Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hawker > All > Flashcards

All Flashcards

0
Q

What is the function of the tensator motor

A

Counterbalance the main entrance door during opening and closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Where is the tensator

A

Top step of entry door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum certified number of occupants?

A

17 occupants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum air temperature for flight?

A

ISA +35c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the minimum temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

-40c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the minimum en route temperature?

A

-75C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing?

A

30 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Vmo below 12,000 feet with ventral tank empty?

A

335 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Vmo with ventral tank full?

A

280 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is maneuvering speed Va?

A

196 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the maximum speed to meet bird strike requirements?

A

280 KIAS up to 8,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the maximum speed permitted with flaps15?

A

220 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the maximum and minimum airport pressure altitudes for takeoff and landing?

A

+9000

-2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

41,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the maximum taxi and ramp weight?

A

800 xp and modified -28,120 pounds

800 - 27,520 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

23,350 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A

800XP - 18,450 pounds

800 - 17,520 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the estimated flight planning fuel burns per hour?

A

Hour 1: 2,000 PPH

Hour 2 and sub: 1,500 PPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the estimated fuel burn for an instrument approach?

A

200 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the estimated true airspeed for planning?

A

420 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which engine is the critical engine?

A

Windward side engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the required missed approach climb gradient at the destination airport?

A

Single engine miss: 2.1%

2-engine baulked landing: 3.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the minimum flap retraction speed on single engine departure?

A

800XP - V2 + 10

800 - V2 + 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the maximum airport elevation for using tabulated takeoff data?

A

800 XP : 8,000

800: 6,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the Minimum Altitude for the Use of

the Yaw Damper or Autopilot?

A

400 Feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How Often is the FMS NAV Database Updated?

A

Every 28 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Are Circling Approaches Supported by the

NAV Database?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Maximum Bank Angle
Commanded by the FMS in Holding,
Procedure Turns, and Arc Segments?

A

27°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How Many Seconds Prior to a Lateral Course

Change Does the Lateral Track Alert Appear?

A

30 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the Function of the CLR Key

(Honeywell)?

A

Erase Information in the Scratch Pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Standard Course Intercept Used

by the FMS?

A

45°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What Are the Electrical Requirements for

Using a Ground Power Unit (GPU)?

A

28 Volts / 1500 Amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

All FMS Tasks May Be Accessed Through

Which Three Menu Keys?

A

PERF
NAV
DIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is the Switch for Emergency Lighting

Located?

A

In the Cockpit on the Pilot’s Overhead Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where Are the Inverter Switches Located?

A

Typically on the Overhead Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where Are the Inverters Installed?

A

The Rear Bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the Maximum Continuous Generator

Load in Flight?

A

300 Amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Approximately How Many Minutes of Battery
Power Do You Have With the Loss of All
Generated Power?

A
  • 800 XP: 30 Minutes

- 800: 60 Minutes (1 Hour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Minimum NiCad Battery

Temperature for Takeoff?

A

-10°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What Will Placing the Battery Switch to

EMERGENCY Ensure?

A
  • Both Batteries Supply Power to Close
    Both Emergency Contactors
  • Both Battery Charge Contactors Are
    Opened
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the Maximum Battery Charge Rate

Before Takeoff?

A

20 Amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where Are the Engine and APU Fire

Extinguisher Bottles Located?

A

Rear Bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How Many Portable Fire Extinguishers MUST

Be On the Aircraft?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What Are the Contents of the Sealed

Stainless Steel Fire Loops?

A
  • Helium

- Hydrogen Gas-Saturated Metallic Core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where is the Power Source for Shot 1 to

Either Engine?

A

PE Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the Power Source for Shot 2 to Either

Engine?

A

PS-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How Many Lights Will Illuminate When

Testing the Engine Fire Warning System?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the Maximum 15° Flap Speed?

A

220 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the 800XP Maximum Altitude Allowed

With Landing Gear or Flaps Lowered?

A

20,000 Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the Power Source for the Rudder

Bias System?

A

LP Bleed Air From Each Engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How Many Channels May Be Used by the

Stall Ident System?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How Many Channels Are Used by the Stall

Ident System to Activate the Pusher?

A

At Least 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How Long After Takeoff is the Stall Ident

System Inhibited?

