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1
Q

What is the wingspan of the 400F / -8?

A

213 feet (64.9 meters) 224.5 feet (68.4 meters)

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2
Q

With body gear steering, what is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn of the 400F / -8?

A

4 153 feet (46.6 meters)
8 172feet(52.4meters)

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3
Q

What happens when you rotate the Oxygen Mask Emergency/Test selector to emergency?

A

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes, and protects against smoke and harmful vapors

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4
Q

With the Emergency (EMER) Lights Switch ARMED, when do the emergency lights illuminate?

A

If airplane electrical power (DC) fails or is turned off.

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5
Q

What is the electrical power source for the emergency lighting system, and for what duration?

A

Remote batteries for 15 minutes

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6
Q

Where is the portable ELT located on the -400 freighter?

A

Upper deck lavatory exterior wall

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7
Q

Give examples of Immediate Action Items on the Quick Reference Checklist.

A
  • CABIN ALTITUDE-Rapid Depressurization
  • ENG 1,2,3,4 AUTOSTART-Aborted Engine start
  • Engine Limit or Surge or Stall
  • IAS DISAGREE-Airspeed Unreliable
  • FIRE ENG 1,2,3,4-Engine Severe Damage or Separation
  • Multiple Engine Flameout or Stall
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8
Q

What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component for the -400/-8 and LCF?

A
  • 15 knots (LCF-10 KTS)
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9
Q

What is maximum headwind component for autoland?

A

25 knots

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10
Q

What are maximum and minimum glideslope angles for ILS autoland?

A

3.25 degrees (max); 2.5 degrees (min)

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11
Q

What VNAV limitation applies to level‐off within 2,000 feet after changing the altimeter setting from QNE to QNH, or QNH to QNE?

A

Do not use VNAV for level‐off if the QNH is less than 29.70in/1006 hPa.

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12
Q

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below what RA altitude?

A
  • 100 feet RA
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13
Q

What is turbulent air penetration speed -400 and -8?

A
  • 290 to 310 KIAS/0.82 to 0.85 Mach, whichever is lower.
  • 310 KTS/0.83 Mach.
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14
Q

What is the minimum in-flight fuel temperature for the -8?

A

-48◦C

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15
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?

A
  • 20,000 feet
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16
Q

Are operations allowed when the reported braking action is NIL?

A

NO

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17
Q

Name some places you can you can find the maximum takeoff and landing weights for the aircraft you are operating?

A
  • Page one of the OFP
  • FCOM Vol 1 Limitations
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18
Q

What is the Difference in the Basic Operating Weight (BOW) on the Operational Flight Plan (OFP) and the Sable Loadsheet? Is there a difference between the Sable and OFP final calculated ZFW and TOGW?

A

OFP:
* BOW (OFP) – Basic Operating Weight ( includes weight of all cockpit and cabin crew)

Sable Loadsheet:
* BOW (Sable) – Basic Operating Weight ( Acft basic wt + 2 crew)

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19
Q

What BTMS number on the GEAR synoptic display will cause an EICAS advisory message of BRAKE TEMP?

A

5 or more

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20
Q

On the 400F, 400C and -8, the Final Upper Deck/Cockpit Procedure requires the FO to do what with the Smoke Barrier Door?

A

Ensure the door is closed and all three security locks are moved to the locked position.

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21
Q

In the normal mode, what does the EEC use as the controlling parameter for the GE engines? For PW engines?

A

N1
EPR

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22
Q

What protection features are provided in the EEC Normal mode?

A
  • Thrust limiting
  • Maintains constant thrust
  • Over-speed protection
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23
Q

What occurs with the auto-throttle system when any EEC control is switched to alternate mode?

A

The auto-throttles disconnect, but can be reconnected when all EECs have been switched to alternate mode.

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24
Q

What EEC normal mode protection feature is not available in EEC Alternate mode?

A

Thrust limiting at maximum N1 (maximum thrust can be achieved prior to thrust lever position at full forward)

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25
Q

When does the EEC select approach idle?

A
  • Nacelle anti-ice is ON
  • Flaps in a landing position
  • Continuous ignition switch is ON
  • During thrust reverser operation
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26
Q

What action should be taken prior to manual selection of EEC alternate mode?

A
  • Decrease thrust lever position.
    Note: Thrust does not change when the EEC auto transfers control from normal mode to alternate mode.
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27
Q

What happens when you turn the Continuous (CON) IGNITION Switch ON?

A
  • Selected igniters operate continuously * Commands approach idle minimum
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28
Q

What two engine indications are displayed full time on the Primary EICAS on a GE?

A
  • N1 & EGT
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29
Q

What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start or takeoff limit is reached?

