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Health And Social Unit 4 > All > Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the four chambers that the heart is split into

A

Two upper chambers: right atrium and left atrium

Two lower chambers: right and left ventricles

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2
Q

What is the heart made of

A

A specialised cardiac muscle that does not tire like other muscles

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3
Q

Aorta

A

Main artery of the body

Leaves the heart from the left ventricle

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4
Q

Pulmonary artery

A

Carries the deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs

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5
Q

Vena cava

A

One of the largest veins in the body

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6
Q

Pulmonary vein

A

Carries oxygenated blood form the lungs to the left atrium of the heart

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7
Q

What are the four major blood vessels entering or leaving the heart

A

Aorta
Pulmonary artery
Vena cava
Pulmonary vein

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8
Q

What are the four main valves in the heart

A

Tricuspid
Bicuspid/mitral
Pulmonary
Aortic

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9
Q

Tricuspid valve

A

First valve that blood encounters as it enters the heart

Allows blood to flow only from the right atrium to the right ventricle

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10
Q

Bicuspid/mitral valve

A

Allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

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11
Q

Pulmonary valve

A

At the opening from the right ventricle and stops blood going back from the pulmonary artery into the heart

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12
Q

Aortic valve

A

Found at the exit of the left ventricle where the aorta begins

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13
Q

Why is the heart sometimes referred to as a double pump

A

Because it pumps blood through two separate circulatory systems

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14
Q

What two circulatory systems does the heart pump blood through

A

Pulmonary

Systemic

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15
Q

Pulmonary circulatory system

A

The right side of the heart receives deoxygenated blood form the body and pumps it to the lungs

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16
Q

Systemic circulatory system

A

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the rest of the body

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17
Q

How does the blood flow through the heart

A

Blood from lungs (oxygenated) returns to the heart via the pulmonary vein and enters the left atrium
Blood passes through the bicuspid/mitral valve into the left ventricle
Out of the aorta and carries the oxygenated blood to the rest of the body
Deoxygenated blood returns form the body to the right atrium via the superior and inferior vena cava
Squeezed through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle
Through the pulmonary artery which carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs

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18
Q

Heart contracts

A

Systole

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19
Q

Heart relaxes

A

Diastole

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20
Q

What are the 3 stages of the cardiac cycle

A

Atrial systole
Ventricular systole
Complete cardiac diastole

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21
Q

Atrial systole

A

Contraction of the right and left atria

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22
Q

Ventricular systole

A

Contraction of the ventricles

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23
Q

Complete cardiac diastole

A

Relaxation of the atria and ventricles

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24
Q

The sinoatrial (SA) node

A

Situated in the upper wall of the right atrium of the heart
Known as the ‘pacemaker’ responsible for setting the rhythm of the heart
Ensures both atria contract simultaneously

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25
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

Situated at the bottom of the right atrium of the heart
Responsible for delaying the electrical impulses it receives from the SA node
The delay allows time for blood to empty out of the atria into the ventricles

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26
Q

SA node

A

Sinoatrial

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27
Q

AV node

A

Atrioventricular

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28
Q

Purkinje fibres (purkyne)

A

Very fine specialised cardiac muscle fibres that rapidly transmit impulses from the atrioventricular node to the ventricles

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29
Q

What sequence does the blood move around the body (5)

A

Heart -> arteries -> capillaries -> veins -> heart

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30
Q

What do arteries do (2)

A

Carry blood away from the heart

Their walls consist of several layers of thick, elastic fibres and muscle

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31
Q

What do veins do (3)

A

Have large internal diameters and thinner walls than arteries
The blood flowing through them is not under pressure and so veins have valves through their length
They carry deoxygenated blood back to the lungs

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32
Q

What do capillaries do (2)

A

The smallest blood vessels and have walls made of a single layer of cells
The thin walls of capillaries allow the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients and waste between blood and the surrounding tissues

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33
Q

Where do arteries carry the blood

A

Away from the heart

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34
Q

Where do veins carry blood

A

Carry deoxygenated blood back to the lungs

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35
Q

What do capillaries carry (5)

A

Exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients and waste between blood and the surrounding tissues

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36
Q

What is fibrinogen

A

Has a role in blood coagulation and clotting

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37
Q

What is the ideal blood pressure

A

Between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg

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38
Q

What is high blood pressure

A

Hypertension

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39
Q

What is high blood pressure considered to be as blood pressure

A

140/90 mmHg or higher

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40
Q

What are the symptoms of hypertension

A

There are rarely and noticeable symptoms

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41
Q

What is the systolic pressure (higher number)

A

The force at which your heart pumps blood around your body

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42
Q

What is diastolic pressure (lower number)

A

The resistance to the blood flow in the blood vessels

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43
Q

What are the systolic and diastolic measured in

A

Millimetres of mercury (mmHg)

High blood pressure damages the blood vessels

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44
Q

What are the factors that can increase the risk of high blood pressure

A 
Age
Family history 
High salt intake 
Lack of exercise
Being overweight or obese 
Smoking and regularly drinking large amounts of alcohol
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45
Q

What are the conditions that can cause high blood pressure

A

Kidney disease
Diabetes
Hormone problems such as an under - or overactive thyroid

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46
Q

What can you do to impact on your lifestyle to prevent hypertension (6)

A

Changes in diet - a balanced diet with low fat and salt, regular exercise, reduce alcohol intake, stop smoking, get enough sleep, reduce stress

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47
Q

What can you do with medication to help with hypertension

A

Doctors may recommend taking one or more medicines to keep blood pressure under control. Usually need to be taken once a day

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48
Q

What are common blood pressure medications (2)

A

ACE inhibitors - which lower blood pressure

Beta blockers - which slow the heart rate

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49
Q

What is the impact of hypertension

A

Can lead to an increased risk of coronary heart disease, strokes and kidney disease

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50
Q

What are the symptoms of coronary heart disease (2)

A 
Angina
Heart attack (myocardial infraction)
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51
Q

What are the symptoms of angina (5)

A 
Breathlessness 
Nausea
Dizziness
Chest pain
Tightness in the chest that may spread to arms, neck and jaw
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52
Q

What are the symptoms of heart attack (myocardial infraction) (5)

A 
Light headedness
Feeling weak
Sweating 
Shortness of breath 
Chest pain that can radiate form the chest to the jaw, neck, arms and back
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53
Q

What are the biological explanations of coronary heart disease (2)

A

Walls of the arteries become blocked with fatty deposits, called atherosclerosis
When arteries become completely blocked it can cause a heart attack, which can permanently damage the heart muscle and if not treated straight away can be fatal

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54
Q

What causes coronary heart disease (5)

A

Caused by a build up of fatty deposits on the walls of the arteries around the heart
Lifestyle factors - smoking, lack of regular exercise, obesity, high cholesterol level, high blood pressure, diabetes
Age, genes and gender

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55
Q

What can blood tests do

A

Check the levels of certain fats, cholesterol, sugar and proteins in the blood

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56
Q

What does an electrocardiogram measure for a coronary heart disease

A

Measures the electrical activity of the heart and can show any damage to the heart muscles or signs of coronary heart disease

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57
Q

What medication can be given for coronary heart disease (4)

A

Nitrates relax the coronary arteries allowing more blood to reach the heart
Cholesterol lowering medicines such as statins
Antiplatelet medicines such as aspirin making the blood less likely to clot
ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure

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58
Q

What surgical procedures can by done for coronary heart disease (4)

