All

Question 1

Describe the purpose of the turbine section of a turbojet engine
Compress the air
Heat the air 
Turn the compressor
Maintain a proper burn of the fuel

Answer 1

Turn the compressor

Question 2

Which engine component would be most damaged by excessive egt?
Burner section
Compressor blades
Turbine blades
Exhaust nozzle

Answer 2

Turbine blades

Question 3

While encountering volcanic ash at 350 you should
Reduce thrust to idle and initiate a 180 turn
Reduce thrust and initiate a descent
Maintain thrust and initiate a descent
Increase thrust and climb

Answer 3

Reduce thrust to idle and initiate a 180 turn

Question 4

Under normal operating conditions what point in a jet engine has the highest static pressure

Combustion chamber inlet
Turbine inlet section
Turbine discharge section
Exhaust nozzle

Answer 4

Combustion chamber inlet

Question 5

Under normal operating conditions, what point in a jet engine has the highest temperature?
Combustion chamber inlet
Turbine section inlet
Turbine discharge section
Exhaust nozzle

Answer 5

Turbine section inlet

Question 6

What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the case at the aft limit?
High stall speed / highest cruise speed / highest stability
High stall speed / highest cruise speed / least stability
Lowest stall speed / lowest cruise speed / highest stability
Lowest stall speed / highest cruise speed / least stability

Answer 6

Lowest stall speed / highest cruise speed / least stability

Question 7

An aircraft that returns to its originally trimmed condition after being displaced would be:
Dynamically unstable
Dynamically stable
Statically unstable
Statically stable

Answer 7

Dynamically stable

Question 8

What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?
Bank oscillations become progressively greater
Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down
Aircraft constantly tries to pitch up
Pitch oscillations become progressively greater

Answer 8

Pitch oscillations become progressively greater

Question 9

Which statement is true regarding CG position?
A CG near the aft limit is less stable and more fuel efficient
A CG near the forward limit is more stable and more fuel efficient
A CG near the aft limit is more stable and less controllable
A CG near the forward limit is more stable and more controllable

Answer 9

A CG near the aft limit is less stable and more fuel efficient

Question 10

An airplane pitches up due to turbulence. The nose attempts to return to the trim condition but begins oscillations about the trim attitude that are increasing in amplitude. Which of the following correctly describes the status of the aircraft?
The aircraft has negative static stability and negative dynamic stability
The aircraft has positive static and dynamic stability
The aircraft has positive static stability and negative dynamic stability
The aircraft has negative static and dynamic stability

Answer 10

The aircraft has positive static stability and negative dynamic stability

Question 11

What effect if any does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
The thrust will be reduced due to the increase in air density
The thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density
Thrust will remain the same but turbine temperature will be higher
Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from hot air

Answer 11

The thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density

Question 12

The ability of an airplane to efficiently convert fuel energy into flying distance is one of the most important items. The formula used to calculate a specified distance with fuel expenditure is:
Specific range 
Specific endurance
Specific fuel consumption
Specific drag

Answer 12

Specific range

Question 13

What factors increase thrust from a turbofan engine?
Increased temperature
Increased airspeed
Decreased atmospheric pressure
Decreased humidity

Answer 13

Increased airspeed

Question 14

During the summer in the USA you takeoff from Denver to a lower elevation. What type of performance do you expect from your turbo fan engines upon arrival?
Better, as temp decreases, pressure increases, thrust increases
Better, as temp increases, pressure descreases, thrust increases
Little discernible difference
Worse as temperature increases

Answer 14

Better, as temp decreases, pressure increases, thrust increases

Question 15

In a Boeing 737 you have lost the number one engine on takeoff, you elect to return to your departure airport which has runway 9-27. Winds are 180/12. Which runway do u choose
27, due to crosswind aiding in directional control
9, due to crosswind aiding in directional control
27, due to increased rudder effectiveness
9, due to less effective crosswind component

Answer 15

9, due to crosswind aiding in directional control

Question 16

In a Boeing 737 you have lost the number two engine on takeoff, you elect to return to runway 9-27 with winds 180/12. What runway do you land?
27, due to crosswind aiding in directional control
9, due to crosswind aiding in directional control
27, due to increased rudder effectiveness
9, due to less effective crosswind component

Answer 16

27, due to crosswind aiding in directional control

Question 17

You are taking off in a b747 on runway 27 with winds 230/19, what would you consider the critical engine to be?
Number one
Either starboard engine
Number four
Jet aircraft do not designate critical engine

Answer 17

Number one

Question 18

As the CG location of an aircraft moves aft:
Maneuverability increases, control forces decrease, stability decrease
Maneuverability increases, control forces decrease, stability increases
Maneuverability decreases, control forces increase, stability decreases
Maneuverability decreases, control forces decrease, stability increases

Answer 18

Maneuverability increases, control forces decrease, stability decrease

Question 19

Movement around the lateral axis of an aircraft is referred to as 
Pitch
Yaw
Roll
Slideslip

Answer 19

Pitch

Question 20

Dihedral is a design element to enhance which characteristic
Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis
Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis
Longitudinal stability around the vertical axis
Lateral stability about the vertical axis

Answer 20

Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis

Question 21

Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?
Increased surface area provides greater controllability w/ flap ext
Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist wingtips
Locking out the outboards in high speed provides variable feel
Locking out the outboards in high speed counteracts Dutch roll

Answer 21

Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist wingtips

Question 22

What is the primary purpose of high lift devices

1. Increase drag and reduce airspeed
2. Increase L/D max
3. Increase lift at low airspeed
4. Reduce drag and increase airspeed

Answer 22

3. Increase lift at low airspeed

Question 23

Which statement is true regarding ailerons and spoilers

1. Ailerons and spoilers both produce adverse yaw
2. Ailerons produce adverse yaw and spoilers produce proverse yaw
3. Ailerons produce proverse yaw and spoilers produce adverse yaw
4. Ailerons produce adverse yaw and spoilers have no effect on yaw

Answer 23

2. Ailerons produce adverse yaw and spoilers produce proverse yaw

Question 24

Non typical modes of turbine ignition system operation are used for certain flight conditions such as:
Continuous ignition that is used at a lower voltage and energy level
Continuous ignition that is used at a higher voltage and energy level
Generators that are used at a lower voltage and energy level
Generators that are used at a higher voltage and energy level

Answer 24

Continuous ignition that is used at a lower voltage and energy level

Question 25

The main systems of a 3 shaft turbine engine are:
Air system, fuel system, ignition system
Compressor system,combustion system, accessory system
Compressor system, combustion system, exhaust system
Low pressure system, intermediate px system, high px system

Answer 25

Low pressure system, intermediate px system, high px system

Question 26

The factors that affect the thrust of a gas turbine engine include:
Intake, compression, combustion,exhaust
Altitude, weight, CG
Air density, airspeed, engine rpm
Airspeed, weight, CG

Answer 26

Air density, airspeed, engine rpm

Question 27

In a gas turbine engine the inlet, compressor, and diffuser sections are responsible for:
Transferring compressed airflow into kinetic energy
Building potential energy of the airflow
Transferring static energy into thrust
Building static energy of the airflow

Answer 27

Building potential energy of the airflow

Question 28

What is a primary design limitation of the turbojet engines?
Compressor inlet temperature 
Compressor outlet temperature
Turbine inlet temperature
Turbine outlet temperature

Answer 28

Turbine inlet temperature

Question 29

Which statement is true regarding wing sweep
1 wing sweep tends to lead to stall at the wing root due to spanwise flow
2 wing sweep causes a faster onset of critical Mach which allows higher cruise Mach speeds
3 wing sweep contributes to lateral stability much like dihedral
4 wing sweep will cause critical Mach number to decrease

Answer 29

wing sweep contributes to lateral stability much like dihedral

Question 30

At high Mach numbers which statement is most accurate
1 the shock wave moving toward the center of the pressure may cause a Mach tuck
2 stall aoa will increase with higher Mach number
3 wing sweepback eliminates the onset of critical Mach
4 at critical Mach a shock wave will cause boundary layer separation

Answer 30

at critical Mach a shock wave will cause boundary layer separation

Question 31

If an aircraft stalls at 128 knots when flying into a 30 knot headwind the stall speed when flying with a 30 knot tailwind will be:
1 158 knots 
2 128 knots 
3 98 knots 
4 stall speed is a function of L/D max

Answer 31

128 knots

Question 32

Due to close in vectoring by atc to intercept the localizer you may overshoot the course to intercept. In order to avoid this situation you decide to increase the bank angle to 30 degrees. You must keep in mind:
1 the load factor and stall speed do not have an appreciable change
2 the load factor and stall speed increase rapidly
3 the load factor and stall speed decreases rapidly
4 the load factor increases but stall speed decreases

Answer 32

the load factor and stall speed do not have an appreciable change

Question 33

An aircraft in a 60 degree angle of bank turn will:
1 always require a 2G load factor for level flight
2 stall at the same speed as in level flight
3 require a load factor that varies with weight and altitude
4 always require a 1.5 G load factor for level flight

Answer 33

always require a 2G load factor for level flight

Question 34

A principle disadvantage of a centrifugal flow compressor compared to an axial flow compressor in a turbine engine is
1 it is more expensive to manufacture
2 the provision of more than one or two stages is rarely feasible
3 it is more susceptible to FOD
4 its total compression section is heavier

Answer 34

the provision of more than one or two stages is rarely feasible

Question 35

Since turbine ignition systems are operated mostly for a brief period during the engine starting cycle they are:
1 as a rule, more typical of a reciprocating engine ignition system design
2 as a rule, less trouble free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system
3 as a rule, more trouble free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system
4 as a rule, more typical of a Diesel engine ignition system

Answer 35

as a rule, more trouble free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system

Question 36

The turbine ignition system
1 needs to be timed to spark during an exact point in the operational cycle
2 does not need to be timed to spark during an exact point in the operational cycle
3 needs to be turned on during an exact point in the operational cycle
4 does not need to be turned on during an exact point in the operational cycle

Answer 36

does not need to be timed to spark during an exact point in the operational cycle

Question 37

Normally the turbine ignition system
1 is used to turn the turbine fan, ignites the fuel in the combustion chamber and then is switched off
2 is used to turn the turbine fan ignites the fuel in the combustion section and then is switched to continuous
3 is used to ignite the fuel in the combustion and then it is switched off
4 is used to ignite the fuel in the combustion and then it is switched to continuous

Answer 37

is used to ignite the fuel in the combustion and then it is switched off

Question 38

A turbine engine usually has an accessory section gear train driven by:
1 the engine low pressure fan turbine through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling
2 the engine hi pressure fan turbine through an accessory driveshaft gear coupling
3 the engine low pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling
4 the engine high pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling

Answer 38

the engine high pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling

Question 39

The reduction gear ratios within the accessory section are relatively high because:
1 the rotor operating is so high
2 the rotor operating rpm is so low
3 the rotor operating pressure is so high
4 the rotor operating pressure is so low

Answer 39

the rotor operating is so high

Question 40

The reduction gearing within the accessory section casing provides suitable drive speeds for:
1 the engine air intake section
2 the engine compressor section
3 the engine turbine section
4 each engine accessory or component

Answer 40

each engine accessory or component

Question 41

On a turbofan engine the amount of air that bypasses the gas generator in comparison with the amount of air that passes through the gas generator is called
1 bypass diffentiAl
2 bypass flow
3 bypass ratio
4 bypass pressure

Answer 41

Bypass ratio

Question 42

A principle advantage of an axial flow compressor compared to a centrifugal flow compressor on a turbine engine is:
1 it requires relatively low inlet velocities
2 simplicity
3 high compressor ratio per stage
4 ability to handle large volumes of airflow

Answer 42

ability to handle large volumes of airflow

Question 43

Which statement is most correct regarding approach to stall and stall?
1 approach to stall and stall should be treated the same using the same recovery techniques
2 the primary response to a stall should be to apply maximum thrust and minimize altitude loss
3 the primary response to a stall should be to reduce aoa
4 a nose low stall does not require a reduction in aoa since the weight and thrust vector is downward

Answer 43

the primary response to a stall should be to reduce aoa

Question 44

What effect does weight have on stall speed?
1 weight has no effect on stall speed
2 as weigh decreases stall speed increases
3 as weight increases stall speed increases
4 stall speed will increase exponentially as weight decreases

Answer 44

as weight increases stall speed increases

Question 45

What effect does load factor have on stall speed in an aft CG loaded airplane?
1 weight has no effect on stall speed
2 as load factor decreases stall speed increases
3 as load factor increases stall speed increases
4 stall speed will increases as weight decreases

Answer 45

as load factor increases stall speed increases

Question 46

What effect does an increase in altitude have on stall speed?
1 stall speed will decrease dramatically due to compressibility effects
2 stall speed will increase dramatically due to compressibility effects
3 stall speed will increase slightly
4 stall speed will decrease slightly

Answer 46

stall speed will increase dramatically due to compressibility effects

Question 47

An advantage of the slotted flap is:
1 more surface area than a fowler flap when extended
2 the slots direct high pressure Air to the lower surface of the aft section, increasing lift
3 slotted flaps operate automatically with aerodynamic forces
4 slotted flaps direct high energy airflow from the underside to the top of the aft portion, delaying boundary separation

Answer 47

slotted flaps direct high energy airflow from the underside to the top of the aft portion, delaying boundary separation

Question 48

The purpose of high lift devices is to:
1 increase stall speed making the wing efficient at low speeds
2 decrease stall speed, making the wing efficient at low speeds
3 increase stall speed, by lowering the coefficient of lift
4 decrease stall speed by increasing the coefficient of lift

Answer 48

decrease stall speed, making the wing efficient at low speeds

Question 49

Some high lift devices lower the stall speed by:
1 increasing cl max and increasing the wing area
2 decreasing cl max and decreasing the wing area
3 increasing cl max and decreasing the wing area
4 decreasing cl max and increasing the wing area

Answer 49

increasing cl max and increasing the wing area

Question 50

When would you use high lift devices?
1 To decrease the descent angle while maintaining a constant airspeed
2 to increase the descent angle while increasing the airspeed
3 to decrease the descent angle while decreasing the airspeed
4 to increase the descent angle while maintaining a constant airspeed

Answer 50

to increase the descent angle while maintaining a constant airspeed

Question 51

While flying in close proximity to mountainous terrain you experience turbulent air. Your stall speed may increase with:
1 a sudden decrease in aoa 
2 a sudden the decrease in load factor
3 a sudden increase of induced drag
4 a sudden the change In relative wind

Answer 51

sudden the change In relative wind

Question 52

The Mach range for subsonic and transonic flight regimes normally occur:
1 below 75 Mach and 75 to1.2 Mach respectively
2 below 75 Mach and above 1 Mach respectively
3 below 75 to 89 Mach and Mach 9 to Mach 1.2 respectively
4 above 75 Mach ago l/d max or the speed of sound

Answer 52

below 75 Mach and 75 to 1.2 Mach respectively

Question 53

What is the relationship between Vmcg and V1?
1 Vmcg must be greater than v1
2 Vmcg must be less than v1
3 Vmcg and v1 have no significant relationship
4 v1 must be less than Vmcg

Answer 53

Vmcg must be less than v1

Question 54

A variable that will affect an aircrafts specific range is:
1 non standard temperature
2 headwind
3 altitude 
4 density altitude

Answer 54

Density altitude

Question 55

A variable that will affect an aircrafts specie range:
1 density altitude 
2 headwind
3 non standard temperature
4 aerodynamic configuration of aircraft

Answer 55

aerodynamic configuration of aircraft

Question 56

Your maintenance crew informs you that the accessory drive gear train has sheared and will likely cause a large delay. What is the primary function of the accessory section of a turbine engine?
1 it provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of engine
2 it provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the aircraft air intake
3 it provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the aircraft compressor section
4 it provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operations and control of the aircraft turbine section

Answer 56

provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of engine

Question 57

The basic elements of the accessory section of a turbofan engine are:
1 the accessory gearbox which has machined mounting pads for engine driven accessories and the gear train which is housed outside the accessory case
2 the accessory case which has machined mounting pads for the engine driven accessories and the gear train which is housed insides the accessory case
3 the engine starter apu, oil pump, and filter, and the gear train which is housed inside the accessory case
4 the engine starter, apu, oil pump, and the gear train, which is housed outside the accessory case

Answer 57

the accessory case which has machined mounting pads for the engine driven accessories and the gear train which is housed insides the accessory case

Question 58

If an aircraft is limited by an obstacle in the second segment because it’s climb performance is insufficient to clear obstacles. What could be done to make the takeoff possible?
1 use a reduced takeoff thrust setting
2 increase v1 speed
3 reduce weight to ensure obstacle clearance
4 use a decreased v2 speed

Answer 58

reduce weight to ensure obstacle clearance

Question 59

Which of the following is a true statement with regards to best rate of climb speed Vy?
1 provides the greatest achievement of altitude over specified distance
2 uses more trip fuel
3 will take a longer amount of time to reach cruise altitude
4 uses less trip fuel

Answer 59

Uses less trip fuel

Question 60

When considering factors relating to takeoff and cruise flight planning, which of the following statements is true?
1 use of best angle speed will result in less trip fuel burned and fastest time to climb to cruise altitude
2 use of best rate speed will result in more trip fuel burned and slowest time to climb to cruise altitude
3 use of best rate speed will result in less trip fuel burned and fastest time to climb to cruise altitude
4 use of best angle speed will results in more trip fuel burned and fastest time to climb to cruise altitude

Answer 60

use of best rate speed will result in less trip fuel burned and fastest time to climb to cruise altitude

Question 61

A variable that will affect an aircrafts specific range is:
1 aircraft gross weight 
2 headwind
3 nonstandard temperature 
4 density altitude

Answer 61

Aircraft gross weight

Question 62

If field length is limiting for takeoff how does weight affect v1 speed?
1 as weight increases, v1 decreases
2 field limit only affects v2 not v1
3 with increased weight V1 will not change
4 v1 increases as weight increases

Answer 62

as weight increases, v1 decreases

Question 63

In theory what effect does using reduced thrust for takeoff have on v1 speed?
1 v1 will increase
2 there is no correlation between them
3 v1 will decrease
4 v1 will not change

Answer 63

v1 will decrease

Question 64

Why would v1 decrease when using reduced thrust?
1 to compensate for higher ambient temperature
2 to compensate for Vr being reached at a point further along the runway
3 to compensate for lower ambient pressures
4 to compensate for distant obstacles in the takeoff path

Answer 64

to compensate for Vr being reached at a point further along the runway

Question 65

While flying at 250 you encounter clear air turbulence (cat) that induces a rapid climb. Considering the safe flight envelope while attempting to return to your assigned altitude you must remember:
1 to return to your assigned altitude immediately and maintain airspeed
2 limit load factors have no effect during cat imposed forces
3 limit load factors decrease with vertical gusts
4 to avoid making abrupt nose low pitch changes and reduce to maneuvering speed

Answer 65

to avoid making abrupt nose low pitch changes and reduce to maneuvering speed

Question 66

The limit load factor (LLF) is:
1 the ratio of the load on the aircraft to the aircraft weight
2 the maximum load for which a manufacture is required to design airplanes
3 the maximum load factor authorized for operations
4 the ultimate load which includes the ultimate factor of safety

Answer 66

the maximum load factor authorized for operations

Question 67

An airplane weight is 300,000 lbs while flying straight and level. As the CG moves aft:
1 the airplane is more maneuverable 
2 the airplane is more stable
3 the stall speed increases
4 the airplane requires more power

Answer 67

the airplane is more stable

Question 68

The airplane is loaded with an aft CG due to fuel conservation performance considerations. What flying characteristics can you expect?
1 a tendency to under control the airplane
2 a tendency to over control the airplane
3 as long as the CG is within the safety envelope no noticeable change
4 higher stall speeds upon landing

Answer 68

a tendency to over control the airplane

Question 69

If an airplane is incorrectly loaded with an aft CG which handling characteristic may you expect on takeoff?
1 longitudinal instability. Greater control input for pitch control
2 more back force is required during rotation
3 less back force is required during rotation
4 no change in rotation is required due to no adverse effects

Answer 69

less back force is required during rotation

Question 70

A “Mach tuck” situation is defined as:
1 symmetrical shock induced airflow separation occurring at the wing tips
2 symmetrical shock induced airflow separation occurring near the wing root
3 a high speed stall with sudden pitch up moment
4 a slow speed stall due to shock airflow separation occurring at the wing tips

Answer 70

symmetrical shock induced airflow separation occurring near the wing root

Question 71

If you have an aircraft that was incorrectly loaded with a CG at the aft limit. What characteristics of aircraft handling could you expect on landing?
1 longitudinal instability, requiring greater input for pitch control
2 no change in control inputs since the plane still within the safe flight envelope
3 you will use more control column aft pressure on landing
4 you may run out of nose up pitch authority

Answer 71

you will use more control column aft pressure on landing

Question 72

In regard to fuel conservation the most ideal holding speed is:
1 the minimum speed required to maintain altitude
2 the maximum endurance speed
3 the maximum range speed
4 30% above stall speed

Answer 72

the maximum endurance speed

Question 73

You are on a flight from Memphis to LA and tracking inbound on the ABQ VOR 097 degree radial. The winds at your altitude are from 272/090 knots, 35 knots greater than the planned direction. What should you do to maintain "best range"?
1 fly the long range cruise speed LRC
2 increase speed 
2 maintain planned speed
4 decrease speed

Answer 73

Increase speed

Question 74

Aircraft A and aircraft B are identical except that aircraft A weights 450,000 lbs and aircraft B weighs 400,000 lbs. what maximum glide range factor is increased from aircraft A compared to B
1 angle of attack
2 altitude 
3 airspeed
4 glide distance

Answer 74

Airspeed

Question 75

When planning on takeoff from an airport with close surrounding mountainous terrain, which of the following considerations is reasonable?
1 climb out at best rate airspeed might be best for terrain avoidance
2 climb out at best angle airspeed might be best for terrain avoidance
3 ensure aircraft is loaded with an aft CG to enhance stability for potential gust upsets common to mountainous terrain
4 ensure aircraft is loaded with a forward CG to enhance maneuverability for terrain avoidance

Answer 75

climb out at best angle airspeed might be best for terrain avoidance

Question 76

To increase altitude while flying at an angle of attack greater tha n CLmax you should:
1 increase pitch
2 increase thrust
3 extend the flaps since this is the only way to increase more lift beyond CLmax
4 it is not possible to climb at angles of attack beyond CLmax

Answer 76

Increase thrust

Question 77

In a transport category airplane with swept wings at a given indicated airspeed the true airspeed
1 increases at low altitude
2 is inversely proportional to Mach number
3 decreases on climb
4 increases at high altitudes

Answer 77

Increases at high altitudes

Question 78

An airplane in cruise flight in rvsm airspace indicates a low speed stall, the pilot should:
1 advance thrust to maximum and maintain altitude
2 advise atc and advance thrust while maintaining altitude
3 advance thrust and reduce aoa as required, descending as required
4 extend slats/flaps ago increase lift and maintain altitude
3 advance thrust and reduce

Answer 78

advance thrust and reduce aoa as required, descending as required

Question 79

What effect does a headwind have on an aircraft in a climb?
1 Max angle of climb is increased which results in reaching a higher altitude with a smaller distance covered over the ground
2 rate of climb performance is increased which results in reaching a higher altitude with a smaller distance covered over the ground
3 wind does not effect either rate of climb performance or maximum angle of climb
4 both maximum angle of climb and rate of climb are increased which results in reaching a higher altitude with a smaller distance covered over the ground

Answer 79

Max angle of climb is increased which results in reaching a higher altitude with a smaller distance covered over the ground

Question 80

The altitude that an airplane can maintain a maximum climb rate of only 100 feet per minute is defines as:
1 service ceiling
2 cruise ceiling
3 combat ceiling
4 absolute ceiling

Answer 80

Service ceiling

Question 81

In a transport category airplane which of the following factors has the greatest negative impact on specific range?
1 an increase in tailwind of 25 kts
2 an increase in temperature above ISA
3 an increase in cruise altitude 
4 an increase in payload of 90,000 lbs

Answer 81

an increase in payload of 90,000 lbs

Question 82

Wing tip vortices generated by large transport category aircraft are most dangerous when:
1 heavy, slow, gear and flaps up
2 heavy, fast, gear and slats out
3 light, slow, gear and flaps down
4 heavy slow gear and flaps down

Answer 82

heavy, slow, gear and flaps up

Question 83

Maneuvering speed is a factor of the stall speed times the square root of the limit load factor. Maneuvering speed was designed to fly:
1 during wind shear conditions
2 during bad weather conditions
3 during turbulent air conditions
4 during the approach

Answer 83

during turbulent air conditions

Question 84

Airplanes equipped with low speed ailerons and high speed ailerons will use the inboard ailerons during:
1 low speed operations
2 high speed operations
3 low altitude operations
4 high and low speed operations equally

Answer 84

High speed operations

Question 85

Your review of the weight and balance of you r airplane shows an aft CG, but within limits. You should brief your crew to expect:
1 lower stall speed, high cruise speed, and more maneuverability
2 lower stall speed, lower cruise speed, less controllability
3 higher stall speed, higher cruise speed. Less stability
4 higher stall speed, higher speed, and more stability

Answer 85

lower stall speed, high cruise speed, and more maneuverability

Question 86

Maneuver speed is best defined as:
1 the maximum speed for a given configuration
2 the maximum speed for a given configuration
3 the maximum speed at which overstress will not occur with full control input
4 the minimum speed at which full control authority is available in all axes

Answer 86

the maximum speed at which overstress will not occur with full control input

Question 87

Turbojet engine efficiency:
1 increases with altitude up to the stratosphere, where lapse rate increases
2 increases up to the stratosphere, where temperatures become constant
3 increases with altitude up to the tropopause, where lapse rate increases
4 increases with altitude up to the tropopause, where temperatures become constant

Answer 87

increases with altitude up to the tropopause, where temperatures become constant

Question 88

Which statement is true regarding an aircraft in a steady climb?
1 the rate of climb depends on excess thrust
2 the angle of climb depends on excess power
3 the rate and angle of climb are thrust dependent
4 the angle of climb depends on excess thrust

Answer 88

the angle of climb depends on excess thrust

Question 89

An airplane flying at L/D Max is flying:
1 maximum range if jet powered 
2 maximum endurance if propeller powered 
3 maximum endurance if jet powered 
4 on the back side of the power curve

Answer 89

maximum endurance if jet powered

Question 90

The angle of attack at which stall occurs will be determined by:
1 weight
2 load factor
3 altitude
4 stall angle of attack is unaffected by weight load factor of altitude

Answer 90

stall angle of attack is unaffected by weight load factor of altitude

Question 91

How is angle of attack measured?
1 between the top surface of the air fold and the chord line
2 between the relative wind and the bottom surface of the the airfoil
3 between the relative wind and the chord line
4 between the mean camber line and the relative wind

Answer 91

between the relative wind and the chord line

Question 92

In order to maintain level flight while decreasing airspeed what action must the pilot take?
1 decrease angle of attack
2 increase angle of attack
3 decrease angle of incidence
4 increase angle of incidence

Answer 92

increase angle of attack

Question 93

If you are on an approach to land and its realized that the airplane is one dot below the desired glide path a more nose up attitude without an increase in power setting will:
1 cause the airplane to recapture the desired glide path without any appreciable effect on airspeed
2 cause the airplane to recapture the desired glide path and slow down yielding a shorter and more desirable landing distance
3 cause the airplane to fly more slowly and in the region of reverse command, eventually produce a greater rate of descent
4 not allow the airplane to recapture the desired glide path, but will not have any appreciable effect on the airspeed

Answer 93

cause the airplane to fly more slowly and in the region of reverse command, eventually produce a greater rate of descent

Question 94

A steep low power approach:
1 makes for a potentially dangerous go-around because of the required engine acceleration and high rate of descent
2 is acceptable as long as you have sufficient runway landing distance available
3 is accounted for as a contingency situation in the aircraft manufactures landing manual performance data
4 is acceptable as long as you are flying in visual meteorological conditions

