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1
Q

What are the 5 essential characteristics of of our profession?

A 
Trust
Honorable service
Esprit de corps 
Military expertise
Stewardship
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2
Q

What are the 7 army values?

A 
Loyalty
Duty
Respect
Selfless service 
Honor
Integrity
Personal courage
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3
Q

What is discipline?

A

The behavior tempered by high standards of conduct and performance and the ability to do the righter wrong instead of the easier wrong

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4
Q

What is the size of a company?

A

62-190 Soldiers

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5
Q

What is joint interdependence?

A

All services working together

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6
Q

When did the us mass the largest army?

A

World war 2

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7
Q

What is Doctrine?

A

Principles by which the military guides their actions in support of

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8
Q

What does TRADOC stand for?

A

Training and doctrine command

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9
Q

What is an enemy combatant?

A

An individual engaged in hostilities against the us or our allies

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10
Q

What are framed military symbol categories

A

Unit
Equipment
Installation
Activity symbols

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11
Q

What does FM stand for?

A

Field Manuel

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12
Q

What does the army’s 2 core competencies enable the army forces to achieve?

A

To defeat and destroy the enemy

Prevent the enemy from gaining an advantage

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13
Q

How does seizing the India affect the enemy?

A

It degrades the enemy’s ability to function as a coherent force

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14
Q

What are the types of defensive operations?

A

Mobile defense
Area defense
Retrograde

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15
Q

What is a tactical action?

A

A battle or engagement using lethal or non lethal actions

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16
Q

What is execution?

A

Putting a plan in action by applying combat power to accomplish the mission

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17
Q

What are supporting efforts?

A

Subordinate units that support the main effort

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18
Q

What are some examples of logistics?

A

Transportation
Supply
Field services
Engineer support

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19
Q

What does health service consist of?

A

Casualty care
Medical evacuation
Medical logistics

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20
Q

What is economy?

A

Providing sustainment resources to support the CDR

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21
Q

What is timeliness?

A

Ensures decision makes have access to personal services information to support operations

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22
Q

What functions does the theater army HQ perform?

A

Reception
Integration
Staging
Onward movement

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23
Q

What is the army’s distribution system?

A

A complex of facilities, methods, and procedures that control the flow of military resources

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24
Q

What are the 5 systems included in the mission command system?

A 
Personal 
Networks
Information systems 
Processes and procedures 
Facilities and equipment
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25
Q

How is trust gained or lost?

A

Through every day actions

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26
Q

Why do CDRs use collaboration?

A

Build human connections, build trust, and create a shared understanding

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27
Q

What is command?

A

Authority that a CDR lawfully exercises

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28
Q

What is control?

A

The regulation of forces and war fighting functions to accomplish the mission

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29
Q

What is the mission command war fighting function?

A

Related tasks and systems enabling a CDR to balance the art of command

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30
Q

What is the purpose of processes and procedures?

A

Govern actions within Mission command system to make it more effective

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31
Q

What are some examples of equipment needed to sustain a mission command system?

A

Lighting vehicles generators

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32
Q

What do toxic leaders consistently use dysfunctional behaviors to do?

A

Deceive
Intimidate
Coerce to get what they want for themselves

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33
Q

What value must a leader have to take the imitative to make something happen rather standing by or withdrawing and hoping events will turn out well?

A

Personal courage is

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34
Q

What are the 3 leader attributes?

A

Character
Presence
Intellect

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35
Q

How can Army leaders build trust?

A

By being honest and dependable

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36
Q

How do leaders build credibility with their soldiers?

A

By adhering to to laws, regulations, and unit standards

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37
Q

How do leaders develop?

A

By supporting development and learning

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38
Q

How do commanders exercise the responsibility to train units and develop leaders?

A

Through formal and informal chains

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39
Q

Why do units train?

A

To prepare for the mission and adapt to any changes

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40
Q

What is the army committed to?

A

Training
Educating
And developing its leaders

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41
Q

What makes a quantitative and qualitative difference in unit training leader development?

A

Commanders involvement

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42
Q

What are the 11 principles of unit training?