A

Angioplasty passes a tiny deflated balloon into a narrow artery and then inflates it
Coronary heart bypass graft which is to bypass the narrow coronary arteries to improve flow of blood to the heart
Can’t be cured but treatment can help manage the symptoms
PIES daily, emotional and social impacts

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59
Q

What is the larynx

A

Connects the back of the nose and the trachea, forming an air passage to the lungs

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60
Q

What is the trachea

A

Also known as the windpipe

It starts at the back of the throat (pharynx) and divides into two bronchi

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61
Q

What is the bronchi

A

The division of the trachea, each leading into one of the lungs where they continue to divide to form smaller bronchioles

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62
Q

What are bronchioles

A

Where they are in the lungs and the bronchi divides into smaller parts to form the bronchioles

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63
Q

Which two are tubes that have rings of cartilage

A

Trachea

Bronchi

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64
Q

What are the rings of cartilages for

A

To stop them collapsing so that an open passage for air is maintained

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65
Q

What are the rings of the cartilage like

A

‘C’ shaped in the trachea with the gap at the back to allow food to travel down the oesophagus

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66
Q

What is the alveoli

A

At the end of the tiniest bronchioles are the microscopic alveoli
Sacs found in clusters

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67
Q

What is an alveolus

A

A single sac
Surrounded by a capillary network where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged through the alveolar membrane
About 300 million alveoli in your lungs

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68
Q

What is the diaphragm

A

A muscle anchored to the lower ribs that separates the chest from the abdomen

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69
Q

What are the intercostal muscles

A

These are muscles found between the ribs

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70
Q

What are the pleural membranes

A

They cover the outside of the lungs and line the inside of the chest wall

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71
Q

What is the role of the pleural membranes

A

Consist of two layers of thin membrane
Moist and slippery
Thin film of liquid between the two layers, this lubricates the surface so that they will slide over each other allowing the lungs to move easily within the chest cavity
This means that they move with the chest wall as breathing occurs

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72
Q

What is the function of the respiratory system

A

To deliver oxygen into the body by breathing in (inspiration) and to remove the waste carbon dioxide gas by breathing out (expiration)

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73
Q

What is breathing in called

A

Inspiration

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74
Q

What is breathing out called

A

Expiration

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75
Q

What does the intercostal muscle do when breathing in

A

It pulls the rib cage upwards and outwards and the diaphragm flattery’s inwards
The result of these two movements is an increase in volume and a decrease in pressure, which forces air into the lungs so that they inflate

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76
Q

What happens to the intercostal muscle when breathing out

A

The reverse happens the diaphragm lifts back into a dome shape and the intercostal muscles pull the rib cage inwards and downwards
These two movements force carbon dioxide out of the lungs and they deflate

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77
Q

What is gaseous exchange

A

A process that involves the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between capillaries and alveoli

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78
Q

What takes place in the alveoli

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

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79
Q

What are the walls of the alveoli like

A

They are very thin (one cell thick)

Each alveoli is surrounded by capillaries through which gases are exchanged

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80
Q

What is the structure of the alveoli like

A

Like bunches of grapes which increases their surface area to allow the maximum crossover or diffusion of the two gasses back and forth to make the process very efficient

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81
Q

What does diffusion allow in the alveoli

A

Allows the oxygen to move out of the alveoli to the capillaries and into the bloodstream and the carbon dioxide to move out of the capillaries into the alveoli and to the lungs to be exhaled

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82
Q

Diffusion gradients

A

Diffusion refers to the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
Particles diffuse down a concentration gradient from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

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83
Q

What type of concentration do capillaries have

A

A lower concentration of oxygen than the alveoli
This results in diffusion of oxygen from an area of higher concentration (the alveoli) to an area of lower concentration in the red blood cells (in capillaries)

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84
Q

The erythrocytes and plasma

A

The structure and role of erythrocytes in transporting oxygen via haemoglobin to the body tissues and the role of plasma in transporting carbon dioxide that is produced by respiration to the lungs

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85
Q

What does ATP stand for

A

Adenosine triphosphate

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86
Q

What is ATP

A

A high energy molecule found in every cell

It’s job is to store and supply the cell with energy it needs it is sometimes called the energy currency of the body

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87
Q

What is cellular respiration

A

A complex set of chemical reactions and processes that take place in the mitochondria to convert biochemical energy from nutrients into ATP and then release waste product

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88
Q

What are the two types of respiration that take place inside cells to provide energy

A

Aerobic - uses oxygen

Anaerobic - does not need oxygen

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89
Q

What is aerobic respiration

A

Oxygen and glucose are required

Produces waste carbon dioxide and water as well as providing energy

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90
Q

What does the aerobic respiration figure look like for glucose (sugar)

A

| Glucose + oxygen —> carbon dioxide + water

32 ATP

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91
Q

What is anaerobic respiration

A

Takes place if oxygen is not available but provides less energy

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92
Q

What does the anaerobic respiration figure of glucose (sugar) look like

A

2ATP
Glucose —> pyruvate —> lactate
| when oxygen |
| becomes available|

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93
Q

What is the anaerobic respiration process called and where does it take place

A

Glycolysis is the process that takes place in the cell cytoplasm

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94
Q

What is pyruvate

A

A molecule that is involved in energy generation, it can be converted to lactate under anaerobic conditions

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95
Q

What does pyruvic acid do when oxygen is present

A

It supplies energy to cells through the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) when oxygen is Preston

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96
Q

What does pyruvic acid do when lacking in oxygen

A

It ferments to produce lactic acid which needs to be oxidised later to carbon dioxide and water to prevent it building up
If oxygen doesn’t become available cells die because lactate is toxic

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97
Q

When is anaerobic respiration likely to occur

A

When oxygen is in short supply, such as when exercising because muscle cells need a lot of energy

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98
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of asthma (2)

A

Recurring episodes of breathlessness, tightness of the chest and wheezing
Asthma ‘attacks’ - episodes of wheezing that require the use of an inhaler to open the airway

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99
Q

What are the biological explanations of asthma (2)

A

Inflammation in bronchi, which carry air in and out of the lungs, causing the bronchi to be more sensitive than normal
Contact with allergens, something that irritates the lungs know as a trigger making the airways become narrow, the muscles around them tighten and there is an increase in the production of sticky mucus (phlegm)

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100
Q

What are the causes of asthma (4)

A

Exact cause not know but likely to be a combination
May be genetic
Environmental and social factors - dust, air pollution, chemicals, exposure to smoking and being born prematurely
Modern hygiene standards - too hygienic - don’t build up resistance

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101
Q

What is emphysema also known as

A

COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

COAD (chronic obstructive airways disease)

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102
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of emphysema (5)

A 
Shortness of breath, wheezing
Yellow sputum 
Persistent cough that never seems to go away 
Frequent chest infections
Symptoms get worse over time
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103
Q

What is the biological explanation of emphysema (2)

A

Airways of the lungs become inflamed and narrowed as the alveoli get permanently damaged it become increasingly difficult to breathe out
Currently no cure but the sooner the condition is diagnosed and appropriate treatment beings the less chance there is of severe lung damage

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104
Q

What are the causes of emphysema (3)

A

Lifestyle choice of smoking is the main cause
By certain types of fumes, dust and chemical exposure at work
Genetic tendency which is extremely rare

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105
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of cystic fibrosis (3)

A

Lung problems - recurring chest infection, persistent inflammation of the airways, coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath
Digestive system - diarrhoea, diabetes and malnutrition because the body struggles to digest and absorb nutrients
May have serious bowel obstruction in the first few days of life which requires an operation to remove the blockage