A

6 Seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What Controls the Speed of the Electric Trim

System?

A

Flap Position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the Maximum Fuel Temperature?

A

+57°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the Minimum Fuel Ambient

Temperature With Jet A Fuel?

A

Takeoff: -35°C

Flight: -38°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How Many Fuel Tanks Are Installed on the

Hawker 800/800XP?

A

13 with ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How Many Fuel Tanks Are Installed on the

Hawker 800/800XP?

A
  • 13 Total
  • 6 in Each Wing (12)
  • Ventral Tank
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the Maximum Fuel Imbalance

Between Wings Before and In Flight?

A

500 Pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When Can Fuel Transfer From the Ventral

Tank to the Wing Tanks Be Initiated?

A

Fuel in Each Wing Reduced to 3,300 Pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How Long Does it Take to Transfer Fuel From
the Ventral Tanks to the Wing Tanks With
BOTH DC Boost Pumps Operating?

A

Approximately 20 Minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What it the MINIMUM Fuel Quantity in Each
Wing to Permit Takeoff With Fuel in the
Ventral Tank?

A

3,450 Pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What Fuel Pressure Does the Reducing Valve

Establish During Single Point Refueling?

A

25 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the Maximum Speed With Fuel in the

Ventral Tanks?

A

280 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the Maximum Fuel Quantity in

Pounds / Gallons?

A

10,000 lbs / 1,500 Gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Normal Hydraulic System Operating

Pressure?

A

3,000 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the Capacity of the Main Hydraulic

System Reservoir?

A

2.4 US Gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What Type of Hydraulic Fluid is Approved

For Use in the Hawker 800/800XP?

A

MIL-H-5606

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The HYD 1 & LOW PRESS Lights Illuminate

Below What Pressure?

A

1,500 PSI (After 57 Second Delay)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How Much Pressure is Trapped by the
Pressure Maintaining Valve for Normal
Braking and Stall Ident?

A

2,300 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When Will the AUX HYD LOW LVL Light

Illuminate?

A

Aux Hydraulic Reservoir Approximately

½ Pint Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What Pressure Will Open the Full Flow Relief

Valve to Relieve System Pressure?

A

800: 4000 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What Temperature Will Illuminate the HYD

OVHT Amber Light?

A

90°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the Capacity of the Auxiliary

Hydraulic System?

A

6 U.S. Pints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the Power Source For the Rotary Ice

Detector Motor?

A

XS-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q 
Which System(s) Can Be Powered by the
Auxiliary Hydraulic System?
A

Landing gear

Flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which Windscreen Panels Are Heated?

A

“A” and “B” Panels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Under What Conditions Should Engine

ANTICE be Selected?

A

Operating in Visible Moisture to Include
Takeoff and Landing and Temperatures
At or Below:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How Much TKS Protection Time Remains
When the Amber ANTICE LO PRESS Light
First Illuminates?

A

30 Minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What De-Ices the Conical Spinners?

A

Centrifugal Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How Much TKS Priming and Protection Are

Available With a Full Reservoir Gauge?

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is VLO?

A

220 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What Operates the Nose Wheel Door During

Extension and Retraction?

A

A Mechanical Linkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What Pressure Illuminates the Emergency

Brake Low Pressure Light?

A

2,250 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The Brake Reducing Valve Reduces System

Pressure to:

A

1,750 – 1,900 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which Hydraulic System(s) Power the Main

Landing Gear Actuators?

A

Main & auxiliary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What Controls the Landing Gear Selector

Baulk?

A

Weight-on-Wheels Switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which Flap Setting Will Activate the Landing

Gear Warning Horn With the Landing Gear Up?

A

Greater Than 15°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is Landing Gear Operating Speed

(VLO)?

A

220 KIAS

89
Q

At What Altitude Will the Passenger Masks

Automatically Deploy if Armed?

A

12,000 ± 500 Feet

90
Q

Where Are the Oxygen Bottles Located?

A

Rear Bay

91
Q

At What Cabin Pressure Altitude Will the
Eros Crew Mask Automatically Provide
Pressure Breathing?

A

35,000 Feet

92
Q

How Many Liters of Oxygen Are Contained in

Each Fully-Charged Cylinder?