A

Red

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30
Q

If the airborne vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source of the vibration (FAN,LPT,NT) it will display “BB”. What does this mean?

A
  • Broadband
    ➢ Broadband vibration is the average vibration detected
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31
Q

What 3 items will the autostart system protect the engine from during and engine start that also will result in an ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 AUTOSTART EICAS message ?

A
  • Hot start
  • Hung start
  • No EGT rise
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32
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the GE Engine?

A

Pneumatically actuated fan air.

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33
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the PW engine?

A

Powered by hydraulic pressure from the related hydraulic system to actuate the fan air thrust reversers

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34
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the GEnx B747-8?

A

Hydraulically actuated fan air.

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35
Q

With an engine shut down, what does “X‐BLD” indicate when displayed next to the N2 indication?

A

Crossbleed air is recommended for in-flight start.

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36
Q

When is ignition selected for all engines?

A
  1. Trailing edge flaps are out of the up position
  2. Continuous ignition switch is ON
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37
Q

How many igniters are selected for ground start, and how many for in-flight start?

A
  • One igniter for ground start
  • Two for in-flight start
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38
Q

What are the PW engine warm up requirements for oil temperature before takeoff?

A
  • above the lower amber band
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39
Q

GENX2B67 engine EEC’s command ice crystal anti icing when ice crystal icing conditions are detected at altitudes higher than __?

A
  • 30,000 feet
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40
Q

GENX2B67 engine ice crystal anti icing cycle continues for __ minutes as long as ICI conditions are detected or airplane descends below _____ feet?

A
  • 15 minutes
  • 28,000 feet
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41
Q

When does GENX2B67 engine selects minimum or approach idle?

A
  • Engine Anti-Ice ON
  • Landing Gear Down
  • Flaps 20 selected
  • Flap in landing position
  • Thrust Reverser operation
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42
Q

Under what condition on the ground will the GEnx EEC shutdown an engine to provide protection against thrust asymmetry due to a control malfunction?

A

➢ Thrust lever at/near idle and,
➢ Engine above command N1 speed and not
decelerating normally

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43
Q

During engine start when will the GEnx engine provide additional 40 seconds of motoring time at 20% N2?

A
  • Engine shutdown between 30-360 minutes
  • EGT is greater than 30◦C
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44
Q

During engine start the GEnx engine EEC will attempt corrective action for the following conditions:

A
  • hot start
  • hung start
  • no EGT rise
  • compressor stall
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45
Q

GEnx engine inflight start attempt will increase EGT limit by 25°C after 4 start attempts and will repeat this action on subsequent reattempts until?

A
  • Start is achieved or EGT limit is reached
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46
Q

When does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING display?

A

When the APU selector is ON and APU N1 RPM exceeds 95% N1.

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47
Q

Is electrical power available from the APU in flight?

A

No

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48
Q

Can the APU be operated in flight?

A
  • Yes
  • When left running for takeoff it can be operated in
    flight up to 20,000 feet
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49
Q

How long should you wait before turning the battery switch OFF after the APU selector is rotated to OFF, and why?

A
  • 2 minutes
  • Allows a complete shutdown sequence, with fire
    detection capability.
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50
Q

What are the Main AC electrical power sources on the LCF aircraft?

A
  • Four IDGs
  • Two external power sources
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51
Q

What is the function of the Standby Power Switch in the Auto Position?

A
  • Allows the main and APU standby busses to be powered from available sources.
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52
Q

What does the “AVAIL” light indicate on the External and APU PWR switches?

A

The related power source (APU or EXT) is plugged in and available and the power quality is acceptable.

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53
Q

When is the main cargo deck handling bus powered?

A

When the “AVAIL” light is displayed on the APU 2 or EXT 2 switches.

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54
Q

What electrical power source provides power for the lower lobe cargo handling, fueling panel, and AUX 4 hydraulic pump?

A

EXT PWR 1 or APU GEN 1 is AVAIL or selected ON (powering the Ground Handling bus)

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55
Q

What are some of the equipment items powered by the Utility busses?

A
  • 5 fuel pumps
  • Galley equipment
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56
Q

What happens when you push a Generator Drive Disconnect (DRIVE DISC) switch?

A

*Disconnects IDG from engine when above idle speed
* Opens related Generator Control Breaker (GCB)

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57
Q

What condition would automatically disconnect the IDG if not manually disconnected by the flight crew?

A

Excessively high drive oil temperature

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58
Q

What does a Bus Isolation (ISLN) light illuminated indicate?

A
  • BTB open
  • AC bus isolated from synchronous bus
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59
Q

How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?

