All Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What Communication Type is recommended to first address the problem of a team member underachieving?

A

Informal Verbal

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2
Q

2 stakeholders discuss inconformity with the project. What communication type should be used?

A

Informal Verbal

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3
Q

What is often forgotten in communications management plans?

A

Functional Managers

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4
Q

Best tool when a manager is working with team members of different cultures:

A

Well developed interpersonal skills

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5
Q

Agile methods rely on this to deliver value:

A

Product Owner’s Feedback

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6
Q

What is “Start with current state” a principle of?

A

Kanban process

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7
Q

What is “Encourage acts of leadership at all levels” a principle of?

A

Kanban process

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8
Q

What is “Agree to pursue incremental, evolutionary change” a principle of?

A

Kanban process

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9
Q

What is “ROI”?

A

Return on Investment

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10
Q

What is more likely to suffer if an organization is averse to early value creation?

A

Return on Investment (ROI)

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11
Q

Which practice prefers to pull features from the backlog based on its capacity rather than an iteration-based schedule?

A

Flow-Based Agile

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12
Q

Who made Motivational Theory of two types of employees?

A

McGregor

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13
Q

Agile Methodology based on frequent cycles to to increase responsiveness towards customer’s changing requirements. Uses “Programing in pairs”

A

XP

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14
Q

Agile Methodology known for its emphasis on constraint-driven delivery

A

DSDM

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15
Q

Agile Methodology derived from the JIT philosophy

A

Kanban

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16
Q

Agile Methodology that integrates several agile best practices into a comprehensive model

A

Disciplined Agile

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17
Q

Ability to question every change request is:

A

NOT a key attribute for Agile teams

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18
Q

Type of organization in which PM has limited authority and team members do not report to PM

A

Functional Organization

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19
Q

Overall scope not defined
Rollout & reapplication processes predicted
What Project Management Methodology to use?

A

Hybrid

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20
Q

What is the back-bone of any agile-led project?

A

Cross-Functional Teams

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21
Q

What tool/technique is used for IT software tools?

A

Project Management Information Systems (PMIS)

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22
Q

Tools/Techniques: Where the individual modes of communications are documented for each stakeholder?

A

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

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23
Q

Project Management Methodology: Which one focuses on early value creation?

A

Incremental

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24
Q

Individuals needs to be constantly motivated

A

McGregor’s Theory X

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25
Q

Individuals are intrinsically motivated to do good work

A

McGregor’s Theory Y

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26
Q

Individuals are motivated by self-realization

A

Ouchi’s Theory Z

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27
Q

In an Earned Value Management, EV - AC:

A

Cost Variance

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28
Q

Tools/Techniques: Where to document quality assumptions?

A

Quality Management Plan

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29
Q

Tools/Techniques: Where can you find the economic feasibility report?

A

Project Business Case

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30
Q

Tools/Techniques: Where you can find activities?

A

Schedule Management Plan

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31
Q

Executing a given iteration for a few weeks, gathering insight and then rework based on insight

A

Timeboxing

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32
Q

Inputs/Outputs: What is the key input of the Plan Risk Management process?

A

Risk Breakdown Structure

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33
Q

Agile approach that uses Scrum as a framework and Kanban for process improvement?

A

Scrumban

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34
Q

The purpose of a quality audit is:

A

Identify inefficient policies

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35
Q

Is cycle time going up positive or negative?

A

Negative

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36
Q

What is the first step when you notice a tren upwards in cycle time?

A

Brainstorm to understand whats happening

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37
Q

What to do if a senior manager is worried the project will not meet quality standards?

A

Involve Quality Team

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38
Q

What to do after completion of Work Packages? (Planning)

A

Identify quality standards

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39
Q

Tools/Techniques: Demonstrate the relationship between events and their resulting effects

A

Why-Why Diagram (Cause-and-Effect, Fishborne)

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40
Q

Plans where poorly translated. What is the first thing to do?

A

Look for how it impacted project quality

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41
Q

The rate at which a company is spending money

A

Burn Rate

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42
Q

Terms to Know: Estimated value of the work planned

A

PV - Planned Value

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43
Q

Terms to Know: Estimated Value of work accomplished

A

EV - Earned Value

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44
Q

Terms to Know: Actual cost for work accomplished

A

AC - Actual Cost

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45
Q

Terms to Know: Budget for total project effort

A

BAC - Budget at Completion

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46
Q

Terms to Know: Total Project cost expected

A

EAC - Estimate at Completion

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47
Q

Terms to Know: Expected cost to finish project

A

ETC - Estimate to Complete

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48
Q

Terms to Know: Expected Over/Under budget at end of project

A

VAC - Variance at Completion

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49
Q

Formulas to Memorize: Cost Variance

A

EV - AC

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50
Q

Formulas to Memorize: Schedule Variance

A

EV - PV

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51
Q

Formulas to Memorize: Cost Performance Index

A

EV / AC

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52
Q

Formulas to Memorize: SPI

A

EV / PV

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53
Q

Formulas to Memorize: Estimate to Complete

A

EAC - AC

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54
Q

Formulas to Memorize: VAC

A

BAC - EAC

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55
Q

Formulas to Memorize: To-Complete Performance Index

A

(BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)

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56
Q

Formulas: Estimate at Completion if you intend to spend at the same rate

A

EAC = BAC / CPI

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57
Q

What technique does Analogous estimating uses?