A

750 Liters @ 1,800 PSI

93
Q

What is the Power Source for the Main Air

Valves?

A

PE Bus

94
Q

What is the Source of Bleed Air for

FLT/DK HEAT?

A

Right Engine Bleed Air

95
Q

What is the Power Source for the FLT/DK

Heat Valve?

A

PE

96
Q

What are the Selectable Positions of the Main

Air Valves?

A

Closed
LP
Open

97
Q

What Will Placing the DUMP VALVE Selector

Handle DOWN Provide?

A

Smoke Removal

98
Q

At Which Temperature Does the DUCT OVHT

Annunciator Illuminate?

A

800: 116°C

99
Q

Which Cockpit Window(s) Can Be Opened?

A

“C” Panel and ONLY On the Ground

100
Q

What Cabin Altitude Can be Maintained With
the Dump Valve Open and FLT/DK Air Fully
Open?

A

9,000 ft. Cabin Altitude @ 40,000 ft.

101
Q

What is the Maximum Cabin Pressure

Differential During Normal Operations?

A

8.55 PSI

102
Q

What Cabin Altitude Can Be Maintained At

43,000 Feet?

A

8,000 Feet

103
Q

What is the Power Source For the Fan-

Operated Venturi?

A

115 VAC From Inverter #2

104
Q

What Controls the Operation of the Fan-

Operated Venturi?

A

8,000 Feet

105
Q

What is Used By the Pilot to Monitor Cabin

Pressurization?

A

The CABIN Triple Needle Indicator

106
Q

What is the Function of the Pneumatic

Relays?

A

Controls Vacuum Applied to the Outflow Valves

107
Q

How is the Ram Air Valve Controlled?

A

Electrically Through a Micro-Switch in the Base

of the Dump Valve Lever Quadrant

109
Q

Which Modes of Operation Are Available for

the Cabin Temperature Control System?

A

Auto

Manual

109
Q

Where Does Air for Ram Air Heat Exchanger
Cooling Come From If the Dorsal Intake is
Plugged?

A

Rear Bay Through Spring-Loaded Door

110
Q

What is done With the Water Extracted From

the Water Separator?

A

800: Vented Overboard

111
Q 
What is the Function of the Fan in the Cold
Air Unit (CAU)?
A

Draw Air Through the Ram Air Duct

During Ground Operations

112
Q

What is the Minimum Oil Pressure for

Ground Idle?

A

25 PSI

113
Q

What Engines Are Installed on the

Hawker 800/800XP?

A

800: TFE 731-5R-1-H

114
Q

Which Fuel Pressure Value Illuminates the

LOW FUEL PRESS Annunciator?

A

6 PSI

115
Q

What Indication Will You Get if You Are On
the Ground, Thrust Reversers Are Selected,
and Rudder Bias is NOT Inhibited?

A

Amber REVERSER Annunciator

Illuminates on the MWS Panel

116
Q

How Are the Dee Howard Thrust

Reversers Controlled and Powered?

A

Electrically Controlled

Hydraulically Operated

117
Q

What is the Maximum Altitude for a Starter-

Assisted Relight?

A

20,000 Feet

118
Q

What is Normal Operating Oil Temperature

(Green Arc)?

A

30°C to 127°C

119
Q

What is the Minimum Oil Temperature for

Takeoff?

A

+30°C

120
Q

What is the Minimum Oil Temperature for

Starting?

A

-40°C

122
Q

What is Takeoff, Climb, and Maximum

Continuous Oil Pressure?

A

800: 38 PSI

122
Q

What is the Maximum Continuous Generator

Load for the Turbomach T-62T APU (800)?

A

300 Amps

123
Q

The Maximum Permissible APU Overspeed

Is?

A

Honeywell: 110%
Turbomach: 100%

124
Q

What is the Maximum Continuous Generator

Load for the GTCP-36-150 APU (800XP)?

A

250 Amps

125
Q

Where Does the APU Receive Fuel From?

A

Left Wing Tank

126
Q

What are the EGT Limitations for the

Turbomach T-62T APU (800)?