A
  • Maintenance action is required
  • The IDG cannot be restored by flight crew action
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60
Q

How is the electrical system configured during an automatic ILS approach (autoland)?

A
  • AC and DC busses 1, 2, and 3 are isolated from the sync bus
  • AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus
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61
Q

What are the main AC electrical power sources.

A

*Four IDGs
*Two auxiliary power sources (APU generators)
*Two external power sources

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62
Q

What does the hydraulic system (SYS FAULT) fault light indicate?

A
  • Low hydraulic system pressure
  • Low hydraulic reservoir quantity
  • Excessive hydraulic fluid temperature

(2 Lows & a High)

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63
Q

What does a hydraulic demand pump low PRESS light indicate?

A
  • Demand pump selector positioned to OFF or AUX
  • Demand pump operates and output pressure is low
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64
Q

When will the demand pumps be commanded to operate if the hydraulic demand pump selector is in the AUTO position?

A
  • Demand pumps operate when respective engine pump output pressure is low, or when respective fuel control switch is in CUTOFF.
  • Demand pumps 1&4 when trailing edge flaps are in transit on the ground or continuously when flaps extended past 1 in flight.
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65
Q

On GE -400 aircraft, which demand pumps are air driven, and which ones are electric motor driven?

A
  • Systems 1 and 4 are air driven pumps.
  • Systems 2 and 3 are electric driven pumps.
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66
Q

On N480MC/N445/446MC which demand pumps are air driven, and which ones are electric motor driven?

A
  • There are no electric driven demand pumps. Systems 1, 2, 3, and 4 are pneumatic air driven demand pumps
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67
Q

What does a magenta “RF” displayed next to a hydraulic quantity indicator on the Secondary EICAS mean?

A

The reservoir requires refill (only displays on ground)

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the auxiliary pump?

A

Used for ground handling operations

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69
Q

When is the engine driven hydraulic pump pressurized?

A
  • The engine is running
  • The engine pump switch is ON
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70
Q

What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of 0.95 mean, as displayed on the Secondary EICAS display?

A

Percentage of normal service level (1.00)

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71
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 1?

A

picture

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72
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 4?

A

picture

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73
Q

How many ENGINE fire extinguishers are provided?

A

2 on each wing (4 TOTAL)

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74
Q

FIRE CARGO FWD: Pressing the FWD cargo fire ARM switch causes what actions?

A

➢ Additional information
❖ Two packs are automatically shut
down
❖ arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
❖ configures equipment cooling to override mode and turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
❖ closes master trim air valve

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75
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments.

A

4 fire extinguisher bottles are provided.

➢ Additional information
❖Pushing the Cargo Fire Discharge switch discharges
two bottles immediately. The other two bottles discharge after a brief delay, or upon touchdown.

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76
Q

How many APU fire bottles are provided?

A

1

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77
Q

What action discharges the APU fire extinguisher?

A

Rotate - discharges APU fire extinguisher into APU compartment.

➢ Additional information
❖ On the ground, the APU
extinguisher automatically discharges on N408MC - N418MC, N-PA, N475MC – N477MC, N489MC, N492- N499MC, N850GT-N859GT

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78
Q

Can you shut down the APU from outside the airplane?

A

Yes

➢ Additional information
❖ Located in the right body gear well is the APU Ground Control
Fire Protection Panel. This panel has an APU stop switch, and APU Extinguisher Discharge Switch.

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79
Q

Is there smoke detection provided for the Crew Rest areas?

A

Yes

➢ Smoke detectors are installed in the crew rest areas. An aural warning sounds in the crew rest compartment when smoke is detected in that compartment.

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80
Q

What happens when you push the CARGO FIRE Depressurization Switch with the MAIN deck fire switch ARMED?

A

Initiates airplane depressurization

➢ Additional information
❖MAIN selected to - ARMED -
DEPRESS
✓ enables main deck fire suppression
✓ turns off two packs
✓ configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow
to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments ✓ closes master trim air valve

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81
Q

What unlocks an engine fire switch?

A
  1. Fire warning
  2. FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF
  3. Pushing the fire override switch
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82
Q

Is the engine fire/overheat detection system a single loop or dual loop system?

A

Dual loop

➢ Additional information
❖ A dual loop fire detector is installed in each engine nacelle. In
addition, each engine has a dual loop overheat detector. In normal operation, both loops in a detector must detect a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine fire warning or overheat caution unless configured for single loop operation.

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83
Q

What does arming the FWD CARGO fire switch will do on the Passenger aircraft?

