All Flashcards
0
Q
What model did Donald super develop?
A
The career rainbow model.
1
Q
What is the basis of Edgar Shein’s career model?
A
Career anchors. There are eight career anchors themes and this is shown that people identify primarily with one or two. The anchors can enable people to recognize their preferences for certain areas in their job which can help career planning EG a person with a primary theme of autonomy/independence will seek to work under their own rules and be less likely to conform to organizational norms. People are generally more fulfilled in their careers when they can satisfy their career anchors and seek Rosearro I did with these.
2
Q
What are Edgar Sheen eight career anchors?
A
MM..Castles and “chains”
- Technical / functional
- Managerial
- Autonomy
- Security / stability
- Entrepreneurial / creative
- Service
- Challenging
- Lifestyle
Number one is technical/functional, number two is general managerial, number three is autonomy/independence, number four is security/stability, number five is entrepreneurial creativity, number six is service/dedication to a cause, number seven is sure challenge, and number eight is lifestyle.
3
Q
What is the career rainbow model of development and what are the five stages?
A
According to Donald super, self-concept changes over time and develops as a result of experience. As such, career development is lifelong. The five stages of career development are as follows: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline.
4
Q
What is John Holland theory of career choice otherwise known as personality job fit?
A
John Hollins ferry centers on the notion that most people fit into one of six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising and conventional. RIASEC
5
Q
What is job enrichment?
A
Job enrichment is about quality job enrichment means improvement, or an increase with the help of upgrading and development,. I job enrichment an employee find satisfaction in respect to their position and personal growth potential.
7
Q
What is job enlargement?
A
Job enlargement is about adding quantity. Job enlargement of the vehicle employers use to put additional workload on employees.
8
Q
Title ___ of the civil rights act of ____ is the orginal equal _____ act. It states what?
A
VII
1964
Equal Opportunity (EEO) Act
one cannot discriminate on the basis of sex, ethnity, and a variety of other factors.
9
Q
In 1978, the EEOC created uniform guideliness on employee selection that said what? Can tests be used?
A
the use of any test that adversely affects hiring, promotion or other selection procedures is discriminatory. Tests can be used if they are validated, have utility and no alternatives are available.
10
Q
The American with Disabilities Act (year____) states what?
A
bans discrimination in employment, transportation, access to public buildings as well as other settings. It requires companies to make reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals.
11
Q
A “qualified individual with disability” is one who ____ of the employment position with or without _____.
A
can perform the essential functions
reasonable accomodation
12
Q
What is a reasonable accommodation (5)?
A
- making existing facilities readily accessible to and usable
- job restructuring
- modified work schedules
- adjustment or modification of exams
- acquisition or modification of equipment
13
Q
What does the ADA say about discrimination against someone who uses drugs? What does it say about drug testing?
A
prohibits discrimination against someone who has successfully completed or is currently participating in a rehabilitation program is no longer using drugs.
Takes no stand.
14
Q
There are 3 major problems with discrimination because they can affect ___, ____, and ____ and they are:
A
hiring, evaluation, promotion
- adverse impact
- unfairness
- differential validity
15
Q
What is adverse impact? Example:
So if 1 out of every 100 applicants is a minority and 20 are selected. What is the selection ratio? What is the percentage of minorities that must be selected? And what if 50 applied, how many would need to be selected to avoid adverse impact?
A
The percentage of minorities selected must be 80% or 4/5 of the percentage of non minorities selected.
Selection Ratio X .8
So if 1 out of every 100 applicants is a minority and 20 are selected, the selection ratio is 20/100 or .2
Take .2 x .8 = .16 so the minimum acceptable rate for the selection of minorities is 16% so if there are 50 minority applicants you take 50 x .16 = 8 so 8 must be admitted.
16
Q
What is unfairness? Graphically, how is unfairness depicted?
A
When minorities score differently on the predictor test yet perform similarly on the criterion. MCAT and performance in medical school.
two parallel lines
17
Q
What is differential validity? How often does this happen?
A
When there are different criterion related validity coefficients for different groups on the same test. Like .45 for whites on the MCAT and .25 for Hispanics.
Research suggests it rarely occurs and that previous findings have to do with low sample size.
18
Q
A job _____ is a procedure for the collection and analysis of data that provides information about the job tasks otherwise known as the job ____ and job requirements known as job _____.
A
analysis
description
specifications
19
Q
job ___ is crucial in order to comply with EEO guidelines regarding fair employment. EEO guidelines require that all employment procedures be based on criteria that is _____. and this criteria can be best developed with the detailed information provided by the job ___.
A
job analysis
job-related
job analysis
20
Q
Data for the job analysis may be obtained through ___ or ____. Data can also be obtained through the ____ technique which involves ___.
A
open ended or structured interviews
critical incident
involves ascertaining the specific actions that lead to desirable or undesirable consequences to the job (customer service must be pleasant and follow up versus ignoring customers)
21
Q
Selection and screening options include the following 5 things.
A
- biodata
- interviews
- tests
- assessment centers
- references LORs
22
Q
The ___ application is the most common type of application asking for personal data, education, employment history. The ___ application assigns weights to certain variables like college versus non college that then affect the hiring process. The ____ inventory often called the ____ covers the applicants life in greater detail and questions ask about desirable and undesirable work behaviors. ____ are ___ predictors of job success and turnover. Only ___% of American companies use them because they are ___ and ___.
A
standard application weighted application Biographical Inventory BIB or Biographical Information Blank BIBs are good 7% time consuming and costly
23
Q
Another name for the selection process called compensatory technique is the _____. What is it?
A
multiple regression approach
low scores on one predictor like low GPA can be overcome for selection purposes by having high SATs and a good interview.
24
Q
Another name for the selection process called non-compensatory technique is the _____. What is it?
A
Multiple Cutoff
applicants who meet certain cutoffs will be considered, so if GPA should be 3.0 and SATs of 1400 and GPA is 2.9 and SAT is higher it doesn’t matter.
25
This is another non compensatory process whereby the applicant must pass the cutoff score on the first predictor in order to continue in the selection process.
multiple hurdle.
26
Job performance is believed to be a function of three things.
1. ability
2. motivation
2. opportunity
27
Performance appraisals use both __ and ___ methods.
objective and subjective
28
What is an example of an objective method of performance evaluation?
includes easily observable and quantifiable categories like quantity of output, quality of output, accidents, absenteeism
29
What is an example of a subjective method of performance evaluation?
ratings by supervisors, peers, subordinates or self ratings
30
What are 3 comparative methods of rating performance evaluations and is this objective or subjective? And what are they?
subjective
1. straight rankings - listing workers from best to worst
2. forced distribution - people are ranked to fit in a distirubution
3. paired comparison - each employee is compared to every other employee but in pairs
31
Other methods of performance rating that are more absolute and individually based instead of comparative are (5). Are these objective or subjective?
subjective
1. graphic rating scales
2. BARS (behaviorally anchored rating scales)
3. BOS (behavioral observation scale)
4. Forced choice
5. behavioral checklist
32
The graphic rating scales, an (individual/absolute or comparative) scale which is (subjective / objective) is what?
individual/absolute
subjective
graphic ratings on various aspects of the job via likert scales (work quantity, punctuality, etc.,)
33
The BARS scales or _____, an (individual/absolute or comparative) scale which is (subjective / objective) is what? Problems with it?
individual/absolute
subjective
BARS are based on critical incidents and are ranked on various aspects of the job that have been linked to successful job performance. They are time consuming and they do not measure actual day to day activities but rather measure hypothetical situations.
34
The BOS scales or _____, an (individual/absolute or comparative) scale which is (subjective / objective) is what?
individual/absolute
subjective
ratings to the extent that employees engages in every behavior (how often they finish a project on time)
35
The Forced Choice method, an (individual/absolute or comparative) scale which is (subjective / objective) is what? When is this especially useful?
individual/absolute
subjective
The rater must choose between two seemingly equally desirable or undesirable choices (reliable or agreeable, or headstrong or slow).