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106
Q

What are the biological explanations of cystic fibrosis (3)

A

Present at birth chromosome 7 creates a build up of sticky mucus in the lungs and digestive system
There is no cure over the years the lung become increasingly damaged and may eventually stop working properly, average life expectancy is reduced
They lead fulfilling lives with successful careers, family life and leisure activities

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107
Q

What is the cause of cystic fibrosis

A

Both parents must have a copy of the faulty (mutated) gene. If only one copy is present then the child will be a carrier but will not have the condition themselves

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108
Q

What is spirometry

A

A test carried out to measure the breathing capacity of the lungs
Measure the volume of air expired (breathed out) in total and the force of the expiration in the first second
Used to diagnose and monitor asthma, COPD and cystic fibrosis

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109
Q

How is a spirometry used

A

The individual has a clip placed on their nose and has to blow into a mouthpiece having inhaled and then repeat this at least three times
Lasts around 30-90 minutes

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110
Q

What are MRI and CT scans

A

Can provide high resolution entailed images of the chest and can be repeated over time to monitor changes in the condition
A high resolution CT scan is the most sensitive method of detecting emphysema

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111
Q

What are peak flow meters

A

They are used to measure the rate of exhalation for asthma, measurements are taken regularly over time and compared with norms to indicate dilation/constriction of airways

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112
Q

What is physiotherapy

A

Help restore or improve movement, mobility or function in the body
Consists of exercises, manipulation and massage techniques
Or can be for lungs and breathing
Used for a wide variety of conditions including COPD and cystic fibrosis
Massage is used to improve quality of life for those with long term conditions by reducing anxiety levels and improving sleep

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113
Q

What 2 types of inhalers are there

A 
Preventative inhalers (blue) - used regularly to reduce inflammation and sensitivity of airways
Reliever inhalers (brown/red) - muscle relaxants for immediate relief of symptoms
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114
Q

What are inhalers for

A

Particularly used for asthma
May be used with a spacer device, which gets drugs deeper
Nebulisers may be required if constriction is too great as these get drugs deeper into the lungs

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115
Q

What is medication

A

Antibiotics to treat infections; corticosteroids, steroid treatments to relieve symptoms; anti inflammatory medication reduces swelling and inflammation

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116
Q

What is identification of triggers

A

If asthma is caused by allergens, treatment may involve tests to identify triggers and then de sensitising injections can be given

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117
Q

What is oxygen therapy (mainly for COPD) (3)

A

Pulmonary rehabilitation - programme of exercise and education
Ambulatory oxygen therapy - use of portable oxygen when walking or other activity
Long term oxygen therapy - use of oxygen at home from a portable oxygen tank. Taken through a mask or nasal tubes, used for 16 hours a day

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118
Q

What is surgery

A

To remove damaged section of lung, or lung transplant

Only suitable when symptoms are not controlled by medication

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119
Q

What lifestyle changes can the individual make or have (6)

A

Give up smoking
Diet - well balanced to promote healthy weight
Move to a one storey house
Avoid pollution and infections/triggers for asthma
Move around with an oxygen cylinder to assist breathing
Emotional and social impacts of not being able to complete daily living tasks

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120
Q

What care needs will individuals encounter (8)

A 
Regular check ups
Vaccinations (cystic fibrosis)
Dietary supplements 
Lack of energy and breathless on any activity 
Install a stair lift 
Wheelchair
Oxygen cylinder 
Home help for daily living tasks
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121
Q

What does the digestive system do

A

Is the breakdown and absorption of food and the removal of waste food products from the body

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122
Q

What is the buccal cavity

A

Where we put food (mouth area), where food is chewed to break it down. Also known as the oral cavity

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123
Q

What are the salivary glands

A

Produce saliva, which helps moisten food and make it easy to swallow

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124
Q

What is the epiglottis

A

A flap of cartilage behind the root of the tongue, which covers the opening of the windpipe when swallowing food

125
Q

What is the oesophagus

A

A muscular tube that connects the throat with the stomach
Food moves down through the oesophagus to the stomach
Peristalsis (a squeezing action by the muscles) helps the food move downwards to the stomach

126
Q

What is the stomach

A

A sac with muscular walls that churn the food to break it up

It produces hydrochloride acid and enzymes to digest the food

127
Q

What is the small intestine

A

The duodenum
Food particularly digested by the stomach, now called chyme is chemically altered by fluids from the liver and by bile from the pancreas
The duodenum is lined with villi, which are finger like projections in the intestinal wall that increase the surface area and help the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

128
Q

What is the large intestine

A

Or colon

Reabsorbs fluid and processes waste products in preparation for elimination from the body

129
Q

What is the rectum

A

Last part of the colon and links it to the anus

Stores faeces until they can be expelled from the body

130
Q

What is the anus

A

Opening in the body through which the faeces are expelled by the process of defecation
The anal sphincter muscle controls the opening and closing of the anus

131
Q

What is the pharynx

A

Swallows food

132
Q

What is the liver

A

Breaks down toxins and old blood cells stores vitamins and iron

133
Q

What is the gall bladder

A

Concentrates bile, which will help with digestion

134
Q

What is the pancreas

A

Used hormones to regulate blood sugar levels
Uses bicarbonates to neutralise acid from the stomach
Uses amylase to digest polysaccharides, lipase to digest lipids and trypsin and chymotrypsin for protein

135
Q

What is mechanical digestion (4)

A

When food is physically broken down to make it smaller
Chewing action - teeth break down large pieces of food into smaller ones to be swallowed
Stomach churns food to break it down
In the small intestine the bile emulsifies (breaks into small particles) lipids, also know as fats, which helps with the mechanical digestion of fats

136
Q

What is chemical digestion (4)

A

Where nutrients are broken down by enzymes to smaller molecules that can be absorbed into the blood and used by cells
In the buccal cavity, food is dissolved with saliva, which contains an enzyme called amylase
The stomach mixes food with enzymes and hydrochloric acid while churning it
Chemical digestion of proteins - broken down by pepsin in the stomach and small intestine

137
Q

What are the 4 steps of chemical digestion

A

Ingestion -> digestion -> absorption -> elimination

138
Q

What is ingestion

A

Food is taken into the body through the mouth

139
Q

What is digestion

A

Physical and chemical breakdown of food (chewing and enzymes)

140
Q

What is absorption

A

Food passes through the intestine walls into eh bloodstream

141
Q

What is elimination

A

The undigested waste is removed from the body

142
Q

What is the digestive role of pancreatic juice (3)

A

The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine in pancreatic juice
The pancreatic juices that are released into the duodenum help the body to digest fats
The pancreatic juices are released into a system of ducts that culminate in the main pancreatic duct

143
Q

What is the digestive role of bile (5)

A

Bile is a digestive juice produced by the liver
Helps the body absorb fat into the bloodstream
Stored in the gallbladder until the body needs it to digest fats
Enters the small intestine through the bile duct
Bile emulsifies fats and neutralises stomach acid

144
Q

How is the intestine wall adapted for absorption (6)

A

Absorption refers to how the nutrients extracted form food are absorbed into the bloodstream, this occurs in the small intestine
Villi and microvilli, which are finger like projections increase the surface area of the small intestine wall to enable efficient absorption
Villi contain blood vessels and lacteal
Products of fat digestion enter lacteal
Nutrients enter by diffusion
Everything else enters the blood

145
Q

What is the role of the liver in assimilation (3)

A

Assimilation is the movement of digested food molecules into the cells of the body where they are used, so that they become part of those cells
Excess glucose in the blood reaching the liver is converted into glycogen to be stored or broken down through respiration, producing energy
The liver is where toxins such as alcohol are broken down

146
Q

What is lacteal

A

Lymphatic capillaries that absorb dietary fats in the villi of the small intestine

147
Q

What are the symptoms of irritable bowel synodrome (7)

A

Stomach pain and cramping
Changes in bowel habits such as diarrhoea or constipation or both
Bloating and swelling of the stomach
Excessive wind, flatulence
Sudden need to go to the toilet
Feeling that bowels have not fully emptied after going
Mucus passing from the anus

148
Q

What are the biological explanations of irritable bowel syndrome (2)

A

Food moves through the digestive system either too quickly or too slowly - if food passes too quickly it causes diarrhoea because not enough water is absorbed by the intestines - if food passes too slowly it results in constipation because too much water is absorbed by the intestines with the absorption of bile
It is also thought that problems with the absorption of bile during the digestive process may be a cause of IBS in some cases

149
Q

What are the causes of irritable bowel syndrome (2)

A

Believed to be linked to and increase sensitivity of the gut to certain foods. It is also thought to be related to problems with digesting food
In many people the symptoms seem to be triggered by something they have eaten or drunk. Changes in diet and lifestyle can be important in managing and controlling the condition

150
Q

What are the symptoms of coeliac disease (3)

A

Indigestion, stomach pain, bloating, flatulence, diarrhoea or constipation, anaemia and loss of appetite
Feeling tired all the time as a result of malnutrition
Children not growing at the expected rate and adults experiencing unexpected weight loss

151
Q

What are the biological explanation of coeliac disease (2)

A

An autoimmune condition meaning the immune system mistakes part of the body for a threat and attacks it. The immune system mistakes gliadin a substance found in gluten as a threat to the body and so it attacks, this causes damage to the villi. The antibodies cause the surface of the intestine to become inflamed and the villi are flattened, meaning the body’s ability to absorb nutrients is disrupted

Villi normally help nutrients form the food be absorbed through the small intestine walls into the bloodstream. Coeliac disease is not a food allergy or a gluten intolerance. It is an autoimmune response, where healthy substances are mistaken for harmful ones and the body produces antibodies against them

152
Q

What are the causes of coeliac disease (3)

A

It often runs in the family
Research has shown it is strongly associated with a number of genetic mutations that affect a group of genes that are responsible for the development of the immune system. These mutated genes are very common and so it is thought that environmental factors must trigger the condition in certain people
There is evidence that introducing gluten into a baby’s diet before six months may increase their risk of developing the condition

153
Q

What are the symptoms of gallstones (5)

A

Abdominal pain sudden and severe
Excessive sweating, feeling sick or vomiting
Jaundice - yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes
Itchy skin, diarrhoea
Loss of appetite

154
Q

What are the biological explanations of gallstones (2)

A

Gallstone can form if - there are unusually high levels of cholesterol inside the gallbladder - there are unusually high levels of waste product called bilirubin inside the gallbladder

These chemical imbalances cause tiny crystals to develop in the bile. These gradually grow into solid stones that can be as small as a grain of sand or as large as a pebble. Sometimes only one stone will form, but often several develop at the same time

155
Q

What are the causes of gallstones (2)

A

By an imbalance in the chemical make up of bile inside the gallbladder
More common is an individual is overweight or obese, is aged 40 years, has a condition that affects the flow of bile or has a close family member who has also had gallstones

156
Q

What is an ultrasound

A

Can be used to examine the liver and other organs in the abdomen and pelvis
A lubricating gel is used on the skin to allow smooth movement of a small hand held probe, which is moved over the body tissues, forming an image on a monitor screen

157
Q

What is a gastroscopy

A

Using an endoscope
Examines the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum
Uses a long flexible tube called an endoscope, the tube has a light and a video camera at one end, endoscopes are inserted into the body either through the mouth or anus
It can be uncomfortable so a local anaesthetic spray is used to numb the throat
Takes around an hour to carry out and is used to investigate symptoms such as difficulty swallowing and persistent abdominal pain

158
Q

What is a cholangiography

A

Can give further information about the condition of the gallbladder
Uses a dye that shows up on xrays, the dye may be injected into the blood stream or injected directly into the bile ducts during surgery or using an endoscope passed through the mouth
After the dye X-ray images are taken which will reveal any abnormality in the bile or pancreatic systems

159
Q

What treatments can be done to avoid diarrhoea for IBS (2)

A

Cut down on high fibre foods like whole grain foods, nuts and seeds
Avoid products containing a sweetener called sorbitol

160
Q

What treatments can be done to avoid bloating, cramps, flatulence for IBS (2)

A

Avoid foods that are hard to digest such as cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, beans, onions and dried fruit
Eat up to 1 tablespoon of linseeds a day

161
Q

What treatment is there for coeliac disease (3)

A

Give up all foods containing gluten for life to avoid long term damage to health
Vaccinations eg. Flu jabs, as individuals with coeliac disease are more vulnerable to infection
Vitamin and mineral supplements can also help correct any dietary deficiencies

162
Q

What treatment is there for gallstones (3)

A

Those who don’t have any symptoms they do not receive immediate treatment but they should let their GP know if they notice any symptoms
Keyhole surgery
Lithotripsy is a non surgical treatment where a tiny endoscope probe is used to deliver shock waves that shatter the gallstones. The camera on the endoscope allows the surgeon to see the gallstones shattering

163
Q

What medication can for gallstones (4)

A

It is possible to take tablets to dissolve small gallstones
Not always that gallstones
Need to be taken for a long time
Can recur once treatment is stopped

164
Q

What impacts on diet and lifestyle are there for IBS (8)

A

Abdominal pain and discomfort from bloating may restrict sleep, leading to tiredness and emotional frustration
Need to visit the toilet may restrict trips out and socialising
Flatulence may be embarrassing and reduce confidence when socialising
Restrict diet
Coffee and fizzy drinks can cause irritation in the gut
May need to avoid stressful situations
Keep a food diary to identify foods that cause irritation or pain
Take regular exercise which can relieve stress and increase feelings of wellbeing

165
Q

What impacts on diet and lifestyle are there for coeliac disease (6)

A

Remove gluten from the diet
Take additional vitamin and mineral supplements
Read food labels very carefully when shopping as flour is often used as a thickening agent
Take care when eating out
Take care when eating at friends
Avoid using oil that has been used to fry gluten

166
Q

What impacts on diet and lifestyle are there for gallstones (3)

A

Not an essential organ so individuals can lead a normal life
After surgery some people may experience symptoms of bloating
It is recommended to eat a healthy and balanced diet

167
Q

Where can a ball and socket joint be found (2)

A

Hip

Shoulder

168
Q

Where can a pivot joint be found

A

Neck

169
Q

Where can a hinge joint be found (2)

A

Elbow

Knee

170
Q

Where can a sliding/gliding joint be found (2)

A

Wrist

Ankle

171
Q

Where can a fixed joint be found (2)

A

Cranium

Pelvis

172
Q

What is a muscle

A

Necessary for movement

Contracts and relaxes to move the joint

173
Q

What is the bone

A

Provides the framework and support for the attachment of muscles and other tissues

174
Q

What is a ligament

A

Attaches one bone to another bone

175
Q

What is a tendon

A

Attaches a muscle to a bone

176
Q

What is cartilage

A

Reduces friction and absorbs shock in the joint, allowing the joint to move smoothly

177
Q

What is the synovial capsule

A

Secretes synovial fluid and maintains joint stability

178
Q

What is synovial fluid

A

Lubricates and nourishes the joint

179
Q

What is the muscle action around the joint (3)

A

Muscles have to work in pairs that bring about opposite actions, this is because they can only ‘pull’ when they contract, they cannot ‘push’

Antagonistic pairs of muscles create movement when one contracts and the other (the antagonist) relaxes

When a muscle contracts to move a joint, it is the tendon that pulls on the bone

180
Q

What is an example of antagonistic pairs of muscle working

A

Are the quadriceps and hamstrings in the leg and the biceps and triceps in the arm

181
Q

What is osteoporosis

A

A disease characterised by low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, leading to fragility and fractures. Bone density scans are carried out to assess and monitor the progress of the disease

182
Q

What are the symptoms of osteoporosis

A

Often there are no obvious symptoms until a minor fall or a sudden impact causes a fracture
Most common fractures on the wrist, hip and vertebrae (spinal bones)
In some cases a cough or a sneeze can cause a rib fracture or partial collapse of a vertebrae, which can lead to curvature if the spine and loss of height

183
Q

What are the is biological explanations of osteoporosis

A

Due to loss of protein matrix from the bone resulting in loss of bone density, a condition that weakens bones so they become brittle
Bones naturally become thinner with age particularly in women who lose bone rapidly in the first few years after the menopause. This is because the hormone oestrogen (which promotes bone formation) declines after the menopause

184
Q

What are the causes of osteoporosis (5)

A

Losing bone is the normal ageing process but in some cases it can lead to osteoporosis
Family history, heavy drinking and smoking, eating disorder, long term use of medications that affect bone strength
Other conditions can increase the risk of developing osteoporosis

Women have an even greater risk of developing osteoporosis if they have an early menopause
Lifestyle factors such as diet and exercise can determine how healthy bones are

185
Q

What are the two types of arthritis

A

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

186
Q

What are the symptoms of osteoarthritis

A

Joint become painful and stiff most often in knees, hips and small joint of the hands
Tenderness and increased pain if the joint has not moved in a while
Cracking noise or grating sensation of the joint
Limited range of movement
Appear more ‘knobbly’ than usual

187
Q

What is the biological explanation of osteoarthritis

A

General wear and tear of joints
Cartilage can be lost, bony growth develop and the area can become inflamed
Cartilage becomes stiff, loses elasticity and may wear over time
As the cartilage deteriorates tendons and ligaments stretch and eventually the bones can rub against each other causing pain

188
Q

What are the causes of osteoarthritis (3)

A

Sometimes called wear and tear arthritis osteoarthritis is not a normals part of ageing. Risk of developing the condition does increase as a person gets older, however may run in the family
Being overweight or obese puts excess strain on the weight bearing joints
Can develop in a joint damaged by an injury or operation, if a joint is not given enough time to heal after an operation or injury it can lead to developing osteoarthritis in later life

189
Q

What are the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis (3)

A

Vary from person to person they may come and go and change over time
Throbbing pain and aching, stiff joints, joints can swell and become hot and tender to touch
Firm swellings called rheumatoid nodules can also develop under the skin around affected joints

190
Q

What are the biological explanations of rheumatoid arthritis (3)

A

The immune system mistakenly attacks the cells that line the joints
The synovial membrane that lines and lubricates the joint becomes inflamed and sore, this inflammation gradually destroys the cartilage
As scar tissue replaces the cartilage the joint becomes misshapen and rigid

191
Q

What are the causes of rheumatoid arthritis (3)

A

Not yet known
One theory is that a virus or infection triggers the condition, this causes an autoimmune response in which the body attacks its own tissues by sending antibodies to the lining of the joints, where they attack the tissue surrounding the joint
Some evidence that the risk of developing the condition may be increased by smoking and by hormones
Could be inherited though this risk is thought to be very low as genes play a very small role in the condition

192
Q

What medication is there for arthritis (4)

A

Steroids and NSAIDs (non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs) to reduce swelling and inflammation of joints
Painkillers eg paracetamol
Corticosteroid injections into the joint to reduce swelling
Supplements such as glucosamine and chondrites to alleviate symptoms

193
Q

What physiotherapy and exercise is there for arthritis (3)

A

Joint manipulation to strengthen muscles around the joints
Assistance equipment such as walking sticks, which take weight off the joint or a splint to support a joint
Use of TENS a device that gives small electrical impulses and can reduce pain

194
Q

What surgery is available for arthritis (3)

A

Arthroscopy to clean debris in joint
Arthroplasty - joint replacement eg a knee replacement to renew an affected joint
Osteotomy where a bone is cut and re aligned

195
Q

What possible methods of monitoring osteoporosis are there (3)

A

Bone density scans (DEXA scan)
Blood tests
Fracture of an unusual bone eg wrist, shoulder, vertebrae

196
Q

What are the possible treatments for osteoporosis (7)

A

Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements
Carrying out load bearing exercise
Taking HRT (hormone replacement therapy)
Taking bisphosphonates which slow the rate at which bone is broken down in the body so as to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures
Taking medication for strengthening bones
Having physiotherapy
Using TENS

197
Q

What impacts on lifestyle of musculoskeletal malfunctions are there (12)

A

Medication may have side effects
Attending regular check ups and monitoring appointments
Healthy eating, dietary changes
Regular exercise
Taking care to avoid fractures affects some hobbies
Loss of height leads to back pain
Coping with pain lack of sleep
May become immobile, housebound need single storey house
Wheelchair or walking aids
Recovery from surgery
Home adaptions stair lift, handles
Arthritis can make preparing meals, shopping and drinking difficult or impossible

198
Q

What does the nervous system do

A

It receives, transmits and responds to information form the external environment and form the body’s internal environment, through a collection of nerve cells

199
Q

What is the central nervous system

A

Control centre for the body
Consists of the brain and spinal cord
Spinal cord connects the brain by long lines of individual nerve cells to every area in the body

200
Q

What is the spinal cord

A

Protected by specialised bones named vertebrae
These bones have a hollow centre through which the spinal cord runs
Transmits informations to and from the brain through structures called nerves

201
Q

What is the autonomic system

A

Controls and regulates processes such as heart rate and gut movements (peristalsis)
Actions that are automatic or unconsciously controlled

202
Q

What is the sensory and motor neurones (somatic nervous system)

A

Sensory nerves transmit information from the senses - eyes, ears etc to the brain
Motor nerves transmit information to the muscles from the brain
Sensory and motor nerve pathways work together eg when picking up something

203
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system

A

All the nerves outside the central nervous system
Relays information from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body and the reverse information from the body to the brain and spinal cord
Include autonomic, sensory and motor nerves

204
Q

What is the cerebral cortex

A

Responsible for thinking and processing sensory information from the body
Four lobes each responsible for processing different types of information
Made of tightly packed neurons

205
Q

What is the cerebellum

A

Back of the skull
Coordinates and regulates muscle activity eg walking and writing
Involved in the control of muscles to maintain balance

206
Q

What are the frontal lobes

A

Carry out higher level mental processes such as thinking, decision making and planning

207
Q

What is the corpus callosum

A

A bridge of nerve tissue that connects the two halves of the brain and enables communication between the two

208
Q

What is the hypothalamus

A

Responsible for the maintenance of body temperature

Regulates appetite and thirst

209
Q

What is the medulla

A

Automatically carries out and regulates life sustaining functions such as breathing, swallowing and heart rate

210
Q

What is the meninges

A

Three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and the spinal cord
Provide a barrier from the rest of the body and act as protection from infection

211
Q

What is a neuron

A

Specialised nerve cells that transmit electrical impulses (information) form one part of the body to another

212
Q

What is an axon

A

The long thread like part of a nerve cell along which impulses are conducted away form the cell body to other cells
Only one per neuron

213
Q

What is a dendron (dendrite)

A

Are short, branded structures on the neuron that receive electrical impulses and carry them towards the cell body
As many as 1000 per neuron

214
Q

What is the myelin sheath

A

A fatty white substance that surrounds the axon
Forms a protective, insulting layer and enables electrical impulses to transmit quickly and efficiently along the nerve cells

215
Q

How does information flow from one neuron to another

A

Across a synapse which has a small gap separating neurons

216
Q

What 3 elements does the synapse consist of

A

The pre synaptic membrane
The post synaptic membrane
The gap between the two membranes which is called the synaptic cleft

217
Q

How does the synapse work (4)

A

An electrical impulse travels along an axon
This triggers the nerve ending of a neuron to release chemical messengers called neurotransmitters
These chemicals diffuse across the synapse and transmit signals
They bind with receptor molecules on the membrane of the next neuron

218
Q

what is the endocrine system made of

A

Glands that secrete hormones sometimes called ‘chemical messengers’ that regulate metabolism, reproduction, growth and sleep

219
Q

What is the pancreas

A

A gland located near the stomach that produces insulin

Insulin is needed to control glucose (blood sugar) levels in the body

220
Q

What is the pituitary

A

Located at the base of the brain

The master gland that regulates all the other endocrine glands

221
Q

What is the adrenal

A

There are two
On on top of each kidney
Produce adrenaline the fight or flight hormone
Released into the bloodstream as a response to threat and prepares the body to fight or run by raising the heart and breathing rates

222
Q

What is the thyroid

A

Located in the lower front part of the neck

Produces thyroxine which affects growth and sustains metabolism

223
Q

What are the ovaries and testes (reproductive glands)

A

Source of sex hormones
Testosterone affects male characteristics such as sexual development, growth of facial hair and changes at puberty as well as sperm production
Oestrogen and progesterone as well as eggs that control breast growth and reproductive functions such as menstruation and pregnancy

224
Q

What are the components of the kidney (8)

A 
Cortex 
Medulla 
Renal artery 
Renal vein 
Calyx
Ureters
Bladder
Urethra
225
Q

What is the cortex in the kidney

A

The outer layer of the kidney

226
Q

What is the medulla in the kidney

A

The inner region contains thousands of nephrons

227
Q

What is the renal artery in the kidney

A

Supplies kidney with blood

228
Q

What is the renal vein in the kidney

A

Carries blood filtered by the kidney

229
Q

What is the calyx in the kidney

A

Chambers through which urine passes

230
Q

What is the ureters in the kidney

A

Tubes that carry urine from the kidney to the bladder

231
Q

What is the bladder in the kidney

A

Stores urine

232
Q

What is the urethra in the kidney

A

Urine passes out of the body through this

233
Q

What are the two main functions of the kidney

A

Both carried out by the nephrons
The removal of urea (waste)
The maintenance of the balance of water levels

234
Q

What does the kidney do (3)

A

Maintain the body’s water balance (osmoregulation) by controlling the water concentration of blood plasma. This keeps water input from drinking fluids and water loss constant
The kidneys also control salt levels and the excretion of urea. Water that is not put back into the blood is excreted in urine
Nephrons consist of a ball formed of small capillaries, called a glomerulus, and a small tube called a renal tubule

235
Q

What is the structure of the kidney (2)

A

Ultrafiltration is when metabolic wastes are separated from the blood and urine is formed. It occurs in the glomerular capsule (bowmans capsule) in the nephron
After filtration kidneys selectively reabsorb molecules that the body needs. These include: glucose; mineral ions (salts) reabsorbed in the proximal and distal tubules; and as much water as the body needs reabsorbed by the loop of henle

236
Q

The liver

A

Is the largest internal organ and it carries out more chemical processes than any other organ in the body

237
Q

What is deamination (2)

A

Occurs in the liver during protein metabolism (breakdown)

It results in the production of ammonia, which is toxic waste

238
Q

What is detoxification (4)

A

The liver converts the ammonia produced by deamination into urea; this is still waste, but is less toxic
The urea is transported in the blood and removed by the kidney in the urine
The liver breaks down alcohol, removing it from the blood
It also breaks down drugs such as paracetamol

239
Q

What is production of bile (3)

A

Bile is produced in the liver as a result of the breakdown of red blood cells
Bile is stored in the gallbladder until needed by the digestive system
Bile emulsifies fats during the digestive process

240
Q

What is homeostasis

A

The maintenance of a constant internal environment. The conditions in the body must be very carefully controlled if the body is to function effectively. The nervous system and hormones are responsible for this

241
Q

Examples of homeostasis (4)

A

Concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood
Body temperature maintained at 37oC; enzymes work best at this temperature
Blood sugar levels, controlled by the release and storage of glucose, which in turn is controlled by insulin
Water content, to protect cells by preventing much water entering or leaving

242
Q

Homeostatic control is achieved using negative feedback mechanisms (2)

A

If the level of something rises, control systems reduce it again
If the level of something falls, control systems raise it again

243
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of stroke (4)

A

Face - may have dropped on one side
Arms - not able to lift both arms and keep them there
Speech - may be slurred or garbled or not able to talk
Dizziness, confusion, problems with balance and coordination, difficulty swallowing, sudden and severe headache resulting in blinding pain

244
Q

What are the biological explanations of strokes (2)

A

Ischaemic strokes - a blood clot blocks the flow of blood and oxygen to the brain, the clots form in areas where arteries are narrowed and blocked over time by fatty deposits known as plaques
Haemorrhagic strokes - known as cerebral haemorrhages, occur when a blood vessel in the skull bursts and bleeds into and around the brain

245
Q

What possible causes are there for a stroke (2)

A

High blood pressure which can weaken the arteries in the brain, risk factors are coronary heart disease, high blood pressure and stress
Lifestyle factors eg smoking, high fat diet, high sugar diet, excess alcohol, obesity, lack exercise. Being over aged 65 and having a close family member who has had a stroke

246
Q

What medication can be given for a stroke patient (5)

A

Alteplase dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow
Aspirin is an antiplatelet that if taken regularly reduces the chance of another clot forming
Warfarin is an anticoagulant for long term use, it prevents clots forming
Medication to treat high blood pressure beta blockers
Statins if cholesterol level is too high

247
Q

What surgery can be done for a patient who’s had a stroke (2)

A

Thrombectomy removes blood clots and restores blood flow to the brain
Surgical stents

248
Q

What supportive treatments is there for strokes (4)

A

Feeding tube if having difficulty swallowing
Mobility aids
Physiotherapy
PIES

249
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of multiple sclerosis (2)

A

Fatigue, difficulty walking, numbness or tingling in different parts of the body and muscle stiffness and spasms. Balance or coordination, control of bladder and mobility
Blurred vision and problems with thinking, learning and planning

250
Q

What are the biological explanations of multiple sclerosis (2)

A

Autoimmune disease
Immune system attacks the myelin sheath to become inflamed in patches, which disrupts the messages travelling along the nerves leading to signs of MS
When inflammation clears, scarring is left behind on the myelin sheath which can lead to permanent damage to the underlying nerves

251
Q

What are the possible causes of multiple sclerosis

A

Partly by genes and partly by outside factors
Not directly inherited 2-3% of developing it if a relative has MS
People who smoke are twice as likely to develop MS
Viral infections such as glandular fever
Low vitamin D levels

252
Q

What can you do in monitoring, treatment and care needs for someone with multiple sclerosis

A

May lead a normal life for a number of years while others rely on a wheelchair and receiving daily care with symptoms and effects getting steadily worse
There is no cure so need to treat symptoms
Steroid medication is used to treat relapses
Supported by a specialist MS team including MS nurse
Physiotherapist, a speech and language specialist and a neurology specialist

253
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of type 1 and type 2 diabetes (2)

A

Feeling very thirsty, tired, urinating more often than usual, unexplained weight loss, blurred vision, cuts or wounds that heal slowly and frequent episodes of thrush
Vision loss and blindness, kidney failure and lower limb amputation

254
Q

What are the biological explanation of type 1 and type 2 diabetes (3)

A

Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas, a large gland found behind the stomach. Insulin controls the body’s glucose levels by moving glucose form the blood into body cells, where it is converted into energy
Type 1 is autoimmune - the body’s immune system attacks and destroys the cells that produce insulin
Type 2 occurs when the body’s production of insulin is insufficient to control glucose levels. This means that glucose stays in the blood and is not used as fuel for energy. Untreated, this can cause organ damage

255
Q

What are the possible causes of diabetes (2)

A

Being overweight risk for type 2 because fat around the abdomen releases chemicals that can upset the body’s cardiovascular and metabolic systems
Having a relative with diabetes is also a risk for both types the closer the relative the greater risk. Risk increases with age in type 2 maybe because people gain weigh and exercise less as they get older

256
Q

What monitoring, treatment and care needs are there for diabetes

A

Both monitor their glucose levels with frequent blood tests. Attend diabetic eye screening because of the risk of diabetic retinopathy. Insulin usually injected is required multiple times a day in type 1 and sometimes in type 2. Healthy eating and regular exercise to maintain a healthy weight especially for type 2

257
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of nephrotic syndrome (4)

A

Swelling of the body tissues - oedema
High levels of urine being passed
A greater chance of catching infections due to the loss of protein antibodies
Blood clots, as proteins that help prevent clots are passed out with the urine

258
Q

What are the biological explanations for nephrotic syndrome

A

The kidneys do not work properly, causing large amounts of protein to leak into the urine. Loss of protein through the kidneys (proteinuria) is due to an increase in permeability of the filtering membrane of the kidney (the glomerulus) due to kidney disease (glomerulonephritis). This leads to low protein levels in the blood (hypoalbuminemia), which causes water to be drawn into the soft tissues, resulting in oedema

259
Q

What are the possible causes of nephrotic syndrome (2)

A

Kidney damage caused by another condition such as diabetes or sickle cell anaemia and infections such as HIV, hepatitis or syphilis. Certain types of cancer such as leukaemia, multiple myeloma or lymphoma
Congenital nephrotic syndrome is usually caused by an inherited faulty gene

260
Q

What monitoring, treatment and care needs are there for nephrotic syndrome

A

First diagnosed in children aged 2-5 years
Steroids
Blood tests and sometimes a biopsy are needed so that kidney tissue can be examined under a microscope
Diuretic tablets which increase the amount of urine produced help reduce the build up of fluid
Reducing salt in the diet to prevent water retention
Vaccinations
Urine needs to be monitored daily with a dipstick to check for relapses
Sometimes doctors recommend surgery to remove both kidneys, which means the individual is dependent on dialysis until they can receive a kidney transplant

261
Q

What are the symptoms and effects of liver disease: cirrhosis

A 
Nausea
Weight loss
Vomiting blood 
Loss of appetite
Jaundice 
Swelling of legs, ankles, feet and abdomen
Very itchy skin
Confusion 
Memory problems
Insomnia
262
Q

What is the biological explanation for alcohol related liver disease for liver disease: cirrhosis

A

Cirrhosis is scarring of the liver caused by continuous, long term liver damage. Scar tissue replaces healthy tissue and prevents the liver working properly and can lead to liver failure

263
Q

What is the biological explanation for haemochromatosis for liver disease: cirrhosis

A

A faulty gene allows the body to absorb excess amounts of iron form food. As a result, iron builds up over time and is usually deposited in the liver, pancreas, joints, heart or endocrine glands

264
Q

What is the biological explanation for non alcoholic fatty liver disease for liver disease: cirrhosis

A

Build up of fat in the liver cells. The liver can become inflamed, leading over time to scar tissue forming around the liver and nearby blood vessels; this leads to cirrhosis and eventually liver failure

265
Q

What are the possible causes of liver disease: cirrhosis (3)

A

Alcohol misuse - regularly drinking amounts of alcohol in a short time or drinking more than the recommended limits over many years
A long term infection with hepatitis C
Obesity is a cause of non alcoholic fatty liver disease

266
Q

What are the monitoring, treatment and care needs of liver disease: cirrhosis

A

There is no cure for cirrhosis but it is possible to manage symptoms and any complications and to slow the progression of the disease. Lifestyle change of cutting down or stopping drinking alcohol because drinking damages liver cells. Aim for a healthy weight
If the liver damage becomes very extensive, the liver fails and a transplant is the only option

267
Q

What are the impacts of lifestyle and care needs of control and regulatory systems (11)

A

Side effect of medication or treatments
Regular check ups and monitoring appointments to attend
Waiting for or recovering from surgery
Waiting for a kidney or liver transplant
Healthy eating, dietary changes, stopping drinking, stopping smoking
May become housebound if mobility is lost
Home adaptions - grab handles, handrails
Loss of independence due to needing assistance
Problems with walking and driving - affect work may have to change jobs
Feeling tired, angry or stressed about treatment, care needs or prognosis
Emotional and social effects - depression, not going out socially or taking part in hobbies and sport

268
Q

What is the pupil

A

The opening in the middle of the eye through which light passes

269
Q

What is the iris

A

Th visible coloured ring at the front of the eye. It adjusts to control the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil

270
Q

What are the tear glands (lacrimal glands)

A

Produce tears to clean and lubricate the front of the eye. The fluid contains slat and has natural antiseptic properties to defend against infection

271
Q

What are the aqueous and vitreous humours (or fluids)

A

The watery, jelly like fluids that fill the eye. They keep the eye in shape and nourish it

272
Q

What is the conjunctiva

A

A thin membrane that protects the cornea

273
Q

What is the cornea

A

At the front of the eye and is transparent; light rays pass through the cornea to the retina

274
Q

What is the retina

A

The inner lining of the eye; it contains light sensitive cells called rods and cones

275
Q

What is the macula

A

Has a very high concentration of photoreceptor cells; these detect light and send signals to the brain, which interprets them as images

276
Q

What is the optic nerve

A

Where the nerve cells exit the eye. There are no rods or cones there and so this is called the ‘blind spot’

277
Q

What is the ciliary muscle

A

Enables the lens to change shape for focusing. It contracts to stretch the lens, making it flatter and thinner

278
Q

What is the suspensory ligaments

A

Attach the lens to the ciliary muscle

279
Q

What are the lens

A

Focus light entering the eye

280
Q

What is the eardrum (or tympanic membrane)

A

A thin layer of tissue that receives sound vibrations and transmits them to the middle ear cavity

281
Q

What is the stapes/incus/malleus ear bones (also known as stirrup, anvil and hammer)

A

Small bones that amplify the sound waves and transmit the vibrations across the middle ear to the cochlea

282
Q

What is the cochlea

A

Contains a jelly like fluid in a coiled tube that resembles a snails shell. Vibrations pass though the fluid and are converted to neural messages and passed on to the brain via the auditory nerve

283
Q

What is the organ of corti

A

Located in the cochlea; it is sometimes called the body’s microphone and is lined with rows of hair cells that convert sound vibrations into nerve impulses

284
Q

What is the Eustachian tube

A

Connects the middle ear to the throat. It ensures that the pressure in the middle ear is equal to the pressure outside the ear

285
Q

What is the round window

A

A drum like membrane. Vibrations from the oval window pass through it to the cochlea

286
Q

What is the auditory nerve

A

A bundle of nerve fibres that carry hearing information between the cochlea and the brain

287
Q

What is the semi circular canals and ampullae

A

Are tiny fluid filled tubes in the inner ear that help with balance. They have nothing to do with hearing. They are lined with cilia and as the movements of the cilia are communicated to the brain they work as a kind of motion sensor to help you keep your balance

288
Q

What are the possible causes of Glaucoma - malfunctions of the eye (5)

A 
Build up of pressure in the eye when fluid from the aqueous humour is unable to drain properly. This increase in pressure damaged the optic nerve
Age
Ethnicity
Family history 
Other medical conditions
289
Q

What are the effects of Glaucoma - malfunctions of the eye (4)

A

No symptoms to begin with, tends to develop slowly over many years and effects the peripheral vision first
People don’t realise they have it until a routine eye test finds it
Blurred vision or seeing rainbow coloured circles around bright lights
If left untreated the build up of fluid presses on the optic nerve, destroying it and eventually causing blindness

290
Q

What is the possible cause of age related macular degeneration - malfunctions of the eye

A

Unknown

Has been linked to smoking, high blood pressure, being overweight and having a family history of the condition

291
Q

What are the effects of age related macular degeneration (6)

A

Doesn’t cause total blindness, but can make everyday activities like reading and recognising faces difficult as there is gradual loss of central vision
Without treatment vision may get worse. This can happen gradually over several years (dry AMD) or quickly over a few weeks or months (wet AMD)
Seeing straight lines as wavy or crooked
Objects looking smaller than normal
Colours seeming less bright than they used to
Seeing things that aren’t there (hallucinations)

292
Q

What are the possible causes of cataracts (5)

A 
Diabetes
Exposure to UV light in sunlight 
Taking certain medications, such as corticosteroids or statins for a long time
Smoking and drinking too much alcohol 
A family history of cataracts
293
Q

What are the effects of cataracts (8)

A

Changes in the lens, usually caused by ageing, result in cloudy patches developing in the lens
Blurred, cloudy or misty vision
Colours may look pale or less clear
Everything may have a brown or yellow tinge
May have small patches or areas of less clear vision
Bright lights may be dazzling or uncomfortable to look at
More difficult to see in dim or bright light; light may be uncomfortable to look at
May have double vision

294
Q

What is the possible cause of retinopathy

A

A complication of diabetes, caused by high blood sugar levels damaging the retina. Even in well controlled diabetes, over time high blood sugar levels cause blood vessels to narrow and leak, resulting in abnormal blood flow to the retina. This damages the cells in the retina

295
Q

What is the effect of retinopathy

A

Can cause blindness if left undiagnosed and untreated

296
Q

What is gradual hearing loss leading to deafness

A

Can be due to ageing or to exposure to loud noises over many years

297
Q

What is conductive hearing loss leading to deafness

A

May be due to a blockage such as earwax or to an infection that can cause a build up of fluid, or because of a perforated ear drum. It may also result from changes in oestrogen levels in women, in pregnancy, or through genetic disposition

298
Q

What is sensorineural hearing loss leading to deafness

A

Caused by damage to the hair cells in the inner ear or damage to the auditory nerve. Viral infections such as measles, mumps and meningitis are causes. Damage to the inner ear can also be caused by a blow to the head or exposure to a very loud noise such as an explosion

299
Q

What are the 3 types of deafness causes

A

Gradual hearing loss
Conductive hearing loss
Sensorineural hearing loss

300
Q

What are the effects of deafness (6)

A

Difficulty hearing other people clearly and misunderstanding what they say
Asking people to repeat themselves
Difficulty hearing on the phone
Finding it hard to keep up with a conversation
Having to turn up the TV or music to a volume higher than other people need
Deafness; complete loss of hearing; requiring a hearing aid or implant

301
Q

What treatments are there for Glaucoma (4)

A

Daily eye drops administered by the individual themselves. This is the most common form of treatment
Regular appointments to monitor the condition and check that the eye drop treatment is working
Laser treatment to open up blocked drainage tubes or reduce the fluid production in the eye
Surgery to improve the drainage or fluid

302
Q

What treatments are there for DRY age related macular degeneration (3)

A

There is no treatment to cure this condition
Stopping smoking and having a diet with plenty of leafy green vegetables may help slow the progression; also taking dietary supplements
The doctor will refer the individual to support services to help adapt to having sight problems

303
Q

What treatments are there for WET age related macular degeneration (3)

A

Regular scans to monitor the condition
Injections into the eye, monthly to begin with, then less frequently but ongoing
Photodynamic therapy uses laser treatment. A light sensitive dye is injected, then a laser is used that activates the dye to destroy abnormal blood vessels

304
Q

What treatments are there for cataracts (3)

A

Regular monitoring eye examinations to check the cataracts development
Stronger glasses and brighter reading lights may help for a while
Surgery will eventually be needed to remove the lens and replace it. This is done one eye at a time to check that it works well

305
Q

What monitoring is there for retinopathy (2)

A

Monitor and control blood sugar levels, also blood pressure and cholesterol levels
Attend diabetic eye screening appointments

306
Q

What treatments are there for retinopathy (3)

A

Injections of medication into the eyes
Laser treatment
An operation to remove scar tissue from the eyes

307
Q

What treatments are there for hearing loss (4)

A

Earwax can be sucked out or softened with ear drops
Hearing aid
Implants - devices that are attached to the skull or placed deep inside the ear
Different ways of communicating may have to be learned, such as sign language or lip reading

308
Q

What impacts on lifestyle and care needs of eye and ear malfunctions are there

A

Side effects of medication or treatment
Regular check ups and monitoring appointments to attend
Recovery from surgery for implants or cataracts
Healthy eating, dietary changes
Taking care to avoid injuries due to falls because of not seeing properly - avoid trip hazards
May become housebound if sight is lost
Home adaptions to cope with sight loss, adapted computer screen, use of magnifiers, good lighting
Different ways of communicating may have to be learned, such as sign language or lip reading, Braille
Loss of independence
Problems with reading, driving - may affect ability to work, may have to change job
Feeling tired or stressed from having to concentrate hard while listening if hearing is poor
May lead to loss of employment if the individual cannot do the job anymore, even with adaptions made by the employer, due to hearing or sight loss
Emotional and social effects - depression, not going out socially or taking part in hobbies and sport

Health And Social Unit 4 (1 decks)

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