A

Top-Down technique

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58
Q

In agile/hybrid, How is a team’s burn rate over time

A

Consistent

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59
Q

Which agile tool shows the latest estimate of how long the project is expected to take?

A

Burndown graph

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60
Q

In which project management process group is Rough order of Magnitude (ROM) calculated?

A

Initiating

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61
Q

ITTO: Cost Baseline is an output of:

A

7.3 Determine Budget

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62
Q

How is an Agile Team’s Velocity in a long term project?

A

Initial Variation, Emerging Stability

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63
Q

What is the best way of estimating if there is limited information?

A

Estimate in a range

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64
Q

Monitoring cost expended to detect variances occurs during:

A

Project performance reviews

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65
Q

What is the relationship between cost management plan and WBS?

A

CMP identifies WBS level at which earned value will be calculated

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66
Q

ITTO: What estimating technique is another way of saying “past history”

A

Analogous estimating

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67
Q

The difference between cost baseline and cost budget is

A

Management Reserves

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68
Q

What is the final step before freezing the project budget?

A

Funding limit reconciliation

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69
Q

A sprint/iteration is never complete till

A

Sprint review meeting & documented retrospectives

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70
Q

As a CSM, what strategy to use if your team is inexperienced?

A

Building centre of competencies

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71
Q

Benefit: Education on Agile mindset for executives

A

Executive Buy-In

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72
Q

Benefit: Explaining Agile in terms of lean thinking

A

Executive buy-in

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73
Q

Benefit: Find common ground and areas of improvement based on project needs

A

Executive buy-in

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74
Q

In Agile, where to discuss issues of knowledge management

A

Retrospective

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75
Q

As a CSM, what is the best strategy to manage an organization where Agile terms do not fit culture?

A

Modify terms, keep the intent

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76
Q

Terms to know: Only a few top level WBS identified, the remaining are elaborated through the project

A

Roll-Wave Planning

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77
Q

Terms to know: Analyzing enough stories so the team understands what they are

A

Backlog Refinement

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78
Q

What are the X and Y axis of a Release Burndown Chart?

A

X: Sprints
Y: Work Remaining

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79
Q

Terms to Know: Prioritization method that separates requirements in Must, Should, Could and Won’t

A

MoSCoW Prioritization

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80
Q

Terms to Know: Metric to determine Agile team’s performance over time

A

Velocity

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81
Q

ITTO: Output of Scope Statement + WBS Creation + WBS Dictionary

A

Scope Baseline

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82
Q

Agile: What is the first step after you collect user story baseline?

A

Product Roadmap

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83
Q

Terms to Know: Prioritized matrix that described product features that team will deliver in each release

A

Product Roadmap

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84
Q

What is an external situation that can be a priority over all of your internal situations?

A

Government approval

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85
Q

Terms to Know: Acknowledging risk through contingencies of resources

A

Risk Acceptance

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86
Q

Terms to Know: Standard way of validating scope and refining requirements in Agile

A

Prototyping

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87
Q

Terms to Know: Description of activities by identifying multiple components associated

A

Activity Attributes

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88
Q

Terms to Know: Project Life Cycle where works centers on a Minimum Viable Product to validate with customers

A

Exploratory

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89
Q

Terms to Know: Outcome of actions, behaviors, products, services or results that provide value to organization and project’s beneficiaries

A

Benefits Management Plan

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90
Q

Terms to Know: Used to appraise team member skills

A

Focused Group Discussions (FGD)

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91
Q

Terms to Know: Responsibility Assignment Matrix used to delineate Roles & Responsibilities

A

RACI chart (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed)

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92
Q

Terms to Know: Stakeholders describe aspects of a solution in the same way a marketer describes product features on a box

A

Product Box Exercise

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93
Q

Terms to Know: Contract between Vendor and end user that captures success criteria

A

Service Level Agreements (SLA)

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94
Q

Terms to Know: Tool for Identification of external factors that may affect outcomes of project

A

PESTLE Analysis (Political, Economic, Sociological, Technological, Legal & Environmental)

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95
Q

Terms to Know: Prioritization approach for features on a product roadmap on the degree to which they are likely to satisfy customers

A

Kano Model

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96
Q

Terms to Know: Prioritization method in which each person is given 100 points to distribute across items

A

100 Points Method

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97
Q

Terms to Know: Prioritization approach based on evaluating a small range of options by comparing them against each other

A

Paired Comparison Analysis

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98
Q

In Agile, Learning from experience and making small improvements is a benefit of:

A

Retrospective

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99
Q

In Agile, getting feedback for product testing is a benefit of:

A

Sprint Review Meeting

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100
Q

In Agile, developing actions to remove impediments is a benefit of:

A

Retrospective

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101
Q

In Agile, agreeing to 1-2 experiments to improve team performance is a benefit of:

A

Retrospective

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102
Q

In Agile, periodically demonstrating a working product is a benefit of:

A

Sprint Review Meeting

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103
Q

Terms to Know: Defines whether waterfall, iterative, adaptive, agile or hybrid will be used:

A

Development approach

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104
Q

Five levels of Phillips ROI Methodology:

A

Reaction, Learning, Application & Implementation, Results, ROI

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105
Q

Terms to know: Technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas in a scale of 1-5

A

Nominal Group Technique

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106
Q

Why the response times are displayed above the upper control limit?

A

The quality is outside of expected standards

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107
Q

ITTO: Scope Management Plan is an output of:

A

Plan Scope Management

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108
Q

ITTO: Requirements Management Plan is an Output of

A

5.1 Plan Scope Management

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109
Q

ITTO: Requirements Traceability Matrix is an output of

A

Collect Requirements

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110
Q

ITTO: Requirements Documentation is an output of

A

Collect Requirements

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111
Q

ITTO: Project Scope Statement is an output of

A

5.3 Define Scope

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112
Q

ITTO: Scope Baseline is an Output of

A

5.4 Create WBS

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113
Q

ITTO: Accepted Deliverables is an output of

A

5.5 Validate Scope

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114
Q

ITTO: Quality Management Plan is an output of

A

8.1 Plan Quality Management

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115
Q

ITTO: Quality Metrics is an output of

A

8.1 Plan Quality Management

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116
Q

ITTO: Quality Reports is an output of

A

8.2 Manage Quality

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117
Q

ITTO: Quality Control Measurements is an output of

A

8.3 Control Quality

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118
Q

ITTO: Verified Deliverables is an output of

A

8.3 Control Quality

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119
Q

ITTO: Communication Management Plan is an output of

A

Plan Communication Management

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120
Q

ITTO: Project Communications is an output of

A

10.2 Manage Communications

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121
Q

ITTO: Cost Management Plan is an output of

A

7.1 Plan Cost Management

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122
Q

ITTO: Cost Estimates is an output of

A

7.2 Estimate Costs

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123
Q

ITTO: Basis of Estimates is an output of

A

7.2 Estimate Costs

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124
Q

ITTO: Cost Baseline is an output of

A

7.3 Determine Budget

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125
Q

ITTO: Cost Forecasts is an output of

A

7.4 Control Costs

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126
Q

Terms to Know: Measuring an organization’s performance against that of other organization

A

Benchmarking

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127
Q

Terms to Know: Technique where ideas are grouped by similarities

A

Affinity Diagrams

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128
Q

Terms to Know: Diagram of ideas to help generate, classify or record information

A

Mind Maps

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129
Q

Terms to Know: Technique that shows the boundaries of the project scope by highlighting the product and its interfaces with people, processes or sustems

A

Context Diagrams

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130
Q

What takes precedence over everything in Balancing Requirements?

A

Customer’s Needs

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131
Q

PMBOK Guide: Scope Management Process

A
  1. Plan Scope Management (P)
  2. Collect Requirements (P)
  3. Define Scope (P)
  4. Create WBS (P)
  5. Validate Scope (M&C)
  6. Control Scope (M&C)
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132
Q

Terms to Know: Document that says “Here is what we will do on this project”

A

Project Scope Statement

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133
Q

Relationship between Decomposition/Deconstruction and WBS

A

Decomposition/Deconstruction is what you are doing, WBS is the tool to do it

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134
Q

What is the difference between Validate Scope and Control Quality

A

Control Quality is checked by Quality Team, Validate Scope is checked by Customer

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135
Q

In agile, if after a meeting there is no consensus, what is the next step?

A

Voting

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136
Q

How to provide feedback to agile team’s solution design?

A

Review the early, incomplete increments

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137
Q

What is a general consequence of requirements constantly changing?

A

Makes measurement of completeness difficult

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138
Q

The Integration Management Process:

A
  1. Develop Project Charter
  2. Develop Project Management Plan
  3. Direct and Manage Project Work
  4. Manage Project Knowledge
  5. Monitor and Control Project Work
  6. Perform Integrated Change Control
  7. Close Project or Phase
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139
Q

ITTO: Where is the Business Case?

A

Project Charter

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140
Q

What is the difference between High-Level Requirements and Requirements?

A

High-Level Requirements are in the Project Charter, Requirements are defined in Scope processes

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141
Q

ITTO: Where is the project exit criteria?

A

Project Charter

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142
Q

What is often the cause of significant deviation from the Project Baselines?

A

Incomplete Risk Identification/Management

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143
Q

ITTO: Issue Log is an output of

A

4.3 Direct and Manage Project Work

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144
Q

High Degree of Change, High Frequency of Delivery:

A

Agile

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145
Q

High Degree of Change, Low Frequency of Delivery:

A

Iterative

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146
Q

Low Degree of Change, High Frequency of Delivery

A

Incremental

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147
Q

Low Degree of Change, Low Frequency of Delivery

A

Predictive

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148
Q

Where can you see who’s responsible for authorizing change in a project?