Answer 94

makes for a potentially dangerous go-around because of the required engine acceleration and high rate of descent

Question 95

A shallow high power approach:
1 is not desirable because it is difficult to control the point of touchdown and the low speed may allow the airplane to settle prematurely short of the intended landing touchdown
2 is a good practice since the landing distance will be shorter than planned and the engines will be spoiled up in the event of go around
3 is accounted for as a contingency situation in the aircraft manufacturers landing performance data
4 is acceptable as long as you are flying in visual meteorological conditions

Answer 95

is not desirable because it is difficult to control the point of touchdown and the low speed may allow the airplane to settle prematurely short of the intended landing touchdown

Question 96

In comparison to a takeoff at a low density altitude airport a takeoff at a high density airport will:
1 require a takeoff with a higher indicated airspeed
2 allow a takeoff with a shorter runway length
3 have an identical ground speed at rotation
4 Require more acceleration time to reach the higher true takeoff speed

Answer 96

Require more acceleration time to reach the higher true takeoff speed

Question 97

What factors will increase take off performance?
1 increased density altitude 
2 increased tail wind
3 increase aircraft weight
4 increased thrust setting

Answer 97

increased thrust setting

Question 98

An increase in density altitude Can effect takeoff performance by:
1 requiring an assumed temperature thrust setting
2 increasing required airspeed
3 decreasing required runway length
4 increasing required runway length

Answer 98

increasing required runway length

Question 99

An increase in density altitude can affect takeoff performance by:
1 reducing aerodynamic lift
2 decreasing thrust and acceleration
3 decreasing required runway length
4 requiring an assumed temperature thrust setting

Answer 99

decreasing thrust and acceleration

Question 100

Which of the following is true about winglets?
1 added weight from winglets has an adverse effect on takeoff performance
2 winglets create more parasite drag decreasing the overall takeoff performance
3 winglets contribute to increased payload or increased short field takeoff performance
4 winglets have no impact on takeoff performance

Answer 100

winglets contribute to increased payload or increased short field takeoff performance

Question 101

How does weight impact an aircraft’s takeoff performance?
1 increased takeoff distance is required
2 weight has no impact on takeoff performance at sea level
3 increased climb gradients can be expected
4 decreased takeoff distance is required

Answer 101

increased takeoff distance is required

Question 102

A stop way:
1 is an area not to exceed the distance to the end of the runway that may be used to decelerate an airplane in the event of an aborted takeoff
2 is an extension beyond the runway end that may be used to decelerate an airplane in the event of an aborted takeoff
3 is an area beyond the runway that is cleared of obstructions so that it provides an additional obstacle free space for climb out
4 is an area beyond the runway that cannot be used in takeoff performance calculations

Answer 102

is an extension beyond the runway end that may be used to decelerate an airplane in the event of an aborted takeoff

Question 103

You are on an ILS approach to runway 33. Your aircrafts Vref speed is 144 knots the winds are 280/15. Your approach category is:
1 A
2 B
3 C
4 D

Answer 103

D

Question 104

V1 is best described as:
1 decision speed
2 action speed
3 engine failure recognition speed
4 takeoff safety speed

Answer 104

Action speed

Question 105

First segment climb is best described as:
1 aircraft becomes airborne until aircraft reaches 35’
2 Vr until aircraft reaches 35’
3 from 35’ AGL until initial thrust reduction
4 from 100’ AGL until initial flap retraction

Answer 105

aircraft becomes airborne until aircraft reaches 35’

Question 106

The maximum climb angle for jets can be achieved by flying:
1 the v2 speed
2 v2 plus 10 knots
3 Vapproach plus 5 knots
4 the speed for L/D Max

Answer 106

the speed for L/D Max

Question 107

When an aircraft is established in a climb:
1 thrust is greater than drag
2 lift is greater than weight
3 thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight
4 all opposing forces are in a state of equilibrium

Answer 107

all opposing forces are in a state of equilibrium

Question 108

Planning takeoffs at high altitude airports with high temperatures require some special considerations. Which of the following is one of those considerations?
1 potential to exceed brake energy limits
2 engine egt margins being exceeded
3 increased effectiveness of reverse thrust
4 increasing payload to enhance braking effectiveness during a rejected takeoff

Answer 108

Potential to exceed brake energy limits

Question 109

A change in which of the following will cause a change in an aircrafts indicated air speed on landing?
1 weight 
2 altitude 
3 temperature 
4 wind

Answer 109

weight

Question 110

An increase in landing weight of an aircraft results in:
1 increase in the landing speed required
2 decrease in the landing distance required
3 decrease in the kinetic energy of the aircraft to be dissipated during he landing roll
4 harder landings

Answer 110

Increase in the landing speed required

Question 111

The approach speed will:
1 always be 30 percent above the stall speed
2 be 20 percent above the stall speed but this speed is a recommended speed only. As long as you are 10-20 knots above the stall speed you are within the prescribed limits
3 generally be 30 percent above the stall speed but may be adjusted for contingencies such as headwinds and wind gusts
4 only need to be adhered to closely when flying in IMC

Answer 111

generally be 30 percent above the stall speed but may be adjusted for contingencies such as headwinds and wind gusts

Question 112

Which of the following is true about takeoff performance?
1 down sloping runways can shorten takeoff runs
2 up sloping runways can shorten takeoff runs
3 runway slope has no significant impact on takeoff performance
4 down sloping runways increase take off runs

Answer 112

down sloping runways can shorten takeoff runs

Question 113

If approach speed is 5 knots fast during the flare the aircraft will float slightly longer in the flare. If this happens:
1 release control wheel back pressure earlier to settle the aircraft onto the runway at a slightly faster speed to ensure the landing is made in the touchdown zone
2 is is okay to float the airplane slightly beyond the touchdown zone in order to ensure a smooth landing
3 allow the airplane to float beyond the touchdown zone and ensure a smooth landing, but do so only if the runway length excess the calculated landing distance by 1000 feet for every 5 knots of excessive airspeed
4 allow the airplane to float beyond the touchdown zone and ensure a smooth landing but do so only if the runway length exceeds the calculated landing distance by 500 feet for every 5 knots of excessive airspeed

Answer 113

release control wheel back pressure earlier to settle the aircraft onto the runway at a slightly faster speed to ensure the landing is made in the touchdown zone

Question 114

Which statement could best describe ground effect?
1 a cushion of air that an airplane floats on near the ground
2 a reduction of downwash
3 an increase of up wash within one wingspan length the ground
4 an increase of stability due to anhedral wing design

Answer 114

a reduction of downwash

Question 115

What type of braking offers the possibility of greater deceleration?
1 friction braking 
2 aerodynamic braking 
3 aerodynamic drag
4 kinetic braking

Answer 115

friction braking

Question 116

In efforts to obtain minimum landing roll distance the use of reverse thrust is most effective:
1 immediately after the aircraft is in contact with the ground
2 at slower speeds
3 when utilized in small bursts
4 when application is gradually and continually increased until maximum reverse cap ability is employed just prior to the aircraft coming to a stop

Answer 116

Immediately after the aircraft is in contact with the ground

Question 117

The type of hydro planning that occurs as the result of a prolonged locked wheel skid in which the tires are effectively held off the runway by steam generated by friction refers to:
1 dynamic hydro planning 
2 viscous hydro planing 
3 reverted rubber hydro planning 
4 steam hydro planning

Answer 117

reverted rubber hydro planning

Question 118

Dynamic hydro planning is best described as:
1 reduced tire tread contact due to loss of dynamic tire pressure at high speeds
2 friction between the tire and wet runway surface creating steam that reduces tire tread contact
3 the reduction of tire tread contact area due to induced water pressure
4 the reduction of friction between the tire and wheel hub due to excessive moisture build up

Answer 118

the reduction of tire tread contact area due to induced water pressure

Question 119

You are approaching to land at an airport in drizzle. Your approach speed is low since the weight of the airplane is light. Upon landing you experience hydro planning, which type did you experience?
1 dynamic 
2 viscous 
3 reverted rubber
4 Oil and gas Malay

Answer 119

viscous

Question 120

You are approaching to land at an airport that has had rain for the past 4 hours. You are flying a heavier than normal airplane. Upon landing you experience hydro planning. Which type did you experience?
1 dynamic 
2 viscous 
3 reverted rubber
4 oil and gas Malay

Answer 120

Dynamic

Question 121

Which of the following is required for aircraft brakes to provide effective stopping action?
1 anti skid brakes
2 coefficient of friction greater than 0 with the runway
3 a smooth application by the pilot
4 auto brakes system must be operating

Answer 121

coefficient of friction greater than 0 with the runway

Question 122

Why is it important to de-rotate as quickly as practical on landing?
1 it allows aerodynamic braking to be more effective
2 hydro planning is less likely to occur if the nose is on the ground
3 it increases braking effectiveness
4 it is not really important since aerodynamic braking is two times more effective at landing speeds certified for transport category aircraft

Answer 122

it increases braking effectiveness

Question 123

Regardless of aircraft or procedural requirements which of the following would be the best reason to not takeoff from a wet runway?
1 thrust reverses inoperative
2 antiskid inoperative
3 auto brakes inoperative 
4 auto spoilers inoperative

Answer 123

antiskid inoperative

Question 124

Regardless of aircraft or procedural requirements which of the following would be best reason to not takeoff from a wet runway?
1 thrust reverses inoperative
2 standing water exceeds a specified level
3 auto brakes operative
4 auto spoilers inoperative

Answer 124

standing water exceeds a specified level

Question 125

Planning takeoffs at high altitude airports with high temperatures require some special considerations. Which of the following is one of those considerations?
1 potential of exceeding tire limit speeds
2 engine egt margins being exceeded
3 increased effectiveness of reverse thrust
4 increasing payload to enhance braking effectiveness during a rejected takeoff

Answer 125

potential of exceeding tire limit speeds

Question 126

As you increase the flap setting for takeoff how is the aircrafts performance changed?
1 shortens the takeoff roll and decreases climb performance
2 shortens the takeoff roll and increases climb performance
3 lengthens the takeoff roll and decreases climb performance
4 lengthens the take off roll and increases climb performance

Answer 126

shortens the takeoff roll and decreases climb performance

Question 127

How do fowler flaps change the wing?
1 they move aft to increase the camber then down to increase the chord
2 they move aft to decrease the camber then down to increase the chord
3 they move aft to increase the chord then down to decrease the camber
4 they move aft to increase the chord then down to increase the camber

Answer 127

they move aft to increase the chord then down to increase the camber

Question 128

With the center of pressure forward of the center of gravity extending the flaps will cause the following:
1 the aircraft will pitch up
2 the aircraft will pitch down
3 the aircraft will experience no pitch change
4 the aircraft will pitch down and then pitch up

Answer 128

the aircraft will pitch up

Question 129

What is a characteristic of fowler flaps?
1 less drag in the landing range than a normal flap
2 increase the surface area of the wing and are generally slotted
3 significantly increase drag in low flap setting ranges
4 do not allow for decreased approach speeds compared to other flap designs

Answer 129

increase the surface area of the wing and are generally slotted

Question 130

You are descending on an airway inbound to xyz VOR. The inbound course is 240 degrees and your heading is 245 degrees. You are cleared to hold southeast at xyz on the 120 degree radial at 12,000 feet using a non standard pattern. The winds at 12,000 feet are 340/30. What direction and heading do you turn?
1 left to a heading of 090
2 right to a heading of 090
3 left to a heading of 120
4 right to a heading of 120

Answer 130

left to a heading of 120

Question 131

What is a Krueger flap and what does it do?
1 type of flap attached to the top of the wing and is designed to augment roll capabilities
2 type of flap attached to the rear of the wing to decrease landing distances
3 type of flap attached to the rear of the wing to increase wing camber
4 type of flap attached to the front of the wing and is designed to increase wing camber and lift

Answer 131

type of flap attached to the front of the wing and is designed to increase wing camber and lift

Question 132

What type of spoiler system when fully extended in the speed brake position does not provide any roll control?
1 sequential
2 non sequential
3 differential
4 non differential

Answer 132

Non differential

Question 133

Why do many aircraft have a lower speed for landing gear extension than for flight with the landing gear extended?
1 the lower speed is to protect the landing gear doors during movement
2 the lower speed is to reduce the airflow in the wheel wells which could damage hydraulic lines
3 movement of the gear places a greater strain on the airframe at higher speeds
4 movement of the gear changes the aerodynamic center of the aircraft and must be reduced

Answer 133

the lower speed is to protect the landing gear doors during movement

Question 134

What is not a typical use for engine bleed air?
1 crossbleed engine start
2 wing anti ice
3 engine anti ice
4 windshield de ice

Answer 134

Windshield de ice

Question 135

When a distress or urgency condition is encountered the pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder who desires to alert a ground radar facility should squawk code:
1 7700
2 7600
3 3700
4 7777

Answer 135

7700

Question 136

Magnetic deviation can be defined as:
1 error caused by magnetic material on the vessel
2 variation of the earths magnetic field
3 what the course would be in absence of local declination
4 an aircrafts true course

Answer 136

error caused by magnetic material on the vessel

Question 137

Magnetic variation is 9 degrees east. In order to fly a true heading of 060 degrees the following magnetic course would need to be flown:
1 051 
2 069
3 055
4 065

Answer 137

051

Question 138

When utilizing a compass deviation card you need to make a correction for 070 degree heading. The compass deviation card shows the correction for 060 degrees to be 0 degrees and the correction for 090 degrees to be +2 degrees. The correction for 070 degrees should be:
1 0 degrees
2 + 1 degree
3 + 2 degrees 
4 - 1 degree

Answer 138

+ 1 degree

Question 139

The difference between heading and track is:
1 true heading 
2 true track 
3 drift angle 
4 course

Answer 139

Drift angle

Question 140

Navigation by reference to landmarks or checkpoints is known as:
1 inertial navigation
2 celestial navigation
3 dead reckoning 
4 pilotage

Answer 140

Pilotage

Question 141

What is an advantage of NDBs over VORs for navigation?
1 NDBs are always more accurate
2 NDBs are not affected by line of sight
3 NDBs provide radial information
4 NDB signals are affected by less atmospheric conditions

Answer 141

NDBs are not affected by line of sight

Question 142

An aircraft is flying an approach to runway 18 circle to land on runway 07. While circling to land on runway 07 the aircraft loses sight of the airport:
1 the aircraft should turn in the shortest direction to runway 07 and then fly the published missed approach
2 the aircraft should turn in the shortest direction to runway 18 and then fly the published missed approach
3 the aircraft should turn in the shortest direction toward the published missed approach
4 the aircraft should turn in the shortest direction to runway 07 and then turn toward runway 18 then toward the published missed approach

Answer 142

the aircraft should turn in the shortest direction to runway 07 and then fly the published missed approach

Question 143

A pilot is landing an aircraft on a wider than normal runway. Which statement is true?
1 the pilot will tend to flare higher than normal
2 the pilot will tend to flare lower than normal
3 the pilot will have a tendency to land closer to the side of the runway than normal
4 the pilot will tend to drag in the approach

Answer 143

the pilot will tend to flare higher than normal

Question 144

What aircraft movement is permitted on a displaced threshold which is marked with a series of arrows in the middle of the runway pointing to the threshold mark?
1 taxiing, landing rollout and takeoff 
2 taxiing, landing, and take off
3 taxiing and landing 
4 taxiing and takeoff

Answer 144

taxiing, landing rollout and takeoff

Question 145

When executing a missed approach prior to the missed approach point what minimum altitude should be maintained prior to any turns?
1 missed approach altitude 
2 MDA or DA
3 MVA
4 MSA

Answer 145

MDA or DA

Question 146

You are flying a visual approach to an airport. On short final you realize you are not on tower frequency and consequently have not been cleared to land. You can see that the control tower is shining a steady green light at your aircraft. What should you do?
1 land, then attempt contact with tower
2 go around, enter the visual traffic pattern and squawk 7600
3 go around fly the published missed approach and attempt to contact with ATC
4 go around enter the visual traffic pattern and wait for a flashing green light from the control tower

Answer 146

land, then attempt contact with tower

Question 147

If on an ILS approach the approach lights are not in sight at the DH and a missed approach is executed the lowest altitude the aircraft can descend is:
1 no lower than the DH
2 50 feet below MDA
3 slightly below DH during the execution of the missed approach
4 slightly above MDA

Answer 147

slightly below DH during the execution of the missed approach

Question 148

After passing the final approach fix you lose the localizer signal on an ILS approach to runway 26R. Your missed approach instructions are to turn right to 360 degrees and climb to 3000 feet. You should:
1 fly the published missed approach
2 continue the approach to minimums then fly the published missed approach
3 turn to 360 degrees and climb to 3000 feet immediately
4 climb to 3000 feet and turn to 360 degrees at the MAP

Answer 148

climb to 3000 feet and turn to 360 degrees at the MAP

Question 149

Homing to an NDB station:
1 provides the most direct path
2 results in longer distance to the station
3 is the preferred navigation technique for cross country flights
4 requires correcting for wind

Answer 149

results in longer distance to the station

Question 150

How many satellites are necessary to establish an accurate three dimensional position with GPS?
1 two 
2 three
3 four 
4 five

Answer 150

Four

Question 151

The GPS receiver verifies the integrity of the signals received from the GPS constellation through RAIM to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. RAIM needs a minimum of ___ satellites in view or ____ satellites and a barometric altimeter to detect an integrity anomaly.

1. 3, 2
2. 4, 3
3. 5, 4
4. 6, 5

Answer 151

5, 4

Question 152

Who is responsible for operation of the GPS satellite constellation and constantly monitors the satellites to ensure proper operation?
1 coast guard
2 department of defense
3 federal aviation administration
4 international civil aviation organization

Answer 152

Department of defense

Question 153

While being vectored off the arrival you realize you have lost communications with the controller due to a stuck microphone and are well below the published airway MEA at the controllers MVA. What are your actions?
1 squawk 7600 and continue your present heading/ altitude until changing to the published final controller frequency
2 Squawk 7600 and turn back to the airway while climbing up to the MEA
3 squawk 7600 and continue your present heading/altitude until reaching your expected or filed NAVAID
4 squawk 7600 and continue your present heading until reaching your expected or filed NAVAID and climb back up to the MEA

Answer 153

squawk 7600 and continue your present heading until reaching your expected or filed NAVAID and climb back up to the MEA

Question 154

While on arrival to Boston ATC has you maintaining 10,000 feet and 250 KiAS. ATC then clears you to immediately descend to 6,000 feet and slow to your final approach speed. When are you required to advise ATC you are unable to comply with their instructions?
1 when unable to descend at least 100 fpm
2 when unable to descend at least 500 fpm
3 when unable to descend at least 1000 fpm
4 when unable to descend at least 1500 fpm

Answer 154

when unable to descend at least 500 fpm

Question 155

You are level at 5000 feet maintaining 190 knots in a clean configuration. What pitch and power changes are required to start a descent at 1000 fpm to 4000 feet while maintaining your airspeed?
1 pitch and power will both increase
2 pitch and power will both decrease
3 pitch will remain constant and power will decrease
4 pitch will decrease and power will remain constant

Answer 155

pitch and power will both decrease

Question 156

You are flying an ILS to runway 09 with weather reported as:

SAN2255 2 BKN 3 OVC 1R 051/37/36/1818G25/972 RB37

The runway is:
1 directly in line with the nose
2 right of the nose
3 left of the nose
4 left of the nose and you must immediately turn left to line the nose up with the runway

Answer 156

left of the nose

Question 157

The final approach segment of a precision approach begins at:
1 the FAF denoted by the Maltese cross on the approach chart
2 glideslope centered at the published glideslope intercept altitude GSIA and established on a localizer
3 a higher than published glide slope intercept altitude GSIA ( when ATC directed) and centered on the glideslope and localizer
4 anytime you’re on the glideslope

Answer 157

glideslope centered at the published glideslope intercept altitude GSIA and established on a localizer

Question 158

The clearance Delta 123 turn right to a heading of 060, you are 4 miles from ABC, maintain 2000 feet until established you are cleared for the ILS runway 09R approach authorizes you to:
1 conduct a visual approach to runway 9
2 conduct the missed approach procedure for the ILS runway 9R
3 conduct any approach to runway 9
4 leave 2000 feet prior to intercepting the localizer

Answer 158

conduct the missed approach procedure for the ILS runway 9R

Question 159

While flying in class C airspace below 2500 feet AGL and within four miles of the airport your airspeed should not exceed ___ KIAS unless otherwise authorized by ATC.

1. 250
2. 230
3. 210
4. 200

Answer 159

200

Question 160

You are on approach to a runway with a three bar VASI system. Which bars should you be looking at to determine that you are flying the correct glide path?

1. The near and far bars
2. The middle and far bars
3. The near and middle bars
4. All three bars

Answer 160

The middle and far bars

Question 161

In an attempt to maintain a constant descent on this approach to figure 2807-2809 at 150 KIAS with winds 270/10 what would be an appropriate vertical speed from the final approach fix?

1. 500 fpm
2. 600 fpm
3. 700 fpm
4. 800 fpm

Answer 161

700 fpm

Question 162

The final approach fix (FAF):

1. Denotes the start of the final approach segment of either a precision or non-precision approach
2. Is the point an aircraft must be configured for landing when flying instrument conditions
3. Can be crossed at any altitude once approach clears you for the approach
4. Is the point where landing clearance must be obtained from the controlling tower in order to continue the approach

Answer 162

Denotes the start of the final approach segment of either a precision or non-precision approach

Question 163

You are flying in VMC and approaching a severe thunderstorm which is painting on your weather radar. The outside air temperature is within 5 degrees Celsius of freezing. What is the best course of action and why?

1. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 20 miles due to the possibility of severe turbulence and the increased probability of st Elmo’s fire
2. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 20 miles due to the possibility of severe turbulence and increased probability of lightning strikes
3. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 10 miles due to the possibility of turbulence and increased probably of compressor stalls
4. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 10 miles due to the possibility of turbulence and increased probability of icing

Answer 163

Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 20 miles due to the possibility of severe turbulence and increased probability of lightning strikes

Question 164

You desire to trim the airplane for hands off flying. What is the best method to accomplish this task?

1. Set pitch and power based on aircraft weight and trim out the aerodynamic forces you are feeling in the column
2. Set your attitude and apply pressure to the control surface that needs trimming and roll the trim wheel in the direction pressure is being held
3. Trim the opposite direction until the control column centers and the desired attitude is achieved
4. Use trim to achieve the desired attitude and gradually reduce the amount of trim as the desired attitude is approached

Answer 164

Set your attitude and apply pressure to the control surface that needs trimming and roll the trim wheel in the direction pressure is being held

Question 165

The shortest distance between any two points on earths surface is a ____.

1. Route over the North Pole
2. Concentric circle
3. Constant heading
4. Great circle route

Answer 165

Great circle route

Question 166

Three common patterns for procedure turns include the following: 45/180, 80/260, and 30 degree teardrop. Which is most commonly used and depicted?

1. 45/180/45
2. 80/260
3. 30 degree tear drop
4. None is most common

Answer 166

45/180/45

Question 167

ATC wants you to make a 1/2 standard rate turn from heading 360 to heading 045. How long will it take to make the turn?

1. 10 secs
2. 15 secs
3. 25 secs
4. 30 secs

Answer 167

30 secs

Question 168

You are tracking inbound to the VOR on the 180 degree radial 60 miles from the station at 10,000 feet and 250 knots. Wind is 360/10, ATC gives you a clearance to intercept the 185 degree radial and track it inbound. What should you do?

1. Turn 90 degrees left to make the intercept to travel 1 radial per mile
2. Turn 45 degrees right to make the intercept due to the wind
3. Turn 30 degrees let to make the intercept, wind is not a factor
4. Turn 30 degrees right to make the intercept, wind is not a factor

Answer 168

Turn 30 degrees let to make the intercept, wind is not a factor

Question 169

How long would it take to fly 375 NM at a ground speed of 250 knots?

1. 1:15
2. 1:30
3. 1:45
4. 2:00

Answer 169

1:30

Question 170

An aircraft is flying an NDB approach to an airport. The published inbound course for the approach is 010 degrees. The current aircraft heading is 010 degrees, the NDB needle is pointing to 360 degrees. The aircraft needs to:
1. Turn left to a heading less than 360 degrees to correct back to course
2 maintain 010 degrees to stay on course
3. Turn right to a heading greater than 010 degrees to correct back to course
4. Fly heading 360 degrees to correct back to course

Answer 170

Turn left to a heading of less than 360 degrees to correct back to course

Question 171

An aircraft flying an approach to runway 18 circle to land on runway 07. When can the aircraft descend out of the circling MDA?

1. When the airport is in sight
2. When landing 18 is in sight and in a position to make a normal landing to runway 07
3. When on final for runway 07 with runway 07 in sight
4. When in a position to make a normal landing on runway 07 with runway 07 in sight

Answer 171

When in a position to make a normal landing on runway 07 with runway 07 in sight

Question 172

An aircraft is flying an NDB approach to runway 09. The inbound course is 090 degrees, the NDB is located 5 miles west of runway 09 on the extended centerline. The aircraft is 3 miles from the runway. The aircraft has been flying a heading of 090 degrees for the whole approach and the tail of the ADF needle is 100. To correct back to course the aircraft should:

1. Turn right to a heading greater than 090 but less than 100
2. Turn right to a heading greater than 100 degrees
3. Turn left to a heading less than 090
4. Maintain a heading of 090 degrees

Answer 172

Turn left to a heading less than 090

Question 173

What are the lowest authorized ILS minimums with all required ground and airborne components operative for a cat 1 approach?

1. DH 50 feet, RVR 600
2. DH 100 feet, RVR 1200
3. DH 200 feet, RVR 1800
4. Both DH and RVR are dependent upon the operator

Answer 173

DH 200 feet, RVR 1800

Question 174

You are flying at 180 knots in a no-wind condition on the 15 DME arc and are approaching the VOR final approach course. Your computed lead point for turn onto final will be approximately:

1. 1-3 degrees
2. 4-7 degrees
3. 8-11 degrees
4. 12-15 degrees

Answer 174

4-7 degrees

Question 175

You are approaching airport XYZ in a twin engine turbojet aircraft preparing for a straight in visual approach. Airport XYZ’s field elevation is 300 MSL and you are currently at 3900 MSL. Your approach speed will be 140 knots. At what distance from the airport would you begin your descent to be on a 3 degree glideslope and what rate of descent would you be using?

1. 11 sm and 700 fpm
2. 12 sm and 700 fpm
3. 13 sm and 1400 fpm
4. Not enough information to answer the question

Answer 175

12 sm and 700 fpm

Question 176

Your aircraft is considered on final approach segment for runway 9R when the aircraft is:

1. On LoC and GS regardless of altitude
2. On LoC and GS and cleared for the approach
3. On LoC and GS at or below the published glideslope intercept altitude
4. Inside the middle marker

Answer 176

On LOC and GS at or below the published glideslope intercept altitude

Question 177

You are hand flying the aircraft with the autopilot and auto throttles off at FL250 and a speed of 290 knots. ATC clears you to descend to 15,000 feet, you are in no hurry to descend. What should you do?

1. Reduce power, lower the nose to maintain 290 knots at approximately 1000 fpm, adjust power as necessary
2. Reduce power to idle, lower the nose to maintain 290 knots
3. Leave the power set where it’s at, extend the speed brakes and lower the nose to maintain 290 knots
4. Reduce power, lower the nose to descend at approximately 1000 fpm use speed brakes as necessary to maintain 290 knots

Answer 177

Reduce power, lower the nose to maintain 290 knots at approximately 1000 fpm adjust power as necessary

Question 178

You are flying at 10,000 feet and 250 knots and the pitot tube becomes blocked by ice. What changes would you expect to see in your airspeed indicator and altimeter as you slow to 200 knots?

