants into the hypothesis/purpose of the study, and thus affect their responses

1114
Q

Does Km vary. wth substrate or enzyme concentration?

A

Neither, it is an equillibrium constant