A

Change Management Plan

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149
Q

What sampling strategy to use if you want to separate in categories?

A

Attribute sampling

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150
Q

ITTO: What tool can be used to show how requirements grew during the project?

A

Feature Chart

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151
Q

Who should be contacted first for resources in a matrix-type organization?

A

Functional Manager

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152
Q

What is always the first step when any change comes up?

A

Documenting the change / Creating a Change Request

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153
Q

After stakeholders are identified and you have their requirements, who should you involve in the creation of the scope baseline?

A

Project Team

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154
Q

Recommended actions for Schedule Compression

A

Crashing & Fast Tracking

155
Q

Which contracting technique is not recommended for Agile?

A

FFP (Firm Fixed Price)

156
Q

Difference between Work Performance Data and Work Performance Information

A

Work Performance Data is gathered through execution. To become information, it is compared with Project Management Plan Components

157
Q

Tool that evaluates the degree to which the data about individual project risks is accurate and reliable

A

Risk Data Quality Assessment

158
Q

Best Life Cycle for project-based work and disciplined teams, with quickly evolving requirements

A

Lean

159
Q

Best Life Cycle for project-based work and teams new to iteration-based management

A

Agile

160
Q

In which phase of DAD (Disciplined Agile Delivery) does the team shift from “solution” to “production”?

A

Transition

161
Q

DAD (Disciplined Agile Delivery) full delivery cycle:

A

Inception, Construction, Transition

162
Q

ITTO: Risk Probability and Impact Assessment is a key T&T of:

A

11.3 Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

163
Q

In which process do you determine Workarounds for a previously unforeseen risk?

A

11.7 Monitor Risks

164
Q

During which process do you use the Power-Interest Grid?

A

13.1 - Identify Stakeholders

165
Q

What type of leadership allows the team to make their own decisions and establish their own goals?

A

Laissez-Faire

166
Q

Which way of managing improves the product via successive prototypes or proof of concept?

A

Iterative

167
Q

What is the next step after the project management plan and baselines are approved?

A

Hold project kick-off meeting

168
Q

The Kick-Off Meeting marks:

A

End of Planning, Start of Executing

169
Q

Agile practice where the team meets to micro commit to each other, uncover problems and ensure smooth work flow

A

Daily Standups

170
Q

What to do after 6.1 Plan Schedule Management and 6.2 Define Activities for a project are complete?

A

6.3 Sequence Activities

171
Q

What is a common example of Cost of Conformance, in the context of Cost of Quality?

A

Training

172
Q

Organizational Structure that standardizes project-related governance processes

A

PMO

173
Q

ITTO: Tool used in 9.1 Plan Resource Management which maps specific resources to work packages from WBS

A

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

174
Q

What does SPI < 1 means for a complete project?

A

The project was prematurely closed

175
Q

Type of contract where the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs and receives predetermined incentive fee

A

CPIF

176
Q

Type of contract that provides buyer and seller flexibility for deviation from performance, and financial pay-offs tied to achieve metrics

A

FPIF

177
Q

In which process does the Risk Register gets established for the first time?

A

11.2 - Identify Risks

178
Q

Any breach of contract is first categorized as:

A

A Legal Risk

179
Q

ITTO: Lessons Learned Register is an output of

A

4.4 - Manage Project Knowledge

180
Q

What is the next step after completing Qualitative and Quantitative risk analysis?

A

11.5 - Plan Risk Responses

181
Q

ITTO: Most important Output of Control Procurements

A

Closed Procurements

182
Q

What is the PMI Talent Triangle?

A

Leadership, Technical Project Management, Strategic & Business Management

183
Q

ITTO: Requirements Traceability Matrix is an output of

A

5.2 - Collect Requirements

184
Q

What is the category of least risky contracts for sellers?

A

Cost-Reimbursable

185
Q

Formulas to Know: Point of Total Assumption

A

(CP - TP)
PTA = ——— + TC
BSR

186
Q

Practice of doing activities that were originally planned in series, in parallel

A

Fast Tracking

187
Q

Best Practice when you need to accelerate a Schedule without availability of resources

A

Fast Tracking

188
Q

Contingency Plans are also known as:

A

Fallback Plan

189
Q

ITTO: Process that generates Work Performance Variances as one of its Outputs

A

5.6 - Control Scope

190
Q

How should you account for unknown risks?

A

Management Reserves

191
Q

Cost Baseline + Management Reserve

A

Project Budget

192
Q

Work Packages Cost Estimates + Contingency Reserves

A

Control Accounts

193
Q

Activity Cost Estimates + Activity Contingency Reserve

A

Work Packages Cost Estimates

194
Q

What is the purpose of a Kill Point Meeting or Phase Gate?