A

Normal: 1080°F
Starting: 1380°F

127
Q

APU FIRE red light

A

Illuminates to indicate an overheat or fire condition in the APU.. Fire bell will not cancel until the APU master switch is selected OFF.
Silence fire bell by depressing switch light.
1. MASTER Switch – OFF
2. FIRE EXT Switch - OPERATE

128
Q

APU GEN FAIL amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate the APU generator line contactor is de-energized.

129
Q

LOW OIL PRESS amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate oil pressure is less than 35
psig.
APU shuts down if operating.

130
Q

HIGH OIL TEMP amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate temperature is above 325°F.

APU shuts down if operating.

131
Q

BLEED AIR VALVE FAIL amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate BLEED AIR switch is set to CLOSE, but Load Control Valve has failed to close.

132
Q

BLEED AIR ON green light

A

Illuminates to indicate Load Control Valve is open.

133
Q

READY TO LOAD green light

A

Illuminates to indicate APU has reached operating speed.

134
Q

APU ON white light

A

Illuminates to indicate the APU master switch is ON.

135
Q

ENG 1 FIRE (up) red light

A

Illuminates to indicate the temperature in a fire
zone in the associated engine exceeds a preset limit.
The fire bell also sounds.

136
Q

OIL 1 LO PRESS red light

A

Illuminates to indicate the associated engine oil

pressure is less than 23 PSI.

137
Q

MAIN AIR VALVE 1 amber light

A

ON GROUND: Indicates the associated main air valve is open.
IN FLIGHT: Indicates that the associated main air
valve does not correspond with the
switch position.

138
Q

ENG 1 A/ICE amber light

A

Indicates that the associated engine bleed air pressure is:

139
Q

EXT DOOR UNLOCKED amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate the entry door is not fully locked.

140
Q

HYD (up) amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate an amber hydraulic annunciator is illuminated on the overhead panel.

142
Q

AUX HYD LO LEVEL amber light

A

Indicates that approximately ½ pint of fluid was withdrawn
from the tank.
Lit when the auxiliary system is used

142
Q

AIR BRAKES - OPEN

A

Illuminates to indicate the airbrakes are extended from the shut position.

143
Q

HYD 1 LO PRESS amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate the associated supply pressure fell to 1,500psi for more than 57 seconds.
Remains illuminated until pressure rises to 1,850 psi

144
Q

CABIN ALTITUDE red light

A

Illuminates to indicate cabin altitude has reached 9,300 ± 300 feet.

146
Q

REAR BAY OVHT red light

A

Indicates that any of six thermally operated switches has detected an overheat condition in the rear equipment bay.
Temperature exposure exceeds 100°C

147
Q

REVERSER amber light

A

On ground with T/R selected indicates rudder bias inhibit failure
In flight without T/R selected indicates hydraulic isolation valve failure

147
Q

ICE PROT SELECTED white light

A

ADVISORY: Illuminates to indicate either or both engine anti ice switches are ON

148
Q

ICE PROT (up) amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate ananti-ice system failure Look up to the overhead panel to determine the affected system(s)

149
Q

DUCT OVHT (up) amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate duct temperature exceeds:

150
Q

RUDDER BIAS amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate one or both bias switches are OFF.

151
Q

STALL IDENT amber light

A

ADVISORY: Illuminates to indicate a stall warning and identification annunciator is illuminated on the left or right instrument panel.

152
Q

ELECT (up) amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate a DC fault is annunciated on the overhead panel.

153
Q

GEN 1 FAIL amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate that the associated generator line contactor is de-energized.

154
Q

MACH TRIM OFF amber light

A

Illuminates to indicate the
Mach trim function is not
available (800XP).

155
Q

ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF

BELOW V1 SPEED – ABORT TAKEOFF

A
  1. Thrust Levers - CLOSE
  2. Anti-Skid Braking - APPLY
  3. Airbrakes - OPEN
  4. Thrust Reverser - DEPLOY
  5. Reverse Power - APPLY
156
Q

ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF

Above V1 SPEED – Continue TAKEOFF

A 
1. Takeoff – CONTINUE
At Positive Rate of Climb:
2. LANDING GEAR Lever – UP
3. APR Switch – OVERRIDE (if required)
4. Speed – V2 MINIMUM
5. MAIN AIR VLVs (Both) - CLOSE
157
Q

