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0
Q

During the process of catabolism, what occurs?

  1. Large molecules are broken down
  2. ATP is converted to ADP
  3. ATP is produced
  4. Energy is used
A

Large molecules are broken down

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1
Q

Which statement best describes hypoxia?

  1. It is a low level of oxygen in the blood
  2. It is insufficient oxygen at the tissues or cells
  3. It always leads to cell death
  4. It prevents anaerobic metabolism
A

Insufficient oxygen at the tissues or cells

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2
Q

Which of these is NOT a main cause of swelling during acute inflammation?

A

Vasoconstriction

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3
Q

The main differences between short-term and long-term stress are that long-term stress:

  1. Has significant links to disease, but short-term stress does not
  2. Is mainly mediated by cortisol, but short-term stress is not.
  3. Is mainly mediated by the sympathetic nervous system, but short-term stress is not
A

1 & 2 only

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4
Q

Which of the following regarding apoptosis and necrosis is correctly described?

  1. Necrosis causes inflammation
  2. Necrosis requires the suicide genes
  3. Apoptosis does not require ATP
  4. Apoptosis causes nearby cells to undergo apoptosis
A

Necrosis causes inflammation

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5
Q

Cardiac contractility may be increased by mechanisms such as:

  1. Increasing intracellular calcium in the heart muscle cells
  2. The effects of adrenaline on beta1-receptors on the heart
  3. The effects of the drug digoxin
A

1,2 & 3

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6
Q

When adrenaline binds to beta2-receptors, it causes

  1. Increased force of contraction of the heart
  2. Vasoconstriction
  3. Vasodilation
  4. Bronchoconstriction
A

Vasodilation

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7
Q

During exercise, all of these will occurs EXCEPT

  1. Increased afterload
  2. Increased heart rate
  3. Coronary vasodilation
  4. Increased venous return
A

Increased afterload

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8
Q

Which of the following regarding the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is correct?

  1. Renin is secreted in response to a high blood volume
  2. Aldosterone promotes sodium and water reabsorption
  3. Angiotensin 1 is produced by angiotensin converting enzyme
  4. Angiotensinogen is produced by the kidney
A

Aldosterone promotes sodium and water reabsorption

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9
Q

Macrophages worsen atherosclerosis, because they

  1. Cause endothelial cell dysfunction
  2. Prevent smooth muscle cell growth
  3. Form an embolus
  4. Become foam cells
A

Become foam cells

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10
Q

Give a description of angina pectoris

A

It consists of chest pain

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11
Q

Why is the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activated with heart failure?

  1. Due to kidney damage
  2. Due to insufficient clod flow to the kidneys
  3. Due to insufficient blood volume
  4. Die to angiotensin converting enzyme being inactive
A

Due to insufficient blood flow to the kidneys

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12
Q

The options for management of heart failure usually include

  1. Digoxin to increase cardiac contractility
  2. Avoiding all exercise, to avoid straining the heart
  3. Ensuring sodium intake is kept high
  4. Correctly matched blood transfusions to keep blood volume adequately high
A

Digoxin to increase cardiac contractility

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13
Q

Heart cells suffer from 30 minutes of ischemia will:

  1. Use aerobic instead of anaerobic metabolism
  2. Have insufficient ATP
  3. Release cardiac troponins
  4. Undergo necrosis
A

2, 3 & 4 only

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14
Q

How does failure of one side of the heart lead to failure of the other side of the heart?

A

The backward effects of left sided failure lead to the right sided failure

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15
Q

Glucose uptake into muscle cells involves

A

The transport of glucose through GLUT4 transporters in the cell membrane

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical manifestation seen early in type 1 diabetes mellitus? (Polyuria, glycosuria, polydipsia, neuropathy)

A

Neuropathy

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17
Q

If a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus suffers from hypoglycemia, this is most likely due to

A

Excessive insulin medication

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18
Q

What is glycated haemoglobin?

A

An indicator of the blood glucose level in the past 120 days

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19
Q

What dietary choices should patients with diabetes mellitus follow?

