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1
Q

SPEC VIS PER AIRCRAFT CATEGORIES

A

A: 1SM
B: 1 1/2SM
C: 2SM
D: 2SM

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2
Q

Alternate Minimas

A

2 PA: 400-1 or +200, +1/2
1 PA: 600-2 or +300, +1
NPA only: 800-2 or +300, +1
No IFR: 500ft above a minimum IFR altitude to permit a VFR approach/landing

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3
Q

Aircraft Categories

A

A:0-90 KIAS
B:91-120 KIAS
C:121-140 KIAS
D:141-165 KIAS
E:Above 165 KIAS

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4
Q

VOR Reception Range Formula

A

1.23 x Racine Carrée Height AGL

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5
Q

VOR Time to Station formula

A

Time to station (mins) = Time to cross radials in seconds / # of radials crossed

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6
Q

VOR Distance to the Station Formula

A

Distance to Station (NM) = (GS in knots x Time to Station in mins) / 60

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7
Q

NBD Bearing to Station Formula

A

BTS = RB + MH

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8
Q

Rate of Climb from Climb Gradient and Ground speed formula

A

RoC = (Climb Gradient x GS) / 60

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9
Q

3 degrees glide slope Rate of Descent from Ground speed Formula

A

RoD = GS in Knots x 5

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10
Q

Rate 1 turn Angle of Bank formula

A

Angle = (TAS in knots/ 10) + 7
Or
Angle = (TAS in mph/10) + 5

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11
Q

Slant Range

A

Slant Range au carré = Ground Distance au carré + Altitude au carré

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12
Q

RAIM Alert limit

A

2NM Enroute
1NM Terminal
0.3 NPA

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13
Q

GNSS RNAV Accuracy Tolerance

A

5NM Enroute
1NM Terminal
0.3 NPA

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14
Q

Altitude to fly in Mountainous Regions

A

Area 1 & 5: 2000ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM
Area 2,3 & 4: 1500ft above the highest obstacle within 5NM

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15
Q

ILS LOC Limits

A

10NM, within 35 degrees of centerline
18NM, within 10 degrees of centerline

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16
Q

Alternate with GFA only

A

No clouds lower than 1000ft above the lowest usable HAT/HAA
No cumulonimbus
At least 3SM visibility

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17
Q

Ground visilbiity / RVR

A

1SM = 5000ft RVR
3/4 SM = 4000ft RVR
1/2 SM = 2600ft RVR
1/4 SM = 1400ft RVR

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18
Q

Departure procedures premises for obstacle clearance

A
  • overfly end of rwy at at least 35 ft
  • climb rwy heading to at least 400ft AAE before turning
  • minimum climb gradient 200ft/NM
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19
Q

The Aerodrome operating visibility
At sites with an active Air Traffic Control (ATC) Tower

A

For arrivals and departures, the aerodrome operating visibility is in accordance with the
following hierarchy:
1. Runway Visual Range (RVR) for the runway of intended use
2. Ground visibility (METAR)
3. Tower visibility
4. Pilot visibility

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20
Q

The Aerodrome operating visibility At sites without an active ATC Tower (arrival and departures)

A

For arrivals, the aerodrome operating visibility is in accordance with the following hierarchy:
1. Runway Visual Range (RVR) for the runway of intended use
2. Ground visibility (METAR)
3. Pilot visibility

For departures, the aerodrome operating visibility is the lowest of the following visibilities:
* Ground visibility (METAR)
* Any reported RVR
* Pilot visibility

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21
Q

Take off visibility hierarchy

A

Take-off visibility, in order of precedence, is defined as:
1. the reported RVR of the runway to be used (unless the RVR is fluctuating above and below
the minimum or less than the minimum because of a localized phenomena); or
2. the reported ground visibility of the aerodrome (if the RVR is unavailable, fluctuating above
and below the minimum or less than the minimum because of localized phenomena. A local
phenomenon is deemed to be occurring if the RVR readout is less than the reported ground
visibility); or
3. when neither (1) nor (2) above is available, the visibility for the runway of departure as
observed by the pilot-in-command.

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22
Q

When planning a GPS approach for your alternate, the lowest minimums to use on the plate are:

A

LNAV

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23
Q

IFR Default Transponder Codes when ATC hasn’t assigned one ?