SINGLE ENGINE FAILURE

A
  1. Affected Engine - IDENTIFY
  2. HP Cock - CLOSE
  3. LP Cock - CLOSE
  4. GEN - TRIP
  5. BUS TIE (if open) - CLOSE
    If failure during initial climb:
  6. MAIN AIR VLVs (1 & 2) - CLOSE
  7. F/DK VLV - CLOSE
158
Q

TWO-ENGINE FAILURE

A
  1. ENG IGNITION 1 & 2 – ON
  2. Thrust Levers – CLOSE
  3. Crew Oxygen – DONN MASKS IF ABOVE 15,000 FEET
  4. Engine Indications - MONITOR
159
Q

ENGINE FIRE IN FLIGHT

A
  1. Affected Engine - IDENTIFY
  2. HP Cock - CLOSE
  3. LP Cock - CLOSE
  4. GEN - TRIP
  5. BUS TIE (if open) - CLOSE
  6. ENG EXT - SHOT 1
    If fire warning during initial climb:
  7. MAIN AIR VLVs (1 & 2) - CLOSE
  8. F/DK VLV - CLOSE
160
Q

ENGINE FIRE ON GROUND

A
  1. Affected Engine - IDENTIFY
  2. START PWR (starting only) - PUSH FOR ABORT
  3. HP Cock - CLOSE
  4. LP Cock - CLOSE
  5. GEN - TRIP
  6. BUS TIE (if open) - CLOSE
  7. ENG EXT - SHOT 1
    After 30 seconds, if ENG FIRE remains illuminated:
  8. ENG EXT - SHOT 2
161
Q

OIL LOW PRESSURE

A
  1. Oil Pressure – CHECK GAUGE READING
    If below 25 PSI:
  2. HP Cock (affected engine) - CLOSE
162
Q

APU FIRE

A
  1. MASTER Switch - OFF

2. FIRE EXT Switch - OPERATE

163
Q

RAPID DEPRESSURIZATION

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DONN MASKS
164
Q

EMERGENCY DESCENT

A
  1. Thrust Levers - CLOSE
  2. Speed – MMO/VMO
    (unless structural damage is suspected)
  3. AIRBRAKE - OPEN
165
Q

FUSELAGE FIRE OR SMOKE

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DONN MASKS (100% EMERG)
  2. Smoke Goggles - DONN/VENT
  3. Cabin Notices - ON
166
Q

HIGH PRESSURE AIR OVERHEAT

A
  1. MAIN AIR VLV - CLOSE

2. F/DK VLV - CLOSE

167
Q

SMOKE FROM A/C DUCTING

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DONN MASKS, 100% EMERG
  2. Smoke Goggles - DONN/VENT
  3. Cabin Notices - ON
168
Q

REAR EQUIPMENT BAY OVERHEAT

A
  1. MAIN AIR VLVs (1 & 2) – CLOSE

2. F/DK VLV – OPEN FULLY

169
Q

ELECTRICAL FIRE OR SMOKE

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DONN MASKS / 100% EMERG
  2. Smoke Goggles – DONN / VENT
  3. Cabin Notices - ON
170
Q

BATTERY OVERHEAT

A

In Flight:
1. BATT - EMERG
On Ground:
1. BATT - OFF

171
Q

WHEEL BRAKE FAILURE

A
  1. Brake Pedals - RELEASED
  2. WHEEL BRAKE Lever - EMERGY
  3. Brake Pedals - APPLY GENTLY
    Use one continuous application if possible
172
Q

STALL IDENTIFICATION SYSTEM

A
  1. Take Normal Recovery Action
173
Q

EMERGENCY EVACUATION – PILOT ACTIONS

A
  1. Airplane - STOP
  2. WHEEL BRAKE Lever - PARK
  3. HP Cocks - CLOSE
  4. LP Cocks - CLOSE
  5. PA - ORDER EVACUATION
174
Q

EMERGENCY EVALCUATION – COPILOT ACTIONS

A
  1. Dump Valve - OPEN
  2. ENG 1 & ENG 2 Extinguishers - SHOT 1 (BOTH)
  3. APU FIRE EXT (if installed) - OPERATE
  4. Notify ATC on VHF COMM 1
175
Q

