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BIOC MIDTERM PRACTICE POOL MCQs > ALL 2 > Flashcards

ALL 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Select the INCORRECT pair relating to the specificity of ligands and receptors:

A

Adrenaline and muscarinic acetylcholine receptor

Incorrect because adrenaline binds to adrenergic receptors, not muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.

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2
Q

Glucagon and the GlucaGen HypoKit:

A

Glucagon uses a G protein-coupled receptor to produce signal transduction.

Correct: Glucagon receptors are GPCRs.

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3
Q

Second messenger NOT used by GPCRs:

A

Adenylate cyclase

Adenylate cyclase is an enzyme, not a second messenger.

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4
Q

INCORRECT statement regarding receptor proteins:

A

Receptors release the ligand as a changed product.

Incorrect: Receptors typically do not chemically change ligands.

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5
Q

Good chemical starting point for discovering a GPCR antagonist:

A

The endogenous ligand for their target receptor.

This would be a good starting point for discovering an antagonist.

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6
Q

Flow of genetic information in a cell:

A

DNA -> mRNA -> Protein.

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7
Q

Translation is the synthesis of:

A

Protein from an mRNA template.

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8
Q

Key elements of a gene:

A

Promoter region, exons, transcription factor binding sites, introns.

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9
Q

Alternate forms of a gene are called:

A

Alleles.

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10
Q

True statement about the inheritance of alleles:

A

One allele comes from each parent.

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11
Q

Parents’ genotypes if two straight-haired people have a curly-haired child:

A

Heterozygous.

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12
Q

Least likely genetic variant to have severe consequences:

A

A variant that changes a codon to another codon for the same amino acid.

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13
Q

How a person’s genotype can be determined:

A

All of the above.

All listed assays can be used for genotyping.

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14
Q

Who will show symptoms of the genetic disease (from gel image):

A

Person 2.

Person 2 has the homozygous recessive genotype.

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15
Q

Why PCR is commonly used in genetic testing:

A

It generates a large number of copies of a specific DNA region.

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16
Q

Sickle Cell Anaemia is:

A

A monogenic disease caused by the E6V haemoglobin genetic variant.

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17
Q

A disease or disorder can be:

A

All of the above.

Diseases can have varying degrees of genetic and environmental causes.

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18
Q

Genetic variant that could cause a severe phenotype:

A

Anywhere in a reaction pathway.

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19
Q

The effect of a genetic variant on a phenotype can be modified by the environment if:

A

The genetic variant does not severely change the protein’s function.

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20
Q

Best explanation for why older people have a higher chance of getting cancer:

A

Because their DNA has been damaged over time.

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21
Q

A complex disease is:

A

Caused by multiple, complicated gene-environment interactions.

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22
Q

Best host to produce functional “PepZ” (requiring gamma-carboxylation):

A

Chinese Hamster Ovary Cells.

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23
Q

NOT an advantage of using eukaryotic cells for therapeutic protein production:

A

Can make proteins from any tissue.

Eukaryotic cells cannot make all proteins.

24
Q

INCORRECT statement about recombinant expression vectors:

A

They are double-stranded pieces of linear DNA.

They are circular DNA.

25
Q

Protein type and recombinant production systems NOT correctly paired:

A

Glycosylated protein and bacteria.

Bacteria do not glycosylate proteins.

26
Q

Restriction enzymes cut:

A

DNA at specific sites.

27
Q

Correct statement about human insulin:

A

The A and B chains of human insulin can be synthesized recombinantly without the requirement for in vivo post-translational modifications.

28
Q

Recombinant insulin is produced in:

A

E.coli.

29
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO):

A

Can be used to treat anaemic cancer patients.

30
Q

Genes containing introns cannot be expressed in bacteria because:

A

Bacteria do not have the cellular machinery required for splicing out introns.

31
Q

Statement about EPO and insulin production in E. coli:

A

EPO produced in E. coli is not functional because it requires glycosylation.

32
Q

C. Can be used to treat anaemic cancer patients.

A

D. Bacteria do not have the cellular machinery required for splicing out introns.

Example sentence: Bacteria lack the necessary enzymes for intron splicing.

33
Q

Statement about EPO and insulin production in E. coli:

A

A. EPO produced in E. coli is not functional because it requires glycosylation.

Example sentence: EPO needs glycosylation for proper function.

34
Q

Restricting expression of recombinant proteins to specific tissues in animals can be controlled by:

A

B. A mammalian cell-type specific promoter.

Example sentence: Specific promoters can target expression to certain tissues.

35
Q

Major benefit of gene therapy:

A

B. It can treat genetic disorders at their source.

Example sentence: Gene therapy addresses the root cause of genetic disorders.