A

Both type 1 and type 2 should eat complex carbohydrates

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20
Q

The management of type 2 diabetes mellitus:

  1. Is important to delay the development of long-term complications
  2. Involves good glycaemic control
  3. Involves monitoring of glycated haemoglobin
  4. Involves limiting saturated fat, simple carbohydrates and alcohol intake
A

1, 2, 3 & 4

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21
Q

Which of the following regarding diabetes mellitus is true? (Those with type 1 only suffer from acute rather than chronic complications. Type 1 & 2 diabetes may suffer from either acute of chronic complications. Gangrene arising from peripheral vascular disease is usually reversible. Hypoglycaemia May result in coma; hyperglycaemia cannot result in coma)

A

Type 1 and type 2 diabetes may suffer from either acute or chronic complications

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22
Q

Which of the following regarding leptin is correct?

  1. Adipose cells secrete leptin
  2. Leptin stimulates appetite
  3. High numbers of adipose cells prevent leptin secretion
  4. Leptin has a similar role to ghrelin
A

Adipose cells secrete leptin

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23
Q

Combining BMI and waist circumference measurements indicates long-term health risks of obesity, because

  1. Peripheral fat is the best indicator of health risk
  2. Ganoid obesity is the best predictor of obesity-related health risks
  3. Visceral abdominal fat is the best predictor of obesity-related health risks
  4. BMI gives the best indication of the location of body fat
A

Visceral abdominal fat is the best predictor of obesity-related health risks

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24
Q

Increased abdominal fat causes which hormonal abnormality?

  1. Decreased cortisol
  2. Insulin resistance
  3. Increased testosterone in men
  4. Increased progesterone in women
A

Insulin resistance

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with obesity? (Prostate and breast cancers. Dyslipidaemia. Insulin resistance. Hypotension)

A

Hypotension

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26
Q

Why is the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome useful?

  1. It allows elevated HDL to be related to waist circumference
  2. It can indicate the risk of developing cardiovascular disease
  3. It allows the waist circumference and height to be related to each other
  4. It can indicate if someone has the genes for metabolic syndrome
A

It can indicate the risk of developing cardiovascular disease

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27
Q

Which of these is associated with an increased risk of cancer?

  1. Increased oncogene activity
  2. Increased p53 activity
  3. Increased proto-oncogene activity
A

1 only

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28
Q

The development of cancer usually involves

  1. An increase in the activity of p53 tumor suppressor gene
  2. Only one genetic or cellular process becoming abnormal
  3. Angiogenesis, which is the growth of new blood vessels
  4. An increase in apoptosis of cancerous cells
A

Angiogenesis, which is the growth of new blood vessels

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29
Q

Chemotherapy targets the cancer cells because

  1. The cancer is enclosed in a capsule
  2. The cancer cells are rapidly dividing
  3. Healthy body cells are immune to chemotherapy drugs
  4. Healthy body cells are too strong to be affect by chemotherapy drugs
A

The cancer cells are rapidly dividing

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30
Q

Which of these is NOT likely in cancer? (Anaemia, thrombocytopenia, infection, polycythaemia)

A

Polycythaemia (abnormally increased concentration of haemoglobin in the blood)

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31
Q

To decrease the risk of cancer, it is important to

  1. Maintain a BMI above 30
  2. Increase intake of alcohol to 2 drinks per day
  3. Avoid ionizing radiation
  4. Avoid strenuous physical activity
A

Avoid ionizing radiation

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32
Q

Damage to genes might not result in cancer. Which of the following provide explanations for this?

  1. DNA repair has occurred
  2. p53 has become inactive
  3. Apoptosis has occurred
A

1 & 3

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33
Q

How does chronic inflammation increase the risk of cancer?

Chronic inflammation–>Release of 1–>Production of prostaglandins is 2–>Increased risk of cancer

A

1-COX ; 2-increased

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34
Q

Jane is a cancer patient who suffers from cachexia and anorexia. What are the correct definitions of those terms?

A

Cachexia - severe tissue wasting

Anorexia - loss of appetite

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35
Q

A carcinoma is: (cancer of skin or epithelial tissue/a benign growth/another name for an adenoma/a malignant growth that has become benign)

A

Cancer of skin or epithelial tissue

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36
Q

Which of these is NOT a main risk factor for developing cancer? (Smoking/myocardial ischaemia/chronic inflammation/obesity)

A

Myocardial ischaemia

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37
Q

Which of the following regarding cancers in Australia is true?

  1. Indigenous Australians have higher rates of all cancers than non-Indigenous Australians
  2. More females die of breast cancer than heart disease
  3. More Australians die of prostate cancer than breast cancer
  4. Australia has national screening programs for colorectal cancer and gastric cancer
A

More Australians die of prostate cancer than breast cancer

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38
Q

The components of the immune system which mainly contribute to the removal of cancer cells include…

  1. Natural killer cells causing lysis of cancer cells
  2. The first line of defense forming a capsule around cancer cells
  3. The haemocytoblast destroying (blasting) cancer cells
  4. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes destroying B lymphocytes
A

Natural killer cells causing lysis of cancer cells

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39
Q

Which of these is/are necessary for the production of normal cells during erythropoiesis?

  1. Iron
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Folic acid
A

1, 2 & 3

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40
Q

If a patient has B+ blood and needs a blood transfusion, which of the following blood types is/are safe to receive?

  1. B-
  2. O+
  3. O-
A

1, 2 & 3

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41
Q

Which of these terms associated with hematology is correctly described?

  1. Erythropoiesis- production of white blood cells
  2. Haematocrit- proportion of the blood that is plasma
  3. Haemocytoblast- stem cell for producing WBC and RBC
  4. Thrombocytes- another name for the fibrin mesh
A

Haemocytoblast- stem cell for producing WBC & RBC

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42
Q

Which of the following is NOT usually associated with leukemia?

  1. High number of WBC
  2. Enhanced protection from viruses and bacteria
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Anaemia
A

Enhanced protection from viruses and bacteria

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43
Q

1 detected by 2 -> erythropoietin is secreted by 3 -> RBC are produced by 4

A

1-hypoxia
2-kidney
3-kidney
4-bone marrow

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44
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with lymphoma?

  1. High number of WBC
  2. Recurrent fevers
  3. Enlargement of lymph nodes
  4. Most common childhood cancer
A

Most common childhood cancer

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45
Q

Which of the following regarding lymphoma is/are correct?

  1. Lymphoma is excessive production of abnormal lymphocytes
  2. It is characterized by lymphadenopathy
  3. It mainly affects those over age 50
A

1, 2 & 3

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46
Q

Aspirin is commonly used for patients at risk of cardiovascular disease, because it

  1. Thins the blood to increase cardiac output
  2. Inhibits platelet plug formation
  3. Increases fibrinolysis
  4. Inhibits the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
A

Inhibits platelet plug formation

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47
Q

Which of the following about heparin is correct?

  1. It is released from intact endothelial cells
  2. It inactivates clotting factors
  3. It inhibits the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
A

1 & 2 only

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48
Q

The process of blood coagulation requires all of these EXCEPT:
(Calcium/factor x/fibrinogen/clotting factors produced by the kidney)

A

Clotting factors produced by the kidney

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49
Q

Immobility is a risk for the development of a deep vein thrombosis because it causes

  1. Abnormality of blood flow
  2. Abnormality of the blood vessel wall
  3. Abnormality of insufficient blood coagulation
  4. Abnormality of excessive venous return
A

Abnormality of blood flow

50
Q

What usually occurs with DVT?

  1. Swelling and inflammation in the calf
  2. Redness and pain in the calf
  3. Swelling in the jugular veins
A

1 & 2 only

51
Q

A sputum sample is collected for analysis particularly if a patient has
(Tonsillitis/pneumonia/pharyngitis/laryngitis)

A

Pneumonia (lung inflammation caused by bacterial or viral infection)

52
Q

Which of these is NOT part of the defence from pathogens for the respiratory tract?
(Pleural fluid / tonsils / mucociliary escalator / cough)

A

Pleural fluid

53
Q

Increase airway resistance may occur from:

  1. Bronchodilation
  2. Increased production of mucus
  3. Increased production of cilia
  4. Increased production of surfactant
A

Increased production of mucus

54
Q

Adrenaline is released

  1. When the parasympathetic nervous system is most active
  2. To oppose the effects of a stress response
  3. To stimulate bronchodilation
  4. To slow down the rate of breathing
A

To stimulate bronchodilation

55
Q

Which of these blood gas values is normal?

  1. PaO2 in systemic arterial blood is 95mmHg
  2. SaO2 in systemic arterial blood is 60%
  3. PaO2 in systemic venous blood is 80mmHg
  4. PaCO2 in systemic arterial blood is 60mmHg
A

PaO2 in systemic arterial blood is 95mmHg

56
Q

In a healthy individual at rest, ventilation and perfusion are matched to ensure that

  1. All alveoli have maximal air flow
  2. All alveoli have maximal blood flow
  3. Alveoli with good airflow have good blood flow
  4. Bronchoconstriction occurs to alveoli that have good perfusion
A

Alveoli with good airflow have good blood flow

57
Q

Increased levels of CO2 in the blood will lead to

  1. Hypercapnia (high levels of CO2 in blood)
  2. Acidosis
  3. Hypoxaemia (low concentration of O2 in blood)
  4. High pH
A

1 & 2 only

58
Q

The most important chemical responsible for stimulating increased breathing is (O2, CO2, surfactant, sputum)

A

CO2

59
Q

Which of these descriptions regarding respiratory physiology is correct?

  1. Lung compliance-ability of lungs to return to resting state after inspiration
  2. Surface tension-pressure caused by the effects of the mucociliary escalator
  3. Elastic recoil-tendency of lungs to return to resting state after inspiration
  4. Airway resistance-inability of the airways to undergo bronchoconstriction
A

Elastic recoil-tendency of lungs to return to resting state after inspiration

60
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome is mainly associated with

  1. Insufficient surfactant
  2. Insufficient action of the mucociliary escalator
  3. Premature birth
  4. The elderly
  5. Sepsis
A

1 & 3 only

61
Q

During obstructive sleep apnoea, patients experience:

  1. Closing of the pharynx during sleep
  2. Inability to fall asleep
  3. Stopping breathing during sleep
  4. Increased ventilation rate during sleep
A

1 & 3 only

62
Q

A person can suffer from many colds because

  1. Cold viruses mutate quickly and there are many subtypes
  2. Allergic reactions are usually recurring
  3. The cold weather allows the microorganisms to grow
  4. Infected individuals use handkerchiefs to blow their nose
A

Cold viruses mutate quickly and there are many subtypes

63
Q

Anticholinergics are used to treat patients with respiratory disease, because these:

  1. Increase the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system
  2. Inhibit the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system
  3. Decrease the effects of adrenaline
  4. Block the B2 receptors
A

Inhibit the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system

64
Q

Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by:

  1. Difficulty expiring air
  2. High FEV1/FVC ratio (percentage)
  3. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
A

1 & 3 only

65
Q

Allergic asthma includes:

  1. Mast cells
  2. Histamine
  3. Bronchoconstriction (bronchospam)
A

1, 2 & 3

66
Q

In an emergency, an asthmatic may be treated with adrenaline, because this

  1. Blocks the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
  2. Causes bronchodilation
  3. Decreases the expiration flow rates
  4. Decreases the production of mucus
A

Causes bronchodilation

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with the pathophysiology of asthma?

  1. Reduced mucus secretion
  2. Bronchoconstriction
  3. Inflammation of bronchi
  4. Reduced expiratory flow rate
A

Reduced mucus secretion

68
Q

A patient with emphysema is likely to:

  1. Have large airpockets within the lungs
  2. Have lost elastic fibers from the lungs
  3. Experience dyspnoea
  4. Recover fully
A

1, 2 & 3 only

69
Q

Common clinical features for a patient with emphysema include:

  1. Cyanosis
  2. Barrel chest
  3. Dyspnoea
A

2 & 3 only

70
Q

COPD consists of

  1. Emphysema
  2. Chronic bronchitis
  3. Acute bronchitis
  4. Asthma
A

1 & 2 only

71
Q

Chronic bronchitis includes:

  1. Barrel (enlarged) chest
  2. Excess mucus
  3. Insufficient surfactant
  4. High FEV1 values
A

Excess mucus

72
Q

Which is the most aggressive form of lung cancer?

  1. Squamous cell carcinoma
  2. Large cell carcinoma
  3. Small cell carcinoma
  4. Non-small cell carcinoma
A

Small cell carcinoma

73
Q

Which of the following statements about lung cancer is true?

  1. There is often mutation of p53 tumor suppressor gene in lung cancer
  2. Symptoms are usually detected in the early stages
  3. All lung masses detected by chest X-Ray are malignant
  4. All lung cancers metastasize early
A

There is often mutation of p53 tumor suppressor gene in lung cancer

74
Q

Which of the following is NOT a main clinical feature of lung cancer?

  1. Cough
  2. Haemoptysis
  3. Dyspnoea
  4. Barrel chest
A

Barrel chest

75
Q

Simone had one cell which started becoming cancerous which triggered it to die, while Jenny had a heart attack that caused death of heart muscle cells. Which statement about these patients is correct?

  1. The cell death for Simone has occurred due to low intracellular levels of calcium
  2. The cell death for Jenny will cause nearby cells to die
  3. The cell death for Jenny requires sufficient ATP
  4. The cell death for Simone is likely due to insufficient ATP
A

The cell death for Jenny will cause nearby cells to die

76
Q

Anaemia may result from:

  1. Insufficient iron intake
  2. Haemorrhage
  3. Insufficient intrinsic factor from stomach
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Chemotherapy
A

1, 2, 3, 4 & 5

77
Q

Place these events in the coronary arteries in the correct order:

  1. Angina pectoris
  2. Irreversible heart muscle cell death
  3. Endothelial cell dysfunction
  4. Formation of fatty streak
A

3, 4, 2, 1

78
Q

Diuretic medications are usually considered for all these conditions EXCEPT
(Heart failure / obesity / hypertension / pulmonary oedema)

A

Obesity

79
Q

Which of these does NOT have the risk of developing polycythaemia?
(Diabetes mellitus / COPD / heart failure / high altitude)

A

Diabetes mellitus

80
Q

After suffering from sudden, major haemorrhage, patients may experience:

  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. bradycardia
  3. post-haemorrhage anaemia
  4. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
A

Post-haemorrhage anaemia

81
Q

Aspirin is used to:

  1. Prevent production of COX2 (cyclooxygenase-2)
  2. Prevent cancer
  3. Prevent platelet plug formation
A

1, 2 & 3

82
Q

Causes of thrombocytopenia include all of these EXCEPT

  1. Chemotherapy
  2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  3. Administration of aspirin
  4. Leukemia
A

Administration of aspirin

83
Q

An obese patient with diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with atherosclerosis in the left main coronary artery. This patient should be educated to:

  1. Avoid carbohydrates
  2. Avoid simple sugars
  3. Avoid protein
  4. Avoid polyunsaturated fats
A

Avoid simple sugars

84
Q

A patient is likely to experience low urinary volume if they have:

  1. Heart failure
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Obesity
  4. Cancer
A

Heart failure

85
Q

Pulmonary embolism may result from:

  1. Long-haul flight
  2. Hypertension
  3. Deep vein thrombosis
A

1, 2 & 3

86
Q

Smoking is a significant risk factor for all of these EXCEPT

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Prostate cancer
  3. Atherosclerosis
  4. COPD
A

Diabetes mellitus

87
Q

Which of these is associated with endothelial cell dysfunction?

  1. Atherosclerosis
  2. Deep vein thrombosis
  3. Chronic bronchitis
A

1 & 2 only

88
Q

Which of these statements linking respiratory disease with cardiovascular disease is most likely?

  1. A patient with COPD may progress to right heart failure
  2. A patient with COPD may progress to left heart failure
  3. A patient with right heart failure may progress to COPD
  4. A patient with left heart failure may progress to COPD
A

A patient with COPD may progress to right heart failure

89
Q

Oedema is a main complication of all these conditions EXCEPT

  1. Left heart failure
  2. Hypertension
  3. Obstructive sleep apnoea
  4. Cancer
A

Obstructive sleep apnoea

90
Q

Define hypoxaemia

A

Abnormally low concentration of oxygen in the blood

91
Q

Define hypertension

A

Abnormally high blood pressure

92
Q

Define hypercapnia

A

Abnormally elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood

93
Q

How many ATP is produced in an aerobic respiration cycle? Ad how many ATP is there in a glycolysis?

A

36 ATP produced in a aerobic respiration cycle.
2 ATP in a glycolysis.
Therefore 38 ATP produced in a aerobic respiration in total

94
Q

How many ATP is produced in an anaerobic cycle? And how many in total?

A

0 ATP is produced in an anaerobic cycle.

2 ATP in total, from the glycolysis

95
Q

What is the equation for cellular respiration?