ABORTED TAKEOFF

A
  1. Anti-Skid Braking - APPLY
  2. Thrust Levers - CLOSE
  3. Airbrakes - DEPLOY
  4. Thrust Reverser – DEPLOY (if installed)
176
Q

ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF

Above V1 SPEED – Continue TAKEOFF

A

At Positive Rate of Climb:

  1. LANDING GEAR Lever - UP
  2. MAIN AIR VLV’s (both) - CLOSE
  3. F/DK - CLOSE
177
Q

TWO-ENGINE FAILURE

A
  1. ENG IGNITION 1 & 2 - ON
  2. Thrust Levers - CLOSE
  3. Fuel Enrich (if required) - PUSH (up to 400°C)
    If above 15,000 ft:
  4. Crew Oxygen - DON MASKS
178
Q

ENGINE FIRE IN FLIGHT

A 
1. Thrust Lever (Affected Engine) - IDLE
If fire warning persists:
2. HP Cock (Affected Engine) - CLOSE
3. LP Cock (Affected Engine) - CLOSE
4. ENG EXT - SHOT 1
If engine shutdown occurs during initial climb:
5. MAIN AIR VLVs 1 & 2 - CLOSE BOTH
6. F/DK VLV - CLOSE
179
Q

ENGINE FIRE ON GROUND

A
  1. START PWR (Starting Only) - PUSH FOR ABORT
  2. HP Cock (Affected Engine) - CLOSE
  3. LP Cock (Affected Engine) - CLOSE
  4. ENG EXT (Affected Engine) - SHOT 1
180
Q

THRUST REVERSER INADVERTENT

DEPLOYMENT – IN FLIGHT

A
  1. HP Cock (affected engine) - CLOSE
181
Q

APU FIRE [GARRETT GTCP 3092C (A)]

A
  1. APU MASTER – OFF
    Units With Doors: Wait 10 Seconds
    If Warning Persists:
  2. APU FIRE EXT – OPERATE
182
Q

APU FIRE (TURBOMACH)

A
  1. APU MASTER - OFF

2. APU FIRE EXT - OPERATE

183
Q

RAPID DEPRESSURIZATION

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DON MASKS
184
Q

EMERGENCY DESCENT

A
  1. Thrust Levers - CLOSE
  2. Speed – MMO/VMO
    (unless structural damage is suspected)
  3. AIRBRAKE - OPEN
185
Q

FUSELAGE FIRE OR SMOKE

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DONN MASKS (100% EMERG)
  2. Smoke Goggles - DONN/VENT
  3. Cabin Notices - ON
186
Q

SMOKE FROM AIR CONDITIONING DUCTS

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DONN MASKS, 100% EMERG
  2. Smoke Goggles - DONN/VENT
  3. Cabin Notices - ON
187
Q

HIGH PRESSURE AIR OVERHEAT

A
  1. Associated MAIN AIR VLV - CLOSE

2. F/DK VLV - CLOSE

188
Q

REAR EQUIPMENT BAY OVERHEAT

A
  1. MAIN AIR VLVs (both) - CLOSE

2. F/DK VLV - OPEN FULLY

189
Q

FIRE IN FLIGHT COMPARTMENT / PASSENGER CABIN

A
  1. Crew Oxygen – DONN MASKS – 100% EMERGENCY
  2. Smoke Goggles – DONN & VENT
  3. Cabin Notice - ON
190
Q

ELECTRICAL FIRE OR SMOKE

A
  1. Crew Oxygen - DONN MASKS/100%
  2. Smoke Goggles - DONN/VENT
  3. Cabin Notices - ON
191
Q

BATTERY OVERHEAT

A

In Flight:
1. BATT - EMERG
On Ground:
1. BATT - OFF

192
Q

WHEEL BRAKE FAILURE

A
  1. Brake Pedals - RELEASE
  2. WHEEL BRAKE Lever - EMERGY
  3. Brake Pedals - APPLY GENTLY
    Use one continuous application If possible
193
Q

EMERGENCY EVACUATION

A
  1. Aircraft - STOP
  2. WHEEL BRAKE Lever - PARK
  3. HP Cocks - CLOSE
  4. LP Cocks - CLOSE
  5. PA - ORDER EVACUATION
  6. Dump Valve – OPEN
  7. ENG 1 & 2 Extinguishers – SHOT 1 (BOTH)
  8. APU FIRE EXT (if fitted) – OPERATE
  9. Notify ATC on VHF COMM 1
194
Q

Where Does the DME Indicator Have the Greatest Error Between Ground and Displayed Distance?