A 
Train to standard
Train to fight
Train while operating 
Train to develop
Train to sustain
Train to maintain
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43
Q

What do leaders need to establish and ensure their organizations meet mission requirements?

A

Standards

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44
Q

What programs must unit trading plans incorporate?

A

Programs that improve individual metal and physical fitness

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45
Q

What type of learning environment should leaders create in their unit for their subordinates?

A

An environment that allows subordinates to try different solutions to problems

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46
Q

What should all leaders know about their subordinates?

A

Their strengths, weaknesses and capabilities

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47
Q

What do subordinates provide in order to enable the CDR to assess the readiness of a mission essential task?

A

An after action review

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48
Q

What are 3 reasons that non judicial punishment should be imposed?

A

Correct educate and reform offenders

Preserve a soldiers record

Further military efficiency

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49
Q

Who has the authority to give reprimands either as an administrative measure or as non judicial punishment?

A

Commanding officers

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50
Q

What is considered minor offenses?

A

Misconduct not involving any greater degree of criminality

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51
Q

Can a CDR issue multiple punishments to a soldier under UCMJ?

A

They are ordinarily combined and not multiple punishments

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52
Q

Is the soldier allowed to consult defense if reviving a summary art 15?

A

No

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53
Q

Who should be the NCO performing the notification normally be?

A

The 1sg of senior nco

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54
Q

Can an art 15 be published on bulletin boards?

A

Yes after the social is removed

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55
Q

What is mitigation?

A

A reduction in either the quality or quantity of the punishment

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56
Q

What is the form used for art 15?

A

DA 2627

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57
Q

What are the 3 levels of promotion authority and what ranks do they manage?

A

Decentralized
Semi centralized
Centralized

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58
Q

What are the requirements for TIS and TIG waiver requirements?

A

Pv2 4 mos TIS
Pfc 6 months TIS 2 months TIG
SPC 18 TIS 3 months TIG

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59
Q

What NCOEs level must a SGT complete prior to appearing before a SSG board?

A

BLC

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60
Q

Can the president be a voting member?

A

Yes

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61
Q

How many battlefield promotions to NCO can a soldier receive?

A

Only 1

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62
Q

What is the time limit for recommending an award?

A

2 years

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63
Q

Who can make recommendations for an award?

A

Any person having knowledge of an outstanding act or achievement

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64
Q

When was the Medal of Honor established?

A

1862

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65
Q

What are the 3 is army combat badges?

A

CIB
CAB
CMB

66
Q

What does a bronze device bar on the parachutist badge denote?

A

A soldiers participation in a combat parachute jump

67
Q

Where do ribbons go your uniform? Yeah

A

Centers 1/8 above the left breast pocket

68
Q

What is the maximum number of oak leaf clusters you can wear on a ribbon and must occur if you exceed the maximum number?

A

No more than 4 on each ribbon.

69
Q

What is the primary objective of the abcp?

A

To ensure all soldiers maintain well being and performance under all conditions

70
Q

Who is likely to sustain injury from weight bearing activities?

A

Soldiers that do not meet body fat percentages

71
Q

What is the amount of time that every soldier will be screened IAE ar 600-9?

A

Every 6 months

72
Q

Why should APFT and weigh in be conducted a minimum of 7 days apart?

A

To ensure it does not interfere with the soldiers performance during the APFT

73
Q

What are some ramifications of the soldier being flagged?

A

They are not promotable
They will not be to command positions
They are not authorized to attend military schools

74
Q

Where is the weight for height and weight listed in appendix b?

A

In table B-1

75
Q

What must the tape measure be made of?

A

Non stretchable material preferably fiberglass

76
Q

Where are the sites to measure a females?

A

Neck waist and hip

77
Q

What are some unsafe weight loss strategies that soldiers are using and leaders need to be aware of?

A 
Fasting 
Water loss or forced dehydration 
Laxatives 
Vomiting 
Diet pills
78
Q

Can a civilian exercise command?

A

Only the president of the USA

79
Q

What confers eligibility to exercise command or authority in the us military?