Controls for halo effect and biases due to leniency and strictness
36
The Behavioral Checklist, an (individual/absolute or comparative) scale which is (subjective / objective) is what?
individual/absolute
subjective
Rater checks off all the adjectives that apply to the person being rated.
37
What is management by objectives (MBO)? What is it effective with?
a mutual agreement between employees and supervisors on goals to be achieved within a given time. There's goal setting and performance review. This is effective with increasing motivation, productivity (+44.6%).
38
What is greater rater error or instrument error in performance evaluations?
rater
39
There are two types of instrument errors. What are they?
1. deficiency error - excluding important aspects of the job from the evaluation
2. contamination - rating an employee on non important aspects of the job
40
There are 3 types of rater based errors. What are they?
1. Strictness set - overly strict and gives everyone low ratings
2. leniency set - overly lenient and gives everyone high ratings
3. central tendency set - rates everyone as average
41
There are two ratee based biases, what are they?
1. halo effect - performance rating is based on one positive or one negative aspect of person
2. Personal biases - prejudices against certain ethnicities
42
What has the research found in terms of personal biases and one's own race, black and white raters, gender, and age?
one's own race: we tend to their them more favorably
black and white: both give lower ratings to blacks
gender: if women are < 20% of the work group they get lower ratings but higher when they make up <50% of the work group.
age: rated lower on interpersonal skills and overall job performance.
43
What is the recency bias?
raters are most influenced by an employee's recent behaviors (like the last month even though it's an annual performance rating).
44
What are rater attribution errors?
they attribute poor performance to internal factors of workers they don't like and to external factors of workers they like
45
I participated in the hiring error?
likelihood of being rated higher if the rater participated in the person's hiring
46
What is Frame of Reference training?
to reduce rater error, raters are provided with clear and specific criteria for what constitutes the different levels of performance.
47
What is an example of a non participative training?
watching a video or listening to a lecture
48
What is an example of programmed instruction and when would we use it?
booklets, interactive video tapes and complex computer software. it involves graduated presentation of material with feedback at each step. used to train large numbers of trainees in a short period of time.
49
What is an example of computer assisted instruction?
programs available to teach computer literacy
50
What is simulation training?
trained in an environments that simulates the actual job - like pilots
51
What is job rotation training?
rotate and expose workers (usually managers) to do different jobs and departments and expose them to all facets of the organization (japanese companies).
52
What is group participative training?
discussion, role playing, business games, sensitivity training, in basket training, behavioral modeling
53
What are the psychological factors affecting training?(9)
1. individual differences - people are able to be trained differently
2. pre-training expectations - those with low self efficacy are less receptive than those with a high sense of self efficacy
3. motivation - some have more some have less (if you involve them in the decision, allow them to participate in a needs assessment, give them a choice of training that may help with motivation). More motivation is correlated with job invovlement and locus of control.
4. active vs passive practice - learn more when active
5. massed vs distributed (spaced) practice - spaced practice is better for learning (over longer periods of time)
6. whole and part learning - present it all at once versus in parts and slower learners are able to master new material when it is presented in smaller units
7. transfer of training - transfer of material to the work setting. overlearning is to develop a very thorough knowledge of the task especially if it is infrequently performed and identical elements similarity between the training and the work situation.
8. feedback - feedback should be given right away, people learn best with frequent feedback
9. reinforcement - reinforcement helps the speed of learning the greater the reward the more rapidly it will be learned.
54
What helps with motivation when it comes to training?
motivation - some have more some have less (if you involve them in the decision, allow them to participate in a needs assessment, give them a choice of training that may help with motivation). More motivation is correlated with job invovlement and locus of control.
55
What is over learning and identical elements when it comes to training?
overlearning is to develop a very thorough knowledge of the task especially if it is infrequently performed and identical elements similarity between the training and the work situation.
56
Career development theories are grouped into two categories. What are they?
Structural theory which focuses on the individual traits and occupational tasks
Developmental theory focuses on the development across life span
57
The major assumption of John Holland's theory is that ..
individuals and job traits can be matched and that close matches will correlate with success and satisfaction.
58
What are John Hollands six types of work environments. A (structural or developmental) model of career development. What is the acronym? They can be organized in the shape of a ____. Those next to each other are most ____ and those across from each other are most ___.
```
structural
RIASEC
1. Realistic
2. Investigative
3. Artistic
4. Social
5. Enterprising
6. Conventional
hexagon
similar
different
```
59
John Holland's RIASEC model is a _____ (structural or developmental) theory of career development. Describe "R".
structural
| R = Realistic = prefers physical activities, requires strength and coordination. mechanic, drill press operator, farmer
60
John Holland's RIASEC model is a _____ (structural or developmental) theory of career development. Describe "I".
structural
| I = Investigative = involve thinking, organizing, and understanding jobs. biologist, economist, news reporter
61
John Holland's RIASEC model is a _____ (structural or developmental) theory of career development. Describe "A".
structural
| A = Artistic = prefers ambiguous, unsystematic activities that allow creative expression. painter, musician, writer
62
John Holland's RIASEC model is a _____ (structural or developmental) theory of career development. Describe "S".
structural
S = Social = helping and developing others
social worker, teacher, clinical psychologist
63
John Holland's RIASEC model is a _____ (structural or developmental) theory of career development. Describe "E".
structural
| E = Enterprising = opportunity, influence others and get power. lawyer, real estate agent, small business manager
64
John Holland's RIASEC model is a _____ (structural or developmental) theory of career development. Describe "C".
structural
| C= Conventional - rule regulated, orderly, unambiguous activities. accountant, bank teller, file clerk
65
What is John Holland's concept of congruence?
the degree of match between personality and job = high congruence = correlates with high longevity on the job
66
What is John Holland's concept of consistency?
refers to how closely related the individual's first two codes are on the hexagon. The closer they are the higher the consistency, if opposite there is low consistency and low consistency lower stability in work history.
67
What is John Holland's concept of differentiation?
the more an individual is represented by one personality type, the more distinct the profile and the more differentiated. the less distinct and the more they fit into all categories, the harder it is to predict their behavior.
68
What is John Holland's concept of environment identity?
an indivdiual's view that the work environment has a clear and stable system of goals and rewards
69
What is John Holland's concept of vocational identity?
an individual's clarity and stability of one's own goals and interests. the higher the vocational identity, the easier i make desicions and with more confidence.
70
Donald Super posts a career development theory _____ that is (structural or developmental) ___and he outlines 5 stages of career development. (and ages)
```
career rainbow
developmental
1. growth (0 - 14)
2. exploratory (15-24)
3. establishment (25-44)
4. maintenance (45-64)
5. decline or disengagement (65+)
```
71
What is Donald Super's concept of career maturity?
the individual's ability to effectively master the tasks of a given stage in preparation for moving to the next stage.
72
Donald Super felt that career patters are determined by ___, ___, ___, ___.
1. socioeconomic factors
2. individual abilities
3. personal characteristics
4. opportunities to which persons are exposed
73
Donald Super viewed careers as a combination of 8 life roles.
1. son/daughter
2. learner
3. worker
4. spouse/friend
5. homemaker
6. parent/grandparent
7. leisurite
8. citizen
74
Donald Super proposed that individual expressed their ___ through their choice of vocation.
self concept
75
What is Kromboltz's social learning theory?
That people make career decisions based on what they have learned through modeling and reinforcement.
76
Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory of career development focuses on the processes of ___ and ____.
differentiation
| integration
77
Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory of career development focuses on the processes differentiation how?
making distinctions about the different aspects of oneself (characteristics one possesses) and the environment (seeing various aspects of a particular job not just one factor of it).
78
Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory of career development focuses on the processes integration how?
integration refers to unifying different aspects, and results in making better decisions, setting more refined goals, and developing more useful plans.
79
Schein developed a theory of career anchors according to which a person's self concept acts as a anchor or stabilizing force determining what future occupational decisions will be made. His research showed that people's self concepts or "career anchors" revolve around one of 8 categories.
1. autonomy / independence
2. security / stability
3. technical / functional competence
4. general managerial compentence
5. entrepeneurial creativity
6. service / dedication to a cause
7. pure challenge
8. lifestyle
(STAPLES-g)
80
What is scientific management? What's McGregor's term for this method of managing people?
From the early 20th century where foreman were promoted from the ranks with little training in leadership. It's autocratic, aggressive leadership. It's about treating people like machines and as lazy, dumb, and dishonest, to improve productivity.
Theory X
81
The Human Relations approach from the 1920's and 1930's under the impact of the Hawthorne studies stated what? What's McGregor's term for this method of managing people?
People find satisfaction with their work and control and punishment are not necessary for good performance. Rather it proposes that people are industrious and creative seeking challenge and responsibility. They fx best under a leadership style that is participative.
Theory Y
82
Meta-analyses have found those characteristics that do discriminate between effective and ineffective leaders include what qualities? (8)
1. drive
2. leader motivation (not for power)
3. honesty
4. integrity
5. self confidence
6. emotional stability
7. high cognitive ability
8. knowledge of company or industry
83
Which leaders have the highest levels of satisfaction versus production?
```
satisfaction = democratic
production = both autocratic and democratic
```
84
What is the Cognitive Resource Theory (Fiedler and Garcia)?
Proposes that a directive versus non directive approach of leadership will be more effective depending on the: cognitive resources of the employees as well as the stress level, experience of the leader, and group support for the leader.
85
How many situational or contingency theories of leadership are there? (5)
1. Fielder's Contingency LPC theory
2. Cognitive Resource Theory
3. Vromm and Yetton's NOrmative Model
4. House's Path-Goal Theory
5. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership
86
What is Vroom and _____'s Normative Model? How many methods of leadership does it look at? (5) What works best?
Yetton's
Focuses on decision making. The extent to which leaders allow subordinates to participate in the decision making process.
It looks at the following methods of leadership:
1. autocratic
2. consultative
3. group decision making with the leader
4. group decision making without the leader
5. autocratic with information
The most effective style depends on:
1. the importance of the decision
2. the degree to which subordinates accept it
3. time required to make the decision.
87
What is House's path-goal theory? Name all four styles.
leaders make paths to payoffs easier by clarifying and reducing road blocks. The focus is on finding out what each employee finds rewarding, assessing their strengths and weaknesses and helping them achieve their goals.
1. directive
2. supportive
3. achievement oriented
4. participative
88
What is Hersey and Blanchard's situational theory? Name all four styles.
This looks at employees' readiness to perform. If they are not ready, the leader should tell them what to do, if they are more ready, they need less task orientation from the leader.
1. telling
2. selling
3. participating
4. delegating
89
How many kinds of power are there and what are they? 5
1. Reward power - ability to provide rewards
2. Coercive power - the ability to punish
3. legitimate power - based on the hierarchy of the organization
4. referent power - based on identifying with, admiring or liking the person in leadership
4. expert power - expertise and skills
90
What is it called when you have expert and referent power? What does the research say in terms of the most important reasons for complying with a manager and the most negatively correlated with satisfaction?
expert + referent = incremental power - this is the most important reason to comply
coercive power is most negatively correlated with satisfaction
91
Two alternatives approaches to decision making are often cited:
1. Rational economic model - aka classical approach - clearly defining the problem, knowing all possible alternatives and consequences of choices, then choosing the optimal solution
2. administrative approach - aka behavioral approach - (herbert simon) the satisficing style, used when problems are ambiguous, only partial knowledge is available and first satisfactory alternative is chosen
92
What kinds of conflict are there?
interpersonal
intergroup
interorganizational
93
Conflict resolution can utilize a series of approaches what are they and what kind of authority are they related to?
1. lose-lose; compromise
2. win-lose; competition or authority
3. win-win; collaborative and problem solving situaitions
94
What kinds of negotiation are there?
1. two party
2. group
3. intergroup
4. among constintuencies (management v labor)
95
_____ negotiation involves parties claiming part of the pie. _____ negotiation involves attempting to enlarge the pie. ____ involves a third party who acts as a judge and issues binding decision after listening to both parties.
distributive
integrative/principled
arbitration
96
What is the difference between job enrichment and job enlargement? AKA what? Whose theory is it? What does it lead to?
Herzberg's
AKA vertical loading
enRICHment involves expanding jobs to give employees a greater role in planning and performing their work and providing an opportunity to build satisfiers into job content. Increasing autonomy, authority and freedom, encouraging employees to take on new, challenging tasks.
EnRICHment leads to:
+ increased satisfaction and performance
- decreased turnover and abstenteism
Job EnLARGEment
horizontal loading
Expands tasks without increasing responsibility or autonomy
+ increases satisfaction and very slightly affects job performance
97
What is Alderfer's ERG theory? Whose theory is it based on? What other theory underlies this theory? What does research say about people with more educated parents? And what does it say about women versus men in terms of needs?
```
Based on Maslow's theory
E= existence
R = relatedness
G= growth
instead of arranging needs hierarchically because he believes all needs influence a person at the same time
```
The theory of frustration-regression- if a person is frustrated they will regress towards a previously met need whereas Maslow's theory is that meeting a need makes that need makes that need even stronger
People with parents with more education have higher growth needs.
Women have lower existence needs and higher relatedness needs as compared to men.
98
What is Mcclelland's acquired needs theory? What are the three significant work related needs?
this theory states that needs are acquired over time
nACH: the need for achievement, the desire to do something better, solve problems, master tasks
nAFF: the need for affiliation, the desire to establish and maintain friendly relations
nPOWER: the desire to control, influence and be responsible for others
99
A high nACH, part of ____ theory, has been correlated highly with ____ of a company. Characteristics of people with a high need to achieve include (3) things:
Mcclelland's acquired need theory
1. favoring a work environment where they can assume responsibility for problem solving
2. setting moderate attainable goals
3. needing recognition and feedback about their progress.
100
What are the "needs" theories?
1. Maslow's need hierarchy
2. Herzberg's two factor theory
3. Alderfer's ERG theory
4. Mcclelland's acquired needs theory
101
What are the cognitive theories of motivation?
1. General expectancy theory
2. Adam's equity theory
3. Locke's goal setting approach
102
What is the general expectancy theory a ____ theory of _____. Also known as ?
cognitive theory of motivation
Vroom's Valence-Instrumentality Expectancy (VIE)
People behave in ways based on their perceived expectancy that certain rewards will follow
103
Vroom's VIE theory, also known as _____ theory a ____ theory of motivation what does VIE stand for?
general expectancy theory
cognitive theory of motivation
Expectancy = refers to the expectancy of success on the task - we decide how likely my efforts will result in the desired achievement on task performance
then
Insrtumentality= instrumentality of rewards - the probability that rewards will follow my performance
then
Valence = the value the reward has for me - is the reward worth it?
104
Adam's Equity a theory a _____ theory of _____ states what?
cognitive theory of motivation
based on social comparison theory
we adjust our performance based on things appearing fair or unfair
105
Locke's goal setting approach, a _____ theory of ____ states what? What is the determining factor in employees reaching their goals?
cognitive theory of motivation
goal setting is based on five principles
1. goals should be specific
2. goals should be of intermediate/high level of difficulty
3. workers must receive feedback
4. a sense of self efficacy will increase performance
5. employees must accept goals
If they agree on their goals.
106
According to the research on reinforcement and motivation in the work place what do people usually do related to reinforcers, punishments, and reinforcement that is neither rewarding or punishing? What types of rewards are strongly correlated with performance and satisfaction and which are not?
1. people perform actions that have rewarding outcomes
2. people avoid actions with punishing outcomes
3. stop performing things that have neither
Performance-contingent rewards = +performance/satisfaction
Non-performance contingent rewards and punishment = not linked to performance/satisfaction
107
---% of job satisfaction may be linked to genetic factors.
30-40%
108
What is the relationship between pay and satisfaction according to:
Maslow, McClelland, Herzberg
Maslow=may meet physiological or safety need but could meet esteem needs.
McClelland's acquired needs theory: money is an important source of feedback for nACH, or a source of control for the nPOWER, and if it comes in the form of a group bonus, may meet nAFF.
Herzberg notes that adequate salary might meet lower level needs and prevent dissatisfaction while merit pay might meet upper level needs and increase satisfaction.
109
```
The research has shown the following about job satisfaction and the following:
age
gender
race
occupational level
health
```
age: job satisfaction increases with age regardless of type of work or gender
gender: no findings
race: whites more satisfied than minorities and most significant among managers
occupational level - the higher the level the higher job satisfaction
health - correlation between job satisfaction and physical and mental health
110
The research has shown the following about job satisfaction and the following:
productivity
absenteeism/turnover
pay
productivity: weak positive correlation between satisfaction and productivity (so the more satisfied, you may perform a tiny bit better not much)
absenteism/turnover: satisfaction = moderate negative correlation (the more satisfied, there is moderately less absenteism/turnover)
pay: positive correlation satisfaction - the more pay the more satisfied
111
The research says the following about absenteism and
sex
company size
age
gender: woman are absent more
company size: less of it in smaller companies
age: older workers have more unavoidable absences but less avoidable absences and less turnover
112
```
The research says the following about turnover:
tenure
pay and opportunity for promotion
routine work
productivty
```
tenure: the more tenure the less turnover
pay/opp for promotion: more pay and opp the less turnover
routine work: higher turnover
productivity: no relationship
113
What are two job related factors that affect motivation and satisfaction?
1. Human factors approach - concerned with the physical aspect of the job. Ways to maximize speed and minimized wasted movement. operater-machine system how humans and machines work together to accomplish a job.
2. The psychological approach - assumes efficiency and effectiveness are correlated with satisfaction and people meeting their self actualization needs
114
What are the four types of organizational structures? And what is the trend?
1. traditional - or typical bureaucracy / hierarchical
2. Project - centered on specific products or services (product lines versus disciplines)
3. team - centered on work teams that report to upper mgt
4. multidimensional - > 1 type of structure
trend: away from traditional and toward multidimensional
away from centralizing power and towards sharing authority and decision making
115
The participative organization style rests on three assumptions. What are they?
1. human relations - people want to participate - if they participate they will accept change more easily and will be more satisfied and committed to the organization
2. human resources - people are valuable bc they have knowledge and ideas, when people participate in decisions the result is better solutions
3. high involvement - people can be trusted to develop knowledge and skills in order to make important decisions about management and their work
116
What are two participative programs? What are their affects on satisfaction and performance?
1. Quality of work life program (QWL) - teams meet weekly to discuss problems in their areas of responsibility for quality of working life - greater effect on satisfaction than performance
2. Quality Control circles (QCC) - conerned with ways to improve the finished product and level of production. EEs must be allowed to participate in decisions affecting the nature of the work and the way it is performed. These groups increase in production and satisfaction and decreases absenteeism and turnover.
117
Organizational development focuses on total organization change and on ____ ways to bring about planned change.The goal is assist the organization to adapt to a ____, ____, and _____. OD is an application of behavioral science knowledge in a long-range effort to increase the organization's ability to ____ and to increase ____.
systemic
changing work environment, improve its ability to respond to future changes, help ees develop a new sense of purpose for their organization.
cope with change in the external environment
increase internal problem solving
118
In terms of organizational culture, the research shows that companies with high involvement and high participation ____ those companies without it.
outperform
119
Name two types of communication networks. What are the pro's and con's of each? What leads to more satisfication and what is the trend?
1. centralized - one person in the middle gets all the information. Best for simple tasks and fairly rapid communication
2. decentralized - all members communicate - best for problem solving and communication however communication is slower - more satisfaction and is the trend
120
What are informal groups and what is a related effect?
Not officially designated by the organization but are an organization within the organization. This group determines its own standards.
A related effect is the social loafing or Ringelmann effect which states that people don't work as hard in a group as they do on their own.
121
What are the factors that influence cohesiveness in groups? (6). Being part of a group affects satisfaction, turnover, absenteeism, and strain how?
1. size (larger the less cohesive)
2. diversity (more diverse less cohesive)
3. difficulty joining the group (increases cohesiveness)
4. team rewards (increase cohesiveness)
5. outside pressures and threats (increase cohesiveness)
6. frequent interactions (increase cohesiveness)
+ satisfaction
- turnover
- absenteeism
- job strain
122
What are the stages of group development?
1. forming
2. storming
3. norming
4. performing
5. adjourning
123
What is an additive task?
group members separate performance are added to produce combined effects
124
What is a disjunctive task?
the outcome is affected by the performance of the most effective group member
("dis" guy was the best guy!)
125
What is a conjunctive task?
a group's performance is limited by the performance of the least effective member
("con" we're being judged by a "con")
126
In terms of group effectiveness, he research has found that: ____ make better decisions than ____ when it comes to problems with multiple parts that are susceptible to division of labor. ___ groups make better decisions than __- groups hwoever there can be problems of cohension in ____. The ideal group size for decision making is ____. In situations requiring deliberation (juries), a ____ number of people is more effective. Groups work best when ____ goals are more important to members than ____ goals.
```
groups better than individuals
HETEROgeneous groups make better decisions thatn HOMOgeneous groups but there's less cohesion in HETERogeneous groups.
5-7 members
even
common
individual
```
127
Brainstorming is best done ____ than _____.
alone
| in groups
128
What is risky shift?
People make riskier decisions in a group than alone.
129
What is response polarization?
the tendency for people in groups to become more extreme in their views
130
What is groupthink? They are looking for what?
concurrence, consensus, and unanimity
people think alike and lose their critical evaluative capacities due to social pressures to conform
131
```
How do the following affect employee attitudes and performance?
temperature and humidity
illumination
noise
color
music
```
temperature/humidity: performance, quality and quantity of performance declines as these increase
illumination -
1. lighting is a source of distress
2. optimal levels of lighting depends on the nature of the task
3. older workers need brighter lights
4. it can affect people's feelings
5. most people feel better with several lamps rather than one overhead light
noise:
1. loud noises are threatening to hear
2. >85DB some hearing loss; > 120DB temporary deafness; >130 DB permanent deafness
3. intermittent noise is more distracting and people can adjust to constant or continuous noise
4. perception of ability to control noise is more important than the actual ability to control noise
color: blues and greens are soothing, red = excitement, yellow and orange = alertness, gray is depressing
music: for less demanding jobs music increases production slightly but for more demanding work there is NO research on it.
132
What are nominal working hours versus actual working hours? What does the research say about longer workdays or workweeks?
```
nominal = hours at the job
working = hours spend getting the work done
```
longer days = less productive (even for highly motivated workers)
133
The pro's and con's of compressed work weeks (four 10's). What % of people use this?
20%
1. - anxiety
2. - turnover
3. + satisfaction
4. + fatigue and complaints from customers
initial positive effects on productivity which wear off over time
134
The pro's and con's of flextime? What % of people use this?
40%
| mixed results
135
The pro's and con's of rest breaks?
+morale and productivity
- fatigue and boredom
maximum effect if taken during the fourth and eight hour
136
In terms of shift work? What is preferred? What is most healthy?
Most prefer day shift.
Increased error during the night shift
Afternoon and night shifts are more stressful.
Night shifts correlated with more health problems.
Rotating shifts are the most detrimental to health.
137
Regarding work and safety, what workers are most likely to have on the job accidents? What works the best to keep safety up?
the ones who have experienced the highest levels of stress in their lives
safety incentive programs reduce occupational accidents