A

At High Altitude – Close to the VORTAC

196
Q

Which Checks/Inspections of Flight Instruments or Systems MUST Be Accomplished Before IFR Flight?

A

VOR Within Preceding 30 Days

Altimeters/Transponders Within Preceding 24 Months

196
Q

What is the Maximum Speed to be Used

in a Procedure Turn?

A

200 Knots

197
Q

What are the Required Items to be Recorded

When Performing a VOR Check?

A

Date
Place
Bearing Error
Signature in Aircraft Log or Other Record

198
Q

When is a Procedure Turn Required?

A

When Necessary to Reverse Direction to
Establish the Aircraft Inbound On an
Intermediate or Final Approach Course

199
Q

If Straight-In Minimums Are NOT Published, May a Pilot Land Straight-In?

A

YES

201
Q

Does ATC Retain Wake Turbulence Separation When the PIC Has Accepted Visual Separation From Traffic?

A

NO – Acceptance Also Means the Pilot
Accepts Responsibility for Wake
Turbulence Separation

202
Q

What is the Minimum Climb Gradient to be Maintained Whenever NO Climb Gradient is Specified on a DP (Departure Procedure)?

A

200 Feet per Nautical Mile

203
Q

How Does the LDA Differ From a LOC Course?

A

LDA is Not Aligned Within 3° of Runway

204
Q

Which Normally Changes When Crossing a Front – Pressure, Temperature, Dew Point, or
Wind?

A

Wind

205
Q

What Conditions Would Be Most Favorable For the Formation of Rime Ice?

A

Light Drizzle
Strataform Clouds
Temperatures At/Below Freezing

205
Q

What Information Can be Obtained From

the 250 Milibar Chart?

A

Winds Aloft at 39,000 Feet

206
Q

What Conditions Would Be Most Favorable For the Formation of Fog?

A 
Light Wind (3-5 Knots)
Narrow Temperature/Dew Point Spread (2°C)
207
Q

Which Atmospheric Factor Causes Rapid

Movement of Surface Fronts?

A

Upper Winds Blowing Across the Front

208
Q

What Condition is Indicated Whenever Ice

Pellets Are Encountered During Flight?

A

Freezing Rain at Higher Levels

209
Q

Which Type of Precipitation Indicates

the Presence of Supercooled Water?

A

Freezing Rain

210
Q

Which Conditions Are Most Likely to

Produce a Microburst?

A

Convective Activity in Very Dry Air

211
Q

What is an Indication That a
Thunderstorm Has Reached the Mature
Stage?

A

Precipitation

212
Q

What Are the Major Hazards of Flying

Under the Anvil of a Thunderstorm?

A

Hail
Severe Turbulence
Lightning

213
Q

What is a Squall Line and Where Does It

Develop?

A

A Non-Frontal, Narrow Band of Active
Thunderstorms Which Often Develops
Ahead of a Cold Front in Moist, Unstable
Air

214
Q

What kind of storms are most likely to

generate tornadoes?

A

Steady state thunderstorms associated with

cold fronts or squall lines

216
Q

Which Conditions are Necessary for a Low-

Level, Temperature Inversion Windshear?

A

Calm/Light Wind Near Surface

Relatively Strong Wind Just Above Inversion

216
Q

How Long is a Convective Outlook Valid?

A

24 Hours

217
Q

What Conditions Are Necessary For a Squall

to be Reported?

A

Sudden Increase of Wind Speed By At Least 15 Knots

Winds Peaking to 20 Knots or More / Lasting a Minute or Longer

218
Q

What Tops Level of a Thunderstorm

Would Qualify It as Severe?

A

35,000 Feet

219
Q

How Far Should You Avoid a Thunderstorm?

A

20 Nautical Miles

221
Q

How Far Away From Mountains Could
You Expect to Find Clear Air Turbulence
Associated With Mountain Wave?

A

5,000 Feet Above the Tropopause

100 Miles or More Downwind From Mountains

Hawker (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions