All Flashcards

1
Q

What is the sensitivity of an assay and how is it calculated?

A

The proportion of positive results correctly identified by a test, calculated as follows:

= True positives / (True positives + False negatives) x 100%

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2
Q

What is the specificity of an assay and how is it calculated?

A

The proportion of negative results correctly identified by a test, calculated as follows:

= True negatives / (True negatives + False positives) x 100%

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3
Q

What is the accuracy of an assay and how is it calculated?

A

How often a test gives the correct result (either positive or negative), calculated as follows:

= True results / (True results + False results) x 100%

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4
Q

What is the positive predictive value and how is it calculated?

A

The positive predictive value is a measure of the chance that a positive result is correct and is calculated as follows:
True positives / (True positives + False Positives )

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5
Q

What is the negative predictive value and how is it calculated?

A

The negative predictive value is a measure of the chance that a negative result is correct and is calculated as follows:
True negatives / (True negatives + False negatives )

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6
Q

What is clinical governance?

A

Clinical governance is a systematic approach to maintaining and improving the quality of patient care within a health system.

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7
Q

What are the three key attributes in clinical governance?

A
  1. Recognisably high standards of care.
  2. Transparent responsibility and accountability for those standards.
  3. Constant dynamic of improvement.
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8
Q

What are the components of clinical governance?

A
  • Clinical audit – review of clinical performance, refining clinical practice as a result and then measuring performance against agreed standards.
  • Clinical effectiveness – a measure of the extent to which a particular intervention works.
  • Education and training – continuing professional development (CPD).
  • Risk management – risks to patients, practitioners and the organisation need to be considered and balanced.
  • Openness – processes which are open to public scrutiny, while respecting individual patients and practitioner confidentiality, and which can be openly justified, are an essential part of quality assurance.
  • Research and development – techniques such as critical appraisal of the literature, project management and the development of guidelines, protocols and implementation strategies are all tools for promoting the implementation of research practice.
  • Clinical information and information technology – committed to the development and use of information to improve care and service users’ experience.
  • Patient and public involvement – services should be seamless and patient centred.
  • Staffing and staff management – committed to the management and direction of staff.
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9
Q

What is risk management and how can risks be minimised?

A

Risk is defined as the potential that a chosen action, inaction or activity will lead to an undesirable outcome.
Risk management is about minimizing these risks

By:
 Identifying what can and does go wrong during care
 Understanding the factors that influence this
 Learning lessons from any adverse events
 Ensuring action is taken to prevent recurrence
 Putting systems in place to reduce risks

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10
Q

What are the different types of incidents?

A

Adverse incident reporting allows refinement/redesign of processes based on actual experience. There are several categories listed below:
 Adverse Incident - When an event occurs that causes harm to any person or damage to or loss of any property or assets of the Trust or any individual and may damage the reputation of the Trust.
 Patient Safety Incident - Any unintended or unexpected incident(s) that could have or did lead to harm for one or more persons receiving NHS funded healthcare.
 ‘No Harm’ Incident - Any unexpected or unintended incident which ran to completion but no harm, damage or loss occurred.
 ‘Prevented’ Incident - Any incident that had the potential to cause harm but was prevented from occurring, resulting in no harm, damage or loss.

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11
Q

If a complaint is received, who should be notified?

A

The authority for addressing complaints lies with the Head of Department and therefore wherever possible, all complaints must be referred in the first instance to the Head of Department. In the absence of the Head of Department, the responsibility passes to the most senior member of staff available.

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12
Q

What measures should be undertaken to try and resolve a complaint?

A

Staff should aim to resolve the complaint informally wherever possible:

  • Listen to the complainant and acknowledge their complaint;
  • Express regret for any inconvenience caused;
  • Clarify the details of the complaint;
  • Offer an explanation if appropriate;
  • Thank the complainant for raising the complaint and refer him/her to the Trust complaints procedure.

All complaints are recorded as an incident on the QMS

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13
Q

What should be included in the incident report?

A
  • The nature of the complaint;
  • Result of investigations of the complaint;
  • Corrective or preventative action taken;
  • Person discharging the complaint.
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14
Q

What should happen if a complaint cannot be resolved informally?

A

If a complaint cannot be settled informally with the Department, it should be explained to the complainant that they may make a formal complaint, in accordance with Trust Complaints Policy and Procedure.

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15
Q

What should the lab have in place in relation to ethical conduct?