A

Make a decision to whether or not to go ahead with a project

195
Q

What two positions, and what level of power, can quickly indicate you are working in a Weak Matrix?

A

Project Coordinator & Project Expediter with low power

196
Q

Type of organization in which everyone responds to the owner

A

Organic or Simple

197
Q

Type of organization in which Project Manager and Functional Manager have 50%-50% power

A

Balanced Matrix Organization

198
Q

Type of organization in which PM has all the power, and resources are released after project is finished

A

Project-Oriented

199
Q

Difference between Contingency Reserves and Management Reserves

A

Contingency is for Known Unknowns, Management is for Unknown Unknowns

200
Q

ITTO: Issue Log is an Output of

A

4.3 Direct and Manage Project Work

201
Q

ITTO: Lesson Learned Register is an output of

A

4.4 Manage Project Knowledge

202
Q

What you should do if a work activity takes longer than estimated?

A

Request corrective action

203
Q

What is another work for Defect Repair?

A

Rework

204
Q

ITTO: What is Approved Change Requests an Output of?

A

4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control

205
Q

What are the three main categories of changes?

A

Corrective Action, Preventive Action, Defect Repair

206
Q

When does changes need to formally go through the 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control Process?

A

After Project Charter, Project Management Plan and baseline are approved

207
Q

Terms to Know: CCB

A

Change Control Board

208
Q

ITTO: what is “Final Product, Service or Result Transition” an output of?

A

4.7 Close Project or Phase

209
Q

What is the best approach in a well-planned project regarding changes?

A

Prevent unnecessary changes (proactive)

210
Q

What to do if there are not more funds for a project?

A

Proceed to 4.7 Closing Project or Phase

211
Q

Are lessons learned part of the Change Management Process?

A

No. Lessons Learned are for future projects

212
Q

What is a common use of the Project Charter while work is being completed?

A

Helps determine if a scope change should be approved

213
Q

In an Agile Environment, what can be replaced by a risk burndown chart, risk-adjusted backlog and risk-based spikes?

A

A formal Risk Management Plan

214
Q

Agile tools for risk management:

A

Risk burndown chart, risk-adjusted backlog, risk-based spikes

215
Q

What happens if a PM delegates all activities to team members?

A

Poor performance and chaos

216
Q

What type of depreciation uses the same amount each time period?

A

Straight-line depreciation

217
Q

What is the best way to approach managing change in any type of project

A

As low as possible in the cost of change curve

218
Q

What does the phrase “influencing the factors that affect change” means?

A

Determining source of change, fix root cause

219
Q

What does tacit knowledge includes?

A

Emotions, experience and abilities

220
Q

What does explicit knowledge includes?

A

Fact-based knowledge

221
Q

ITTO: Make-or-Buy decisions are outputs of

A

12.1 Plan Procurement Management

222
Q

ITTO: Source Selection Criteria is an Output of

A

12.1 Plan Procurement Management

223
Q

ITTO: Bid Documents are an output of

A

12.1 Plan Procurement Management

224
Q

ITTO: Independent Cost Estimates are an Output of

A

12.1 Plan Procurement Management

225
Q

ITTO: Selected Sellers are an Output of

A

12.2 Conduct Procurements

226
Q

ITTO: Agreements are Output of

A

12.2 Conduct Procuremenets

227
Q

ITTO: Closed Procurements are an Output of

A

12.3 Control Procurements

228
Q

Difference between Centralized and Decentralized Contracting

A

Centralized there is one procurement department, decentralized there is not

229
Q

What are the three broad categories of contracts?

A

Fixed Price, Time and Material, Cost-Reimbursable

230
Q

Terms to know: Contract in which a total price is set for all project and changes to scope should not occur

A

FP (Fixed Price)

231
Q

Terms to Know: Fixed Contract in which profits can be adjusted based on performance criteria

A

FPIF (Fixed Price Incentive Fee)

232
Q

Terms to Know: Fixed Contract in which the buyer pays the seller an award based on performance

A

FPAF (Fixed Price Award Fee)

233
Q

Terms to know: Fixed Contract in which economic price adjustments are included (good for multi year projects)

A

FPEPA (Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment)

234
Q

Terms to Know: Agile Fixed Contract in which the rate of payment varies depending on the schedule variance

A

Graduated Fixed Price

235
Q

Terms to Know: Simplest Fixed Price Contract

A

Purchase Order

236
Q

Terms to Know: Type of Contract in which Buyer pays on a per-hour or per-item basis

A

T&M (Time and Material)

237
Q

Terms to Know: Type of Contract in which the buyer to pay the seller allowable incurred costs

A

CR (Cost Reimbursable)

238
Q

Terms to Know: Type of Cost Reimbursable Contract in which the seller receives no fee (appropriate for nonprofit organizations)

A

Cost Contract

239
Q

Terms to Know: Type of Cost Reimbursable Contract in which the buyer pays the actual cost plus a negotiated fee

A

CPIF (Cost Plus Fixed Fee)

240
Q

Terms to Know: Type of contract in which the buyer pays a target cost plus a target fee, and in which the savings are split between buyer and seller

A

CPIF (Cost Plus Incentive Fee)

241
Q

Terms to Know: Type of Cost Reimbursable contract in which the buyer pays all costs and a base fee plus an award based on performance

A

CPAF (Cost Plus Award Fee)

242
Q

Terms to Know: Cost Reimbursable Contract that requires the buyer to pay for all costs plus a percentage of costs as a fee

A

Cost Plus Fee (CPF)

Cost Plus Percentage of Costs (CPPC)

243
Q

Difference between Price and Cost

A

Price is the amount the seller charges the buyer. Cost is how much an item costs the seller to creare

244
Q

Terms to know: Target Cost + Target Fee

A

Target Price

245
Q

Terms to know: Contractual Relationship

A

Privity

246
Q

Terms to Know: the amount of money the seller has after costs are paid

A

Profit or Fee

247
Q

Terms to Know: The difference between Target Cost and Actual Cost

A

Actual Fee (commonly used for sharing)

248
Q

Terms to Know: Target Fee + Seller Cost Share

A

Final Fee

249
Q

Terms to know: Actual Cost + Target Fee + Seller Cost Share

A

Final Price

250
Q

Terms to Know: Amount above which the seller bears all the loss of a cost overrun in FPIF

A

Point of Total Assumption (PTA)

251
Q

Terms to Know: The fee which the seller wants to charge for the work he is doing

A

Target Fee

252
Q

When are procurements closed?

A

When a contract is completed or terminated

253
Q

ITTO: Signed contracts is an Output of

A

12.2 Conduct Procurements

254
Q

Contract Questions are asked from who’s perspective? (unless otherwise noted)

A

Buyer

255
Q

What is a key advantage of Time and Material contract?

A

Negotiations are less extensive

256
Q

RFP, RFI and RFQ are:

A

Bid documents

257
Q

When is it generally better to perform work internally instead of outside?

A

When using an outside company means you lose control of proprietary data

258
Q

What happens when a seller does not perform according to contract terms and conditions?

A

The seller defaulted and PM must take action

259
Q

Short proof of concept to investigate an issue further

A

Spike

260
Q

ITTO: Team Charter is a an Output of

A

9.1 Plan Resource Management

261
Q

ITTO: Team Charter is an Output of:

A

9.1 Plan Resource Management

262
Q

ITTO: Resource Requirements are an Output of

A

9.2 Estimate Activity Resources

263
Q

ITTO: Besides Estimate Costs, Basis of Estimates are an Output of:

A

9.2 Estimate Activity Resources

264
Q

ITTO: Resource Breakdown Structure is an Output of

A

9.2 Estimate Activity Resources

265
Q

ITTO: Physical Resource Assignments are an Output of

A

9.3 Acquire Resources

266
Q

ITTO: Project Team Assignments are an Output of

A

9.3 Acquire Resources

267
Q

ITTO: Resource Calendars are an output of

A

9.3 Acquire Resources

268
Q

ITTO: Team Performance Assessments are an Output of

A

9.4 Develop Team

269
Q

ITTO: Work Performance Information is an Output of

A

All the Monitoring and Control Processes, except for the Integration ones (Monitor Work, Perform Integrated Change Control)

270
Q

PMBOK 9. Resources

A
  1. Plan Resource Management (P)
  2. Estimate Activity Resources (P)
  3. Acquire Resources (E)
  4. Develop Team (E)
  5. Manage Team (E)
  6. Control Resources (M&C)
271
Q

ITTO: Chart that cross-references team members with the activities or work packages they are to accomplish

A

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

272
Q

ITTO: Document that describes the approach the team will take regarding communications, decision making and conflict resolution

A

Team Charter

273
Q

Life cycle that takes advantage of things that are known and proven

A

Predictive

274
Q

Life cycle that provides deliverables that can be used immediately

A

Incremental

275
Q

Life cycle that allows feedback on partially completed work

A

Iterative

276
Q

Life cycle that provides deliverables that can be used immediately

A

Incremental

277
Q

Life cycle that employs both iterative and incremental characteristics

A

Agile

278
Q

Life cycle that combines aspects of both predictive and agile methods

A

Hybrid

279
Q

Tool that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them

A

Requirements traceability matrix

280
Q

If a problem states that planning is meticulously followed, where does a problem might lie?

A

In any of the other 4 processes group

281
Q

ITTO: Which input of Acquire Resources identifies the working days of each specific resource

A

Resource calendars

282
Q

In Agile Manifesto, Individuals and Interactions over

A

Processes and Tools

283
Q

In Agile Manifesto, Working Software over

A

Comprehensive documentation

284
Q

In Agile Manifesto, customer collaboration over

A

Contract negotiations

285
Q

In Agile Manifesto, responding to chance over

A

Following a plan

286
Q

“In a hierarchy, every employee tends to rise until his/her level of incompetence”

A

The halo effect

287
Q

What should be done first if you need to determine the acceptable level of overall project risk exposure

A

Determine risk appetite of key stakeholders

288
Q

What to do first if there is confusion on the type and quantity of resources needed (in planning)

A

Research various levels of resource capability and skills, type and sizes

289
Q

Process in which 99.99966% of the products produced by the process are free of defects?

A

Six Sigma

290
Q

The team never implemented an approved change request. How to prevent this situation?

A

Holding an approved change requests review

291
Q

Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subcomponent far into the future. What technique is useful?

A

Rolling Wave

292
Q

The value of the alternative that is not chosen

A

Opportunity Cost

293
Q

Amount Invested - probable return

A

Earned Monetary Value

294
Q

In the Scope Baseline, what goes after the first step, creating the project scope statement?

A

Identify control accounts for the WBS

295
Q

What is the Tuckman ladder?

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

296
Q

What separates Stewards from Leaders, Managers and Scrum Masters?

A

Compliance

297
Q

Control Chart is a tool used for

A

Data Representation

298
Q

Formulas to Know: EAC when initial estimates were fundamentally flawed

A

EAC = AC + Bottom-Up ETC

299
Q

Formulas to Know: EAC when variance built up in your actual costs but you plan to keep on spending the same way without any corrective action

A

EAC = BAC / CPI

300
Q

Formulas to Know: EAC when work is completed at a planned rate after corrections

A

EAC = AC + (BAC-EV)

301
Q

Formulas to Know: EAC when deadlines for the project are very tight and the cost is mainly high do to crashing of activities

A

EAC = AC + [(BAC - EV) / CPI / SPI]

302
Q

What to do after the CCB and the sponsor approves a Change Request?

A

Implement the Change Request

303
Q

What is the mandatory next step after finishing a sprint?

A

Retrospective

304
Q

Sequence of effective stakeholder engagement

A

IUAPEM (Identify, Understand, Analyze, Prioritize, Engage, Monitor)

305
Q

Variance at Completion in an Earned Value Measure

A

AC - PV

306
Q

Document that enlists the project deliverables

A

Project Scope Statement

307
Q

A stakeholder is skeptical about the project success criteria. What to do?

A

Develop Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix

308
Q

You need to outsource part of the project scope. What project artifact should you revise?

A

Procurement Management Plan

309
Q

Tool that shows Story Points completed vs Planned

A

Iteration Burnup Chart

310
Q

As a servant leader, what to do if you are putting fires off everyday?

A

Identify Risks and follow a Risk Management Plan

311
Q

Life Cycle recommended if you need to organize a large team of teams

A

Program Life Cycle

312
Q

ITTO: Communication Channel used in Agile in which long-lived video conferencing links are established between team members of various geography

A

Fishbowl Window

313
Q

ITTO: Technique that focuses on customer/end user behavior rather than client requirements

A

Behavior driven development

314
Q

ITTO: Method of collaboratively creating acceptance criteria used to create acceptance tests by customer before delivery begins

A

Acceptance Test Driven Development (ATDD)

315
Q

Preliminary check of a software after a build and before release

A

Smoke Testing

316
Q

Kanban-Oriented Life cycle where the team visualize their work, reduce work in streamline and pull works in the team based on capacity

A

Lean

317
Q

Why a senior developer is invited into a daily stand up?

A

Having correct stakeholders in meetings is a routine agile practice

318
Q

What life cycle to use if its difficult for the team to plan anything beyond 2 days?

A

Lean

319
Q

Time needed to recover an investment

A

Payback period

320
Q

Future value of expected benefits expressed in the value those benefits have at the time of investment

A

Net Present Value

321
Q

Percent Return on an initial investment, calculated by taking the projected average of all net benefits and dividing them by the initial cost

A

Return on Investment

322
Q

Projected Annual Yield of a project investment, incorporating both initial and ongoing costs into an estimates percentage growth rate a given project is expected to have

A

Internal Rate of Return

323
Q

Present value of all cash outflows minus the present value of all cash inflows

A

Net Present Value

324
Q

What is the best leadership style to use?

A

Most fitting for the team

325
Q

Working Days and Availability of Physical Resources are components of

A

Resource Calendar

326
Q

Documentation tool that captures information about stakeholders

A

Stakeholder Register

327
Q

Stakeholders who will receive communication about the project will appear in which documents?

A

Communications Management Plan

328
Q

You are leading an estimation session. What skill are you mentoring?

A

Facilitation

329
Q

Main focus of Quality Assurance

A

Process and Procedures, improved quality

330
Q

High level objective of a Retrospective

A

Generating insights

331
Q

Project Artifact to see connection between Requirements and Project Objectives

A

Requirements Traceability Matrix

332
Q

To how many people should an issue in the issue box be assigned to?

A

One person

333
Q

Is the Stakeholder Register part of Communications Management Plan?

A

No

334
Q

In a Multi-Phase Project, when are assumptions validated and risks analyzed?

A

At the beginning of each phase

335
Q

Organization structure for which the team may develop its own set of operating procedures and operate outside the standard formalized reporting structure during the project

A

Composite

336
Q

Tool to measure happiness of users of the new service based on their willingness to encourage others to use the service

A

Net Promoter Score

337
Q

Best statement to describe Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix?

A

It compares the current and desired levels of engagement of each stakeholder

338
Q

Two terms that refers to decision to continue with the next phase or end the project

A

Kill point & Phase Gate

339
Q

Methodology to test possible solutions, assess the results and implement those that work

A

Plan Do Study Act

340
Q

Father of Continuous Improvement Movement

A

Deming

341
Q

Best elicitation technique when your project team wants to facilitate a discussion with a certain set of users for a better understanding on how they might use a product

A

Focus group

342
Q

Name two Quality Management Tools used to identify issues

A

Audit Reports & Design for X

343
Q

Methods to prioritize project objectives and deliverables

A

Paired Comparisons & MOSCOW

344
Q

Role of a Configuration Management System

A

Control versioning of all components

345
Q

Rules about the length of a Sprint

A

1-4 weeks

346
Q

Agile technique that helps uncover the areas we are likely to create the greatest impact for a particular goal

A

Impact Mapping

347
Q

At what level are roadmaps used?

A

High-Level

348
Q

At what level are epics used?

A

High-Level

349
Q

A trend of stories is incomplete and No blockers where identified. What to do?

A

Break down the stories

350
Q

Two things at the heart of DevOps

A

Early and constant collaboration between Development and Operations & automation of both domains

351
Q

In the event that a Product Owner needs to attend less meetings in an Agile Project, which are the high priority & low priority meetings?

A

High: Customer Related (e.g. End-User feedback)
Low: Administrative Processes (e.g. Daily Meeting, team performance review)

352
Q

Formulas to know: Triangular Distribution

A

(Optimistic + Most Likely + Pessimistic)/3

353
Q

In an Agile Project, what does it mean that value increases over time?

A

The backlog was not prioritized for time to value

354
Q

Who is responsible for officially signing off on project deliverables at the closeout?

A

Project Sponsor

355
Q

Scrum equivalent of a task start dependency

A

Definition of Ready

356
Q

Scrum equivalent of task exit criteria

A

Definition of Done

357
Q

In Agile, who has the authority to decide termination of a project?

A

Product Owner

358
Q

What does Agile favors over formal data collection processes or competitor analysis

A

Direct and practical user feedback

359
Q

Practice that ensures a quality standard before development

A

TDD (Test Driven Development)

360
Q

How is agile adoption enabled?

A

Through Communicating & Demonstration of benefits

361
Q

The ability to effectively guide a group to a successful conclusion

A

Facilitate

362
Q

Difference between stakeholder register and stakeholder engagement plan

A

Register includes all stakeholders and their involvement. Engagement Plan reflects any situations that affects engagement of stakeholders

363
Q

Terms to know: Large user story that can be split into smaller stories

A

Epic

364
Q

When are questionnaires used?

A

Before project starts

365
Q

Method for classifying stakeholders and to decide who matters

A

Salience Model

366
Q

A good option to decide who should represent a team in the Scrum of Scrums

A

DevOps

367
Q

Software development methodology intended to improve software quality and responsiveness to change

A

Extreme Programming (XP)

368
Q

Method of frequent delivery apps to customers by introducing automation into stages of app development

A

CI/CD (Continuous Integration)

369
Q

A new board comes to make changes in an Agile team. How to approach?

A

Add it to the Backlog

370
Q

The Product Owner works and supports:

A

The CEO and Business

371
Q

A Small, self-contained feature that can be developed quickly and that delivers significant value to the user

A

MMF (Minimum Marketable Feature)

372
Q

Difference between MMF and MVP

A

MMF is about delivering value to customers, MVP is about learning more about the ultimate product

373
Q

Extension of Pair Programming where the whole team works on the same thing at the same time in the same spacr

A

Mob Programming (Mobbing)

374
Q

Agile Practice that provides the most complete set of methods specifically for the needs of large software development

A

Feature Driven Development

375
Q

Three types of PMO

A

Supportive, Controlling, Directive

376
Q

Types of Matrix Organization:

A

Weak & Strong

377
Q

Difference between Weak and Strong Matrix

A

Weak: Power rests in Functional Manager
Strong: Power rests in Project Manager

378
Q

What are the 7 project constraints

A

Cost, Schedule, Scope, Quality, Risk, Resources, Customer Satisfaction

379
Q

Cost of additional rework caused by choosing an easy solution in the present rather than using a better one even if it takes more time

A

Technical Debt

380
Q

Main difference between Burnup and Burndown Charts

A

Burnup shows the effects of scope

381
Q

Difference between Internal Failure vs External Failure

A

Internal Failure happens before the customer has the product. External Failure happens when the customer has the product

382
Q

Set of items that needs to be completed before a project or user story can be considered complete

A

Definition of Done

383
Q

States what is needed for an item to be ready to be worked on

A

Definition of Ready