36
Q

Statement about dilution of solution A (12 mL of solution A mixed with 24 mL of solution B):

A

C. The undiluted solution A had a concentration of 90 mg/mL.

Example sentence: The original concentration of solution A was 90 mg/mL.

37
Q

Volume delivered by the pipette:

A

C. 350 μL.

Example sentence: The pipette dispensed 350 microliters of liquid.

38
Q

50 mmol/μL equals:

A

A. 0.05 mol/mL.

Example sentence: 50 millimoles per microliter is equivalent to 0.05 moles per milliliter.

39
Q

A 1 in 12 dilution of an enzyme means:

A

A. 1 part enzyme diluted with 11 parts of buffer.

Example sentence: A 1 in 12 dilution involves adding 1 part enzyme to 11 parts buffer.

40
Q

To dilute a solution from 90 mg/mL to 15 mg/mL:

A

B. 1 part solution to 6 parts water.

Example sentence: Diluting from 90 mg/mL to 15 mg/mL requires mixing 1 part solution with 6 parts water.

41
Q

Structural component of starch responsible for blue-black colour in iodine test:

A

A. Amylose.

Example sentence: Amylose is the starch component that gives a blue-black color with iodine.

42
Q

High heat (80°C) affects bonds stabilising protein:

A

B. Secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure.

Example sentence: Protein structure is affected at 80°C, impacting secondary, tertiary, and quaternary bonds.

43
Q

Beer’s Law in spectrophotometry indicates:

A

C. Concentration of the solution.

Example sentence: Beer’s Law relates absorbance to solution concentration.

44
Q

Lambert’s Law in spectrophotometry indicates:

A

C. Decreases logarithmically with increasing pathlength.

Example sentence: Lambert’s Law describes the logarithmic decrease in absorbance with longer pathlengths.

45
Q

In the Beer-Lambert Law, the term ‘l’ denotes:

A

C. Light-path length.

Example sentence: The variable ‘l’ in the Beer-Lambert Law represents the distance light travels through the sample.

46
Q

Wavelength at which a molecule absorbs light maximally:

A

D. Can be determined by constructing an absorbance spectrum.

Example sentence: Absorbance spectra help identify the wavelength of maximum light absorption for a molecule.

47
Q

INCORRECT statement about spectrophotometry:

A

C. The wavelength of a standard cuvette is 1 cm.

Example sentence: The path length, not the wavelength, of a standard cuvette in spectrophotometry is typically 1 cm.

48
Q

Correct statement about enzyme assays and absorbance:

A

A. When using enzyme assays to analyse complex solutions for specific molecules, it is assumed that the reaction goes to completion.

Example sentence: Enzyme assays assume complete reaction to analyze complex mixtures for specific molecules.

49
Q

Dilution of solution A (80 mL of solution A added to 720 mL of water):

A

B. 1 in 10 dilution.

Example sentence: Diluting solution A by adding 720 mL of water to 80 mL results in a 1 in 10 dilution.

50
Q

Reason for the decrease in gradient of a progress curve:

A

B. Substrate concentration decreases over the reaction period.

Example sentence: The decline in gradient on a progress curve is due to decreasing substrate concentration during the reaction.

51
Q

Good standard curve (absorbance plotted against concentration):

A

B. I and III (passes through the origin and is a straight line).

Example sentence: A standard curve that intersects the origin and is linear is considered good for absorbance versus concentration.

52
Q

Alcohol dehydrogenase catalyses the conversion of:

A

A. Ethanol to acetaldehyde.

Example sentence: Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol into acetaldehyde.

53
Q

INCORRECT statement about C-blue solution absorbance:

A

A. The concentration of the 1 in 6 diluted C-blue sample is 15 mmol/L.

Example sentence: The correct concentration for the 1 in 6 diluted C-blue sample is not 15 mmol/L.

54
Q

Correct concentration of diluted solution Y based on absorbance:

A

C. 11.4 μmol/L.

Example sentence: The concentration of diluted solution Y, determined by absorbance, is 11.4 micromoles per liter.

55
Q

Initial velocity of assay using 200 μL of ADH:

A

A. 0.075 ΔA/s.

Example sentence: The initial velocity of the assay with 200 μL of ADH is 0.075 absorbance units per second.

56
Q

KM for enzyme from Lineweaver-Burk graph:

A

C. 2.5 mmol/L.

Example sentence: The KM value for the enzyme, obtained from the Lineweaver-Burk plot, is 2.5 millimoles per liter.

57
Q

Vmax for enzyme from Lineweaver-Burk graph:

A

B. 0.2 ΔA/min.

Example sentence: The Vmax value for the enzyme, derived from the Lineweaver-Burk graph, is 0.2 absorbance units per minute.

BIOC MIDTERM PRACTICE POOL MCQs (2 decks)

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