A

a) There is no involvement in any activities that would diminish confidence in the laboratory competence, impartiality, judgement or operational integrity.
b) Management and personnel are free from any undue commercial, financial or other pressures and influences that may adversely affect the quality of their work.
c) Where potential conflicts in competing interests may exist, they shall be openly and appropriately declared
d) There are appropriate procedures to ensure that staff treat human samples, tissues or remains according to relevant legal requirements.
e) Confidentiality of information is maintained.

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16
Q

If a patient phoned the lab, can you give them a result and why?

A

Results should not be communicated to the patient without the opportunity for adequate genetic counselling. All results are confidential unless disclosure is authorised wherein the results may be reported to other parties with the patient’s consent or as required by law.

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17
Q

What does ISO stipulate about data protection?

A

The laboratory should ensure that all information is stored safely and that there are reasonable safeguards against loss, unauthorised access, tampering and other misuse.

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18
Q

What does ISO stipulate about informed consent?

A

ISO states that all procedures should be carried out with the informed consent of the patient. The standards also state that using patient samples for purposes other than those requested should only occur if the samples are rendered anonymous or have been pooled.

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19
Q

What are the different types of incidental findings?

A

1) actionable (whether immediately or remotely)
2) clinically relevant, but not actionable
3) of uncertain significance.

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20
Q

What considerations should be made when reporting and incidental finding?

A
  • Is it clinically relevant
  • Is the disease or risk clearly proven
  • Would reporting the finding lead to a better clinical outcome (e.g. are treatments available)
  • Has the patient given informed consented for this test
  • Patient autonomy- Is there an option for the patient to opt-out for receiving feedback from incidental findings
  • Would withholding the information open the department to litigation
  • Is it ethical to withhold the information
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21
Q

What is the human tissue act?

A

The Human Tissue Act came into force on 1st September 2006 establishing Informed consent as the fundamental principle underpinning the lawful removal, storage and use of human tissue and organs.

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22
Q

What are the 8 principles of the 1998 data protection act?

A

The act protects individual rights regarding the use of, and access to, their personal data.
The 8 core principles are:

1, Information must be processed fairly and lawfully.
2, Information collected must be processed for limited purposes.
3, Information collected must be adequate, relevant and not excessive.
4, Information collected must be accurate and up to date.
5, Information must not be held for longer than is necessary.
6, Information must be processed in accordance with the individual’s rights.
7, Information must be kept secure
8, Information should not be transferred outside the European Economic Area unless adequate levels of protection exist.

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23
Q

What is ‘Duty of Candour’

A

Every healthcare professional must be open and honest with patients. Healthcare professionals must:

  • Tell the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family) when something has gone wrong.
  • Apologise to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family)
  • Offer an appropriate remedy or support to put matters right (if possible)
  • Explain fully to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family) the short and long term effects of what has happened.
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24
Q

What is the main role of NICE?

A

Producing evidence based guidance and advice for health, public health and social care practitioners.

Developing quality standards and performance metrics for those providing and commissioning health, public health and social care services.

Providing a range of informational services for commissioners, practitioners and managers across the spectrum of health and social care.

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25
Q

What does NICE stand for?

A

National Institute for Health and Care Excellence

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26
Q

What are the NHS values?

A
  • Working together for the patients
  • Everyone should be treated with respect and dignity
  • Commitment to quality of care
  • Compassion
  • Improve lives
  • Everyone counts
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27
Q

What are the principles which guide the NHS?

A
  • The NHS provides a comprehensive service to all
  • Access to NHS services is based on clinical need and not an individuals ability to pay
  • The NHS aspires to the highest standards of excellence and professionalism
  • The patient will be at the heart of everything the NHS does
  • The NHS works across organisational boundaries and in partnership with other organisations in the interest of patients, local communities and the wider population.
  • The NHS is committed to providing best value for taxpayers’ money and the most effective, fair and sustainable use of finite resources.
  • The NHS is accountable to the public, communities and patients that it serves.
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28
Q

What is patient centered care?

A

Patient centered care is when health and social care professionals work collaboratively to with patients. It is coordinated and tailored to the needs of the individual and insures individuals are treated with care, dignity and respect.

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29
Q

What are the four principles of patient centered care?

A
  1. Affording and individual dignity, compassion and respect.
  2. Offering coordinated care, support or treatment.
  3. Offering personalised care, support or treatment.
  4. Supporting individuals to recognise, develop and develop strengths and abilities to live a healthy and fulfilling life.
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30
Q

It is important that healthcare professionals and the patient work together to.. ?

A
  • Understand what is important to the person
  • Make decisions about their care and treatment
  • Identify and achieve their goals

Healthcare professionals must play a role in helping a patient develop the knowledge in order to fully participate in the partnership.

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31
Q

What is emotional intelligence?

A

Being aware of and managing our emotions and involves

  • Self awareness
  • Self management
  • Social awareness
  • Relationship management
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32
Q

Why is it important to give and receive feedback?

A

Giving feedback is important to make sure people are performing

Receiving feedback is important for personal development as it helps maximise out potential and raise awareness of our strengths and areas for improvement

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33
Q

What should be included in feedback?

A

Feedback should be about delivering a message that allows the individual receiving it to understand how they are performing within their environment and where that performance can be improved for themselves, the team and the organisation.

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34
Q

What are the steps to providing useful feedback?

A
  • Be specific about what the feedback is on. i.e. Good job doing a specific thing
  • Make observations based on facts
  • Time it to make sure it is delivered as soon as reasonable
  • Be non-judgemental, avoid tones such as anger, disappointment and sarcasm as these only serve to colour the message and it will get lost.
  • Avoid giving feedback in front of other people and use open ended questions
  • Make feedback frequent and meaningful
35
Q

What are the four steps of the feedback model?

A
  1. Ask what the current situation is
  2. Look at what has been done well
  3. Look at what could have made it better
  4. Plan specific actions to ensure success
36
Q

What is the Gibbs cycle for reflective practice?

A
  1. Description - what happened?
  2. Feelings - what were you thinking/feeling?
  3. Evaluation - What was good/bad about the situation?
  4. Analysis - What sense can you make of the situation?
  5. Conclusion - what else could you have done?
  6. Action plan - What would you do if the situation arose again?
37
Q

How can reflective practice help in our clinical practice?

A

Build a knowledge base from our experiences.

Identify learning needs/new learning opportunities.

Identify how we learn best.

Explore alternative solutions to problems.

Contribute to personal and professional development.

Demonstrate competence and achievement to others.

Identify our limitations.

Understand consequences of our actions.

Contribute to decision-making/resolution of uncertainty.

Empower us as Scientists

38
Q

What should you do when greeting a patient to take a patient history?

A
  1. Check the patients’ details (name, DOB) and why they think they are attending clinic.
  2. Introduce yourself (name and role).
  3. Tell them what you are going to discuss/do in the clinic.
  4. Ask if they have any questions before starting.
  5. Let them know that if any point they have any questions or wish to stop, they just need to ask.
  6. Discuss their expectations of the appointment.
  7. Tell them what will happen at the end of the clinic.
  8. Let them know when they should expect to hear about an outcome from the clinic.
39
Q

What is the information governance toolkit?

A

The information governance toolkit (IG toolkit) addresses the governance, policy and management aspects of security.

40
Q

What legislation is the information toolkit based on?

A

NHS Act 2006
Health and Social Care Act 2012
The Data Protection Act
The Human Rights Act

41
Q

What is the role of a Caldicott Guardian?

A

Each trust will have at least one caldicott guardian whos role is to :

  • Ensures NHS England satisfies the highest practical standards for handling patient information
  • Facilitates and enables appropriate information sharing and make decisions on behalf of NHS England following advice for lawful and ethical processing of information.
  • Represents and champions information governance requirements and issues at board level.
  • Ensure that confidentiality issues are appropriately reflected in organisational practice, strategies and policies
  • Oversee arrangements, protocols and procedures where confidential patient information may be shared with external bodies both within and outwith the NHS.
42
Q

What are the key information governance policies?

A
  • Data protection policy. This policy sets out the roles and responsibilities for compliance with the Data Protection Act.
  • Freedom of Information policy. This policy ste sout the roles and responsibilities for compliance with the Freedom of Information Act
  • Confidentiality policy. This policy lays down the principles which must be followed by all who work in the NHS and access personal or confidential business information. All staff must be aware of their responsibilities for safeguarding confidentiality and preserving information security in order to comply with common law obligations of confidentiality.
  • Information Security Policy. This policy is to protect to a consistently high standard all information assets. It defines security measures.
  • Documents & Records management policy. This policy promotes effective management and use of information.
  • Information Sharing Policy. This policy ensures that all information held or processed is made subject to appropriate protection of confidentiality. This policy sets out what is required to ensure fair and equal access is provided.
43
Q

What are the three main aspects of data security?

A

Confidentiality
Integrity
Availability

44
Q

What are the two exceptions to confidentiality?

A

A legal reason to disclose information such as acts of parliament or court orders

A public interest justification such as a serious crime

45
Q

What are the main rights of the data protection act 1998?

A
  • The right to be informed about what your data is being used for and who is using it
  • To see and have a copy of the information
  • To have objections to their information being processed where they claim unwarranted damage or distress as a result
  • To have objection to the use and sharing of the information unless there are exceptional reasons to the contrary
46
Q

What are the three means of communication a freedom of information request can be made?

A

Letter / Post
Fax
Email

(NOT verbal)

47
Q

What is the turnaround time for a freedom of information request?

A

20 days

48
Q

What are the attributes of good record keeping?

A
  • Information is accurate and up to date

- Recorded and complete

49
Q

What are the three main types of security breach in the NHS?

A
  • Loss or theft of paperwork
  • Data posted or faxed to the wrong recipient
  • Failure to have in place appropriate security to prevent personal data being accidentally or deliberately compromised.
50
Q

What is the difference between remedial action, corrective action and preventative action?

A

Remedial action = an action performed immediately to stop the error occurring

Corrective action = an action performed to stop the error re-occurring

Preventative action = an action performed before an error has occurred to prevent the error from ever occurring

51
Q

What is the difference between a non-conformity, minor error, moderate error and major error?

A

Non-conformity = “non-fulfilment of a requirement”

All non-conformities need investigating and recording in QMS (if available), some only internally within the department, whilst others must be escalated to hospital incident reporting system.

Minor error/non-conformity = internal error only e.g. some data on report incorrect, but noticed and rectified before report issued.

Moderate error/non-conformity = more serious internal error or minor errors affecting patient e.g. error in lab processes led to repeat testing and wasted staff time and resources, or a report was released with a typographic error or after the date expected, but the patients’ treatment was not affected in any way.

Major error/non-conformity = serious errors affecting external service users/patients. Must be escalated with senior management who may decide to halt reports until issue non-conformity resolved and must be escalated to hospital adverse incident reporting system.

52
Q

What is the difference between reproducibility and repeatability?

A

Reproducibility = Same results obtained but different operator/patient/method/instrument used.

Repeatability = Same results obtained when the same operator/patient/method/instrument used.

53
Q

What is sensitivity and specificity and how do they differ to positive predictive value and negative predictive value?

A

Sensitivity = Proportion of those with a disease that will be identified as having the disease

Specificity = Proportion of those without a disease that will be identified as not having the disease

PPV = Proportion of those with a positive test that truly do have the disease

NPV = Proportion of those with a negative test that truly don’t have the disease

54
Q

What is the purpose of audit?

A

To review processes, procedures and/or outcomes to see how accurate and effective they are at conforming to a set of standard, followed by implementing changes and re-auditing.

55
Q

What is the aims of audit?

A
  • Demonstrate quality of service
  • Identify areas of change
  • Improve quality
  • Assist with the implementation of policies and guidelines
  • Monitor consistency of performance
  • Measure actual performance against the benchmark
  • Compliance with ISO 15189
56
Q

What is an internal and external audit?

A

Internal audit is carried out by the laboratory to assess its own processes and conform with ISO and Clinical Governance framework

External audit is carried out by appropriate outside bodies. i.e. UKAS, HSE, EQA

57
Q

What is a clinical audit?

A

A clinical audit is a quality improvement process which seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. Aspects of the structure, processes, and outcomes of care are selected and systematically evaluated against explicit criteria.

Clinical audit is part of clinical governance and can:
• Provide evidence of current practice against national guidelines or NHS standards.
• Provide information about the structures and processes of a healthcare service and patient outcomes.
• Assess how closely local practice resembles recommended practice.
• Check “Are we actually doing what we think we are doing?”
• Provide evidence about the quality of care in a service to establish confidence amongst all of its stakeholders – staff, patients, carers, managers and the public.

58
Q

What is the difference between a prospective audit and a retrospective audit?

A

Prospective audit involved the collection of real time data and a retrospective audit is a historical review of data.

59
Q

What is a vertical audit?

A

A vertical audit examines more than one part of a process on one item

Purpose: A detailed check of all elements associated with a chosen sample. Involves selecting a sample at random and following the sample through the laboratory from booking in to the issuing of a report. All activity which is contributes to the final report is audited (e.g. staff training, equipment logs, dates on reagents..). Looks at conformance with quality assurance procedures and SOPs.

Advantages: Cuts across interfaces within the system and shows how the process operates as a whole. Helps determine the effectiveness of the system.

60
Q

What is a horizontal audit?

A

A horizontal audit examines one part of a process applied to more than one item - one element of the quality system is assessed.

Purpose - Check in detail a particular aspect of the documentation and implementation of the quality management or test process. Can take the form of a specific question (e.g. are all staff training records up to date, is all equipment calibrated, does every member of staff have a job description?)

61
Q

What is an examination audit?

A

An examination audit is witnessing an examination or procedure as it is carried out.

Purpose:

  • Observe whether an SOP is being followed and the member of staff is able to work competently and safely.
  • Check that 1) SOPs are correct and 2) the person performing the task is trained to carry out the task competently
  • Opportunity to talk to staff to ascertain if they are happy with training and have correct level of supervision.
62
Q

What is the HSE?

A

The HSE (Health and Safety Executive) is the national independent watchdog for work-related health, safety and illness. They are an independent regulator and act in the public interest to reduce work-related death and serious injury across Great Britain.

The achieve this the HSE enforce a number of policies to ensure that the risk to the general public is kept to a minimum. The policy which applied to genetics laboratories is the Health and Safety Work Act 1974.

63
Q

What is the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974?

A

This is the main piece of legislation which affects the management of health and safety across all sectors. This act provides the basic frame work to ensure the health and safety of employees in any work activity and is enforced by the health and safety executive. Both employers and employees must comply to the duties outlined in this act.

  • Provision and maintenance of the work place
  • Absence of risk from handling, storage and transport of goods
  • Provide information, training, instruction etc
  • Provide adequate ventilation
  • The building is fit for purpose and where necessary building design should be considered for the relevant work.
64
Q

What are the workplace regulations (Health, Safety and Welfare) 1992?

A

These regulations deal with the physical conditions of the workplace and require employers to meet minimal standards in relation to a wide range of matters i.e. maintenance of the building, provision of drinking water, temperature, lighting, ventilation, toilet, first aid and rest facilities.

65
Q

What are the Health and Safety (Display Screen Equipment) regulations 1992?

A

These regulations oblige employers to assess the workstations of staff who use display screen equipment (DSE). The minimum requirements are:

  • Identify users of DSE
  • Assess workstations to ensure they meet the minimum requirements
  • Provide information, instruction and training on the potential hazards of using DSE
  • Offer free eye tests and pay for spectacles which are needed for work.
66
Q

What is the management of health and safety at work regulations 1999?

A

This act made it more explicit what employers are required to do to manage health and safety under the health and safety at work act. The main requirement is that employers must carry out risk assessments to eliminate or reduce risk.

67
Q

What is Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) and the principles which should be followed?

A

COSHH is a law which requires employers to control substances that are hazardous to health. COSHH guidelines outline how to prevent or reduce workers exposure to hazardous substances by :

  • Finding out what the hazards are
  • Deciding how to prevent harm
  • Providing control measures to reduce harm to health
  • Making sure they are used
  • Keeping all control measures in good working condition
  • Providing information, instruction and training for employees
  • Providing monitoring and health surveillance in appropriate cases
  • Planning for emergencies
68
Q

What is Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences (RIDDOR) and what does it require?

A

RIDDOR is a law which requires employers and anyone else with a responsibility of health and safety to report and keep records of:

  • Death to any person
  • Specified injuries to workers
  • Incapacitation of a worker (over 7 days)
  • Non fatal accidents to non-workers (e.g members of the public)
  • Occupational diseases
  • Dangerous occurances (near miss events)
  • Gas incidents
69
Q

What is the Registration, Evaluation, Authorisation and Restriction of Chemicals (REACH) and what does it require?

A

suppliers of dangerous chemicals to:

  • Identify hazards from the chemicals
  • Give information about the hazard to their customers
  • Package the chemical safely.
70
Q

What is the general requirement of International Standard 15190?

A

ISO 15190 specified the requirement to establish and maintain a safe working environment in a medical laboratory. There are requirements to ensure that there is a named person ultimately responsible and that all employees take personal responsibility for their own safety at work and the safety of others who may be affected by it.

71
Q

What is a Quality Management System? (QMS)

A
  • A system of organisational structures, procedures, responsibilities, and evaluation mechanisms which ensures the organisation is capable of delivering its service to specific standards.
  • A QMS is the total sum of all the processes that allow us to control the whole operation. The includes the documented set of policies and procedures which define how you achieve a defined quality of services and should address all the requirements of a specific standard.
  • An assigned Quality Manager in the laboratory is responsible for ensuring the QMS functions properly, however the head of department has overall responsibility for the QMS.
72
Q

What are the benefits of a QMS?

A
  • Improve and monitor the effectiveness of laboratory performance
  • To achieve better control of the processes
  • Safeguard the organisation, patients and staff.
  • Patients/service users: ensures good quality service which meets the requirements
  • Management: ensures the lab is efficiently organised and managed in a way which meets the service users needs.
  • Staff: Provides a framework which ensures good quality service is provided.
  • Standardisation: Ensures all labs work to the same standard
  • To achieve accreditation
73
Q

What is the purpose of a quality manual?

A

The quality manual sets out the quality policy. It describes the QMS and outlines how the organisation seeks to comply with relevant standards. i.e. with ISO, giving reference to appropriate documents. It outlines a commitment to good scientific practice, health and safety and to comply with environmental legislation.

74
Q

What is quality assurance?

A

Quality assurance comprises of all the different measures taken to to ensure the reliability of investigation and is not limited to the technical procedures carried out in the lab. Quality assurance is about getting it right first time i.e. preventing faults occurring consistently and by keeping all steps in the process under control.

75
Q

What is involved with internal quality control?

A

This is the analysis of material of known content in order to determine in real time if the procedures are performing to the predetermined specifications. Good quality control is designed to prevent any faulty test results being reported but does not stop them occurring in the first place.

76
Q

What happens when corrective action occurs?

A

Corrective action is taken to eliminate the cause of a detected non-conformity. This can be remedial action (fix at time) or can be a process including a root cause analysis (why it went wrong) after the fact.

77
Q

What happens when preventative action occurs?

A

Preventative action is undertaken to eliminate the possible cause of a non-conformity before it happens. The first is a risk assessment followed by continual improvement.

78
Q

How does a QMS provide a mechanism for quality improvement?

A
  • Internal Audits (Detection of non-conformance and quality improvements recommended)
  • Key Quality Objectives (Set annually, provides objectives for the lab to reach in order to improve service)
  • User surveys (find out how users perceive the service and any improvements they would make)
  • Error logs / Incident reporting (Analyse errors and suggest how they can be avoided in future)
  • Complaints policy (Accept constructive criticism from users to improve service)
  • Document reviews
  • Staff appraisal / Identification of training needs.
79
Q

What does ISO stand for?

A

International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO)

80
Q

What are the main ISO standards which applies to medical laboratories?

A

ISO 15189 (2012) emphasizes the quality of contributions to patient care, as well as that of laboratory and management procedures, and is the preferred standard for genetic testing laboratories.
ISO 15189:2012 specifies requirements for quality and competence in medical laboratories. It can be used by medical laboratories to develop their quality management systems and assess their own competence. It can also be used for confirming or recognizing the competence of medical laboratories by laboratory customers, regulating authorities and accreditation bodies.
ISO 15190 specifies requirements for safe practices in the medical laboratory.

81
Q

What is the role of external quality agencies?

A
  • Independent external assessment confirms the laboratory meets specific requirements
  • Assessed against international and nationally recognised standards demonstrating competence and performance capability.
82
Q

What is the United Kingdom Accreditation Service (UKAS)?

A

The United Kingdom Accreditation Service is the sole national accreditation body recognised by
Government to assess, against internationally agreed standards, organisations that provide certification, testing, inspection and calibration services.”

83
Q

What service does the UKNEQAS (United Kingdom National External Quality Assessment Service) consortium provide?

A

UKNEQAS provides external quality assessment schemes (EQAs) and proficiency testing across all clinical laboratories.
They provide access to online materials such as images for analysis and case scenarios for reporting, invite labs to submit previously reported cases online or send out wet samples for some EQAs.
Laboratories’ submissions are assessed by a panel of expert assessors.
The UKNEQAS member relevant to genomics is GenQA.

84
Q

What is GenQA?

A

GenQA (Genomics Quality Assessment) is the UK NEQAS service for both molecular genetics and cytogenetics. It was formed 1st Jan 2018 by amalgamation of UKNEQAS (molecular genetics) and CEQAS (cytogenetics).
It provides external quality assessment schemes to laboartories to test:
- analytical & interpretive skills
- quality of results
- accuracy of reports
It provides an online training suite for Genetic Technologists (GTACT) and other competences for clinical genetics.