A

Hi-level airspace: 2000
Low-level airspace: 1000

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24
Q

Winter warm front precipitations in order (from East to West)

A

Snow, Ice Pellets/Sleet, FZ RA, RA

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25
What is the meaning of X on an ILS approach chart
Localizer is more than 3 degrees from the centerline
26
What is the minimum obstacle clearance (height and distance) in a non-mountainous area
1000ft, 5NM
27
Where a satellite-based approach is planned at both the destination and alternate, the aerodromes are separated by a minimum of:
* 75 NM where both aerodromes are in either Nunavut, or north of 56 degrees North latitude in Quebec and Labrador; * 100 NM where either or both aerodromes are located anywhere else in Canada
28
VOR Receiver Checks Tolerance
4 degrees on the ground 6 degrees in the air
29
Speed Adjustment from ATC Tolerance
+/- 10 knots
30
Altimeter error tolerance
+/- 50ft
31
RVR location by types
A: Near the threshold B: Mid-point of the runway
32
INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR) REPORTING PROCEDURES AT UNCONTROLLED AERODROMES
The pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft who intends to conduct an approach to or a landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome shall report (a) the pilot-in-command’s intentions regarding the operation of the aircraft (i) five minutes before the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure, stating the estimated time of landing, (ii) when commencing a circling manoeuvre, and (iii) as soon as practicable after initiating a missed approach procedure; and (b) the aircraft’s position (i) when passing the fix outbound, where the pilot-in-command intends to conduct a procedure turn or, if no procedure turn is intended, when the aircraft first intercepts the final approach course, (ii) when passing the final approach fix or three minutes before the estimated time of landing where no final approach fix exists, and (iii) on final approach.
33
PIREP Headings
Normal: UACN10 Emergency: UACN01 or UUA
34
PAPI EWH
AP: 0-10ft P1: 0-10ft P2: 10-25ft P3: 25-45ft
35
When to notice ATC when planned cruise level TAS is changed by PIC
When TAS is changed by more than +/- 5%
36
1000ft-on-top rules
1 000-ft-on-top IFR flight may be conducted provided that (a) the flight is made at least 1 000 ft above all cloud, haze, smoke, or other formation; (b) the flight visibility above the formation is at least three miles; (c) the top of the formation is well defined; (d) the altitude appropriate to the direction of flight is maintained when cruising in level flight; (e) the “1 000-ft-on-top” flight has been authorized by the appropriate ATC unit; and (f) the aircraft will operate within Class B airspace at or below 12 500 ft ASL, Class C, D, or E airspace.
37
Contact Approach Requirements
(a) the pilot requests it; and (b) there is an approved functioning instrument approach or a published GNSS approach for the airport. at least 1 NM flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions the aircraft shall be flown at an altitude of at least 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal radius of 5 NM from the estimated position of the aircraft in flight until the required visual reference is acquired in order to conduct a normal landing.
38
Visual Approach Requirements
the pilot may request a visual approach, or ATC may initiate one, provided that: (a) the reported ceiling at the destination airport is 500 ft or more above the minimum IFR altitude and the ground visibility is 3 statute miles or more; (b) at a controlled or uncontrolled airport, the pilot reports sighting the airport; and (c) at a controlled airport, (i) the pilot reports sighting the preceding aircraft and is instructed by ATC to follow that aircraft; or (ii) the pilot reports sighting the airport but not the preceding aircraft, in which case ATC will ensure separation from the preceding aircraft until: (A) the preceding aircraft has landed; or (B) the pilot has sighted the preceding aircraft and has been instructed to follow or maintain visual separation from it. No missed approach procedure
39
How much time in advance you can call CLR DEL before starting engines
no more than 5 min
40
IFR Fuel Requirements
- Fly to destination + approach + missed approach - Fly to alternate - 45 min reserve - Contingency fuel
41
Front passage & Expected pressure variations
Cold front: - Before: pressure falls - During: Sharp rise - After: Pressure rise steadily Warm front: - Before: Pressure falls gradually - During: Pressure levels off - After: Slight rises, then falls
42
An IFR departure is determined by...
Visibility only
43
When "Radar Identified" who is responsible for Terrain clearance?
PIC
44
What is the minimum obstacle clearance when on a circling approach?
300ft
45
What does "Cancelling IFR" mean?
It cancels ATC's IFR separation requirements.
46
What is the full scale deflection of a LOC and GS?
LOC: +/- 2.5, GS: +/- 0.7
47
You must advise ATC ASAP, if your ETA changes by ______.
3 min
48
What does the letter 'A' mean on a 'LOC A' approach?
It means the final approach track is misaligned more than 30 degrees off the runway.
49
What is required for all LPV approaches.
WAAS
50
When approach to land over dark terrain with no lights, what is the illusion name, what will the pilot thinks he is and what will he do:
Black Hole Effect Illusion: Too High Wrong correction: Too low/Undershoot
51
SIGMET is issued in response to the following criteria
Significant meteorological information (SIGMET) is issued in response to the following criteria (the abbreviations are shown in all capital letters): (a) Thunderstorms: (i) Frequent (FRQ TS); (ii) Frequent with hail (FRQ TSGR); (iii) Frequent with hail and possible tornado/waterspout (FRQ TSGR POSS +FC); (iv) Frequent with hail and tornado/waterspout (FRQ TSGR +FC); (v) Squall line (SQLN TS); (vi) Squall line with hail (SQLN TSGR); (vii) Squall line with possible tornado/waterspout (SQLN TSGR POSS +FC); (viii) Squall line with tornado/waterspout (SQLN TSGR +FC); (b) Severe turbulence (SEV TURB); (c) Severe icing (SEV ICE); (d) Severe icing due to freezing rain (SEV ICE [FZRA]); (e) Severe mountain wave (SEV MTW); (f) Low-level wind shear (L LVL WS); (g) Heavy dust storm (HVY DS); (h) Heavy sandstorm (HVY SS); (i) Radioactive cloud (RDOACT CLD); (j) Volcanic ash (VA); (k) Tropical cyclone (TC).
52
SIGMETs are valid for up to _____.
4 hours
53
Class B airspace
Class B airspace is any controlled airspace between 12,501 ft (3,810 m) or at and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to 17,999 ft. Occasionally, Class B airspace exists in other locations, though this is unusual. For entry into Class B airspace, an aircraft needs a functional Mode C transponder and either an IFR or a CVFR (Controlled VFR) clearance.
54
CDI in RNAV mode in one dot indicates _____ either side of centreline.
1NM
55
Accuracy of the DME system is within _________.
0.5 NM
56
What is the CDI full scale deviation of the RNAV system?
5 NM en route
57
On an RNAV GNSS B approach plate. What does the B indicate?
It means the approach is greater than 3 degrees from final approach course
58
What is the full scale combined deviation of the RNAV system?
10 NM en route
59
What is the temperature range for Clear icing to occur?
0 to -20°C
60
Max holdings speeds in Canada
At or below 6000ft: 200kt Above 6000ft to including 14000ft: 230kt Above 14000ft: 265kt
61
NDB Accuracy
±5˚ for an approach and ±10˚ for en route
62
Times of useful consciousness at altitudes
10,000ft: Hours 20,000ft: 5-12 minutes 30,000ft: 45-75 seconds 40,000ft: 13-30 seconds 45,000ft and above: 12-15 seconds or less
63
Ice Pellets means _____ aloft
FZRA
64
TS should be avoided by ____
20NM
65
Floors of hi-level controlled areas
Southern: 18000ft Northern: FL230 Arctic: FL270
66
VHF/UHF Airways dimensions
Width: 4NM Diverging: 4.5 degrees Up to: 50.8 NM
67
LF/MF Airways dimensions
Width: 4.34NM Diverging: 5 degrees Up to: 49.66 NM
68
A VASIS consists of a series of lights visible from approximately ____ provided with safe obstruction clearance to a minimum of ______ on either side of the extended runway centreline out to ______ from the runway threshold.
4NM 6 degrees 4.1NM
69
Altimeter setting is considered current up to:
90 min
70
Lightning strike highest probability between temperatures:
-5 to +5 degrees celsius
71
Pressure charts altitudes
850mb: 5000ft 700mb: 10,000ft 500mb: 18,000ft 250mb: 34,000ft
72
RVR Bans
RVR A: 1200ft RVR A & B: 1200/600ft RVR B only: 1200ft Exceptions: 1) you are already passed the FAF or in the final approach course where no FAF 2) Training flight 3) Fluctuating RVR 4) Ground visibility is at least 1/4SM 5) CAT III approach
73
How do you call the illusion of the AC pitching up when accelerating
Somatogravic
74
Water on windshield illusion
You'll think you are higher than you actually are
75
Increased performance shear: what to do ?
reduce power then increase power
76
Decreased performance shear: what to do ?
Increase power then reduce power
77
Departure procedures premises
- cross at least 35 ft above departure end of rwy - climb rwy heading to 400ft AAE before turning - climb gradient at least 200ft / NM
78

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