1. No change to indicated airspeed, altimeter would decrease
2. No change in indicated airspeed, no change to altimeter
3. No change to indicated airspeed, altimeter would increase
4. Indicated airspeed would decrease, no change in altimeter

Answer 178

No change to indicated airspeed, no change to altimeter

Question 179

You are on the 270 degree radial of the XYZ VOR at 60 DME. Your instructions are to fly to 60 DmE arc of the XYZ VOR until intercepting the 300 degree radial. The time is now 1800z and your speed is .6 Mach. Assuming no wind, when will you reach the 300 degree radial?

1. 1805Z
2. 18010Z
3. 1815Z
4. 1820Z

Answer 179

1805Z

Question 180

You are at the PORKY intersection (ABC 090/20 DME) and are cleared to the PIgGY intersection (ABC 190/60 DME). Under a no wind condition an initial heading for PIGGY would be a turn of:

1. 175
2. 190
3. 210
4. 360

Answer 180

210

Question 181

Refer to 2626-7 figure. Runway airing point markings are typically:

1. 500 feet from the threshold
2. 1000 feet from the threshold
3. 1500 feet from the threshold
4. Dependent upon the length of the runway

Answer 181

1000 feet from the threshold

Question 182

Refer to figure 2626-7. The distance between the touchdown zone markings are:

1. 500 feet
2. 1000 feet
3. 1500 feet
4. Dependent on the length of the runway

Answer 182

500 feet

Question 183

As you cross the ATL VORTAC at FL360 approximately what DME would you expect to see indicated?

1. 0 DME
2. 3.6 DME
3. 6.0 DME
4. 7.5 DME

Answer 183

6.0 DME

Question 184

Arcing to the left around the ATL VORTAC you have a strong crosswind from the right. Where would you keep the bearing pointer relative to the 090 degree position (i.e. On the wingtip) to maintain assigned DME?

1. Make no correction as the winds will average out
2. Keep the beating pointer above the wingtip reference
3. Leave the bearing pointer on the wingtip
4. Keep the bearing pointer below the wingtip reference

Answer 184

Keep the bearing pointer below the wingtip reference

Question 185

Inertial navigation system accuracy in flight:

1. Remains constant with time
2. Degrades with time
3. Becomes more accurate with time
4. Is not affected by time

Answer 185

Degrades with time

Question 186

The only GPS installed on the aircraft is inoperative. How would you expect this to affect the inertial navigation system?

1. INS will be inoperative since GPS is its primary reference
2. iNS is self contained and will continue to operate
3. INS will continue to operate because VOR/DME is its primary reference
4. iNS will continue to operate if the radar receiver is available for ground speed

Answer 186

INS is self contained and will continue to operate

Question 187

Your aircraft is GPS equipped and IFR certified. Are you authorized to fly RNAV clearances?

1. Yes
2. Yes only if INS is available as well
3. Yes only if VOR/DME updates are available
4. No

Answer 187

Yes

Question 188

You departed LAX where the temperature was 15 degrees C and land in Albuquerque where the temperature is 15 degrees C. What’s the anticipated effect on aircraft performance if the takeoff weight remains the same?

1. Even though the elevation and pressure altitude are higher, the temperature remained the same so there is no effect on the Ircraft performance
2. Based on a standard lapse rate the temperature is higher than normal in Albuquerque therefore the increase in density altitude will have an adverse effect on aircraft performance
3. Based on a standard lapse rate the temperature is higher than normal in Albuquerque therefore there will be no effect on pressure altitude and therefore no effect on aircraft performance
4. Since density altitude is inversely proportional to temperature and pressure altitude aircraft performance will increase

Answer 188

2. Based on a standard lapse rate the temperature is higher than normal in Albuquerque therefore the increase in density altitude will have an adverse effect on aircraft performance

Question 189

On a hot day, the indicated airspeed or IAS:

1. Equates to a higher TAS when compared to a cold day
2. Equates to a lower TAS when compared to a cold day
3. Equates to a higher CAS when compared to a cold day
4. Equates to a lower CAS when compared to a cold day

Answer 189

1. Equates to a higher TAS when compared to a cold day

Question 190

On a cold day the indicated airspeed:

1. Equates to a higher TAS when compared to a hot day
2. Equates to a lower TAS when compared to a hot day
3. Equates to a higher CAS when compared to a hot day
4. Equates to a lower CAS when compared to a hot day

Answer 190

Equates to a lower TAS when compared to a hot day

Question 191

You are entering a constant airspeed level 45 degree banked steep turn to the left. What should you do?

1. You must increase pitch to overcome the loss of lift to maintain altitude and add power due to increased induced drag to maintain airspeed
2. You only need to increase power to compensate for the increased induced drag to maintain your altitude and airspeed
3. A strong tailwind will negate the need for additional power to maintain your airspeed and only a slight increase in pitch will be necessary to maintain altitude
4. You must increase your pitch slightly and therefore increase your angle of attack to maintain altitude and reduce power to compensate for the reduction of induced drag

Answer 191

You must increase pitch to overcome the loss of lift to maintain altitude and add power due to increased induced drag to maintain airspeed

Question 192

You are level at 10,000 feet with an airspeed of 309 knots. ATC directs you to slow to 250 knots. What best describes the controls and forces at work as you slow down and maintain your altitude?

1. As airspeed is decreased the pitch must increase to increase the angle of attack to compensate for the loss of lift
2. As airspeed is decreased the pitch must decrease to increase the angle of attack to compensate for the reduced thrust setting
3. As airspeed is decreased the angle of attack must decrease while applying upward trim to maintain your altitude
4. As the airplane slows the back pressure is applied the tail lowers and the nose rises effectively reducing the angle of attack to maintain altitude

Answer 192

As airspeed is decreased the pitch must increase to increase the angle of attack to compensate for the loss of lift

Question 193

When a larger aircraft is departing ahead of you, ensure:

1. Landing or takeoff rotation is completed prior to the larger airplanes point of rotation
2. Landing or takeoff rotation is completed beyond the larger airplanes point of rotation
3. Takeoff rotation is completed prior to but landing is beyond the larger Airplanes point of rotation
4. Landing is completed prior to but takeoff rotation is beyond the larger airplanes point of rotation

Answer 193

Landing or takeoff rotation is completed prior to the larger airplanes point of rotation

Question 194

You are on a 15 NM final to a visual approach to runway 16L at kSLC TDZE 5200 feet. Your altitude is 7,000 feet. How far from the end of the runway would you begin a descent to maintain a 3 degree glideslope?

1. 5nm
2. 6nm
3. 7nm
4. 8nm

Answer 194

6nm

Question 195

While 100 DME south of the vor at FL360 you receive a clearance to cross 10 DME north of the VOR at 10k’. Assuming no wind at what DME would you begin a descent from 360 to maintain a 3 degree slope?

1. 58 DME
2. 68 DME
3. 78 DME
4. 95 DME

Answer 195

68 DME

Question 196

You are on final approach to runway 27 at an airport that is at sea level on a standard day. Your indicated airspeed is 140 knots. The winds are reported to be 270/20. What would your rate of descent by if the glideslope is 3 degrees?

1. 500fpm
2. 600 fpm
3. 700 fpm
4. 800 fpm

Answer 196

600 fpm

Question 197

You are flying a two engine jet aircraft that slows in level flight at 10 knots/mile and has a final approach speed of 130 knots. At what minimum distance from the runway should you start slowing and configuring the aircraft when you are 1500 ft AGL and clean speed of 230 knots? Assume you do not want to lower the gear early because of noise:

1. 7 nm
2. 15 nm
3. 23 nm
4. 30 nm

Answer 197

15 nm

Question 198

How are winds reported?

1. En route winds received from a forecaster are TRUE winds while surface winds received from ATC are magnetic
2. En route winds received from a forecaster are magnetic while surface winds are true
3. En route winds received from a forecaster and surface winds received from ATC are magnetic
4. En route winds received from a forecaster and surface winds are both true winds

Answer 198

Encountered winds received from a forecaster are true winds while surface winds from ATC Are magnetic winds

Question 199

You are attempting to track inbound on the EWO 090 radial. Forecast winds for your flight level are 360/20, your CDI indicates one dot left of course with a to flag displayed and your distance to the station is 30 miles. From the answers below what should you initially do to correctly track your course?

1. Turn to heading 300 until the needle centers then turn to heading 285 to see if this holds you on course
2. Turn to heading 240 until the needle centers then turn to a heading 255 to see if this holds you on course
3. Turn to heading 250 until the needle centers then turn to heading 270 to see if this holds you on course
4. Turn to heading 290 until the needle centers then turn to a heading 270 to see if this holds you on course

Answer 199

Turn to heading 300 until the needle centers then turn to heading 285 to see if this holds you on course

Question 200

You are flying with a heading of 090 degrees and establish your track is 100 degrees. Select the best answer from below:

1. Your track angle error is 10 degrees south
2. Your cross track distance is 10 degrees south
3. Your drift angle is 10 degrees south
4. Your wind drift correction is 10 degrees south

Answer 200

Your drift angle is 10 degrees south

Question 201

Delta 123 is 100 DME north of the VOR at FL330, cleared pilots discretion to FL240, cross 20 DME North of the VOR at 12,000 feet. Which strategy is best?

1. Fly at max range cruise speed. Descend immediately to FL240 then remain at 240 as long as possible before beginning descent to 12,000 feet using best forward speed
2. Plan descent using max range cruise speed remain at FL330 until a direct descent to 12,000 feet can be maintained
3. Remain at 330 as long as possible at max range cruise speed then descend at best forward airspeed to maximize time at cruise altitude
4. Descend immediately at a rate that will allow a constant descent to arrive at 12,000 feet at 20 DME north of the VOR taking advantage of the reduced power setting for a longer period of time

Answer 201

Plan descent using max range cruise speed remain at 330 until a direct descent to 12,000 feet can be maintained

Question 202

While at FL350 on the 180 radial inbound to the VOR you receive a clearance to cross 25 DME south of the VOR at 10,000 feet. At what DME should you begin a descent in order to maintain a three degree vertical path?

1. 50 DME
2. 75 DME
3. 100 DME
4. 125 DME

Answer 202

100 DME

Question 203

What are the characteristics of an increasing tailwind shear?

1. KIAS increases, ground speed decreases
2. KIAS decreases, ground speed increases
3. KIAS increases, ground speed increases
4. KIAS decreases, ground speed decreases

Answer 203

KIAS decreases, ground speed increases

Question 204

You are flying a stabilized approach at 150 knots on glide path. Without changing pitch or power you start going high on glide path and your airspeed changes to 160’knots. What condition have you encountered?

1. Wind gust
2. Increasing headwind shear
3. Increasing tailwind shear
4. Pitot static malfunction

Answer 204

Increasing headwind shear

Question 205

Your present position to XYZ 180 radial at 74 DME at FL370. You are cleared to cross 30 DME north of the VOR on the 360 radial at 11,000 feet. Assuming TAS of 420 knots and wind 180/60, the required descent rate would be approximately:

1. 1700 fpm
2. 2000 fpm
3. 4000 fpm
4. 5000 fpm

Answer 205

2000 fpm

Question 206

In a no wind situation what VSI is required to descend 12,000 feet in 20 NM at .7 Mach?

1. 3400 fpm
2. 3800 fpm
3. 4200 fpm
4. 4600 fpm

Answer 206

3. 4200 fpm

Question 207

You are inbound to KXYZ at FL240 at .5 Mach. You are 100 DME east of the XYZ VOR and center has just cleared you to cross 30 DME east of the XYZ VOR at 10,000 feet. Assume a no wind situation. When should you start your descent using a 3 degree descent?

1. 58 DME from the VOR
2. 62 DME from the VOR
3. 72 DME from the VOR
4. 82 DME from the VOR

Answer 207

72 DME from the VOR

14,000 feet x 3 degree = 42 nm + 30

Question 208

You can stay at FL 300 with calm winds or climb to FL340 with a 30 knot tailwind. You are limited operationally to .8 Mach at either altitude. What altitude should you fly to make it to your destination?

1. Stay at FL300 because the hire true airspeed will have an adverse effect on your endurance
2. Climb to FL340 to take advantage of the higher ground speed
3. Climb to FL340 to take advantage of the better endurance
4. Stay at FL300 to take advantage of the higher ground speed

Answer 208

Climb to FL340 to take advantage of the higher ground speed

Question 209

The best technique for dealing with wind shear is to:

1. Carry additional airspeed on approach
2. Avoid areas of known windshear
3. Utilize visual cues to anticipate windshear conditions
4. Issue pirep if windshear conditions are encountered

Answer 209

Avoid areas of known windshear

Question 210

You are on final approach into Memphis runway 27. ATC advises you after clearance to land that RWY 27 windshear alert, 20 knot loss 3 miles final, threshold wind 200/15. What is ATC advising?

1. To execute a missed approach
2. On about a 3 mile final you can expect windshear conditions with decreasing winds and turbulence
3. Upon landing you can expect a shift to a 7 knot tailwind
4. You should expect turbulence throughout the approach with 5 knot gusts

Answer 210

On about an mile final you can expect a windshear condition with decreasing winds and turbulence

Question 211

You are on final approach to PHX with isolated storms reported in the area. Which would cause the most concern and why?

1. Light rain with benign appearing Virga due to the potential for turbulence and passenger comfort
2. Light rain with benign appearing Virga and lenticular cloud formations due to the possibility of down drafts
3. Light rain with benign Virga appearing and rings of blowing dust due to the possibility of a dust storm
4. Light rain with benign Virga appearing and rings of blowing dust due to the possibility of microburst activity

Answer 211

Light rain with benign Virga appearing and rings of blowing dust due to the possibility of microburst activity

Question 212

You are on a 10 mile final approach to landing with isolated thunderstorms and rain showers in the vicinity. Winds are gusting to 15 knots and the last terminal Doppler weather radar (TDWR) report of windshear was 45 minutes ago. What action should you take?

1. The last TDWR was long enough ago for the wind shear to have dissipated and since you can expect timely warnings proceed normally
2. Even though TDWR gives effective coverage to 12 miles on final and 8 miles on departure wind shear is a possibility with the current conditions and you should take wind shear precautions
3. There are not enough signs to be concerned with windshear and you should proceed with normal operations
4. Conditions warrant taking wind shear precautions

Answer 212

Conditions warrant taking wind Shear precautions

Question 213

You are established on an 8 mile final to runway 27 when tower broadcasts: “RWY 27 arrival, microburst alert, 35 KT loss 2 mile final, threshold wind 250/20.

1. You should continue the approach since by the time you reach a 2 mile final the microburst may have dissipated
2. You should continue the approach and be ready to apply go around procedures should you encounter a microburst
3. You should go around
4. You should continue the approach increase airspeed as necessary and be ready to apply go around procedures should you encounter a microburst

Answer 213

3. You should go around

Question 214

You are executing the visual RWY31 approach to land at Laguardia. The current weather is 3,000 feet overcast vis 5 miles, winds 020/15, 29.92 w/ runway length 7,003. Several aircraft have reported braking action as fair and your aircraft has a 10 knot crosswind limit with reported poor. The aircraft just in front reports braking of poor, you should:

1. Continue to land
2. Use the fair reported braking action reports of the previous aircraft and continue to land
3. Have your copilot calculate the wind component using the operational data manual and if less than a 10 knot cross wind continue to land
4. Go around

Answer 214

Go around

Question 215

You are at cruise approaching your FMS depicted top of descent point when you realize you forgot to program an expected headwind into the FMS computer. Your actual top of descent:

1. Closer to you than depicted by FMS
2. Further from you than depicted by FMS
3. The same
4. Cannot be determined from the information

Answer 215

2. Further from you than depicted by FMS

Question 216

Assume the airplane you are flying remains at a constant indicated altitude and power setting. If the outside air temperature increases the true airspeed will:

1. Decrease, the true altitude will increase
2. Increase, the true altitude will decrease
3. Increase, the true altitude will increase
4. Decrease, the true altitude will decrease

Answer 216

Increase, the true altitude will increase

Question 217

You are flying a twin engine turbo jet aircraft and cruising at FL280 at 320 knots. Your clearance is to cross XYZ at 10,000 and 250 knots. When do you start your descent?

1. 36 sm
2. 50 sm
3. 54 sm
4. 61 sm

Answer 217

61

18x3+7 miles to slow down

Question 218

An aircraft has a TAS of 480 knots flying eastbound with a 100 knot tailwind. How long will it take to fly 870 nm?

1. 82 mins
2. 90 mins
3. 109 mins
4. 137 mins

Answer 218

90 mins

580 ground speed

870-580 =290 which is half (30mins)

Question 219

For a constant Mach number as aircraft altitude increases:

1. True airspeed and angle of attack increase while indicated airspeed decreases
2. True airspeed increases while angle of attack and indicated airspeed decrease
3. True airspeed and indicated airspeed decrease while angle of attack increases
4. True airspeed , AoA and indicated airspeed decrease

Answer 219

True airspeed and indicated airspeed decrease while angle of attack increases

Question 220

Unless required by cloud clearance criteria a turbine powered aircraft operating in class D airspace must enter a traffic pattern altitude at what minimum altitude until descent is required for safe landing?

1. Faf altitude for the instrument approach to landing runway
2. 1500 AGL
3. 1500 AFE
4. 1500 MSL

Answer 220

1500 AFE

Question 221

In which conditions should you adjust your decision height or minimum descent altitude?

1. Significantly colder than standard temperature
2. Significantly warmer than standard temperature
3. At high density altitudes
4. At low altimeter settings

Answer 221

Significantly colder than standard temperatures

Question 222

If you misread the current barometric pressure and set the altimeter at 29.85 instead of 29.35 how will your true altitude be affected?

1. The aircraft will be 50 feet lower than indicated
2. The aircraft will be 500 feet lower than indicated
3. The aircraft will be 50 feet higher than indicated
4. The aircraft will be 500 feet higher than indicated

Answer 222

The aircraft will be 500 feet lower than indicated

Question 223

If the outside temperature increases at a constant altitude the true airspeed indication will:

1. Remain constant
2. Increase
3. Decrease
4. Be erratic

Answer 223

Increase

Question 224

When ATC has not used the term at pilots discretion nor imposed any restrictions pilots should initiate a descent promptly:

1. Descend at least 1000 fpm until 1000 feet above your level off altitude and then at 500-1000 fpm until level. If unable to descend at least 500 fpm advise ATC
2. Descend at least 1500 fpm until 1000 feet above your level off altitude and then at 500-1000 fpm to level.
3. Descend at an optimum rate until 1000 feet above your level off altitude and then 1500-500 fpm until level. If unable to descend at least 500 fpm advise ATC.
4. Descend and level off normally in accordance with the aircraft operations manual. If unable to descend at least 500 fpm advise ATC.

Answer 224

Descend at an optimum rate until 1000 fpm above your level off altitude and then at 1500-500 fpm until level. Advise ATC if you are unable to descend at 500 fpm

Question 225

You are taking off from MIA at 2300L and it takes 4.5 hrs to fly to LAX where you arrive at 0730Z. What was the Z time when you left MIA and the L time when you arrive in LAX?

1. 0300Z, 0330L
2. 0200Z, 0130L
3. 0400Z, 0030L
4. 0300Z, 0030L

Answer 225

0300Z, 0030L

Question 226

Is is 0215L MEM time with a plus 5 hour Z conversion. You have a 3+15 flight today and must not arrive earlier than 1145Z at your destination due to curfew restrictions. What is the earliest you can takeoff MEM local time?

1. 0315
2. 0330
3. 0345
4. 0430

Answer 226

0330

Question 227

The GPS constellation consists of 24 satellites of which 21 are operational at any one time. How many are required to accurately determine an aircraft’s position?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answer 227

4

Question 228

You are tracking inbound to the XYZ VOR on the 090 radial. Your clearance is to depart the VOR on the 060 radial outbound, after crossing the station the head of the VOR needle reads 090 degrees. What heading should you fly to correct to the desired radial?

1. Fly a heading of 040 until needle reads 240
2. Fly a heading of 080 until needle reads 240
3. Fly a heading of 220 until needle reads 060
4. Fly a heading of 280 until needle reads 060

Answer 228

Fly a heading of 040 until the head of the needle reads 240 degrees?

Question 229

You are located on the 270 degree radial at 20 DME on the XYZ VOR. You have been cleared to fly the 20 DME arc counterclockwise until intercepting the 180 degree radial and then fly the 180 degree radial to the VOR. How would you proceed initially?

1. Fly a heading of 180 degrees until tail of VOR reads 260
2. Fly a heading of 180 degrees until tail of VOR reads 280
3. Fly a heading of 360 degrees until tail of VOR reads 080
4. Fly a heading of 360 degrees until tail of VOR reads 100

Answer 229

Fly a heading of 180 degrees until the tail of the VOR needle reads approximately 260 degrees. Then turn left to a new heading of 160 degrees. Monitor DME

Question 230

Shortly after station passage heading 180 degrees and on the 173 degree radial you desire to intercept the 138 course. The initial heading would be:

1. 80
2. 105
3. 138
4. 145

Answer 230

105

Question 231

All of the following are correct concerning declaring emergency fuel except?

1. The fuel condition upon arrival at destination warrants limited delays
2. The pilot is declaring an emergency condition
3. The aircraft fuel state is at a point where an imminent landing is required
4. ATC should provide priority handling

Answer 231

1. The fuel condition upon arrival at destination warrants limited delays

Question 232

Your departure airport is located at N34.15W108.20 and your destination airport is located at N38.25W108.22 what is the GPS direct distance?

1. 185 nm
2. 225 nm
3. 255 nm
4. 305 nm

Answer 232

3. 255 nm

Question 233

You see an aircraft on the horizon at a constant bearing. Checking your Tcas you note decreasing range, this aircraft is:

1. On a collision course
2. On a parallel course
3. On a diverging course
4. On a random course

Answer 233

On a collision course

Question 234

What is RAIM?

1. A system to verify a vor’s service volume
2. A system to monitor the integrity of localizers
3. A system to monitor the integrity of GPS signal
4. A system to verify a VOR azimuth broadcast

Answer 234

A system to monitor the integrity of GPS signal

Question 235

In regards to GPS navigation, if significant course difference between navigation charts and the navigation database error:

1. It is only acceptable in class ll airspace, outside operational an aid service volumes
2. It is not a problem since significant differences are typical due to great circle computations and magnetic variation
3. File a report with your local fsdo with the position of occurrence
4. Published charts and notams hold precedence

Answer 235

4. Published charts and notams hold precedence

Question 236

There are several potential advantages of RNAV routes and procedures. Time and fuel savings and:

1. Reduce non-precision approach minimums
2. Reduced dependence on radar vectoring, altitude and speed assignments
3. Reduce aircraft separation requirements in the terminal area
4. Reduce the workload of the pilot

Answer 236

Reduced dependence on radar vectoring altitude and speed assignments

Question 237

Which statement is true regarding straight in approaches?

1. A localizer is reliable to 22 DME and 10 degrees either side of center
2. An LDA approach is required to be published if the course alignment is greater than 35 degrees
3. A circling approach is required to be published if the course alignment is greater than 30 degrees
4. An SDF approach is more accurate than an LDA approach

Answer 237

3. A circling approach is required to be published if the course alignment is greater than 30 degrees

Question 238

On an ILS approach the localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of:

1. 15 nm
2. 18 nm
3. 20 nm
4. As published

Answer 238

18 nm

Question 239

The glideslope is normally usable to a distance of:

1. 10 nm
2. 15 nm
3. 18 nm
4. As published

Answer 239

10 nm

Question 240

The to/from indicator shows:

1. Whether you will home to or from the station after intercepting the selected course
2. Whether your heading will take you to or from the station
3. Whether the selected course if intercepted will take you to or from the station
4. Whether the selected course requires a crosswind correction to take you to or from the course

Answer 240

Whether the selected course if intercepted will take you to or from the station

Question 241

The standard service volume of a VOR on a published jet route:

1. Ssv does not apply to a published IFR route
2. 150 DME from FL450 - 600
3. 130 DME from FL180 - 450
4. Unrestricted navaids do not have a usable ssv

Answer 241

Ssv does not apply to a published IFR route

Question 242

An aircraft is established on an ILS approach, with respect to marker beacons:

1. Receiver sensitivity selection if installed should be set on high for all approaches
2. Receiver sensitivity selection if installed should be on high for cat 1 approaches and low for cat 2 and cat 3 approaches
3. Receiver sensitivity selection if installed should be set on low for all approaches
4. The middle marker is identified by a blue marker light

Answer 242

Receiver sensitivity selection if installed should be set on low for all approaches

Question 243

A HIwAS enroute radio facility:

1. Is high altitude inflight watch advisory service and is capable of two way communications
2. Is hazardous in flight weather advisory service and is capable of only one way communication
3. Is high altitude inflight watch advisory service and is capable of only one way communication
4. Is hazardous inflight weather advisory service and is capable of two way communications

Answer 243

Is hazardous inflight weather advisory service and is capable of only one way communication

Question 244

A change in pressure altitude of 0.10 inches of Hg will change your altimeter setting by:

1. 1 ft
2. 10 ft
3. 100 ft
4. 1000 ft

Answer 244

100 feet

Question 245

While flying in a mountainous area you are given a clearance to descend to 8000 feet. The published grid MORA for the area is 12,000 ft.

1. This is not a legal clearance and should be refused
2. The controllers have ultimate authority of their airspace, descend to 8,000 ft
3. This is a legal clearance if you are on a published airway, but if you are more than 4 nm off the airway it is not a legal clearance
4. Confirm clearance altitude with ATC if unsure and descend when certain of ground elevations

Answer 245

Confirm clearance altitude with ATC if unsure and descend when certain of ground elevations

Question 246

On approach to runway 10 in ATL (class B airspace) you receive the following clearance: “cleared for visual approach runway 10. What cloud clearance and visibility must you maintain to the runway in order to comply with the clearance?

1. 3 mi vis, 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft hor
2. 5 mi vis, 1000 ft below, 1000 ft above, 1 mi horiz
3. adequate vis, 100 ft below, 1000 ft above, 1 mi horiz
4. adequate vis, clear of clouds

Answer 246

4. adequate vis, clear of clouds

Question 247

Which statement is true regarding transition altitude?

1. Trans altitude is the altitude where you transition from QNE to QNH and transition level is the flight level where you transition from QNH to QNE.
2. Trans altitude is the altitude where you transition from mach to IAS and trans level is the flight level where you transition from IAS to mach
3. Trans altitude is the altitude where you transition from QNH to QNE and trans level is where you transition from QNE to QNH
4. Trans altitude is the altitude where you transition from IAS to mach and trans level is the flight level where you transition from mach to IAS

Answer 247

3. Trans altitude is the altitude where you transition from QNH to QNE and trans level is where you transition from QNE to QNH

Question 248

Most large commercial aircraft use the following for inflight wing and engine anti-icing:

1. Electricity
2. Hydraulics
3. Pneumatics
4. Hot Water

Answer 248

3. Pneumatics

Question 249

If your desired course is 045T and the magnetic variation is 15 East what compass course would you fly?

1. 045
2. 060
3. 030
4. 015

Answer 249

030

Question 250

While on final approach at 6NM from the end of the runway you aircraft is displaced from the localizer by one degree right of course. What is your actual displacement from the runway centerline?

1. 0 nm
2. 1 nm
3. 0.1nm
4. 1000 feet

Answer 250

0.1 nm

Question 251

Airport and terrain elevation are stated in:

1. AGL
2. Pressure altitude
3. MSL
4. Calibrated altitude

Answer 251

MSL

Question 252

What is the difference between RNP and ANP?

1. They are the same
2. RNP is an airspace requirement, ANP is the aircrafts adherence to that requirement
3. ANP is an airspace requirement, RNP is the aircrafts adherence to that requirement
4. RNP is an aircraft certification issue. ANP is not related to RNP

Answer 252

2. RNP is an airspace requirement, ANP is the aircrafts adherence to that requirement

Question 253

You are operating in an oceanic area that requires RNP 4. You notice that your ANP indicates 0.4. What is your best course of action?

1. You must request a new clearance from the oceanic control agency as you are no longer able to meet the airspace requirements of RNP 4
2. You must divert to your ETOPS alternate
3. You must divert to you ETOPS alternate
4. No change, everything is fine with your navigation equipment

Answer 253

4. No change, everything is fine with your navigation equipment

Question 254

What is one potential disadvantage of an INS/IRU system?

1. Gyroscopic wander
2. Map shifts
3. Not a global system
4. Gyroscopic precession

Answer 254

2. Map shifts

Question 255

Your bearing from the VOR station is 210 degrees. Your heading is 090 degrees. Assuming no wind, what heading will take you to the station?

1. 010
2. 030
3. 210
4. 270

Answer 255

2. 030

Question 256

You are tracking outbound on the 175 degree radial at 10 DME at 200 knots groundspeed, At what DME and in what direction would you start your turn to arc north on the 15 DME arc?

1. 13 DME, left turn
2. 13 DME, right turn
3. 12 DME, left turn
4. 14 DME, right turn

Answer 256

1. 13 DME, left turn

Question 257

The automatic pressurization system on your aircraft is inoperative. Manual pressurization is require. What action is required to achieve a constant cabin altitude?

1. As engine thrust is increased the outflow valve will need to be opened proportionally
2. As engine thrust is increased the outflow valve will need to be closed proportionally
3. As the aircraft descends at a constant power setting the outflow valve will need to be closed proportionally
4. As the aircraft descends the thrust will need to be reduced proportionally

Answer 257

1. As engine thrust is increased the outflow valve will need to be opened proportionally

Question 258

During a rapid decompression at FL350 what statement is most true about a pilot’s time of useful consciousness (TOC)?

1. TOC is not affected by altitude
2. TOC is approximately 10 minutes
3. TOC is approximately 5 minutes
4. TOC is approximately 1 minute

Answer 258

4. TOC is approximately 1 minute

Question 259

Your initial approach will require a descent through 8,000 feet of reported icing conditions. You are flying a multi-engine commercial jet with engine anti-icing capabilities. Which of the following is the most effective way to ensure proper aircraft performance in icing conditions?

1. Wait until the ice is visible on the aircraft surfaces before using the engine anti-ice system
2. increase descent rate through icing altitude thereby eliminating need for anti-icing the aircraft
3. Activate anti-icing systems prior to encountering the icing conditions
4. Activate anti-icing system when first encountering icing conditions

Answer 259

3. Activate anti-icing systems prior to encountering the icing conditions

Question 260

At FL350 you have an electrical loss causing failure of your pitot heat system. On descent through icing you should expect:

1. Airspeed indications to be unreliable
2. vertical speed indicator to read abnormal
3. airspeed indications to remain constant
4. airspeed indications to read zero

Answer 260

1. Airspeed indications to be unreliable

Question 261

After a pressurization loss accompanied by a descent an aircraft levels off at 9,000 feet. The cabin altitude is stead at 9,000 feet, the cabin rate of climb is zero and the cabin differential pressure is zero. These readings indicate:

1. You are still losing cabin pressure
2. You still have no control of the cabin pressure
3. You have regained total control of the cabin px
4. The outflow valve has closed and you are regaining control of the cabin px

Answer 261

2. You still have no control of the cabin pressure

Question 262

While cruising at FL370 you encounter unidentified smoke in the cabin and are required to ventilate the aircraft expeditiously The best way to facilitate smoke removal is by:

1. Decreasing cabin differential
2. Increasing cabin differential
3. Maintaining low power setting to increase pressure differential
4. Maintain current cabin differential by opening outflow valve

Answer 262

1. Decreasing cabin differential

Question 263

If you had to choose one of the following altitudes to fly which would it be and why?

1. The MRA because it identifies the altitude at which course reception is guaranteed and provides obstacle clearance
2. The MOCA because it provides obstruction clearance and guarantees signal reception
3. The MORA because it provides obstacle clearance and navigation reception w/n 22 miles of course centerline
4. The MEA as it ensures navigation signal strength and obstacle clearance

Answer 263

4. The MEA as it ensures navigation signal strength and obstacle clearance

Question 264

The symbol LTS in the CAT 1 minimums box indicates:

1. lower than standard vis
2. Localizer threshold signal
3. landing threshold suitable
4. Longer touchdown slope

Answer 264

1. lower than standard vis

Question 265

Refer to figure 5245. 1290 as depicted on the chart represents what?

1. Final check altitude
2. Glideslope crossing altitude for ILS approach
3. Final approach fix for LOC only approach
4. Final approach fix crossing altitude for ILS approach

Answer 265

1. Final check altitude

Question 266

Refer to figure 5248. PDC in the com frequencies section of the airport ground chart indicate?

1. Pre Departure Clearance is available
2. Positive data-link control is available
3. Pre Departure Contamination Check is available
4. Pilot Data-link Control is available

Answer 266

1. Pre Departure Clearance is available

Question 267

Alert height is:

1. A height that is the transition altitude to switch between reported and standard altimeter settings when flying in metric airspace.
2. Same as an Decision Height
3. A height that will alert the crew when the aircraft is approaching its level off altitude, typically 1000’.
4. A height above the runway based on the characteristics of the aircraft and its fail-operational landing system.

Answer 267

4. A height above the runway based on the characteristics of the aircraft and its fail-operational landing system.

Question 268

What might be the cause of a hung start?

1. An insufficient starting source or fuel control malfunction.
2. Adding fuel before the engine reaches the proper speed.
3. Failure of the start valve to close.
4. Excessively high starting fuel flow.

Answer 268

1. An insufficient starting source or fuel control malfunction

Question 269

A fowler flap:

1. Is a simple hinged portion of the trailing edge.
2. Is a plate deflected from the lower surface of an airfoil.
3. Moves away from the wing to open a narrow slot between the flap and the wing.
4. Moves down increasing the camber and aft causing a significant increase in the wing area.

Answer 269

4. Moves down increasing the camber and aft causing a significant increase in the wing area.

Question 270

What is the primary result of using fowler flaps?

1. Decreasing the stall speed while decreasing drag
2. Increasing the stall speed while decreasing drag
3. Increasing the stall speed while increasing drag
4. Decreasing the stall speed while increasing drag

Answer 270

4. Decreasing the stall speed while increasing drag

Question 271

What are some significant considerations during an All Flaps/Slats UP landing?

1. Higher approach speeds and increased tail clearance on landing
2. Higher approach speeds and decreased tail clearance on landing
3. Lower approach speeds and increased tail clearance on landing
4. Lower approach speeds and decreased tail clearance on landing

Answer 271

2. Higher approach speeds and decreased tail clearance on landing

Question 272

During the take-off roll you unknowingly rupture a right main landing gear tire. What will the effect be on the aircraft during the landing roll?

1. The aircraft will initially yaw to the left and landing distance will be decreased.
2. The aircraft will initially yaw to the right and landing distance will be decreased
3. The aircraft will initially yaw to the left and landing distance will be increased.
4. The aircraft will initially yaw to the right and landing distance will be increased.

Answer 272

4. The aircraft will initially yaw to the right and landing distance will be increased.

Question 273

What is the start sequence?

1. Start valve opens, RPM increases, oil pressure increase, fuel flow, EGT rise, start valve closes
2. Start valve opens, oil pressure increase, RPM increase, fuel flow, EGT rise, start valve closes
3. Start valve opens, RPM increase, oil pressure increase, EGT rise, fuel flow, start valve closes
4. Start valve closes, RPM increase, oil pressure increase, fuel flow, EGT rise, start valve opens

Answer 273

1. Start valve opens, RPM increases, oil pressure increase, fuel flow, EGT rise, start valve closes

Question 274

What is the proper sequence for starting a jet engine?

1. Engine rotation, fuel flow, ignition
2. Fuel flow, engine rotation, ignition
3. Engine rotation, ignition, fuel flow
4. Ignition, fuel flow, engine rotation

Answer 274

3. Engine rotation, ignition, fuel flow

Question 275

During an engine start you notice higher than normal EGT and RPM less than normal. This is most probably indication of a:

1. Hot Start
2. Engine surge
3. Hung Start
4. Tailpipe fire

Answer 275

3. Hung Start

Question 276

During the engine start sequence you notice the n1, n2, and fuel flow all have normal indications, but the engine still doesn’t start. This would be an indicator of an:

1. Hot start
2. Hung start
3. Fuel pump malfunction
4. Ignition failure

Answer 276

4. Ignition failure

Question 277

After the engine start sequence is complete you notice the EGT slowly rising and the n2 below normal idle speed. This would be an indication of an:

1. Hot start
2. Hung start
3. Fuel pump malfunction
4. Ignition failure

Answer 277

2. Hung start

Question 278

Runway status light system (RWSL) is a fully automated system that provides runway status information when it is unsafe to:

1. Land and hold short of a crossing runway
2. Take off or land on a runway
3. Enter or cross a runway
4. Enter, cross, takeoff or land on a runway

Answer 278

4. Enter, cross, takeoff or land on a runway

Question 279

ILS installations are highly sensitive and have very high reliability. What is a limitation, if any, associated with ILS facilities?

1. Interference from preceding aircraft causing erratic signals
2. Subject to atmospheric disturbances
3. Could provide reverse sensing in the front course
4. There are no limitations

Answer 279

1. Interference from preceding aircraft causing erratic signals

Question 280

ILS installations are highly sensitive and have very high reliability. What is a limitation, if any, associated with ILS facilities?

1. Subject to atmospheric disturbances
2. Possibility of false glideslope indications
3. Could provide reverse sensing in the front course
4. There are no limitations

Answer 280

2. Possibility of false glideslope indications

Question 281

While on approach to an airport at night the only vertical guidance available to your landing is a PAPI. Approaching the runway straight in at 20 miles you notice the PAPI indicates what is illustrated in figure 4768, what should you do with regards to using this vertical guidance?

1. Increase the rate of descent to achieve an on glide path indication
2. Disregard any vertical guidance the PAPI is providing
3. Go-around
4. Decrease rate of descent to achieve an on glide path indication

Answer 281

2. Disregard any vertical guidance the PAPI is providing

Question 282

During prolonged high altitude flight you notice the temperature of the fuel Jet A decreasing. At what fuel temperature does freezing become a concern?

1. -10 C
2. -20 C
3. -30 C
4. -40 C

Answer 282

4. -40 C

Question 283

Why is center tank fuel used before wing tank fuel?

1. Center tank fuel is not used before wing tank fuel
2. There is no proper sequence as long as fuel balance is maintained
3. To reduce wing root loading
4. To increase wing root loading

Answer 283

3. To reduce wing root loading

Question 284

Which of the following information about a modern day jet aircraft fuel system is not accurate?

1. Fuel is delivered to the engine driven fuel pumps from the fuel tanks by separate electrically driven fuel pumps
2. Fuel can gravity feed to the engines in the event of tank pump and engine driven pump failure at all phases of flight
3. Fuel can be balanced in flight from separate tanks through a fuel cross feed system or by using differential power.
4. Cool fuel is often used to dissipate the heat from the aircraft engine oil system

Answer 284

2. Fuel can gravity feed to the engines in the event of tank pump and engine driven pump failure at all phases of flight

Question 285

What is the service volume for a low altitude VOR?

1. 25 miles up to FL240
2. 40 miles up to FL240
3. 40 miles up to 18,000ft
4. 25 miles up to 18,000ft

Answer 285

3. 40 miles up to 18,000ft

Question 286

You are flying from LAX to JFK at FL350 using GPS as the primary navigation method. Your GPS fails and you will be forced to revert to VOR navigation. Your nearest VOR is 150 miles away, can this be used for reliable guidance?

1. Yes, because the service volume is good to 180 miles
2. Yes, because the service volume is good to 165 miles
3. Yes, because the service volume is good to 150 miles
4. No, because you are beyond the service volume

Answer 286

4. No, because you are beyond the service volume

Question 287

ATC asks for your position and your VOR/DME is tuned to MEM at DME 25 and the head of the VOR pointer is between the nose of the aircraft and the right wing pointing to 046. You read your position as:

1. 25 miles NW of MEM
2. 25 miles NE of MEM
3. 25 miles SE of MEM
4. 25 miles SW of MEM

Answer 287

4. 25 miles SW of MEM

Question 288

To fly a VOR/DME arc once established on the arc:

1. Maintain a constant 5 degree angle of bank to keep the RMI bearing pointer on the right wing tip
2. Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to move 5-10 degrees ahead of the wing tip then turn toward the facility to place the bearing pointer 5-10 degrees behind the wing tip.
3. Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to move 5-10 degrees behind the wing tip and then toward the facility to place the bearing pointer 5-10 degrees ahead of the wing tip
4. Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to move 5-10 degrees behind the wing tip and then turn away from the facility to place the bearing pointer 5-10 degrees ahead of the wing tip

Answer 288

3. Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to move 5-10 degrees behind the wing tip and then toward the facility to place the bearing pointer 5-10 degrees ahead of the wing tip

Question 289

Localizer service volumes are considered reliable within which of the following parameters:

1. 25 degrees out to 25 miles
2. 35 degrees out to 10 miles
3. 35 degrees out to 25 miles
4. 25 degrees out to 35 miles

Answer 289

2. 35 degrees out to 10 miles

Question 290

A three bar VASI provides two visual glidepaths to the same runway. Which of the following is correct statement concerning this airport visual aid?

1. The higher glidepath is normally 1/4 degree higher and intended for high cockpit aircraft
2. The lower glidepath is intended for aircraft with faster approach speed
3. The lower glidepath is provided by the middle bar and far bars
4. The two glideslopes provide a margin of error and it is acceptable to remain between the two glidepaths

Answer 290

1. The higher glidepath is normally 1/4 degree higher and intended for high cockpit aircraft

Question 291

If you are on a visual approach at 300 feet the TDZ and at a speed of 15 knots above the desired approach speed the best course of action would be to:

1. Reduce thrust and then increase pitch
2. Increase pitch and then reduce thrust
3. Reduce thrust and increase pitch simultaneously
4. Execute a go around

Answer 291

4. Execute a go around

Question 292

While on approach into MEM at 12,000 feet you observe an RA on your TCAS, what should you do?

1. Notify maintenance of your flight conditions upon landing
2. Notify ATC that your TCAS screen is inoperative
3. Follow the TCAS recommendation deviation even if VMC
4. If possible maintain VMC and land as soon as practicable

Answer 292

3. Follow the TCAS recommendation deviation even if VMC

Question 293

What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier units?

1. To take rotational power from the engine and no matter the engine speed turn the generator at a constant speed.
2. To reduce the voltage from 115 VAC, 400 Hz into 28 VDC
3. To change the current from DC to AC
4. To monitor voltage, frequency, over/under current and a differential fault

Answer 293

2. To reduce the voltage from 115 VAC, 400 Hz into 28 VDC

Question 294

What is the purpose of the Generator Control Unit?

1. To take rotational power from the engine and no matter the engine speed turn the generator at a constant speed.
2. To reduce the voltage from 115 VAC, 400 Hz into 28 VDC
3. To change the current from DC to AC
4. To monitor voltage, frequency, over/under current and a differential fault

Answer 294

4. To monitor voltage, frequency, over/under current and a differential fault

Question 295

What is the purpose of the Transformer-Rectifier Unit?

1. To produce volts DC from the engine
2. To produce volts AC from the engine
3. To change volts AC to volts DC
4. To change volts DC to volts AC

Answer 295

3. To change volts AC to volts DC

Question 296

The purpose of a transformer rectifier is the following:

1. It converts direct current to alternating current
2. It converts alternating current to direct current
3. It automatically parallels electrical generators
4. It automatically de-parallels electrical generators allowing in-series power

Answer 296

2. It converts alternating current to direct current

Question 297

The purpose of a inverter is the following:

1. It converts direct current to alternating current
2. It converts alternating current to direct current
3. It automatically parallels electrical generators
4. It automatically de-parallels electrical generators allowing in-series power

Answer 297

1. It converts direct current to alternating current

Question 298

Each of the three engines on your aircraft burns 3,000 lbs/hr. You have 7500 lbs of fuel onboard, how many minutes are there till fuel exhaustion?

1. 40
2. 50
3. 75
4. 83

Answer 298

2. 50

Question 299

Explain the relationship of the battery, TRs, inverters:

1. The battery does stuff
2. The battery provides AC power and the TRs produce DC power
3. The battery provides DC power and the inverter provides AC power
4. The battery provides AC power and then inverter produces DC power

Answer 299

3. The battery provides DC power and the inverter provides AC power

Question 300

Many aircraft electrical generators are connected to the engine via a(n):

1. Transformer Rectifier
2. Constant speed drive
3. Inverter
4. Ram air turbine

Answer 300

2. Constant speed drive

Question 301

When the battery is the only source of electrical power during an in-flight emergency, how is AC current produced?

1. AC power is produced by the TR
2. AC power is produced by the inverter
3. AC power is produced by the CSD
4. AC power is produced by the generator control

Answer 301

2. AC power is produced by the inverter

Question 302

The primary purpose of the TR is to:

1. Convert AC to DC
2. Convert DC to AC
3. Convert AC to pulsed DC
4. Convert DC voltage to a lower DC voltage

Answer 302

1. Convert AC to DC

Question 303

During automatic load shedding a pilot can expect to see:

1. Utility busses off
2. AC bus off
3. DC bus off
4. Essential bus off

Answer 303

1. Utility busses off

Question 304

You have been instructed by ATC to extend your downwind for traffic, when do you call base?

1. Extend your downwind as instructed by ATC, ATC will call your base.
2. Extend your downwind as instructed by ATC. Call base when you begin your turn
3. Extend your downwind unless you are unable, then call base
4. Inform ATC if you do not have OPSECs to conduct extended downwind procedures

Answer 304

1. Extend your downwind as instructed by ATC, ATC will call your base

Question 305

You are cleared for the ILS 36C at MEM sidestep to 36R. What minimums will you brief your crew that you intend to use for this approach?

1. 541’ - 1/2sm
2. 940’ - 1sm
3. 740’ - 1/2sm
4. 1000’ - 3sm

Answer 305

2. 940’ - 1sm

Question 306

While being vectored for the approach ATC assigns you a speed of 210 KIAS until further advised. When can you expect a speed reduction to your final approach speed?

1. Only when ATC advises the assigned speed is no longer required
2. At pilot’s discretion once you have been cleared for the approach
3. Only after intercepting the final approach segment
4. At pilot’s discretion but not less than 170 KIAS if you are within 20 flying miles of the airport

Answer 306

2. At pilot’s discretion once you have been cleared for the approach

Question 307

While briefing the RNAV (GPS) Y RWY 22 approach at KELP your FO asks what the dotted line from the MDA to the end of the runway signifies. Your response would be:

1. The line is a visual extension of the vertical path angle to the runway threshold.
2. The line indicates there are no obstructions penetrating one of the obstacle clearance planes
3. The line represents the visual path the aircraft should fly after reaching the VDP
4. The line indicates there are obstacles penetrating one of the clearance planes.

Answer 307

2. The line indicates there are no obstructions penetrating one of the obstacle clearance planes

Question 308

You are flying a visual approach to KMEM runway 36L and backing it up with the ILS. Field elevation is 341 and has a standard traffic pattern altitude. In the event of a go around you should plan on:

1. Climbing to 1900 and entering the traffic pattern
2. Fly the published missed approach for ILS 36L
3. Fly runway heading and climb to 3000’
4. Climb to 1400’ and wait for ATC instructions

Answer 308

1. Climbing to 1900 and entering the traffic pattern

Question 309

During an ILS approach the crew in front of you communicate to the control tower an increase of airspeed of +5 on final. As you approach short final you notice that in increase in rate of descent is necessary to maintain normal glide path. This may be an indication that:

1. Wind shear; a shift from a head wind to tail
2. Wind shear; a shift from a tail wind to head
3. The effects of wake turbulence from the previous airplane
4. Winds at the surface have changed to calm

Answer 309

1. Wind shear; a shift from a head wind to tail

Question 310

During an ILS approach you notice that a decrease in the rate of descent is needed and more power is required to maintain the target approach speed. This may be an indication that:

1. The wind shifted from headwind to tail
2. The wind shifted from tailwind to head
3. The airplane is entering a high pressure area
4. The friction layer is affecting airplane’s performance

Answer 310

2. The wind shifted from tailwind to head

Question 311

You are cleared for the LDA RWY 06 in KROA. You brief your crew that the main difference between LDA and ILS LOC is:

1. None, both approaches have vertical and lateral guidance
2. LDA is offset from the runway more than 3 degrees
3. LDA is 6-12 degrees wide with vertical guidance
4. LDA is unstable up to 15 degrees off course indication

Answer 311

2. LDA is offset from the runway more than 3 degrees

Question 312

Two voltmeters are side by side. Both read 28 volts, one is AC powered and the other is DC powered. If all electrical power is lost, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Both the AC and DC powered voltmeters will read zero
2. Both the AC and DC powered voltmeters will read 28 volts
3. The AC voltmeter will read zero, the DC voltmeter will read 28 volts
4. The AC voltmeter will read 28 volts, the DC voltmeter will read zero

Answer 312

4. The AC voltmeter will read 28 volts, the DC voltmeter will read zero

Question 313

A pilot’s first action during an electrical fire is:

1. Declare an emergency with ATC
2. Don an oxygen mask
3. Attempt to isolate the source of the electrical fire
4. Land at the nearest suitable airport

Answer 313

2. Don an oxygen mask

Question 314

The basic concept in the procedures for electrical fire is:

1. To isolate the electrical component causing the fire so the flight may continue
2. To remain at altitude to starve the fire of oxygen while attempting to isolate the source
3. To proceed towards a suitable airport at slow airspeeds to create time to isolate the source of the electrical fire
4. To land at the nearest suitable airport as quickly as possible

Answer 314

4. To land at the nearest suitable airport as quickly as possible

Question 315

During the preflight checks you notice your battery is indicating zero volts. Assuming the indicator is working properly, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Voltage is not important when checking a battery. Amperage is a better indicator of battery performance
2. The battery will charge after engine start. This may be a normal indication depending on the type of aircraft you are flying
3. The battery is dead. The battery charger may be inoperative
4. The battery will always indicate zero volts when the main busses are not powered

Answer 315

3. The battery is dead. The battery charger may be inoperative

Question 316

Most aircraft electrical systems operate at:

1. 115 VAC/60 Hz
2. 220 VAC/60 Hz
3. 115 VAC/400 Hz
4. 12 VDC

Answer 316

3. 115 VAC/400 Hz

Question 317

What is true concerning hydraulics:

1. Hydraulic fluid is incompressible and energy is efficiently transmitted from one location to another by the fluid
2. Hydraulic fluid is a compressible and therefore energy is directly transmitted to the fluid and subsequently to another location
3. Hydraulic fluid efficiently transmits energy through heat absorption
4. Hydraulic fluid is not susceptible to turbulent flow under high pressure

Answer 317

1. Hydraulic fluid is incompressible and energy is efficiently transmitted from one location to another by the fluid

Question 318

Fluid versus gas is used in a hydraulic system because:

1. Fluid absorbs heat and gas transmits heat
2. Fluid transmits heat and gas absorbs heat
3. Fluid is incompressible and gas is compressible
4. Fluid is compressible and gas is incompressible

Answer 318

3. Fluid is incompressible and gas is compressible

Question 319

What action may lead to the cavitation of a hydraulic pump?

1. Rapidly extending flaps during low thrust settings while boost pumps are off.
2. Extending the landing gear while in a climb
3. Using the tiller for nose wheel steering during takeoff roll or high taxi speeds
4. Retracting the flaps after landing

Answer 319

1. Rapidly extending flaps during low thrust settings while boost pumps are off.

Question 320

Which of the following is an indicator of the load on the electrical busses?

1. AC volts
2. DC volts
3. AC kilowatts
4. AC Frequency

Answer 320

3. AC kilowatts

Question 321

You are flying a visual approach and are on a 7 mile dog leg to final to an airport in mountainous terrain. The weather is clear and the wind is calm, no instrument approaches are available but you have the VASI in sight, you should:

1. Continue your descent to landing since the VASI gives you obstruction clearance out to 10 miles.
2. Continue your descent to landing visually. The VASI is not required since the weather is greater than VFR and you are VMC.
3. Continue your descent to landing but be aware because the VASI does not guarantee obstruction clearance until plus or minus 5 degrees of runway centerline out to 3-5 miles.
4. Continue your descent to landing but be aware because the VASI does not guarantee obstruction clearance until plus or minus 10 degrees of runway centerline out to 4 miles.

Answer 321

4. Continue your descent to landing but be aware because the VASI does not guarantee obstruction clearance until plus or minus 10 degrees of runway centerline out to 4 miles.

Question 322

You depart MEM with a correct altimeter setting of 29.92 in Hg and fly to Bogota (elevation 8,300 feet). The local altimeter is 30.02. If the altimeter was not reset to 30.02 the altimeter upon landing would read:

1. 8,200 ft
2. 8,290 ft
3. 8,400 ft
4. Airport Elevation

Answer 322

1. 8,200 feet

Question 323

ATC has cleared you for the ILS approach to runway 09 in MEM. What is your clearance limit?

1. Final approach fix unless cleared to land
2. The published decision altitude
3. Runway 09.
4. The published missed approach hold

Answer 323

4. The published missed approach hold

Question 324

You are cleared for the ILS approach with the localizer and glide slope captured. You are descending through 4100 feet on a 12 mile final. There is a step down fix at 8 miles with a crossing altitude at or above 2450 ft. The glideslope intercept altitude is 1200 feet at 4 miles. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept altitude and is cleared for the ILS approach the step down fix does not apply
2. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept altitude they are guaranteed to meet the step down fix crossing altitude
3. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept altitude they are guaranteed to meet step down fixes and obstacle clearances
4. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept altitude they remain responsible for complying with step down fixes

Answer 324

4. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept altitude they remain responsible for complying with step down fixes

Question 325

You are cleared for the ILS 25L approach at KLAX. Prior to reaching HUNDA ATC instructs you to go-around due to a disabled aircraft on the runway. Choose the best course of action:

1. Continue your descent to 2,000’, continue on the LOC course until reaching the LOC missed approach point and then fly the published missed approach procedure
2. Maintain your current altitude, continue on the LOC course until reaching the MAP and then fly the published missed
3. Maintain your current altitude, proceed direct to CATLY, obstacle clearance is not an issue since the missed approach segment is over water
4. Continue your descent to 2000’, proceed direct to the LAX VOR and then fly outbound on the LAX 190 to CATLY

Answer 325

1. Continue your descent to 2,000’, continue on the LOC course until reaching the LOC missed approach point and then fly the published missed approach procedure

Question 326

The left engine n1 indication and EGT indications fluctuate intermittently during climb out. A flight attendant calls the cockpit and reports a thumping sound and possible bursts of smoke out of the left engine. What would be a proper course of action?

1. Rapidly add power and reduce power on the left engine to break the pattern of compressor stall
2. Pull the left engine fire handle and discharge a bottle into the left engine. The engine is on fire and the fire warning system is not operating properly
3. Slowly retard power to the left engine until the indications of compressor stalls stops. Then use the appropriate checklist to address the situation
4. Decrease the rate of climb. The aircraft is climbing at too high an AOA and airflow through the left engine is not sufficient. Plan to climb at the lower rate of climb.

Answer 326

3. Slowly retard power to the left engine until the indications of compressor stalls stops. Then use the appropriate checklist to address the situation

Question 327

You notice your left engine n1, n2, and EGT fluctuating and you hear a thumping sound. The appropriate response would be to:

1. Reduce thrust to the left engine until it stabilizes
2. Immediately shut down the left engine
3. Increase thrust to the left engine to close the surge valves
4. Cycle the fuel valve to the left engine to clear fuel lines of air

Answer 327

1. Reduce thrust to the left engine until it stabilizes

Question 328

What steps should be taken if a compressor stall occurs?