A

Glucose + oxygen -> 38ATP + water + carbon dioxide + heat

96
Q

Where does glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and lactic acid occur?

A

Glycolysis occurs in the cell cytoplasm
Citric acid cycle occurs in the mitochondria
Electron transport chain occurs in the mitochondria
Lactic acid occurs in the cell cytoplasm

97
Q

What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism?

A

Catabolism is the breakdown of molecules and releases energy.
Anabolism is the build up of molecules and requires energy.

98
Q

Define pathophysiology.

A

Pathophysiology is an altered function due a disease.

99
Q

What pH level would be considered to be acidosis and alkalosis?

A

Acidosis pH < 7.35

Alkalosis pH > 7.45

100
Q

Draw a flow chart showing what happens when there is a calcium influx.

A

Damage to cell membrane -> Extra calcium entering the cell ->

  1. Damages to mitochondria, so less ATP is produced
  2. Activates intracellular processes that cause membrane damage, DNA fragmentation, and further loss of ATP
101
Q

Draw a flow chart showing how hypoxia occurs.

A

Ischaemia ( insufficient blood supply to tissues) ->
Hypoxia (insufficient oxygen supply to tissues or cells) ->
Lack of oxygen results in decreased production of ATP ->
1. Temporary loss of ATP leads to cell injury
2. Longer loss of ATP leads to necrosis (cell death)

102
Q

What are the three main damages of oxygen free radicals?

A
  1. Damages mitochondria, so less ATP is produced
  2. Damages DNA and proteins
  3. Disrupts cell membranes
103
Q

Atrophy

A

Decreasing in size

104
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increasing in size

105
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Increasing in number

106
Q

Metaplasia

A

Changing cell type

107
Q

Dysplasia

A

Changing in size, shape or organization

108
Q

Define the two irreversible cell injuries

A

Apoptosis: specific series of process causing cell self-destruction
Necrosis: cell swelling and break down of membrane, organelles and nucleus; contents leak out of cell. Necrosis also influences other surrounding cells

109
Q

Describe apoptosis

A 
Active process (uses ATP)
Suicide genes
Can occur in normal physiological processes
May be pathological
No inflammation
110
Q

Describe necrosis

A 
Necrotic tissue: group of dead cells
Due to pathology
Passive, not require ATP
Causes nearby cells to undergo necrosis
Stimulates acute inflammation
Scarring
111
Q

What are the effects of histamine and serotonin?

A

Causes vasodilation, increased permeability of blood vessels to plasma fluids and proteins

112
Q

What are the effects of prostaglandins and kinins?

A

Causes vasodilation and pain

113
Q

What are the characteristics of acute inflammation?

A

Heat-hyperaemia
Redness-hyperaemia
Swelling-oedema due to hyperaemia and increased vascular permeability
Pain-activation of neurons, stretch receptors, and chemical mediators
Loss of function-due to swelling and pain

114
Q

How is cardiovascular disease related to stress?

A

Stress causes vasoconstriction; this decreases renal blood flow, activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and increases blood pressure.
Raised levels of cortisol contributes to dyslipidaemia and atherosclerosis.
Raised levels of aldosterone and cortisol elevate blood pressure leading to hypertension.

115
Q

What is the difference between systemic circuit and the pulmonary circuit?

A

Systemic circuit - blood supply to and from all body tissues

Pulmonary circuit - blood supply to and from lungs (for oxygenation)

116
Q

What is the branch that splits off into the left and right bronchus called?

A

The carina

117
Q

What effect does alpha1 receptor have on adrenaline or noradrenaline binding, and where is the location of this receptor?

A

Vasoconstriction and located in blood vessels supplying skin and visceral organs

118
Q

What effect does the beta1 receptor have on adrenaline or noradrenaline binding and where is it located? (All 3)

A

Increases the heart rate; increases force of contraction and is located in the heart (muscles)
Causes vasodilation and is located in the coronary arteries
Causes bronchodilation and is located in the respiratory bronchioles

119
Q

What is the formula for measuring cardiac output?

A

CO=HR x SV

120
Q

Bradycardia

A

Abnormally slow heart rate

121
Q

Tachycardia

A

Abnormally fast heart rate

122
Q

Polycythaemia

A

Abnormally increased concentration of haemoglobin in the blood

Bioscience (1 decks)

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