A

Grade and precedence of rank

80
Q

What is the proper title of address for a LTC?

A

Colonel

81
Q

Who is responsible for everything their unit does or fails to do?

A

The commander

82
Q

What is the optimum length of command for field grade level commander?

A

24-36 months

83
Q

When is it required that all military personal present a neat soldierly appearance?

A

On and off duty and on leave

84
Q

What chapter covers the EO in AR 600-20

A

Chapter 6

85
Q

What is the army’s slogan for the sharp program?

A

I am strong

86
Q

What are the types of sexual harassment?

A

Quid pro quo

Hostile environment

87
Q

What are the 2 types of reporting sexual assault?

A

Restricted and non restricted

88
Q

What should accompany the rendering of the hand salute?

A

An appropriate greeting

89
Q

When will organizational color be dipped in salute?

A

In military ceremonies while the national anthem of the USA plays

90
Q

How many guns are required for national salute to a national flag?

A

21

91
Q

What will Soldiers do if the pledge of allegiance is recited at a ceremony?

A

Soldiers will not recite the pledge of allegiance

92
Q

What will be played at the end of retreat?

A

The national anthem or to the colors

93
Q

What personnel have lost the right of funeral honors?

A 
A dishonorable discharge
Bad conduct discharge
Dismissal of service by court martial
Other than honorable discharge 
Officer resignation by court martial
94
Q

Where are the procedures, task, and steps pertaining to the completion of each evaluation report?

A

DA pam 623-3

95
Q

Who should give timely counseling to subordinate on professionalism and job performance encouraging self improvement when needed?

A

Rating officials

96
Q

What does ERS encompass?

A

The means and methods for developing people and soldiers

97
Q

What is DA form 1059 used for?

A

Evaluation report for military institutions

98
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the signed and completed ncoer is provided to HQDA?

A

The senior rater

99
Q

What are some examples of prohibited comments for a NCOER?

A 
Race
Religion
Gender
Age 
Sexual orientation
National origin
100
Q

Who has responsibility for implementing and applying the standards contained in AR 670-1 and to ensure the best interests of the army including our shared traditions and customs?

A

Leaders at all levels

101
Q

Who can approve coats or arms decorations streamers…..

A

Assistant secretary of the army

102
Q

Who will present a professional image at all times and will continue to set the example in military presence both on and off duty?

A

All soldiers

103
Q

Are hair and fingernail grooming standards punitive Under UCMJ?

A

Yes

104
Q

How should the headgear fit?

A

Snugly and comfortably without bulging or gaps

105
Q

What is the authorized size of the mustache?

A

Must not be chopped off or bushy in appearance or cover the upper lip line

106
Q

What are the types of tattoos or brands that are prejudicial to good order and discipline and prohibited?

A

Extremist
Sexist
Indecent
Racist

107
Q

What are some examples of activities that soldiers should not walk while engaged in?

A

Walking while eating, using electronic devices, smoking cigarettes

108
Q

What type of appearance will Soldiers maintain even when in civilian clothing?

A

Soldiers will ensure their dress and personal appearance are with high standards associated with the army service

109
Q

What are the different types of badges for wear on the uniform?

A

Marksmanship
Combat and skill badges
Identification badge
Foreign badge

110
Q

What is physical readiness?

A

The ability to meet the physical requirements of any combat or duty position

111
Q

What do NCO serve as the primary trainers for?

A

Enlisted soldiers crews and small teams

112
Q

What are the fundamental skills that prt activities include?

A

Climbing
Crawling
Jumping
Landing and sprinting

113
Q

Name 6 PRT activities?

A 
Conditioning drill
Guerrilla drill
Climbing drill
Movement drill
Release run
Ability group run
114
Q

What is integration?

A

The use of multiple training activities to achieve balance

115
Q

What are examples of aerobic training?

A

Foot marching, sustained running, cycling, and swimming

116
Q

What is flexibility?

A

The range of movement at a joint

117
Q

During progression what are the 3 things gradually increased to produce the desired physiological effect?

A

Intensity
Exercise volume
Duration

118
Q

What is an injury?

A

Any damage to the body

119
Q

What is the purpose of drill and ceremony?

A

To enable a CDR or NCO to move his unit from one place to another in a orderly manner

120
Q

What is the only command given at inspection arms?

A

Ready port arms

121
Q

What is a formation?

A

The arrangement of elements of a unit in a prescribed manner

122
Q

What command is given to reverse the direction or march?

A

Rear March

123
Q

What is depth?

A

The space from front to rear of a formation

124
Q

What position is the unit guide on once a prepatory command is given?

A

The raised vertical position

125
Q

What are the 3 methods used to teach drill

A

Step by step
By the numbers
Talk trough method

126
Q

How far in front of the honor company or color company do the colors halt?

A

Ten steps

127
Q

What is grouping?

A

A form of practice firing with 2 primary objectives

Firing tight shot groups and placing those groups in the same location

128
Q

Who must attend the refresher training program?

A

All soldiers

129
Q

What does LFX stand for?

A

Live fire exercise

130
Q

What is the muzzle velocity of a M4 series?

A

2,970 feet per sec

131
Q

How many times do you apply immediate action?

A

Only once for stoppage

132
Q

What are the corrective steps for remedial action to perform remedial action?

A

Try to place the weapon on safe
Remove the magazine
Lock the bolt to the rear
Place weapon on safe

133
Q

What are the 3 modes of fire on an m16 series weapons?

A

Semiautomatic
Automatic
Burst

134
Q

What is the purpose of battle sight zeroing?

A

To align the sights with the weapons barrel

135
Q

If a soldier fails to qualify on the first attempt what will they be awarded?

A

Marksman

136
Q

What should you do with a map that is in danger of being captured?

A

Destroy it

137
Q

What should a soldier do prior to using a particular map?

A

Read the instructions

138
Q

Where will you find the declination diagram of a map and what does it represent?

A

Lower margin and indicates the relationship ship of true both grid north and magnetic north

139
Q

Where will you find the grid reference box of a map and what does it represent?

A

Center of the lower margin and contains instructions for composing a grid reference

140
Q

How are distances measured?

A

Right and up?

141
Q

What is relief?

A

A representation of the shapes of shapes of hills valleys streams or terrain features on the earths surface

142
Q

What are the supplementary terrain features?

A

Cut

Fill

143
Q

Explain phase 2 tactical field care?

A

You and the casualty are relatively safe and no longer under effective hostile fire

144
Q

When would you not attempt to restore the airway?

A

If the casualty has no signs of life

145
Q

When would you perform tactical field care?

A

When no longer under direct enemy fire or situations

146
Q

What do you do if the casualty is conscious but is choking and cannot talk?

A

Stop the evaluation and begin treatments with

147
Q

Who should imitate a FMC?

A

Usually a combat medic

148
Q

What should you to clothing that is stuck to the wound?

A

Do not attempt to remove the clothing

149
Q

What are the 4 different types of burns?

A

Thermal
Electrical
Chemical
Laser

150
Q

What are the two methods used to open an airway?

A

Head tilt lift method and jaw thrust method

151
Q

What nostril are most NPAs designed to be placed in?

A

The right nostril

152
Q

What has been the key to the army’s success?

A

Our flexibility and willingness to change to meet the world as is without altering core competencies

153
Q

How long was the blue book the primary regulation for the army?

A

30 years

154
Q

What should a NCO ensure their soldiers know about their mission?

A

They understand the mission and how to accomplish it

155
Q

What is the ability to endure hardships and insurmountable odds in the service of fellow soldiers and our country?

A

Selfless service

156
Q

What are specified duties?

A

The duty you have to follow directives

157
Q

What are 2 basic types of authority?

A

Command authority

General military authority

158
Q

Who should make arrangements with soldiers who live in quarters?

A

First line supervisors

159
Q

When should leaders conduct PCC/PCI?

A

At the beginning of each event or exercise as part of troop leading procedures

160
Q

What is subordinate to a s supportive of the chain of command?

A

The NCO support channel

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