1. No action is required as this is a normal condition when the engines spool up on take off roll
2. No action is required as this is a normal condition if the thrust levels are rapidly advanced
3. The pilot should follow the AFM or POH
4. The pilot should make a small reduction in power if surging occurs during takeoff roll

Answer 328

3. The pilot should follow the AFM or POH

Question 329

All of the following are purposes of a pneumatic accumulator except?

1. To serve as a storage vessel of compressed air or fluid
2. To provide a backup power source for the aircraft hydraulic braking system
3. To cascade the engine for thrust reverse
4. To supplement the aircraft cabin pressure.

Answer 329

4. To supplement the aircraft cabin pressure.

Question 330

Which of the following could cause a compressor stall?

1. Turbulent or disrupted airflow to the engine intake
2. Prolonged operation with the throttles at idle power
3. The use of engine anti-ice while flying with a high TAT
4. Failure of an engine fuel pump

Answer 330

1. Turbulent or disrupted airflow to the engine intake

Question 331

What can cause the engine surging or popping associated with a compressor stall?

1. Adding fuel too early during engine start
2. Transient conditions in the turbine section of the engine
3. Transient conditions in the compressor section of the engine
4. Improper use of the engine anti-ice system

Answer 331

3. Transient conditions in the compressor section of the engine

Question 332

Compressor stalls are most likely to occur with:

1. High airspeed and increasing thrust
2. Low airspeed and increasing thrust
3. High airspeed and decreasing thrust
4. Low airspeed and decreasing thrust

Answer 332

2. Low airspeed and increasing thrust

Question 333

You are flying the ILS 17R at KDFW. RWY 17R is equipped with FAROS system. You acquire the RWY visually at 400’ AGL and notice that all four PAPI lights are flashing, you should:

1. Realize this is a test of the FAROS system and continue the approach to a landing since you have already been cleared to land
2. Attempt to see if there is traffic on the runway, however you should continue to land if no traffic is observed
3. Passing 300’ AGL contact ATC and verify your landing clearance, if ATC does not respond then go-around
4. Continue the approach. The PAPI will stop flashing passing through 100’ AGL

Answer 333

3. Passing 300’ AGL contact ATC and verify your landing clearance, if ATC does not respond then go-around

Question 334

You arrive at the ILS DH with only the ALSF-1 approach light system visible. Under which condition, if any, may you descent below DH using the approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?

1. Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH
2. Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen
3. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable
4. Descent to the intended runway is authorized only as long as the threshold lights can be seen

Answer 334

3. The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable

Question 335

At the outer marker during an ILS approach to RWY 36L the tower clears you to land with wind reported as 360/25G31. The previous airplane goes around with instructions to climb to 2000 feet in a left turn heading 330. If you go around, what would you do?

1. Climb to pattern altitude and maintain runway HDG
2. Climb to 2000 ft with a left turn to 330
3. Go into a published holding pattern and wait for better conditions
4. Comply with the published missed approach instructions

Answer 335

4. Comply with the published missed approach instructions

Question 336

During approach to land on a runway with a downward slope of 1 degree at night, you may think that:

1. You are too high, thus making a lower than normal descent
2. You are too low, thus making a higher than normal descent
3. You are accustomed, it is normal glide path on low terrain
4. Due to the night operations you will fly a higher approach for safety

Answer 336

2. You are too low, thus making a higher than normal descent

Question 337

All other factors being equal, what is the difference between landing at Bogota (8,300 ft elevation) and sea level MIA?

1. Groundspeed is going to be lower in Bogota
2. Groundspeed is going to be higher in Bogota
3. No change in groundspeed
4. Groundspeed is a function of airplane weight

Answer 337

2. Groundspeed is going to be higher in Bogota

Question 338

You are approaching your clearance limit. If further clearance is not received what does ATC expect you to do?

1. Maintain your last altitude until your ETA and then descend in holding and commence a published approach.
2. Maintain your last assigned altitude and begin holding using standard left hand turns and request further clearance.
3. Maintain your last assigned altitude and enter a standard holding pattern on the course on which the aircraft approached the fix.
4. Maintain your last assigned altitude and proceed on the route expected to destination

Answer 338

3. Maintain your last assigned altitude and enter a standard holding pattern on the course on which the aircraft approached the fix.

Question 339

What is EPR and what is it used for?

1. EPR is the ratio of turbine discharge total pressure to the equivalent of the compressor inlet total pressure and is a measure of thrust
2. EPR is the ratio of compressor discharge total pressure to the equivalent of the turbine inlet total pressure and is a measure of thrust
3. EPR is the ratio of the high pressure compressor total pressure to the low pressure compressor total pressure and is a measure of thrust
4. EPR is the ratio of the low pressure compressor total pressure to the high pressure compressor total pressure and is a measure of thrust

Answer 339

1. EPR is the ratio of turbine discharge total pressure to the equivalent of the compressor inlet total pressure and is a measure of thrust

Question 340

From the compressor the flow of hot compressed air enters the combustion chamber. In the combustion chamber:

1. Air is cooled and then transferred to the turbine section
2. The air is slowed down and the kinetic energy of its speed is turned into pressure
3. The air is expanded and directed through inlet guide vanes to the diffuser section
4. Liquid fuel or fuel vapor is sprayed in and burned

Answer 340

4. Liquid fuel or fuel vapor is sprayed in and burned

Question 341

The function of the turbine in a modern turbine engine is:

1. To reduce the entering air velocity to a level suitable for use in the engine
2. To increase the pressure of the incoming air so that the combustion process and the power extraction process after combustion can be carried out more efficiently
3. To burn a mixture of fuel and air and to deliver the resulting gases to the turbine at a uniform temperature
4. To extract kinetic energy from the expanding gases which flow from the combustion chamber

Answer 341

4. To extract kinetic energy from the expanding gases which flow from the combustion chamber

Question 342

Which is not a common cause of compressor stalls:

1. Bird strikes
2. Turbulent or disrupted air to the engine intake
3. Abrupt increases in engine thrust
4. Use of reverse thrust at high speed

Answer 342

4. Use of reverse thrust at high speed

Question 343

When a speed reduction is required prior to holding, when should you start slowing down?

1. Slow down when 5 minutes or less from the holding fix. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed to help ATC maintain proper spacing between aircraft.
2. Slow down when 5 minutes or less from the holding fix. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed to prevent overshooting the holding airspace.
3. If slowing greater than 3 minutes from the holding fix due to an extended EFC time inform ATC of your intentions. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed to prevent overshooting the holding airspace.
4. Slow down when 3 minutes or less from the holding fix. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed if in mountainous terrain.

Answer 343

3. If slowing greater than 3 minutes from the holding fix due to an extended EFC time inform ATC of your intentions. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed to prevent overshooting the holding airspace.

Question 344

Due to weather in Memphis, the approach controller gives you holding instructions to hold at the IAF approach fix of the expected ILS. If you experience radio failure what is the best course of action:

1. Squawk 7700, and commence the approach at the EFC.
2. Squawk 7700, and commence the approach at the flight plan ETA.
3. Squawk 7600, and commence the approach at the flight plan ETA.
4. Squawk 7600, and commence the approach at the EFC.

Answer 344

4. Squawk 7600, and commence the approach at the EFC.

Question 345

You are flying the Tammy Arrival into KMEM. ATC issues you the following clearance, FDX 1234, cross Tammy at 10,000 and 250 KIAS. It becomes apparent during your descent that you will be unable to make both the altitude and speed restriction at Tammy. You advise the controller who responds with do the best you can do, you should:

1. Continue your descent and accept whatever speed and altitude you have crossing Tammy since the controller said it’s okay.
2. Insist on an amended clearance within the capabilities of the aircraft.
3. Declare an emergency.
4. Make a 360 degree turn in order to lose excess speed and altitude.

Answer 345

2. Insist on an amended clearance within the capabilities of the aircraft.

Question 346

You are preparing to make a take off from an airport in the northeastern part of the US during mid-winter. The temperature is 28 degrees F and the dew point is 27 degrees. Just after takeoff you realize that the rate of climb is not as expected. You should:

1. Continue the climb as climb rate will normally be lower in colder temperatures.
2. Continue the climb as EPR is the best indication of thrust in a jet engine.
3. Check RPM gages for normal performance as EPR could be affected by icing
4. Check EGT for normal indications as thermocouples could be affected by icing.

Answer 346

3. Check RPM gages for normal performance as EPR could be affected by icing

Question 347

EGT is an engine operating limit and is used to monitor the mechanical integrity of turbine engines as well as to check operating conditions. How is EGT used to monitor turbine engine performance?

1. Monitoring the fuel flow in pounds per hour to the fuel nozzles.
2. Monitoring the exhaust gas temperature indication because it is the highest temperature in the engine.
3. Monitoring the exhaust gas temperature indication although it is lower than turbine inlet.
4. Monitoring the electrical generator temperature indicator to guard against failures.

Answer 347

3. Monitoring the exhaust gas temperature indication although it is lower than turbine inlet.

Question 348

You land out of a CATIIIB ILS 25L at KLAX. During your landing rollout how will you know when you have 2,000’ of runway remaining?

1. Runway edge lights change from white to yellow.
2. Runway centerline lights will be red.
3. Runway centerline lights will alternate between red and white.
4. You cannot determine when there is 2,000’ of runway remaining from the runway lights.

Answer 348

1. Runway edge lights change from white to yellow.

Question 349

You are cleared for takeoff on runway 36R at KDFW. Runway 36R is equipped with runway status lights (RWSL). As you taxi past the hold short line you observe the runway entrance lights illuminate. You should:

1. Continue to taxi onto the runway as this lets aircraft behind you know the runway is about to be occupied by your aircraft.
2. Continue your takeoff as long as the takeoff hold lights (THL) are not illuminated.
3. Continue your taxi onto the runway. This a normal occurrence as the system resets itself.
4. Hold your position and contact ATC to confirm your takeoff clearance.

Answer 349

4. Hold your position and contact ATC to confirm your takeoff clearance.

Question 350

The Captain is making the landing in low visibility conditions on a precision runway. You are backing the Captain up making sure he stays on centerline during the rollout. You cannot see the end of the runway. But you know from the centerline you are:

1. 3000-2000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are alternating from amber and white.
2. 3000-2000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are alternating amber and red.
3. 3000-1000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are alternating red and white.
4. 3000-1000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are alternating amber and white.

Answer 350

3. 3000-1000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are alternating red and white.

Question 351

In what section of a gas turbine does flow velocity start to increase?

1. Inlet section
2. Compressor section
3. Combustion section
4. Exhaust section

Answer 351

3. Combustion section

Question 352

When considering the airflow in a turbine engine, at what point does the greatest velocity increase occur?

1. Compressor blades
2. Stator vanes
3. Turbine nozzle partitions
4. Turbine wheels

Answer 352

3. Turbine nozzle partitions

Question 353

A gas turbine engine is most efficient (produces the most thrust per pound of fuel burned) at:

1. High thrust setting/low airspeeds
2. Low thrust settings/low airspeeds
3. High thrust settings/high airspeeds
4. Low thrust settings/high airspeeds

Answer 353

3. High thrust settings/high airspeeds

Question 354

At sea level, when the temperature of the air decreases, the thrust of a turbine engine increases. For a standard day when an aircraft climbs in altitude and the temperature decreases, why does thrust decrease?

1. As altitude increases, the density of the air increases.
2. The pressure of the outside air increases as altitude increases.
3. The pressure of the outside air decreases faster than the temperature.
4. Thrust does not decrease until approximately 36,000 feet when the temperature becomes constant.

Answer 354

3. The pressure of the outside air decreases faster than the temperature.

Question 355

Which of the following would increase thrust on a gas turbine engine?

1. Increase in altitude
2. Increase in humidity
3. Decrease in temperature
4. Decrease in air density

Answer 355

3. Decrease in temperature

Question 356

To prolong engine blade life, the fuel flow in most gas turbines is normally governed to keep:

1. The exhaust duct from overheating.
2. The stator blades aligned properly.
3. The turbine temperature at less than the permitted maximum.
4. The fuel spray manifold from dumping excessive fuel in the diffuser section.

Answer 356

3. The turbine temperature at less than the permitted maximum.

Question 357

During engine start, an interruption in airflow to the engine may result in:

1. A rapid increase in EGT.
2. A hung or hot start.
3. A normal start if fuel flow has already been applied.
4. High oil pressure readings.

Answer 357

2. A hung or hot start.

Question 358

In a gas turbine engine, hot air ducted from the engine compressors:

1. May be used for engine inlet anti-icing.
2. Is directed through the diffuser section to provide extra thrust.
3. Flows through the turbine guide and into the combustion chamber.
4. May be used to heat engine oil at high altitudes.

Answer 358

1. May be used for engine inlet anti-icing.

Question 359

You have just been given clearance to taxi across the runway. Just as your aircraft crosses the hold line onto the runway you notice the Runway Entrance Lights (REL) illuminate. Which statement is correct?

1. If they illuminate green it is a verification of your taxi clearance and you should taxi as cleared.
2. If they are flashing red they indicate you have nominal time to continue but any aircraft behind you should stop. 3. If they illuminate steady red there is a potential conflict and you should use caution.
3. If they illuminate steady red contact ATC and proceed according to your best judgment understanding the lights indicate the runway is unsafe.

Answer 359

4. If they illuminate steady red contact ATC and proceed according to your best judgment understanding the lights indicate the runway is unsafe.

Question 360

You are holding short of the runway. You hear tower give several aircraft clearance to cross the runway downfield. Tower then gives you clearance to “line up and wait”. As you approach your takeoff position on the runway you notice the Takeoff Hold Lights (THL) illuminate steady red. What does this mean?

1. THY steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield, and they will extinguish after all aircraft have cleared the runway.
2. THL steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield. Tower may give clearance for takeoff with THL still illuminated due to anticipated separation criteria at some airports.
3. THL steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield. A pilot may notice the THL extinguish prior to downfield aircraft being completely clear of the runway due to the anticipated separation feature.
4. THL steady illumination under these circumstances signal an immediate threat to safety. Proceed according to your best judgment and contact ATC as soon as possible.

Answer 360

3. THL steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield. A pilot may notice the THL extinguish prior to downfield aircraft being completely clear of the runway due to the anticipated separation feature.

Question 361

You check the ATIS and notice LAHSO is in effect at your destination. After checking in with tower you notice several aircraft ahead of you have been given a LAHSO landing clearance. Tower clears you to land without a LAHSO clearance. During landing rollout the Runway Intersection Lights (RIL) illuminate. What should you do?

1. Since you have not received a LAHSO landing clearance the RILs do not apply to you. Proceed with caution.
2. You should stop prior to the LAHSO stop bar for the intersecting runway.
3. You should stop prior to the LAHSO stop bar for the intersecting runway. High speed traffic is within 3 seconds of meeting you at the intersection.
4. Visually clear the intersecting runway in both directions and proceed with caution if it is safe. Contact ATC as soon as possible.

Answer 361

2. You should stop prior to the LAHSO stop bar for the intersecting runway.

Question 362

Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) low visibility taxi operations are in effect for your departure. You are holding short of the runway when tower clears you for takeoff. Which of the following is correct in this situation?

1. The green lead on lights illuminate and the red stop bar extinguishes. Continue your takeoff.
2. The green lead on lights illuminate and red stop bar stays illuminated. Anticipated separation timing will extinguish the red stop momentarily. Continue your takeoff.
3. The green lead on lights are NOTAM’d out of service and the red stop bar remains illuminated. Continue to line up and wait but do not take off until verifying takeoff clearance with tower.
4. The green lead on lights illuminate and the red stop bar remains illuminated. The red stop bar should extinguish prior to line up with the runway. Continue to line up and contact ATC if in doubt about your clearance.

Answer 362

1. The green lead on lights illuminate and the red stop bar extinguishes. Continue your takeoff.

Question 363

While at cruise altitude a flight attendant reports he smells smoke in the cabin and he suspects it is coming from the galley. The pilot’s first course of action should be to:

1. Find and pull the galley circuit breakers to cut off electrical power to the galley.
2. Turn off all galley power switches in the cockpit and direct the flight attendant to turn off all ovens and coffee makers.
3. Don oxygen mask, declare an emergency, begin a descent to the nearest suitable airfield.
4. Calm the passengers by making an announcement that everything is under control and the situation is being handled.

Answer 363

3. Don oxygen mask, declare an emergency, begin a descent to the nearest suitable airfield.

Question 364

You are flying a commercial airliner at cruise altitude. The flight attendant calls the cockpit and tells you that the passenger cabin is filling up with smoke. What should your first course of action be?

1. Keep talking to the flight attendant to try to determine the source of smoke.
2. Declare an emergency w/ ATC and land at the nearest suitable airport.
3. Put on your oxygen mask and smoke goggles.
4. Refer to the non-normal checklist for smoke and fumes elimination.

Answer 364

3. Put on your oxygen mask and smoke goggles.

Question 365

What is the most hazardous condition of flying in an area contaminated with volcanic ash in a jet aircraft?

1. Lack of visibility
2. Turbine blade glazing
3. Windshield damage
4. Loss of pitot static systems

Answer 365

2. Turbine blade glazing

Question 366

If you are selecting a new engine for an aircraft, what would be the advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal-flow compressor?

1. High compression ratio with high efficiencies
2. Low compression ratio with high efficiencies
3. High compression ratio with low efficiencies
4. Low compression ratio with low efficiencies

Answer 366

1. High compression ratio with high efficiencies

Question 367

Two identical aircraft depart from an airport at the same time. Aircraft A climbs to its cruise altitude at its max climb angle. Aircraft B climbs to the same cruise altitude at its max climb rate. Which statement is true?

1. Initially aircraft B will be higher but aircraft A will reach cruise altitude first.
2. Initially aircraft A will be higher but aircraft B will reach cruise altitude first.
3. Initially aircraft B will be higher but they will both reach cruise altitude at the same time.
4. Initially aircraft A will be higher but they both will reach cruise altitude at the same time.

Answer 367

2. Initially aircraft A will be higher but aircraft B will reach cruise altitude first.

Question 368

How far from land can you operate a passenger carrying transport without life rafts and pyrotechnic signaling devices?

1. Power off gliding distance
2. Power off gliding distance to a point off shore where water vessel rescue can be effected.
3. 92 nm off shore
4. 122 nm off shore

Answer 368

1. Power off gliding distance

Question 369

You are taking off from a runway with a displaced threshold. Unless otherwise noted you may:

1. Only begin your takeoff from the displaced threshold.
2. Begin your takeoff from the portion of the runway behind the displaced threshold.
3. Not apply takeoff power until abeam the displaced threshold.
4. Receive specific clearance from tower to begin your takeoff from the portion of the runway behind the displaced threshold.

Answer 369

2. Begin your takeoff from the portion of the runway behind the displaced threshold.

Question 370

You are landing on a runway with a displaced threshold at the opposite end. Unless otherwise noted you may:

1. Not land. The runway is designed for landing only from the end with the displaced threshold.
2. Land but not use the portion of the runway behind the displaced threshold.
3. Land and use the portion of the runway behind the displaced threshold.
4. Land if your landing data is computed for a shortened runway to account for the displaced threshold.

Answer 370

3. Land and use the portion of the runway behind the displaced threshold.

Question 371

You are taxing toward a runway for takeoff with a displaced threshold. You notice the area behind the displaced threshold is marked with yellow chevrons. What does this mean?

1. The chevrons designate an unusable landing surface but the area may be used for taxi and takeoff.
2. With tower clearance you may use the area marked with yellow chevrons for additional takeoff runway.
3. The chevrons are directional. They indicate the direction which the area is safe to use for taxi and takeoff only with tower clearance.
4. The chevrons show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxing.

Answer 371

4. The chevrons show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxing.

Question 372

An aircraft is being operated at L/D max. To maintain L/D max as altitude is increased:

1. Angle of attack and indicated airspeed will both increase.
2. Angle of attack and indicated airspeed will both decrease.
3. Angle of attack will stay essentially the same and indicated airspeed will decrease.
4. Angle of attack and indicated airspeed will stay essentially the same.

Answer 372

4. Angle of attack and indicated airspeed will stay essentially the same.

Question 373

For a constant bank angle, an increase in airspeed will:

1. Increase turn radius.
2. Decrease turn radius.
3. Increase or decrease turn radius.
4. Has no effect on turn radius.

Answer 373

1. Increase turn radius.

Question 374

What is true concerning an aircraft loaded with a more forward center of gravity (CG)?

1. A forward CG will produce a less stable aircraft and a higher stall speed.
2. A forward CG will produce a more stable aircraft and a lower stall speed.
3. A forward CG will result in a higher fuel burn and a lower stall speed.
4. A forward CG will result in a higher fuel burn and a higher stall speed.

Answer 374

4. A forward CG will result in a higher fuel burn and a higher stall speed.

Question 375

When flying at a constant mach number, a flight carried out below its optimum altitude:

1. Uses more fuel and takes more time.
2. Uses less fuel and takes less time.
3. Uses more fuel, but takes less time.
4. Uses less fuel, but takes more time.

Answer 375

3. Uses more fuel, but takes less time

Question 376

Using figure 2805, locate the best lift over drag (L/D).

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Answer 376

4. D

Question 377

Approach control requests you maintain 160 knots ILS final until 7 DME. You encounter a headwind of 20 knots while flying the 3 degree glide slope. Your approximate VSI indication to maintain the glideslope would be:

1. 500 fpm
2. 700 fpm
3. 1000 fpm
4. 1200 fpm

Answer 377

2. 700 fpm

Question 378

Assuming a constant, true airspeed, what effect will a change in wind direction have on maintaining a 3 degree glideslope?

1. When groundspeed decreases, rate of descent must increase.
2. When groundspeed increase, rate of descent must increase.
3. When groundspeed increases, rate of descent must decrease.
4. Rate of descent must be constant as true airspeed is constant.

Answer 378

2. When groundspeed increase, rate of descent must increase.

Question 379

While taxiing the captain begins to veer right for an obstruction ahead. It appears the captain will exceed the boundary of the painted taxiway edge. There is plenty of concrete available to the right and no other obstructions or conflicts. Which of the following is a correct action?

1. You see the taxiway edge is painted with a continuous double yellow line. You tell the captain stop or don’t go beyond the painted edge because it is not intended for use.
2. You see the taxiway edge is painted with a broken double yellow line. You tell the captain stop or go beyond the painted edge because it is not intended for use.
3. You see the taxiway edge is painted with a continuous double yellow line. You help the captain clear the area because you know the area is intended for use.
4. The painted taxiway edge is not a factor as long as you will not hit any blue taxiway edge lights. Clear the area for the captain and continue.

Answer 379

1. You see the taxiway edge is painted with a continuous double yellow line. You tell the captain stop or don’t go beyond the painted edge because it is not intended for use.

Question 380

Climbing to altitude, if the aircraft fails to pressurize with no corresponding alert, what physiological effects would NOT be expected to occur?

1. Confusion
2. Profound fatigue
3. Blue lips or fingernails
4. Increased alertness

Answer 380

4. Increased alertness

Question 381

The classic IMSAFE checklist is provided as a tool to mitigate risk. This acronym stands for:

1. Illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating.
2. Identify, measure, standardize, analyze, function, evaluate.
3. Itinerary, meteorology, stress, alcohol, fatigue, experience.
4. Identify, measure, supervise, analyze, foster, educate.

Answer 381

1. Illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating.

Question 382

As you prepare to conduct your departure threat awareness briefing you realize that most threats you will encounter during the flight will occur during:

1. Pre departure/taxi out
2. Takeoff/climb
3. Cruise
4. Descent/approach/landing

Answer 382

1. Pre departure/taxi out

Question 383

As you and your FO decide on the best strategy to manage potential threats to your flight today you should realize that the most problematic threats you may encounter are from:

1. Adverse weather (eg thunderstorms)
2. ATC (eg challenging clearances)
3. Aircraft (eg malfunctions/anomalies)
4. Airport (eg poor signage/construction)

Answer 383

2. ATC (eg challenging clearances)

Question 384

In what phase of flight do most flight crew errors occur?

1. Predeparture/taxi-out
2. Takeoff/climb
3. Descent/Approach/Land
4. Taxi-in/park

Answer 384

3. Descent/Approach/Land

Question 385

What are the most frequently committed flight crew errors?

1. Aircraft handling
2. Procedural
3. Communication
4. Navigation

Answer 385

2. Procedural

Question 386

What are the most common procedural errors committed by flight crews?

1. Briefing
2. SOP cross-verification
3. Callouts
4. Checklists

Answer 386

4. Checklists

Question 387

What are the most frequently mismanaged flight crew errors?

1. Manual handling/flight control
2. Automation
3. System/Instrument/Radio
4. Checklist

Answer 387

1. Manual handling/flight control

Question 388

What are the most frequent undesired aircraft states (UAS) observed?

1. Incorrect systems configurations
2. Speed deviations
3. Lateral and vertical deviations
4. Incorrect automation configurations

Answer 388

1. Incorrect systems configurations

Question 389

You are being vectored to runway 1. Surface winds are 340/28. What is your crosswind component?

1. 9 knots
2. 14 knots
3. 18 knots
4. 25 knots

Answer 389

2. 14 knots

Question 390

How does a jet aircraft’s performance differ at high elevation as compared to operation at sea level?

1. Available thrust is reduced and TAS is higher
2. Available thrust is increased and TAS is reduced
3. Stopping distance and landing distance is reduced
4. Higher TAS requiring a lower RPM on final approach for the same descent rate.

Answer 390

1. Available thrust is reduced and TAS is higher

Question 391

During approach operations at high elevations as compared to sea level, the pilot can expect:

1. Go-around capability (or excess thrust) is unchanged.
2. Turning radius is unchanged
3. Stopping distance required is increased
4. RPM is unchanged on final for the same descent rate.

Answer 391

3. Stopping distance required is increased

Question 392

A thunderstorm is located 5 miles from the arrival end of the runway in use. At 3 knots below v1 (go/no-go decision speed) the indicated airspeed stops increasing. Which of the following statements is true?

1. V1 (go/no-go decision speed) may no longer be valid due to the unexpected accelerating tail wind
2. Even though the airspeed is not increasing the ground speed is increasing which will enhance takeoff performance
3. If the take-off is aborted the aircraft will be able to stop before the end of the runway since the aircraft has not yet reached v1.
4. The airspeed stagnation will be very temporary, since microburst winds only last a few seconds.

Answer 392

1. V1 (go/no-go decision speed) may no longer be valid due to the unexpected accelerating tail wind

Question 393

If an aircraft loses an engine on takeoff at or after v1, FAR’s require it to reach an altitude of at least ___ by the end of the runway.

1. 135 feet
2. 100 feet
3. 50 feet
4. 35 feet

Answer 393

4. 35 feet

Question 394

Extending flaps generally results in:

1. A nose up pitching moment, a lower approach speed at a higher AoA.
2. A nose down pitching moment, a lower approach speed at a lower AoA
3. A nose up pitching moment, a lower approach speed at a lower AoA
4. A nose down pitching moment, a lower approach speed at a higher AoA.

Answer 394

2. A nose down pitching moment, a lower approach speed at a lower AoA

Question 395

As an aircraft is brought into ground effect with a constant AoA, the pilot should expect:

1. Any excess speed at the point of flare to result in a considerable “float” distance
2. A decrease in lift coefficient and reduction in thrust required
3. An increase in induced AoA and induced drag
4. Ground effect to be most realized at altitudes greater than the wingspan

Answer 395

1. Any excess speed at the point of flare to result in a considerable “float” distance

Question 396

What is the main difference between a high altitude stall recovery and a low altitude stall recovery?

1. Indicated airspeed is lower at a high altitude stall
2. Drag divergence is more abrupt at a higher altitude
3. Not as much thrust is available for a high altitude stall recovery
4. There is no difference

Answer 396

3. Not as much thrust is available for a high altitude stall recovery

Question 397

As a wing encounters ground effect and is maintained at a constant lift coefficient:

1. Induced drag is increased, slowing the airplane to the appropriate touchdown speed.
2. There is a reduction in the upwash, downwash, and tip vortices.
3. There is a reduction in the upwash and downwash, which in turn increases the magnitude of the wingtip vortices.
4. The air between the ground and the wing becomes compressed creating a cushion of air which causes the aircraft to float excessively.

Answer 397

2. There is a reduction in the upwash, downwash, and tip vortices.

Question 398

The principle that fluids are flexible but non-compressible is the basis for which major aircraft system?

1. The engine fuel system.
2. The pneumatic system.
3. The hydraulic system.
4. The engine lubrication system.

Answer 398

3. The hydraulic system.

Question 399

One of the most important characteristics of hydraulic fluid is that it cannot be:

1. Capable of breaking down insulation on electrical wires.
2. Susceptible to vaporization.
3. Harmful while coming into contact with human skin.
4. Corrosive.

Answer 399

2. Susceptible to vaporization.

Question 400

An advantage of a hydraulic powered flight control system over a manual control system is:

1. Feedback in controls
2. Immunity from power failures
3. Ease in moving large control surfaces
4. Ability to operate outside the flight envelope

Answer 400

3. Ease in moving large control surfaces

Question 401

The purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is to:

1. Maintain fluid pressure and supply fluid under high demand.
2. Supply hydraulic fluid for normal operations under low demand
3. Compensate for potential loss of pressure at high altitudes.
4. Filter debris and remove air.

Answer 401

1. Maintain fluid pressure and supply fluid under high demand.

Question 402

Why are hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?

1. To provide an alternate source of pressure in case of a hydraulic pump failure.
2. To assure a positive feed of foam-free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes.
3. To ensure an adequate supply of fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet during negative-g flight.
4. To provide an alternate source of hydraulic fluid in the event a hydraulic filter becomes clogged.

Answer 402

2. To assure a positive feed of foam-free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes.

Question 403

When the aircraft is shut down after flight, what is typically used to maintain pressure for the parking brake?

1. The in-line variable restrictor orifice.
2. The hydraulic fuse.
3. The hydraulic reservoir.
4. The hydraulic accumulator.

Answer 403

4. The hydraulic accumulator.

Question 404

The primary purpose of an aircraft’s electrical ground is to:

1. Act as an electrical shock absorber in the event of a lightning strike.
2. Complete the electrical circuit.
3. Dissipate electrical build-ups caused by the airframe’s interaction with clouds that would otherwise interfere with radio transmissions.
4. Electrically connect the aircraft to the fuel truck in order to prevent sparks from occurring when the truck’s fuel hose first comes in contact with the aircraft’s refueling port.

Answer 404

2. Complete the electrical circuit.

Question 405

What electrical device is used to convert direct current from a battery to alternating current?

1. Rectifier
2. Static inverter
3. Battery relay
4. Capacitor

Answer 405

2. Static inverter

Question 406

What would be the indication of an impending constant speed drive failure?

1. Large frequency variations
2. Large voltage variations
3. Increased static in headset
4. Intermittent “off” flags in flight instruments

Answer 406

1. Large frequency variations

Question 407

What device maintains a generator’s frequency?

1. Reduction gears
2. Transformer rectifier
3. Constant speed drive
4. Voltage regulator

Answer 407

3. Constant speed drive

Question 408

How would moving fuel aft in flight affect fuel efficiency?

1. Increase fuel efficiency by counteracting the nose down pitch tendency of the wing.
2. Decrease fuel efficiency by counteracting the nose up pitching tendency of the wing.
3. Increase fuel efficiency by decreasing parasite drag.
4. Increase fuel efficiency by decreasing induced drag.

Answer 408

1. Increase fuel efficiency by counteracting the nose down pitch tendency of the wing.

Question 409

The lift produced by an airfoil is the net force produced ______ to the relative wind.

1. Parallel
2. Adjacent
3. Perpendicular
4. Convergent

Answer 409

3. Perpendicular

Question 410

The drag incurred by an airfoil is the net force produced _____ to the relative wind.

1. Parallel
2. Adjacent
3. Perpendicular
4. Convergent

Answer 410

1. Parallel

Question 411

The effect of airplane gross weight on gliding performance is:

1. As airplane gross weight increases, gliding performance decreases.
2. As airplane gross weight increases, gliding performance increases.
3. Airplane gross weight does not affect gliding performance.
4. As airplane gross weight increases, L/D(max) increases.

Answer 411

3. Airplane gross weight does not affect gliding performance.

Question 412

Extending the flaps will cause the following:

1. Lowering the flaps requires retrimming to balance the nose down moment change.
2. The increase in drag requires a lower power setting to maintain airspeed and altitude.
3. The angle of attack required to produce the same lift coefficient is more.
4. Flap extension tends to cause the aircraft to sink.

Answer 412

3. Airplane gross weight does not affect gliding performance.

Question 413

The purpose of a transformer-rectifier (TR) is to:

1. Convert AC generator output to DC.
2. Convert DC generator output to AC.
3. Step down AC voltage to a lower value.
4. Step down DC voltage to a lower value.

Answer 413

1. Convert AC generator output to DC.

Question 414

The purpose of a transformer is to:

1. Step AC system voltage down.
2. Convert DC power to AC power.
3. Convert AC generator output to DC.
4. Convert DC power output to AC.

Answer 414

1. Step AC system voltage down.

Question 415

The purpose of a diode is to:

1. Allow electricity to flow in only one direction.
2. Convert AC to DC.
3. Act as an electrically operated switch.
4. Amplify current.

Answer 415

1. Allow electricity to flow in only one direction.

Question 416

What increases or decreases the voltage of a generator so it carries its share of the load?

1. Current limiter
2. Paralleling circuit
3. Reverse current cut-out relay
4. Constant speed drive

Answer 416

2. Paralleling circuit

Question 417

What is an advantage of having generators running in parallel?

1. They can share electrical loads.
2. The system voltage can be increased.
3. AC power is more easily converted to DC power.
4. Constant speed drives can be taken off line to extend their service lives.

Answer 417

1. They can share electrical loads.

Question 418

Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because:

1. Kerosene has very high volatility which aids in ignition and lubrication.
2. Kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system components.
3. Kerosene does not contain any water.
4. Kerosene is not susceptible to icing at high altitude.

Answer 418

2. Kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system components.

Question 419

Flight at 0 g would most adversely affect what aircraft system?

1. Hydraulic
2. Engine lubrication
3. Electrical
4. Fuel

Answer 419

1. Hydraulic

Question 420

The direction of the relative wind may be defined as:

1. Being perpendicular to the lift force.
2. Being parallel, but in the same direction as the flight path.
3. Being parallel, but the opposite direction from the flight path.
4. Being perpendicular to the weight vector.

Answer 420

3. Being parallel, but the opposite direction from the flight path.

Question 421

How are lift and/or drag affected if angle of attack is decreased?

1. Lift will increase if the angle of attack was previously greater than L/D max.
2. Lift will increase if the angle of attack was previously less than L/D max.
3. Drag will increase if the angle of attack was previously less than L/D max.
4. Drag will increase if the angle of attack was previously greater than L/D max.

Answer 421

1. Lift will increase if the angle of attack was previously greater than L/D max.

Question 422

Critical angle of attack is defined as:

1. The angle of attack where net lift is zero.
2. The angle of attack where airflow over the wing reaches the speed of sound.
3. The angle of attack at which a stall warning is designed to activate.
4. The angle of attack which produces the maximum lift coefficient.

Answer 422

4. The angle of attack which produces the maximum lift coefficient.

Question 423

An aircraft is decelerating to configure for landing and lowers its landing gear. How are thrust and lift affected if the pilot wants to maintain altitude?

1. Thrust must be increased to overcome the added drag.
2. Lift must be increased to overcome the added drag.
3. Lift and thrust must both be increased due to added parasite drag and induced drag.
4. Lift must be decreased to reduce induced drag and thrust increased due to parasite drag.

Answer 423

3. Lift and thrust must both be increased due to added parasite drag and induced drag.

Question 424

In level flight increasing airspeed will result in:

1. Increased parasite drag and increased induced drag.
2. Decreased parasite drag and decreased induced drag.
3. Increased parasite drag and decreased induced drag.
4. Decreased parasite drag and increased induced drag.

Answer 424

3. Increased parasite drag and decreased induced drag.

Question 425

Which is not a typical cause of compressor stalls?

1. Fuel starvation.
2. Mechanical malfunctions.
3. Unstable airflow at the engine inlet.
4. Low airspeed/high thrust power settings.

Answer 425

1. Fuel starvation.

Question 426

A major advantage ni-cad batteries over lead-acid batteries is that ni-cad batteries:

1. Put out sustained voltage over a longer period of time.
2. Are less expensive.
3. Are not subject to thermal runway.
4. Do not need to be deep-cycled for optimal performance.

Answer 426

1. Put out sustained voltage over a longer period of time.

Question 427

Your ammeter pointer displays a positive indication. What information does this provide to the pilot?

1. The charging rate of the battery.
2. More current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced.
3. The amount of charging current demanded by the battery.
4. The battery is fully charged.

Answer 427

1. The charging rate of the battery.

Question 428

Which are the protective functions of an AC generator control unit?

1. Undervoltage, differential fault, and manual paralleling.
2. Generator underspeed and bus-tie circuit-breaker automatic closing.
3. Overvoltage, current limiting, and generator underspeed.
4. Overvoltage, current limiting, and generator overspeed.

Answer 428

4. Overvoltage, current limiting, and generator overspeed.

Question 429

The purpose of a constant speed drive for an AC generator is to:

1. Control field strength
2. Regulate generator voltage
3. Maintain a uniform frequency
4. Regulate generator current

Answer 429

3. Maintain a uniform frequency

Question 430

How are airplane AC generators rated?

1. Volts
2. Kilowatts (KW)
3. Kilovolt-amps (KVA)
4. Amps

Answer 430

3. Kilovolt-amps (KVA)

Question 431

The ground marshaller is guiding your captain by placing his arms down, with palms toward the ground, and then moves them up and down several times. This is a signal that:

1. The aircraft chocks have been installed.
2. Both engines should be shut down.
3. You should slow down.
4. Your nose wheel taxi light should be turned off.

Answer 431

3. You should slow down.

Question 432

The primary reason for using a crossfeed fuel system is to:

1. Be able to purge any fuel tank.
2. Allow fuel to be used for ballast when needed.
3. Jettison fuel during emergencies.
4. Help maintain aircraft center of gravity.

Answer 432

4. Help maintain aircraft center of gravity.

Question 433

The primary purpose of the fuel-oil heat exchanger is to:

1. Cool the entire oil system in order to keep it within operating limits.
2. Cool the oil prior to it being released into the shafts bearing assembly.
3. Heat the fuel to prevent ice crystals from clogging fuel filters.
4. Heat the fuel to prevent clogging the transfer lines.

Answer 433

3. Heat the fuel to prevent ice crystals from clogging fuel filters.

Question 434

Mixing aviation gasoline with jet fuel will affect a turbine powerplant by forming deposits on the:

1. Turbine blades.
2. Compressor blades.
3. Inlet guide vanes.
4. Fan blades.

Answer 434

1. Turbine blades.

Question 435

The primary purpose for utilizing boost pumps in the fuel system is to:

1. Prevent uporting of fuel on takeoff.
2. Provide a positive fuel flow to the engine driven fuel pump.
3. Provide fuel transfer between tanks to prevent a fuel imbalance.
4. Provide fuel transfer between tanks to maintain an optimum CG position.

Answer 435

2. Provide a positive fuel flow to the engine driven fuel pump.

Question 436

You are flying in an autoland equipped aircraft that is fully loaded for a long haul flight. The prevailing visibility at your departure airport is very low. After takeoff you detect smoke in the cockpit and all checklists to deal with the smoke are then completed. The aircraft is well above maximum landing weight. What is the best course of action?

1. Dump fuel to be at or below maximum landing weight at touchdown.
2. Declare an emergency for priority handling and land overweight.
3. Contact the company for direction and to coordinate priority handling from ATC.
4. Divert to your takeoff alternate if the weather is below minimums at your departure.

Answer 436

2. Declare an emergency for priority handling and land overweight.

Question 437

The principal method of lubrication on modern aircraft engines is:

1. Pressure lubrication.
2. Splash lubrication.
3. Spray lubrication.
4. Mist lubrication.

Answer 437

1. Pressure lubrication.

Question 438

What advantages do autobrakes provide?

1. Modulation of individual brakes for greater efficiency.
2. Reduced chances of hydroplaning.
3. Constant deceleration.
4. Less wear and tear of antiskid valves.

Answer 438

3. Constant deceleration.

Question 439

You are landing on a very short runway in a B757 near its maximum gross landing weight. What protections, if any, do tire fuse plugs provide in this situation?

1. No protection.
2. Protection against thermal expansion.
3. Protection against hydraulic overpressure in the anti-skid system.
4. Protection against brake fade.

Answer 439

2. Protection against thermal expansion.

Question 440

What color are the runway edge lights on an instrument runway?

1. White, but the last 3,000 feet are alternating red and white.
2. White, but the last 2,000 feet are red.
3. White, but the last 1,000 feet are red.
4. White, but the last 2,000 feet are yellow.

Answer 440

4. White, but the last 2,000 feet are yellow.

Question 441

Refer to figure 2625. While taxiing an aircraft you come across a pink circle painted on the taxiway with a “4 A” inside. This means:

1. You are on taxiway “4 A”.
2. You are approaching runway holding point “4 A”.
3. You are at geographic position “4 A”.
4. You are approaching taxiway “4 A”.

Answer 441

3. You are at geographic position “4 A”.

Question 442

Refer to Figure 2645. What does this marking mean on a taxiway?

1. Roadway edge stripes.
2. Active runway boundary.
3. ILS critical area boundary.
4. No taxi area boundary.

Answer 442

1. Roadway edge stripes.

Question 443

Refer to Figure 2646. What does this sign mean?

1. You are on runway 18/36 approaching taxiway intersection T.
2. You are on taxiway T approaching a runway. If you turn left you would be on runway 18. If you turn right you would be on runway 36.
3. You are on taxiway T approaching a runway. If you turn left you would be on runway 36. If you turn right you would be on runway 18.
4. You are on taxiway T approaching parking spot numbers 18 through 36.

Answer 443

3. You are on taxiway T approaching a runway. If you turn left you would be on runway 36. If you turn right you would be on runway 18.

Question 444

Refer to figure 2628. While taxing your aircraft to runway 15 you see this marking painted on the taxiway. This marking means:

1. Aircraft exiting runway 33 are to hold short of this line until receiving clearance from ground control.
2. Runway 15 holding position.
3. Airport vehicles must not drive past this point until receiving clearance from ATC.
4. Runway 15 ILS holding position.

Answer 444

4. Runway 15 ILS holding position.

Question 445

Holding airspeed in the U.S. at 6,000 feet and below is:

1. 200 KIAS
2. 210 KIAS
3. 220 KIAS
4. 230 KIAS

Answer 445

1. 200 KIAS

Question 446

You are approaching XYZ VOR from the southwest and your heading is 045 degrees. ATC instructs you to hold east on the 090 degree radial, right turns. You should expect what type of entry?

1. Teardrop
2. Direct
3. Parallel
4. Any of the above

Answer 446

1. Teardrop

Question 447

You are approaching XYZ VOR from the southwest and your heading is 045 degrees. ATC instructs you to hold on the 270 degree radial, left turns. You should expect what type of entry?

1. Teardrop
2. Direct
3. Parallel
4. Any of the above

Answer 447

2. Direct

Question 448

You are approaching XYZ VOR from the northwest and your heading is 135 degrees. ATC instructs you to hold west on the 270 degree radial, left turns. You should expect what type of entry?

1. Teardrop
2. Direct
3. Parallel
4. Any of the above

Answer 448

3. Parallel

Question 449

You are starting engines at an airport with an altitude of 5700ft MSL and 32 degrees C. You notice that the EGT is rising rapidly as N2 increases. What start anomaly are you experiencing and what is the appropriate action?

1. No start, disengage the starter.
2. Hot start, disengage the starter.
3. Hung start, re-engage the starter and motor the engine.
4. Hot start, cutoff the fuel.

Answer 449

4. Hot start, cutoff the fuel.

Question 450

Which of the following might contribute to an engine hot start?

1. A headwind in excess of 15 knots.
2. A tailwind.
3. Ice blocking the P2T2 sensor.
4. Insufficient fuel flow.

Answer 450

2. A tailwind.

Question 451

During engine starts, what initial indication might signify an impending hot start?

1. Low n1 rotation
2. Higher than normal fuel flow
3. Higher than normal n1 rotation
4. Lower than normal fuel flow

Answer 451

2. Higher than normal fuel flow

Question 452

Fill in the blanks: Fowler flaps not only ____ the trailing edge of the wing when deployed but also slide ___, effectively ____ the area of the wing.

1. Raise, forward, decreasing.
2. Lower, laterally, increasing.
3. Raise, aft, increasing.
4. Lower, forward, decreasing.

Answer 452

2. Lower, laterally, increasing.

Question 453

An enhanced version of the Fowler flap:

1. Has sections that combine and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as aft of each of the flap sections.
2. Has sections that raise and leave a continuous slot below the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections.
3. Has sections that separate and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections.
4. Has a section that separates to leave an open slot above the wing and fore flap, as well as below each of the flap sections.

Answer 453

3. Has sections that separate and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections.

Question 454

Based on your clean configuration you determine that your best aerodynamic holding speed is 234 knots. You are assigned holding at 6,000 feet MSL. Which of the following options is best with regard to configuration and airspeed?

1. Change configuration and slow to 200 knots
2. Change configuration and slow to 210 knots
3. Maintain configuration and 234 knots
4. Maintain configuration and 265 knots.

Answer 454

1. Change configuration and slow to 200 knots

Question 455

You are flying a two-engine commercial aircraft. The aircraft is proceeding direct to the XYZ VOR on a heading of 270 degrees at 13,000 feet. You have just been cleared to hold SW of the XYZ VOR on the 210 radial.
Once established in the holding pattern, your outbound heading and timing should be:
1. 200, 0:52
2. 200, 1:08
3. 220, 0:52
4. 220, 1:08

Answer 455

4. 220, 1:08

Question 456

On Fowler flaps, air from the underside of the wing flows through slots that enhances:

1. Laminar flow on the lower surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increases overall lift.
2. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the lower camber and effective wing area increases overall lift.
3. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area decrease overall lift.
4. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increase overall lift.

Answer 456

4. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increase overall lift.

Question 457

If upon configuring for landing the leading edge slats on the left wing do not all extend, what would you expect?

1. A roll to the left and a yaw to the right.
2. A roll to the left and a yaw to the left.
3. A roll to the right and a yaw to the right.
4. A roll to the right and a yaw to the left.

Answer 457

1. A roll to the left and a yaw to the right.

Question 458

How would the aircraft’s deck angle for landing and stall speed be different if the trailing edge flaps were inoperative?

1. A higher deck angle and higher stall speed.
2. A higher deck angle and lower stall speed.
3. A lower deck angle and higher stall speed.
4. A lower deck angle and lower stall speed.

Answer 458

1. A higher deck angle and higher stall speed.

Question 459

What advantage does a slotted flap have over an unslotted flap?

1. Allows for a higher AOA by keeping the boundary layer intact along the top of the wing.
2. Creates less drag, thus allowing for a lower power setting.
3. Decelerates air over the top of the wing, thereby allowing for a slower approach speed.
4. Increases the platform area of the wing to produce more lift.

Answer 459

1. Allows for a higher AOA by keeping the boundary layer intact along the top of the wing.

Question 460

High fuel flow during engine start can be an indication of what?

1. A tailwind
2. Introducing fuel into the engine before the compressor is up to proper speed.
3. Engine fuel pump malfunction
4. Fuel control malfunction

Answer 460

4. Fuel control malfunction

Question 461

What electrical device is used to convert alternating current to direct current?

1. Rectifier
2. Static inverter
3. Battery relay
4. Capacitor

Answer 461

1. Rectifier

Question 462

During an engine start after the fuel is introduced, the engine fails to reach a self-sustaining speed. This might be an example of which type of start anomaly?

1. Hot start
2. No start anomaly exists in this scenario
3. Hung start
4. No start

Answer 462

3. Hung start

Question 463

During an engine start you notice that the n2 is lower than normal and the EGT is higher than usually seen, but not excessive or approaching the start limits. What problem, if any, is the engine experiencing?

1. A hot start
2. Start is normal
3. A possible hung start
4. Weak igniters in the combustor section

Answer 463

3. A possible hung start

Question 464

Which start anomaly, if any, is caused by the engine reaching a self-sustaining speed but the combustion is unstable?

1. Hot start
2. Start is normal
3. No ignition
4. Hung start

Answer 464

1. Hot start

Question 465

Entering holding, pilots are expected to start a speed reduction ___ or less from the holding fix so as to cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding speed.

1. 2 minutes
2. 3 minutes
3. 4 minutes
4. 5 minutes

Answer 465

2. 3 minutes

Question 466

Which statement regarding holding patterns is incorrect?

1. The standard holding pattern direction comprises right-hand turns.
2. The outbound track timing should be 1 minute below 14,000 ft and 1.5 minutes at or above 14,000 feet.
3. All turns in a holding pattern should be standard rate turns of 3 degrees per second.
4. The three types of entry into a holding pattern are parallel entry, teardrop entry, or direct entry.

Answer 466

2. The outbound track timing should be 1 minute below 14,000 ft and 1.5 minutes at or above 14,000 feet.

Question 467

You are making an intersection takeoff on runway 10 with 7500 feet of runway available. On your takeoff roll, you notice the runway centerline lights turn from all white to alternating red and white. This would indicate:

1. You are in the last 500 feet of the runway.
2. You are in the last 1000 feet of the runway.
3. You are in the last 2000 feet of the runway.
4. You are in the last 3000 feet of the runway.

Answer 467

4. You are in the last 3000 feet of the runway.

Question 468

You have received instructions from Ground Control to taxi to Runway 22, via taxiways X, Y, Z. Taxiway X crosses runway 9 and taxiway Y crosses runway 22. Where would ground control direct you to hold?

1. The apron short of Taxiway X.
2. On taxiway X, short of runway 9.
3. On taxiway Y, short of runway 22.
4. On taxiway Z, short of runway 22.

Answer 468

2. On taxiway X, short of runway 9.

Question 469

Which runway lighting depicts 2000 feet remaining?

1. Centerline lighting turns from all white to alternating red and white.
2. Centerline lighting turns all red.
3. Runway edge lighting turns from white to amber.
4. There is no specific 2000 feet remaining depiction.

Answer 469

3. Runway edge lighting turns from white to amber.

Question 470

Which runway lighting depicts 3000 feet remaining?

1. Centerline lighting turns from all white to alternating red and white.
2. Centerline lighting turns to all red lights.
3. Runway edge lighting turns to amber.
4. There is no specific 3000 feet remaining depiction

Answer 470

1. Centerline lighting turns from all white to alternating red and white.

Question 471

When cleared by an airport ground control to taxi to a particular runway, the captain is cleared to:

1. Taxi until reaching an intersection runway - active, or inactive or closed - and hold for further clearance.
2. Taxi across runways and taxiways and line up o n the named runway prior to takeoff.
3. Taxi via taxiways and across intersecting runways to the named runway, but hold short of the runway.
4. Taxi across the named runway to access a parallel taxiway and proceed to the approach end of the runway.

Answer 471

1. Taxi until reaching an intersection runway - active, or inactive or closed - and hold for further clearance.

Question 472

Upon landing on a wet runway you discover that the antiskid has failed. You apply the brakes and the aircraft begins to skid. What is the best method to regain control of the aircraft?

1. Only apply brakes on the downwind wheels and re-establish a positive track
2. Apply more pressure to the upwind wheels.
3. Release the brakes and re-establish a track down the runway. Then re-apply brakes.
4. Apply more braking force to the skidding wheel.

Answer 472

3. Release the brakes and re-establish a track down the runway. Then re-apply brakes.

Question 473

Oil extracts the most heat from which turbine engine components?

1. Constant speed drive bearings
2. Compressor bearings
3. Accessory drive bearings
4. Turbine bearings

Answer 473

4. Turbine bearings

Question 474

The primary function of the oil system in the modern gas turbine engine is to:

1. Cool and lubricate the main bearings and accessory drive gears.
2. Move the variable geometry diffusers and inlet guide vanes.
3. Heat the fuel just prior to entering the fuel filters.
4. Operate the thrust reversers.

Answer 474

1. Cool and lubricate the main bearings and accessory drive gears.

Question 475

If the oil cooler relief valve should stick in the open position, what would be the probable result?

1. Decreased oil temperature
2. Increased oil temperature
3. Pressurization of the case and oil leakage
4. Increase in oil pressure

Answer 475

2. Increased oil temperature

Question 476

Why are fixed orifice nozzles used in the lubrication system of turbine engines?

1. To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the main bearings at all engine speeds.
2. To keep pressure on the oil pump, thus preventing an air lock.
3. To protect oil seals by preventing excessive pressure from entering the bearing cavities.
4. To keep pressure on the oil pump, thus preventing oil foaming.

Answer 476

1. To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the main bearings at all engine speeds.

Question 477

During climb out on departure your EGT and engine RPM indications are fluctuating significantly on your number 2 engine. You suspect a compressor stall. The pilot with whom you are flying references the airplane’s QRH for the appropriate procedure. In the meantime, as you are flying, the best course of action would be to:

1. Reduce the throttle, increase the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.
2. Reduce the throttle, decrease the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.
3. Increase the throttle, decrease the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.
4. Increase the throttle, increase the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.

Answer 477

2. Reduce the throttle, decrease the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.

Question 478

The most common causes of compressor stalls are mechanical malfunctions and:

1. Airflow temperature
2. Airflow distortion
3. Airflow reversal
4. Airflow pressure

Answer 478

2. Airflow distortion

Question 479

In the event of a compressor stall a remedy and recovery could be initiated by:

1. Reducing the angle of attack
2. Shutting the engine down
3. Increasing fuel flow
4. Turning on Thermal Anti-Ice

Answer 479

1. Reducing the angle of attack

Question 480

During a go-around in Phoenix AZ with a heavy airplane, you experience a compressor stall. The proper reaction to a compressor stall is to:

1. Maintain fuel flow, increase angle of attack, and decrease airspeed.
2. Maintain fuel flow, maintain pitch, and increase airspeed.
3. Reduce fuel flow, increase angle of attack, and increase airspeed.
4. Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed.

Answer 480

4. Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed.

Question 481

During the takeoff phase of flight, an airplane leaving ground effect will:

1. Require a decrease in the angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
2. Experience an increase in induced drag and thrust required.
3. Experience an increase in stability.
4. Experience a decrease in interference drag.

Answer 481

2. Experience an increase in induced drag and thrust required.

Question 482

Flying an airplane in ground effect at a slower than normal air speed is possible because:

1. The thrust is increased to overcome induced drag.
2. The angle of attack is increased to maintain the total aerodynamic force.
3. The angle of incidence is decreased to maintain a required coefficient of lift.
4. Induced drag is reduced thereby allowing a lower angle of attack.

Answer 482

4. Induced drag is reduced thereby allowing a lower angle of attack.

Question 483

The reduction of induced flow due to ground effect causes a significant reduction in induced drag but causes no direct effect on:

1. Parasite drag.
2. Profile drag.
3. Induced drag.
4. Total drag.

Answer 483

1. Parasite drag.

Question 484

Ground effect allows you to:

1. Obtain the same lift at a lower angle of attack with reduced drag.
2. Obtain more lift with a higher angle of attack at the same drag.
3. Obtain less lift with a lower angle of attack at the same drag.
4. Obtain the same lift with a higher angle of attack with reduced drag.

Answer 484

1. Obtain the same lift at a lower angle of attack with reduced drag.

Question 485

Which statement is true regarding aircraft stalls?

1. Stall speed is constant for a given airplane and is only affected by altitude.
2. Increasing load factor decreases stall speed.
3. The stall AoA for a given airplane is based on gross weight.
4. An aircraft stalls at the same AoA regardless of airspeed, weight, load factor or density altitude.

Answer 485

4. An aircraft stalls at the same AoA regardless of airspeed, weight, load factor or density altitude.

Question 486

In a descent maintaining angle of attack, as an aircraft slows with its flaps extended, which statement below is true?

1. Parasite drag decreases.
2. Parasite drag increases.
3. Induced drag decreases.
4. Induced drag increases.

Answer 486

1. Parasite drag decreases.

Question 487

While maintaining airspeed, an aircraft extends its flaps for landing. Which statement below is true?

1. Parasite drag stays the same.
2. Parasite drag increases.
3. Induced drag decreases.
4. Induced drag increases.

Answer 487

4. Induced drag increases.

Question 488

Which of the following is not a form of parasite drag?

1. Form drag
2. Interference drag
3. Skin friction
4. Induced drag

Answer 488

4. Induced drag

Question 489

An airplane is slowing and maintaining altitude with no change in configuration. Which of the following is true?

1. Parasite drag and induced drag are increasing.
2. Induced drag is increasing, parasite drag is constant.
3. Induced drag is increasing, parasite drag is decreasing.
4. Induced drag and parasite drag are decreasing.

Answer 489

3. Induced drag is increasing, parasite drag is decreasing.

Question 490

Which best describes the relationship of parasite drag and induced drag?

1. Parasite drag is independent of lift, induced drag is lift dependent.
2. Parasite drag and induced drag are lift dependent.
3. Induced drag is independent of lift and parasite drag is lift dependent.
4. Parasite drag is directly proportional to induced drag.

Answer 490

1. Parasite drag is independent of lift, induced drag is lift dependent.

Question 491

A typical performance condition which occurs at L/Dmax is:

1. Maximum range for jet powered aircraft.
2. Maximum endurance for jet powered aircraft.
3. Maximum climb rate for jet powered aircraft.
4. Long range cruise speed for jet powered aircraft.

Answer 491

2. Maximum endurance for jet powered aircraft.

Question 492

The section of an engine which increases the energy of the air received from the entrance duct, then discharges it into the diffuser section and the combustion chamber is called:

1. Divergent duct
2. Compressor
3. Convergent duct
4. Stage Turbine

Answer 492

2. Compressor

Question 493

The primary function of the turbine section in a gas turbine engine is to:

1. Progressively “squeeze” air in preparation for combustion.
2. Accelerate air from the combustion section and subsequently provide thrust through the exhaust nozzles.
3. Help to direct and compress the flow of air between each set of rotor blades.
4. Drive the compressors through common shafts.

Answer 493

4. Drive the compressors through common shafts.

Question 494

The turbine section of an engine is responsible for:

1. Providing the means for proper mixing of the fuel and air prior to combustion.
2. Directing the flow of hot gases rearward to cause a high exit velocity.
3. Dividing the airflow into primary and secondary air.
4. Driving the compressor and the accessories.

Answer 494

4. Driving the compressor and the accessories.

Question 495

In the combustion/burner section of an engine, primary air is used for what purpose?

1. Mixing with fuel prior to combustion.
2. Flowing around the chamber for cooling and to control the flame.
3. Serving as afterburner.
4. Turning the turbine connected to the fan blades.

Answer 495

1. Mixing with fuel prior to combustion.

Question 496

Which of the following could cause a compressor stall?

1. Engine RPM is too low.
2. Low pressure in subsequent compressor stages.
3. A bleed air valve stuck in the open position.
4. Insufficient intake air.

Answer 496

4. Insufficient intake air.

Question 497

Wake turbulence would be the strongest behind an aircraft that is:

1. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
2. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
3. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
4. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps up.

Answer 497

1. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

Question 498

Which is the best method to avoid wake turbulence?

1. Rotate past the preceding aircraft rotate point.
2. Touchdown past the landing point of the preceding aircraft.
3. Select a runway downwind of the preceding aircraft.
4. Stay slightly below the flight path of the preceding aircraft.

Answer 498

2. Touchdown past the landing point of the preceding aircraft.

Question 499

Rudders on modern transport aircraft are designed and sized mainly for:

1. Prevention of dutch roll at high altitude/airspeed.
2. Yaw control for engine failure at low takeoff speeds.
3. Lateral stability at high altitude and low airspeed.
4. Strength to withstand multiple control reversals at high speed.

Answer 499

2. Yaw control for engine failure at low takeoff speeds.

Question 500

A swept wing aircraft loses the right engine in flight. The aircraft will:

1. Yaw right and roll left due to the left sideslip.
2. Yaw left and roll left due to left sideslip.
3. Yaw right and roll right due to left sideslip.
4. Yaw right and demonstrate no rolling tendency.

Answer 500

3. Yaw right and roll right due to left sideslip.

Question 501

While on your initial descent to land you are currently leveling off at FL370. As you advance the throttles the right engine fails to respond and it remains at idle. The aircraft is currently at its maximum landing weight. Which of the following choices would be your most immediate concern or action?

1. Reference the emergency procedures checklist for an appropriate procedure.
2. Declare an emergency and request a lower altitude for driftdown purposes.
3. Contact maintenance for the course of action.
4. Perform an inflight engine shutdown.

Answer 501

2. Declare an emergency and request a lower altitude for driftdown purposes.

Question 502

During the winter in South America, you takeoff from Santiago, Chile (elev. 1552) to Denver, Colorado (elev. 5280). What type of performance may you expect from your turbo fan engines upon arrival?

1. Worse, as temperature increases, pressure decreases, thrust increases.
2. Worse, as temperature increases, pressure decreases, thrust decreases.
3. Little discernible difference.
4. Worse, as temperature increases, pressure increases, thrust decreases.

Answer 502

2.Worse, as temperature increases, pressure decreases, thrust decreases.

Question 503

Ram effect increases thrust, intake pressure, and:

1. Air Mass Flow
2. Drag
3. Cooling Effect
4. Compression Rotation

Answer 503

1. Air Mass Flow

Question 504

How does “ram effect” affect performance of a turbine engine?

1. Increases pressure at the engine inlet, thus increasing performance.
2. Increasing temperature at the engine inlet, thus increasing performance.
3. Increasing pressure at the engine inlet, thus decreasing performance.
4. Decreases air density at the engine inlet, thus decreasing performance.

Answer 504

1. Increases pressure at the engine inlet, thus increasing performance

Question 505

Which engine instrument will best indicate engine damage?

1. N1
2. N2
3. EGT
4. Fuel Flow

Answer 505

3. EGT

Question 506

Engine pressure ratio is determined by:

1. Dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
2. Multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
3. Dividing turbine outlet total pressure by ambient air pressure.
4. Diving turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

Answer 506

4. Diving turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

Question 507

Which of these items would not normally be fitted to the engine accessory systems?

1. EGT/TIT
2. N2
3. Engine driven fuel pump
4. N1

Answer 507

1. EGT/TIT

Question 508

Which of these is the best indication that the engine has seized in flight?

1. EGT/TIT at or near zero
2. Oil pressure at zero
3. Fuel flow abnormally high
4. Residual voltage on the associated generator

Answer 508

2. Oil pressure at zero

Question 509

The primary function of the compressor section in a gas turbine engine is:

1. Progressively “squeeze” air in preparation for combustion.
2. Compress air which is used to pressurize the cabin.
3. Provide bleed air for the anti-ice/de-ice system.
4. Turn the turbines through a mechanical connection on a common shaft.

Answer 509

1. Progressively “squeeze” air in preparation for combustion.

Question 510

On a jet engine, the process of taking high velocity, low pressure air, and turning it into low velocity, high pressure air is the primary function of the:

1. Compressor
2. Turbine
3. Diffuser
4. Combustion chamber

Answer 510

3. Diffuser

Question 511

Describe the purpose of the compressor section of a turbojet engine:

1. Increase the pressure of the air flowing through the engine.
2. Increase the speed of the air flowing through the engine.
3. Turn the turbine via their common shaft.
4. Provide the engine’s thrust through compression.

Answer 511

1. Increase the pressure of the air flowing through the engine.

Question 512

Where is the highest pressure in a gas turbine?

1. Compressor inlet
2. Compressor discharge
3. Turbine discharge
4. Engine exhaust nozzle

Answer 512

2. Compressor discharge

Question 513

On a wing, drag works:

1. Parallel to the relative wind.
2. Parallel to the wing’s chord line.
3. Parallel to the earth’s surface.
4. Parallel to the aircraft’s average thrust vector.

Answer 513

1. Parallel to the relative wind.

Question 514

Induced drag can be defined as:

1. Drag that occurs as the result of various aircraft components interacting with one another.
2. The difference between an aircraft’s effective lift and the lift of its wing.
3. The difference between the aircraft’s longitudinal axis and the relative wind.
4. The difference between an aircraft’s longitudinal axis and its wing’s chord line.

Answer 514

2. The difference between an aircraft’s effective lift and the lift of its wing.

Question 515

At subsonic speeds the drag that increases substantially with increased airspeed is:

1. Induced
2. Parasite
3. Compressibility
4. Aerodynamic

Answer 515

2. Parasite

Question 516

Which type of drag is most affected by increasing the payload of an airplane by 75,000 lbs?

1. Parasite
2. Compressibility
3. Induced
4. Aerodynamic

Answer 516

3. Induced

Question 517

The phenomenon exhibited by swept wing airplanes in response to a disturbance from equilibrium in a combined rolling yawing oscillation is known as:

1. Spiral instability
2. Adverse yaw
3. Dutch roll
4. Proverse yaw

Answer 517

3. Dutch roll

Question 518

Which statement is true regarding Dutch Roll?

1. Dutch roll is more pronounced at high altitude and low true airspeed.
2. Some aircraft are equipped with roll dampers to reduce Dutch roll.
3. Swept wing aircraft are less susceptible to Dutch roll.
4. Dutch roll is more pronounced at high altitude and high mach number.

Answer 518

4. Dutch roll is more pronounced at high altitude and high mach number.

Question 519

Refer to 2643. The wing angle in figure 2643 is defined as:

1. Wing swept angle
2. Angle of attack
3. Angle of incidence
4. Dihedral angle

Answer 519

4. Dihedral angle

Question 520

Compare the following ILS approaches. Approach A is an ILS to RWY 4 KLGA (LaGuardia NY, field elevation 22 feet). Approach B is an ILS to RWY 34L in KSLC (Salt Lake City Utah, field elevation 4227). Assume no wind and temperature 15 degrees C at both fields. Which statement is correct concerning the final approach at these airports?

1. The descent rate at both airports will be the same.
2. The final approach indicated airspeed at KSLC will be higher.
3. The descent rate at KSLC will be higher.
4. The final approach ground speed at KLGA will be higher.

Answer 520

3. The descent rate at KSLC will be higher.

Question 521

The aircraft you are flying is level at 11,000 feet maintaining 320 KIAS. You are instructed to slow to 250 KIAS then descend and maintain 3,000 feet. The ram air temperature (RAT) indicates 13 degrees C. If the lapse rate is standard, what would you expect to happen to the RAT as you slow and then descend?

1. The RAT will remain steady at 11,000 feet as you slow, and then increase steadily as you descend to 3,000 feet.
2. The RAT will rise as the aircraft slows, and then continue to rise as the aircraft descends.
3. The RAT will decrease as the aircraft slows, and then increase as the aircraft descends.
4. The RAT will decrease as the aircraft slows, and then continue to decrease as the aircraft descends.

Answer 521

3. The RAT will decrease as the aircraft slows, and then increase as the aircraft descends.

Question 522

Regarding kinetic energy and landing distance, which variable has the most effect?

1. Weight
2. Speed
3. Slope
4. Wind

Answer 522

2. Speed

Question 523

In a skid the yawing moment is toward the ____ of the turn. Turn radius will ____ and turn rate will _____.

1. Outside, increase, decrease.
2. Inside, decrease, increase.
3. Outside, decrease, increase.
4. Inside, increase, decrease.

Answer 523

2. Inside, decrease, increase.

Question 524

As you are flying along in a transport aircraft which is thrust limited you note that your angle of attack is increasing. At what angle of attack is all of your lift converted to drag?

1. 30 deg
2. 50 deg
3. 70 deg
4. 90 deg

Answer 524

4. 90 deg

Question 525

While in a descent from FL330 to FL100 you are given a clearance to maintain mach.76 until you are able to transition to 330 KIAS. Which of the following statements is true?

1. Transition from mach speed to knots will happen at a higher altitude than if instructed to fly at 250 KIAS.
2. Transition from mach speeds to knots will happen at a lower altitude than if instructed to fly at 250 KIAS.
3. Transition from mach speed to knots will be at the same altitude regardless of speed.
4. Transition level is 18,000 feet at all times.

Answer 525

2. Transition from mach speeds to knots will happen at a lower altitude than if instructed to fly at 250 KIAS.

Question 526

When flying at altitudes above the mach change over point we use mach number as a speed reference. what ratio does mach number represent?

1. Indicated airspeed/speed of sound.
2. Calibrated airspeed/speed of sound.
3. Actual airspeed/speed of sound.
4. True airspeed/speed of sound.

Answer 526

4. True airspeed/speed of sound.

Question 527

Which of the following is true concerning mach?

1. Mach is the speed of an object divided by the speed of sound.
2. Mach will increase when temperature increases.
3. For a given speed, mach is constant with altitude.
4. Mach can only be determined for supersonic flight.

Answer 527

1. Mach is the speed of an object divided by the speed of sound.

Question 528

Which of the following is most closely related to the circadian rhythm of the body?

1. Eating habits
2. Oral temperature
3. Sleeping habits
4. Mood habits

Answer 528

3. Sleeping habits

Question 529

Which of the following is most common physiological symptom associated with long-range flying?

1. Disturbances of the normal eating pattern
2. Disturbances of the normal sleeping pattern
3. Oral temperature disturbances.
4. Body systems shift their phases at the same rate.

Answer 529

2. Disturbances of the normal sleeping pattern

Question 530

From factors affecting pilots, the most insidious one is:

1. Fatigue
2. Psychological problems
3. Physiological problems
4. Legal and administration issues

Answer 530

1. Fatigue

Question 531

See figure 4247. You are established on the 14 DME arc passing the 180 radial. You should commence your procedure turn:

1. At HINDY
2. When passing the lead radial (196)
3. You are not expected to fly the procedure turn
4. When cleared for the approach and past the 196 lead radial

Answer 531

3. You are not expected to fly the procedure turn

Question 532

See figure 4248. You are at 2 DME (DRO) with tower instructions to go around. No further instructions are given. Which of these describes your situation?

1. You must stay at current altitude and start your right turn immediately.
2. You may climb and start your turn immediately.
3. You may start your climb to 7100 immediately but must wait to turn until the MAP.
4. You should climb to pattern altitude and turn downwind.

Answer 532

3. You may start your climb to 7100 immediately but must wait to turn until the MAP.

Question 533

See figure 4249. Which statement is true regarding the low enroute chart above:

1. The MSA at Belcher is 3200 feet
2. The MEA at Homer is 3200 feet
3. At El Dorado, you would contact El Dorado FSS on 122.65
4. At El Dorado, you would contact the RCO Jonesboro on 122.65

Answer 533

4. At El Dorado, you would contact the RCO Jonesboro on 122.65

Question 534

Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft in a stall?

1. An aircraft stalls when there is a wide spread separation of the boundary layer from the upper wing surface.
2. An aircraft cannot be stalled in a dive.
3. An aircraft stall has no relationship to elevator/control column position.
4. An aircraft stall is solely related to the aircraft’s speed.

Answer 534

1. An aircraft stalls when there is a wide spread separation of the boundary layer from the upper wing surface.

Question 535

Which instrument would be unaffected if the static vents were clogged or iced over?

1. Altimeter
2. Artificial horizon
3. Airspeed indicator
4. VVI

Answer 535

2. Artificial horizon

Question 536

The altitude that is read directly from the altimeter when it is set to a local setting is called:

1. Pressure altitude
2. True altitude
3. Indicated altitude
4. Calibrated altitude

Answer 536

3. Indicated altitude

Question 537

For each 100-foot change in altitude, the barometric pressure changes approximately:

1. 1 inch
2. 0.1 inch
3. 0.01 inch
4. 1 millibar

Answer 537

2. 0.1 inch

Question 538

You are flying an ILS with a three degree glide slope, at a speed of 142 knots, and a head wind of 20 knots. The vertical speed will be:

1. 550 FPM
2. 600 FPM
3. 710 FPM
4. 1400 FPM

Answer 538

2. 600 FPM

Question 539

True airspeed is which of the following?

1. The uncorrected airspeed directly from the airspeed indicator.
2. The airspeed indicator corrected for instrument and installation errors.
3. Ground speed corrected for the wind component.
4. Airspeed corrected for incompressible dynamic pressure.

Answer 539

3. Ground speed corrected for the wind component.

Question 540

What is the relationship of lift, weight, and drag?

1. Lift plus drag equals weight.
2. Lift plus thrust equals weight plus drag.
3. Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
4. Lift plus weight equals thrust plus drag.

Answer 540

3. Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

Question 541

Which flight control, relatively speaking, becomes more effective as angle of attack is increased?

1. Aileron
2. Rudder
3. Elevator
4. Speed Brakes

Answer 541

2. Rudder

Question 542

If an aircraft is trimmed properly, the aircraft will return to the original pitch attitude after a pitch deflection is caused. This characteristic is known as:

1. Directional stability
2. Longitudinal stability
3. Lateral stability
4. Spiral stability

Answer 542

2. Longitudinal stability

Question 543

If your airplane weighs 200,000 pounds, approximately how much lifting force is required for a level turn at 30 degrees AOB?

1. 175,000 lbs
2. 200,000 lbs
3. 240,000 lbs
4. 400,000 lbs

Answer 543

3. 240,000 lbs

Question 544

Yaw-roll crossover speed is best defined as:

1. The speed at which an aileron induced roll results in proverse yaw.
2. The speed at which a sideslip induced roll results in adverse roll.
3. The AOA sensitive speed at which roll produced by ailerons and spoilers cannot overcome roll produced by sideslip.
4. The AOA sensitive speed at which roll produced by sideslip cannot overcome roll produced by ailerons and spoilers.

Answer 544

3. The AOA sensitive speed at which roll produced by ailerons and spoilers cannot overcome roll produced by sideslip.

Question 545

Which statement is true regarding dutch roll?

1. Dutch roll is more pronounced at high altitude and low true airspeed.
2. Swept wing aircraft are less susceptible to dutch roll.
3. Swept wing aircraft are equipped with roll dampers to reduce dutch roll.
4. Dutch roll is more pronounced at high altitudes and high mach number.

Answer 545

4. Dutch roll is more pronounced at high altitudes and high mach number.

Question 546

During an encounter with dutch roll, the pilot should:

1. Oppose the yawing moment will small rudder inputs, decrease airspeed and descend.
2. Oppose the rolling moment with ailerons and spoilers, decrease airspeed and descend.
3. Increase airspeed to increase yaw damping.
4. Increase airspeed to increase yaw damping and descend.

Answer 546

2. Oppose the rolling moment with ailerons and spoilers, decrease airspeed and descend.

Question 547

Which of the following is the most important factor associated with error management?

1. Training
2. Company policies
3. Crew communications
4. Corporate direction

Answer 547

3. Crew communications

Question 548

Which of the following best describes the ultimate goal of CRM training?

1. Meeting FAA requirements
2. Passing FAA evaluations
3. Safety, effectiveness, and efficiency of operations
4. Fulfilling corporate financial objectives.

Answer 548

3. Safety, effectiveness, and efficiency of operations

Question 549

While checking your final weight and balance paperwork prior to pushback, you notice that cargo has been moved forward from the aft cargo hold. The resulting center of gravity is now further back. Which of the following best describes how the aircraft will respond?

1. The aircraft will be more stable in pitch, and have greater range.
2. The aircraft will be less stable in pitch, and have less range.
3. The aircraft will be more stable in pitch, and have less range.
4. The aircraft will be less stable in pitch, but have greater range.

Answer 549

4. The aircraft will be less stable in pitch, but have greater range.

Question 550

You are approaching runway 36 and the wind is 090/10. The correct crosswind correction if you chose to sideslip the aircraft would be:

1. Left wing down, left rudder
2. Right wing down, right rudder
3. Left wing down, right rudder
4. Right wing down, left rudder

Answer 550

4. Right wing down, left rudder

Question 551

With regard to wing aspect ratio, L/D max, angle of attack and aircraft weight which statement is true?

1. An aircraft with a high wing aspect ratio will have a high L/Dmax and thus glide farther than an aircraft with a low wing aspect ratio.
2. An aircraft with a low wing aspect ratio will have a high L/D max and glide less far than an aircraft with a high wing aspect ratio.
3. The higher the aspect ratio the lower the angle of attack the aircraft must fly in order to be efficient.
4. Weight is a factor in how far an aircraft can glide.

Answer 551

1. An aircraft with a high wing aspect ratio will have a high L/Dmax and thus glide farther than an aircraft with a low wing aspect ratio.

Question 552

If your airplane is loaded with an extreme aft center of gravity you should expect it to be:

1. Less stable at all speeds than with a CG near center of lift.
2. More stable at all speeds than with a CG near center of lift.
3. Less stable at slow speeds than with a CG near center of lift, but more stable at high speeds.
4. Less stable at high speeds than with a CG near center of lift, but more stable at slow speeds.

Answer 552

1. Less stable at all speeds than with a CG near center of lift.

Question 553

While in level flight, all of the following are true concerning the angle of attack expect?

1. The amount of lift generated by a wing is not related to the wing’s angle of attack.
2. Increasing the weight of an aircraft for a given airspeed will increase the angle of attack.
3. Increasing the angle of attack will decrease drag on the aircraft.
4. Increasing an aircraft’s bank angle will increase the aircraft angle of attack.

Answer 553

3. Increasing the angle of attack will decrease drag on the aircraft.

Question 554

The greater the sweptback of a wing:

1. The higher the lift coefficient and the lower the stall velocity.
2. The lower the lift coefficient and the higher the stall velocity.
3. The lower the lift coefficient and the lower the stall velocity
4. The higher the lift coefficient and the higher the stall velocity.

Answer 554

2. The lower the lift coefficient and the higher the stall velocity.

Question 555

The greatest wing vortex strength occurs when:

1. An aircraft is heavy, clean and fast.
2. An aircraft is heavy, configured and fast.
3. An aircraft is heavy, configured and slow.
4. An aircraft is heavy, clean and slow.

Answer 555

4. An aircraft is heavy, clean and slow.

Question 556

What two factors affect turn rate in level flight?

1. Altitude and load factor
2. Velocity and load factor
3. Angle of attack and wing area
4. Weight and velocity

Answer 556

2. Velocity and load factor

Question 557

During recovery from a nose low unusual attitude in an angle of bank:

1. Maintain constant load factor greater than 1 G since stall is not a factor in a nose low attitude.
2. If required, unload to break the stall and then apply G loading during the roll to wings level and pitch up to maximize lift and expedite recovery.
3. Maintain a constant load factor greater than 1 G except during the roll to wings level since stall is not a factor in a nose low attitude.
4. If required, unload to break the stall and attempt to roll to wings level before increasing load.

Answer 557

4. If required, unload to break the stall and attempt to roll to wings level before increasing load.

Question 558

The quickest recovery from a wings level nose high unusual attitude is:

1. Maintain 1 G or greater loading to protect engine fuel feed and use angle of bank to control lift vector and lower the nose.
2. Unload to less than 1 G and maintain wings level to avoid unwanted adverse yaw.
3. Unload to less than 1 G and use angle of bank control lift vector and lower the nose.
4. Increase G loading and apply rudder to roll into an angle of bank to control lift vector and lower the nose.

Answer 558

3. Unload to less than 1 G and use angle of bank control lift vector and lower the nose.

Question 559

In the event of a pitch upset resulting in a nose up pitching moment, a long term strategy would be:

1. Do not extend flaps as they will increase the nose up moment.
2. If able, use passenger shift/cargo shift/fuel dump to move the CG aft to increase pitch authority.
3. Extend the flaps and increase speed.
4. Extend the flaps and decrease speed.

Answer 559

4. Extend the flaps and decrease speed.

Question 560

The term “Dihedral Effect” refers to:

1. The angle of wing sweep in relation to longitudinal axis.
2. The angle between the wingtip and the lateral axis.
3. The relationship of wing sweep and rudder (sideslip) to lateral stability.
4. The stabilizing effect of negative dihedral in swept wing aircraft.

Answer 560

3. The relationship of wing sweep and rudder (sideslip) to lateral stability.

Question 561

When an aircraft wing begins to stall, boundary layer separation typically starts to occur:

1. At the leading edge of the wing.
2. At the center of lift of the wing.
3. At the trailing edge of the wing.
4. Equally along the wing surface.

Answer 561

3. At the trailing edge of the wing.

Question 562

To recover an aircraft from a stall the pilot must:

1. Increase airspeed
2. Decrease angle of attack
3. Increase thrust
4. Increase angle of attack

Answer 562

2. Decrease angle of attack

Question 563

Which devices do not aid in the creation of lift:

1. Flaps
2. Fuselage
3. Spoilers
4. Winglets

Answer 563

3. Spoilers

Question 564

When flying at L/D max two identical aircraft with different gross weights:

1. Produce the same amount of lift.
2. Have identical airspeeds
3. Produce the same total drag.
4. Glide exactly the same distance

Answer 564

4. Glide exactly the same distance

Question 565

Which can be a symptom of ground effect?

1. Landing hard if you don’t flare early.
2. Landing short due to early flare.
3. Lifting off prior to rotation speed if you rotate early
4. Extended takeoff roll if you don’t apply extra nose down pressure.

Answer 565

3. Lifting off prior to rotation speed if you rotate early

Question 566

When can you expect ground effect to most affect floating during landing?

1. At greater than normal angle of attack
2. At slower speed than normal
3. Less than one wingspan length above the runway.
4. At higher density altitudes.

Answer 566

3. Less than one wingspan length above the runway.

Question 567

The best rate of climb speed occurs where there exists the greatest difference between power available and power required. Which factor will not affect the maximum rate of climb?

1. An increase in weight
2. An increase in altitude
3. A steady state wind.
4. A wind shear.

Answer 567

3. A steady state wind.

Question 568

During takeoff, a cargo aircraft experiences a cargo shift causing the CG to move to the aft limit. A full nose down control input does not stop the nose up pitch. The best input to quickly control pitch up is:

1. Use of manual trim system
2. Increase thrust on underslung wing mounted engines.
3. Decrease thrust on high tail mounted engines.
4. Use angle of bank to control lift vector.

Answer 568

4. Use angle of bank to control lift vector.

Question 569

In cruise flight, the stabilizer runs away full nose down and cannot be reversed with electric or manual trim. When considering landing configurations, which statement is true?

1. Use a higher flap setting and higher landing speed to counter the nose down pitch moment.
2. Use a higher flap setting and lower landing speed to counter the nose down pitch moment.
3. Use a lower flap setting and higher landing speed to counter the nose down pitch moment.
4. Use a lower flap setting and lower landing speed to counter the nose down pitch moment.

Answer 569

3. Use a lower flap setting and higher landing speed to counter the nose down pitch moment.

Question 570

An airplane at high gross weight and high altitude experiences buffet while operating in the coffin corner. The best course of action is:

1. Decrease airspeed to get out of mach buffet.
2. Increase airspeed to get out of stall buffet.
3. Always honor stall buffet regardless of altitude and accelerate.
4. Cause of buffet is uncertain so change altitude.

Answer 570

4. Cause of buffet is uncertain so change altitude.

Question 571

An airplane in the clean configuration while in cruise flight experiences a hard over full right rudder. The best course of action initially is:

1. Apply full left rudder - if ineffective, use left aileron and increase AOA and decrease airspeed
2. Apply full right rudder to match the uncommanded input and increase AOA and reduce airspeed.
3. Apply full right rudder to match the uncommanded input and advance the left throttle to induce sideslip and counter the roll.
4. Apply left rudder up to the stops - if ineffective, use left aileron and decrease AOA and increase airspeed.

Answer 571

4. Apply left rudder up to the stops - if ineffective, use left aileron and decrease AOA and increase airspeed.

Question 572

Which of the following is true regarding stalls:

1. The wing tip should stall first.
2. The wing root should stall first.
3. One wing should stall before the other.
4. The rudder should stall before the wing.

Answer 572

2. The wing root should stall first.

Question 573

What statement is true regarding center of gravity?

1. A center of gravity aft of the center of pressure will result in a higher stall speed.
2. A center of gravity forward of the center of pressure will result in a higher stall speed.
3. A center of gravity forward of the center of pressure will result in a lower stall speed.
4. A center of gravity equal to the center of pressure will result in stall speed equaling maximum endurance speed.

Answer 573

2. A center of gravity forward of the center of pressure will result in a higher stall speed.

Question 574

In straight and level flight, which statement is true regarding the relationship between thrust and drag:

1. If thrust equals drag, airspeed is constant.
2. If thrust is greater than drag, airspeed decreases.
3. If drag is less than thrust, airspeed decreases.
4. Thrust and drag always balance each other in straight and level flight.

Answer 574

1. If thrust equals drag, airspeed is constant.

Question 575

In level flight, as airspeed decreases:

1. Parasitic drag increases.
2. Induced drag increases.
3. Dynamic pressure increases.
4. Static pressure decreases.

Answer 575

2. Induced drag increases.

Question 576

An aircraft is flying at 250 knots indicated airspeed at 1G. What is the effect on drag if G load is reduced to zero?

1. Induced drag will be reduced.
2. Parasitic drag will be reduced.
3. Both induced and parasitic drag will be reduced.
4. Total drag will be zero.

Answer 576

1. Induced drag will be reduced.

Question 577

During a “Yaw Upset” caused by a rudder hard-over, the best course of action would be to:

1. Reduce the dihedral effect by increasing the g-load and reducing airspeed.
2. Increase the dihedral effect by increasing the g-load and increasing the airspeed.
3. Reduce the dihedral effect by reducing the g-load and increasing the airspeed.
4. Increase the dihedral effect by reducing the g-load and decreasing the airspeed.

Answer 577

3. Reduce the dihedral effect by reducing the g-load and increasing the airspeed.

Question 578

During a “roll upset” caused by a jammed aileron the best course of action would be to:

1. Reduce the dihedral effect by increasing the AOA and decreasing the airspeed.
2. Increase the dihedral effect by increasing the AOA and reducing the airspeed.
3. Increase the dihedral effect by decreasing the AOA and increasing the airspeed.
4. Reduce the dihedral effect by increasing the AOA and increasing the airspeed.

Answer 578

2. Increase the dihedral effect by increasing the AOA and reducing the airspeed.

Question 579

After an encounter with severe turbulence, the pilot flying recognizes an unusual attitude on the ADI. He should immediately:

1. Unload, roll wings level and recover.
2. Follow the flight director and recover.
3. Confirm the data presented by instrumentation.
4. Reengage automation and command a recovery.

Answer 579

4. Reengage automation and command a recovery.

Question 580

During an upset event, the pilot flying is attempting to recover from an uncommanded nose down pitch input. His first control input should be:

1. Oppose the pitch with elevator input up to the aft limit.
2. Oppose the pitch with a small, controlled elevator input being careful not to reach the aft limit.
3. Reduce thrust on low wing mounted engines to oppose the pitch.
4. Lower the flaps to reduce the nose down pitch moment.

Answer 580

1. Oppose the pitch with elevator input up to the aft limit.

Question 581

During takeoff at rotation the aircraft begins to pitch up at an abrupt rate. How would you handle this situation?

1. Transfer control of the aircraft to the captain using standard procedures.
2. Reject the takeoff.
3. Apply nose down elevator and trim as necessary to control the pitch.
4. Reduce power to idle to get the nose tracking down with a coordinated increase in bank.

Answer 581

3. Apply nose down elevator and trim as necessary to control the pitch.

Question 582

After takeoff and passing a thousand feet the aircraft begins to pitch up at an abrupt rate. How would you handle this situation?

1. Transfer control of the aircraft to the captain using standard procedures.
2. Roll to 90 degrees to allow the nose to slice through the horizon to effect a gradual recovery.
3. Apply nose down elevator and trim as necessary to control the pitch.
4. Reduce power to idle to get the nose tracking down with a coordinated increase in bank.

Answer 582

3. Apply nose down elevator and trim as necessary to control the pitch.

Question 583

Aircraft roll rate due to damping effect would be:

1. Faster at high altitude due to lower air density.
2. Slower at high altitude due to higher air density.
3. Faster at low altitude due to higher air density.
4. Slower at low altitude due to lower air density.

Answer 583

1. Faster at high altitude due to lower air density.

Question 584

Departing behind a B757 you experience wake turbulence upset below 1000’ AGL that results in 60 degree bank turn to the right and a 15 degree nose down pitch attitude. Wanting to apply up elevator to stop the descent as soon as possible you simultaneously begin applying left aileron to counteract the right bank. You should realize that:

1. The right wing will experience the current load factor due to the bank angle plus the load due to the roll command.
2. The right wing will experience the current load factor due to the bank angle minus the load due to the roll command.
3. The left wing will experience the current load factor due to the bank plus the load due to the roll command.
4. Both wings will experience the same load factor.

Answer 584

1. The right wing will experience the current load factor due to the bank angle plus the load due to the roll command.

Question 585

Increased landing distances caused by ground effect are due to:

1. Viscosity of air increases as aircraft gets closer to the ground.
2. Inertia.
3. Reduction in vortex drag.
4. Compressibility of air between the wing and the ground.

Answer 585

3. Reduction in vortex drag.

Question 586

A swept-wing turbojet aircraft is trimmed in level flight conditions at a constant airspeed and power setting. If the pilot slowly applies left rudder, the aircraft will:

1. Roll right due to adverse drag.
2. Roll left due to adverse drag.
3. Roll left due to the moment introduced on the vertical stabilizer.
4. Roll left due to an increase in effective surface area on the right wing.

Answer 586

4. Roll left due to an increase in effective surface area on the right wing.

Question 587

The landing runway is 18. The winds are 270/25. Which statement is true?

1. As rudder and aileron inputs are applied to align the aircraft with the runway, more power will be required to maintain a constant vertical speed and airspeed.
2. As rudder and aileron inputs are applied to align the aircraft with the runway, less power will be required to maintain a constant vertical speed and airspeed.
3. As rudder and aileron inputs are applied to align the aircraft with the runway, there will be no power change required.
4. As the aircraft is aligned with the runway, the airspeed will increase requiring less power.

Answer 587

1. As rudder and aileron inputs are applied to align the aircraft with the runway, more power will be required to maintain a constant vertical speed and airspeed.

Question 588

What reduces Dutch Roll on swept wing aircraft?

1. Rudder load limiter.
2. Mach airspeed compensator.
3. Stabilizer.
4. Yaw damper.

Answer 588

4. Yaw damper.

Question 589

Select which flight control input is never the preferred initial response to induce a roll input in transport category aircraft:

1. Aileron
2. Asymmetrical thrust
3. Aileron and spoilers
4. Rudder

Answer 589

4. Rudder

Question 590

When should timing for wake turbulence separation begin?

1. At nosewheel liftoff
2. At main gear liftoff
3. At beginning of take off roll
4. When cleared for takeoff

Answer 590

1. At nosewheel liftoff

Question 591

Aircraft create the greatest wake turbulence when they are:

1. Heavy, slow and clean
2. Heavy, fast and clean
3. Heavy, slow and configured for takeoff or landing
4. Heavy, fast and configured for takeoff or landing

Answer 591

1. Heavy, slow and clean

Question 592

Which type of wind will cause the vortices of a departing aircraft to remain over the runway for the longest period of time?

1. Calm winds
2. Direct headwinds
3. A five knot right crosswind
4. A ten knot left crosswind

Answer 592

3. A five knot right crosswind

Question 593

Which conditions generally describe an airplane in unintentional upset?

1. Pitch attitude more than 25 degrees nose up or more than 10 degrees nose down, bank angle more than 45 degrees and flight within these parameters at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions.
2. Pitch attitude more than 30 degrees nose up or more than 20 degrees nose down, bank angle more than 30 degrees nose down, and flight within these parameters at airspeed inappropriate for the conditions.
3. Pitch attitude more than 15 degrees nose up or more than 10 degrees nose down, bank angle more than 30 degrees and flight within these parameters at airspeed inappropriate for these conditions.
4. Pitch attitude more than 30 degrees nose up or more than 15 degrees nose down, bank angle more than 20 degrees and flight within these parameters at airspeed too slow for the conditions.

Answer 593

1. Pitch attitude more than 25 degrees nose up or more than 10 degrees nose down, bank angle more than 45 degrees and flight within these parameters at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions.

Question 594

You are hand flying the airplane with the autopilot and auto throttles off. The Captain is busy on radio two with dispatch concerning a possible divert. ATC issues you a descending left turn with an increase in airspeed for spacing. You become disoriented as you enter a cloud deck while attempting to change your heading bug. Before long the aircraft is 15 degrees nose low, in a 35 degree left bank with airspeed increasing toward maximum with the power up. How would you handle the situation.

1. After returning to level flight file a flight safety report with dispatch.
2. Transfer control of the aircraft to the captain.
3. Reduce bank, reduce pitch and reduce power as necessary.
4. Inform captain, transfer control to the captain and make standard callouts as necessary to ensure a smooth recovery.

Answer 594

4. Inform captain, transfer control to the captain and make standard callouts as necessary to ensure a smooth recovery.

Question 595

Approaching the top of descent at FL330 ATC clears you to descend to FL250. The Captain sets FL260 in the altitude window. The Captain says they said FL260 and leaves FL260 in the altitude window. You should:

1. Set FL250 in the altitude window.
2. Leave FL260 set in the altitude window.
3. Start your descent and call ATC to verify the altitude cleared to was FL260.
4. Tell the Captain you believe ATC cleared you to FL250.

Answer 595

3. Start your descent and call ATC to verify the altitude cleared to was FL260.

Question 596

If a stick shaker is encountered in level flight while at an assigned altitude of FL360, the best course of action would be to:

1. Increase thrust in order to increase airspeed while maintaining altitude since the stick shaker is only a warning of an approaching stall.
2. Regain airspeed by adding thrust, disconnecting the autopilot momentarily, and descending below your assigned altitude by 100-200 feet, then climbing back up to your assigned altitude once airspeed is regained.
3. Increase thrust and request a lower altitude from ATC.
4. Increase thrust and check for traffic below you, and then descend to a lower altitude while declaring an emergency with ATC and informing them of your action.

Answer 596

4. Increase thrust and check for traffic below you, and then descend to a lower altitude while declaring an emergency with ATC and informing them of your action.

Question 597

If encountering wake turbulence at cruise, below and behind another airliner, the best way to move out of the turbulence is to:

1. Stay behind the other airliner, but request a descent.
2. Request a slight deviation, downwind of current course.
3. Request a climb to an altitude above the airplane generating the vortices.
4. Slow down slightly, moving relatively backward from the traffic ahead.

Answer 597

3. Request a climb to an altitude above the airplane generating the vortices.

Question 598

A landing pilot should expect which direction of wind to prolong the hazards of wake turbulence longest?

1. Light crosswind
2. Light quartering tailwind
3. Light quartering headwind
4. Light headwind.

Answer 598

2. Light quartering tailwind

Question 599

While on takeoff from runway 30, a twin engine jet aircraft with wing mounted engines experiences a failure on the right engine at V1. Which of the following surface winds would cause the most directional control difficulties before the aircraft becomes airborne?

1. 240 degrees at 30 knots
2. 270 degrees at 30 knots
3. 330 degrees at 30 knots
4. 360 degrees at 30 knots

Answer 599

4. 360 degrees at 30 knots

Question 600

You have experienced a loss of thrust on your left wing mounted engine. The winds are 360/20. Landing runways are either 09 or 27. Considering aircraft control during touchdown, in which direction should you elect to land?

1. Land to the west, crosswind and asymmetric thrust will partially offset each other.
2. Land to the east, aircraft drift and asymmetric thrust will partially offset each other.
3. Land to the west, directional control after landing will be better.
4. Land in either direction, wind is not a factor in engine out control.

Answer 600

1. Land to the west, crosswind and asymmetric thrust will partially offset each other.

Question 601

During takeoff in a twin engine aircraft with wing mounted engines, the right engine fails at V1. Controllability would be most adversely affected by which wind condition:

1. Headwind
2. Right crosswind
3. Left crosswind
4. Tailwind

Answer 601

2. Right crosswind

Question 602

In general an airplane that is more maneuverable is:

1. Less stable in flight
2. Less difficult to fly
3. More stable in flight
4. More difficult to park

Answer 602

1. Less stable in flight

Question 603

While landing on runway 33 the winds are reported at 060/15. Assuming a constant wind velocity, what will the control inputs be while slowing in the flare?

1. Increasing left rudder inputs, decreasing right aileron input.
2. Increasing left rudder inputs, increasing right aileron inputs.
3. Decreasing left rudder inputs, decreasing right aileron inputs.
4. No further corrections are necessary after initial aileron/rudder inputs are applied.

Answer 603

2. Increasing left rudder inputs, increasing right aileron inputs.

Question 604

An aircraft is taking off of a runway with a strong right crosswind. What flight controls should the pilot expect to use for the takeoff roll?

1. Left aileron, left rudder
2. Left aileron, right rudder
3. Right aileron, right rudder
4. Right aileron, left rudder

Answer 604

4. Right aileron, left rudder

Question 605

An aircraft is take off and has an engine failure of the left engine at its takeoff decision speed (V1) but prior to its rotation speed (Vr). As the aircraft rotates which statement is true regarding the need to keep from drifting left or right?

1. Aircraft will need to keep its existing rudder input.
2. Aircraft will need to apply more right rudder.
3. Aircraft will need to apply less right rudder.
4. Aircraft will need neutral rudder.

Answer 605

2. Aircraft will need to apply more right rudder.

Question 606

During the walk around preflight you notice a puddle of oil on the ground under the engine. Maintenance tells you they serviced the engine oil and it is just oil they spilled and they clean it up. Upon returning to the cockpit you should:

1. Inform the Captain.
2. Continue with your preflight duties.
3. Write it up in the aircraft discrepancy log book.
4. Contact dispatch for assistance.

Answer 606

1. Inform the Captain.

Question 607

The Captain is practicing flying the arrival today with auto throttles off. The aircraft is level at 10,000 feet with the power at idle slowing from 325 knots to the target speed of 270 knots. The airspeed is decreasing through 265 knots. You:

1. Are not concerned since you have no speed restrictions and plenty of safe flying airspeed.
2. Remind the Captain the auto throttles are off and the target speed is 270 knots and ask him if he wants another target airspeed.
3. Wait until the airspeed gets below 200 knots to say something since you have plenty of altitude and safe flying airspeed for your current weight.
4. Wait to see if the Captain will see it eventually.

Answer 607

2. Remind the Captain the auto throttles are off and the target speed is 270 knots and ask him if he wants another target airspeed.

Question 608

The Captain told you to plan performance for two possible departure runways. During the preflight you got behind and only planned for your primary runway. Approaching #1 tower changes your takeoff runway to the one you have no data for. You should:

1. Do nothing, the new runway is longer so the data is still valid.
2. Hurry up and finish the new data and the before takeoff checklist to keep up with the pace of the Captain.
3. Tell ATC you prefer the original runway.
4. Advise the Captain you do not have performance data for the new runway and need some time to calculate it.

Answer 608

4. Advise the Captain you do not have performance data for the new runway and need some time to calculate it.

Question 609

During accomplishment of the before start checklist the captain responds to the query of “Required Navigation Radios” with the response “set”. The correct response is “checked and set”. You observed the captain check and set his radios during the preflight and crew briefings. You should:

1. Continue the before start checklist since you saw the captain check and set his navigation radios.
2. Say nothing since the response was close enough to communicate proper meaning.
3. Restart the checklist from the beginning.
4. Query the captain for the correct response to the checklist.

Answer 609

4. Query the captain for the correct response to the checklist.

Question 610

The captain just leveled the jet at a cruise altitude of FL310 at Mach 0.80. Your flight plan calls for a Mach 0.82 cruise to destination. You should:

1. Remind the Captain the flight plan calls for .82 cruise and ask him if he wants to increase his speed.
2. Since you took off 15 minutes early the Captain is probably flying slower to save fuel so there is no concern to say anything.
3. Wait a few minutes to see if the Captain will notice that he is flying slower than planned.
4. Mention to the Captain your arrival time at destination will be 4 minutes greater than planned and see if he gets the hint.

Answer 610

1. Remind the Captain the flight plan calls for .82 cruise and ask him if he wants to increase his speed.

Question 611

You are fairly new in the airplane and enroute to the destination it becomes apparent that a Cat 3 approach will be required at destination. You have not yet flown a Cat 3 approach in the airplane in actual Cat 3 low visibility conditions. What would you do?

1. You only have to fly the approach. The captain has to brief it and land it so just ride along and watch and learn.
2. Mentally review the Cat 3 procedures in your head prior to descent.
3. Calculate the Cat 3 landing data, wait for the captain to brief the approach procedures paying close attention.
4. Voice your concerns to the Captain and the need to brief the approach early.

Answer 611

4. Voice your concerns to the Captain and the need to brief the approach early.

Question 612

An aircraft in a clean configuration will always stall at the same:

1. Weight
2. Airspeed
3. Altitude
4. AOA

Answer 612

4. AOA

Question 613

Which of the following factors would not affect the indicated airspeed that an airplane stalls?

1. Increase in altitude
2. Snow, frost, ice
3. Turbulence
4. Increase in weight

Answer 613

1. Increase in altitude

Question 614

During take-off you experience an unexpected stick shaker (pre-stall warning). At the top of climb you notice you are burning more fuel than planned. What could be the cause of these occurrences?

1. The aircraft has a further aft center of gravity than expected.
2. The aircraft’s center of gravity is further forward than expected.
3. The center of gravity will have no affect on the fuel burn, but the aircraft is loaded much heavier than expected.
4. The center of gravity will have no affect on stall speed, but the aircraft is loaded much heavier than expected.

Answer 614

2. The aircraft’s center of gravity is further forward than expected.

Question 615

To recover from a stall, your first action should be to:

1. Add full power.
2. Lower the flaps.
3. Roll wings level.
4. Decrease the angle of attack.

Answer 615

4. Decrease the angle of attack.

Question 616

The stall speed of your aircraft in the clean configuration is approximately 160 KIAS at sea level. Which of the following statements best describes aircraft stall and recovery effectiveness at high altitude.

1. Stall IAS is significantly higher at altitude, recovery seems slower because the aircraft stalled at higher IAS.
2. Stall IAS is significantly higher at altitude, recovery differs little in time or altitude loss than recovery at low altitude.
3. Stall IAS is essentially the same, but recovery is slower due to the decreased excess power available for acceleration.
4. Stall IAS is essentially the same, but recovery is slower due to the decreased air flow over the wings.

Answer 616

3. Stall IAS is essentially the same, but recovery is slower due to the decreased excess power available for acceleration.

Question 617

One of the principal effects of flap extension is to:

1. Increase final approach speed.
2. Serve as a normal alternative to speedbrakes.
3. Decrease landing roll primarily through increased drag.
4. Increase angle of descent for a given approach speed.

Answer 617

4. Increase angle of descent for a given approach speed.

Question 618

Which of the following airspeeds should never be exceeded due to possible aircraft structural failure?

1. Vmo
2. Vr
3. Vne
4. Vsr

Answer 618

3. Vne

Question 619

The maximum thrust allowable for safe flight is:

1. A turbine engine rating of Maximum Climb Thrust for normal climb.
2. The Maximum Take Off thrust with the engine bleeds closed.
3. The Maximum Continuous Thrust for use in flight.
4. The maximum Takeoff Thrust with the engine bleeds open.

Answer 619

3. The Maximum Continuous Thrust for use in flight.

Question 620

Load factor is defined by which of the following?

1. Lift over drag
2. Lift over weight
3. Drag over weight
4. Drag over lift

Answer 620

2. Lift over weight

Question 621

If maneuvering at the load factor limit, all of the following would result in exceeding the load factor limit except?

1. Increasing bank angle
2. Increasing weight
3. Increasing speed
4. Increasing G

Answer 621

3. Increasing speed

Question 622

Enroute to Richmond, VA overhead Nashville, TN you are forced to shut down an engine due to a fire. All engine instruments indicate a successful shutdown except that the fire light is still illuminated. The Captain asks your opinion. You state:

1. Let’s continue to Richmond.
2. Since an aircraft passing by you saw no indications of a fire you suggest continuing to Richmond.
3. Let’s land at the nearest airport with a maintenance facility, several hundred miles away.
4. Let’s land at Nashville.

Answer 622

4. Let’s land at Nashville.

Question 623

You are the FO during a night takeoff. You enter the clouds at 300 feet and your primary flight and navigation displays fail. What should you do?

1. Engage the autopilot.
2. Fly manually using backup instruments.
3. Declare an emergency with ATC and return to the departure airport.
4. Transfer control of the airplane to the captain.

Answer 623

4. Transfer control of the airplane to the captain.

Question 624

During the approach briefing the Captain does not mention the gusty wind conditions reported on the ATIS. He also doesn’t mention their possible effect on final approach airspeed. What should you do?

1. Wait until final approach to see if the Captain mentions the wind and any airspeed adjustments.
2. Mention the gusty wind conditions now and their possible effect of approach speed.
3. Say nothing since you have been to this airport many times and the winds always die down by the time you get there.
4. They are no real concern since the winds are a headwind.

Answer 624

2. Mention the gusty wind conditions now and their possible effect of approach speed.

Question 625

A stabilized approach requires airspeed to vary no greater than +10 knots and no less than -5 knots. Momentary and minor deviations are only tolerated if immediate corrections are made. On final approach with winds gusting 10-20 knots the captain is having trouble maintaining his approach speed at a steady state. Airspeed is varying +/-4 knots with timely corrections being made. You should:

1. Announce an unstable condition due to airspeed and recommend a go-around.
2. Announce go around.
3. Call out airspeed deviations as they occur.
4. Say nothing and trust the captain.

Answer 625

3. Call out airspeed deviations as they occur.

Question 626

You are taxiing for takeoff. After you read back the taxi clearance to ground the captain says nothing but does start to taxi as cleared. Ground control revises your clearance and again the captain says nothing but is taxiing as cleared. You should:

1. Continue to monitor the captain to ensure compliance with your clearance but say nothing as long as he is taxing as cleared.
2. Step on the brakes and ask the captain if he copied the taxi clearance.
3. Get the Captain’s attention, and ask him if he would read the clearance back to you.
4. As long as he is taxiing as cleared you would rather not say anything to him.

Answer 626

3. Get the Captain’s attention, and ask him if he would read the clearance back to you.

Question 627

While checking the weather at flight operations for your flight to your home town you notice the weather is close to minimums. The alternate which is close by is also near minimums. You are somewhat uncomfortable with the planned fuel. The captain is satisfied with the fuel load but is not as familiar with the weather patterns in your home town. You should:

1. Accept the decision of the captain since he is satisfied everything must be okay.
2. Get the Captain’s attention and express your concerns about the fuel load and the weather. Ask the Captain if he would like to add more fuel.
3. The fuel load complies with the FARS so you don’t need to worry.
4. The Captain stated he is concerned about saving fuel so just keep quiet and keep your concerns to yourself.

Answer 627

2. Get the Captain’s attention and express your concerns about the fuel load and the weather. Ask the Captain if he would like to add more fuel.

Question 628

An aircraft which has an engine failure just prior to v1 on a balanced field length:

1. Can stop in the remaining runway if aborting or can reach an altitude of 35’ by the end of the runway if the takeoff is continued.
2. Can not stop in the remaining runway if aborting.
3. Can not stop in the remaining runway if aborting but can reach an altitude of 50’ by the end of the runway if the takeoff is continued.
4. Can stop in the remaining runway if aborting or can reach an altitude of 50’ by the end of the runway if the takeoff is continued.

Answer 628

1. Can stop in the remaining runway if aborting or can reach an altitude of 35’ by the end of the runway if the takeoff is continued.

Question 629

At high altitude airports, takeoff distances increases due to increased:

1. Groundspeed
2. Angle of attack
3. Indicated airspeed
4. Power required

Answer 629

1. Groundspeed

Question 630

An increase in elevation, temperature or humidity will:

1. Decrease landing distance
2. Increase landing distance
3. Landing distance will remain the same
4. An increase in elevation and temperature will increase landing distance but humidity has no effect.

Answer 630

2. Increase landing distance

Question 631

During landing, which of the following occurs as a result of ground effect?

1. A decrease in lift
2. A reduction in drag
3. A decrease in landing distance
4. An increase in drag

Answer 631

2. A reduction in drag

Question 632

Ground effect during landing will:

1. Increase effective lift and decrease induced drag
2. Decrease effective lift and decrease induced drag
3. Decrease effective lift and increase induced drag
4. Increase effective lift and increase induced drag

Answer 632

1. Increase effective lift and decrease induced drag

Question 633

Which of the following would increase the chance of hydroplaning on landing?

1. Firm touchdown
2. Light gross weight
3. Low tire pressure
4. Headwinds

Answer 633

3. Low tire pressure

Question 634

It becomes necessary to initiate a high-speed abort during takeoff. The total brake energy absorbed while stopping the aircraft depends mostly upon:

1. The total distance required to stop the aircraft
2. Whether an anti-skid system was being used
3. The groundspeed at which the brakes were applied
4. The total time required to stop the aircraft.

Answer 634

3. The groundspeed at which the brakes were applied

Question 635

If aircraft tire pressure is 144 psi, the approximate minimum ground speed at which hydroplaning can most likely occur is:

1. 84 knots
2. 96 knots
3. 108 knots
4. 120 knots

Answer 635

3. 108 knots

Question 636

If a landing must be made on a very wet or slippery runway, appropriate operational techniques which should be employed are:

1. Use additional airspeed on touchdown to ensure rudder effectiveness.
2. A smooth landing will reduce the hydroplaning on touchdown.
3. Make early use of wheel brakes.
4. Minimize the use of maximum allowable reverse thrust to reduce the side slipping caused by different deployment rates.

Answer 636

3. Make early use of wheel brakes.

Question 637

When are most people most likely to be tired due to circadian lows?

1. Midnight to noon
2. 12 am to 2 am, 12 pm - 2 pm
3. Noon to midnight
4. 3 am - 5 am, 3pm - 5 pm

Answer 637

4. 3 am - 5 am, 3pm - 5 pm

Question 638

Which of the following activities can be used to recover from sleep deprivation?

1. Drink caffeine
2. Take a nap
3. Exercise
4. Yoga

Answer 638

2. Take a nap

Question 639

Your flight to Reno today is planned without an alternate since your weather is good. As you lower the flaps on a 10 mile final to Reno they stop well before normal setting for landing. What is the best plan of action, given the described circumstances?

1. Leave the flaps where they stopped, continue approach and land.
2. Go-around, accomplish emergency procedures, divert to san Francisco while working the flap problem enroute.
3. Declare an emergency, continue the approach, accomplish emergency procedures and land.
4. Go-around, declare an emergency, accomplish emergency procedures, return to Reno to land.

Answer 639

4. Go-around, declare an emergency, accomplish emergency procedures, return to Reno to land.