A
  • Arms cargo fire extinguisher
  • Configures equipment cooling to override mode
    and turns off airflow and heat to forward
    compartment
  • Turns off PACK 3
  • Turns off nitrogen generation system
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84
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for fire fighting in the FWD and AFT cargo compartments of the 747-8 aircraft?

A

6

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85
Q

How is Center Wing Tank Fuel scavenged?

A

CWT fuel is scavenged by 4 jet pumps pumping into main tanks 2 and 3

➢ Scavenge begins when main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 27,200 kgs

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86
Q

Which cross feed valves are controlled by Fuel System Management logic when setting T/O flaps?

A
  • Crossfeed valves 2 and 3
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87
Q

During the Before Start Procedure, at what center wing tank quantity are you required to select the center wing pumps on? Quantity in lbs for the LCF?

A
  • 7,700 kgs or more in center wing tank * 17,000 lbs or more in center wing tank
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88
Q

Main tank 2 and 3 override/jettison pumps can operate to a standpipe level of approximately __ kgs (400), __ (LCF) and __ kgs (-8) of fuel remaining in each tank?

A
  • 3,200 kgs
  • 7000 lbs
  • 3450 kgs
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89
Q

Describe how the fuel quantity indication changes upon termination of fuel jettison:

A
  • The fuel to remain quantity indication changes from magenta to white.
  • The fuel to remain quantity flashes for 5 seconds
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90
Q

How does Center Wing Tank Fuel scavenge in 400/-8?

A

*CWT fuel is scavenged by 4 jet pumps pumping into
main tanks 2 and 3

➢ Scavenge begins when main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity
decreases to approximately 27,200 kgs

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91
Q

How does Center Wing Tank Fuel scavenge in the LCF?

A

*CWT electric pump into M2 tank when

➢CWT override/jettison pump has low pressure
➢Fuel quantity in M2 or M3 tank is below 40200
lbs
(Pump will operate for approximately two hours or until scavenge pump pressure is low, whichever occurs first)

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92
Q

State what occurs when you select the fuel jettison switch to A or B.

A
  • Arms the jettison selector.
  • Displays preselected fuel to remain on EICAS
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93
Q

What is the impact on the aircraft with excessive fuel imbalance?

A
  • Adversely affects CG
  • Aerodynamic drag
  • Fuel economy
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94
Q

When do the FSMCs open the reserve transfer valves on the 400, LCF, -8?

A
  • 400: When main tank
    2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases
    to approximately 18,200 kgs.
    (Fuel transfers from reserve tanks 2 and 3 to the related main tank.)
  • LCF: When main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 40,200 lbs.
    (Fuel transfers from reserve tanks 2 and 3 to the related main tank.)
  • -8: When main tank 1 or 4 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 6100 kgs.
    (Fuel transfers from reserve tanks 1 and 4 to the related main tank.)
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95
Q

In which tank is fuel temperature measured?

A

Main tank 1

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96
Q

In general, how would you handle an excessive fuel imbalance
situation?

A

By opening or closing cross feed valves and turning off and on fuel pump switches (refer to QRH and Supplementary Procedures)

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97
Q

Which fuel tanks do reserve tank 1 and 4 transfer to on the 747-8?

A
  • Main tanks 1 and 4
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98
Q

On the 747-8, at what fuel quantity will the fuel jettison complete jettison operations with the selector in MLW position?

A
  • Maximum landing weight plus 3000 kgs
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99
Q

During fuel jettison on the LCF, transfer valves open when fuel quantity in tanks 2 or 3 decrease to __ pounds?

A

20,000 pounds

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100
Q

Describe what happens when nacelle anti‐ice is commanded on?

A
  • NAI valve opens
  • Selected engine igniters operate continuously
  • Engine PRV opens when the NAI valve is open
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101
Q

The 747-8 EICAS msg BLD LOW TEMP indicates __?

A
  • Engine bleed air to low for sufficient wing anti-icing
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102
Q

Does the Nacelle Anti-Ice AUTO position function on the ground?

A

No, the AUTO function only works in flight

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103
Q

How many ice detection probes are there, and where are they located?

A

Two probes are located on the forward fuselage

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104
Q

How many angle of attack probes are provided, and when are they heated?

A
  • 2 angle of attack probes
  • Electrically heated when any engine is operating.
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105
Q

How many pitot‐static probes are provided, and when are they heated?

A
  • 4 pitot‐static probes
  • Electrically heated when any engine is operating.
106
Q

Window heat ON switches provide both anti-icing and anti-fogging protections to which flightdeck windows?

A

Forward left and right windshields only

107
Q

On the -400, what indications are displayed, on primary EICAS, when the nacelle anti‐ice and/or the wing anti‐ice valve is open?

A
  • “NAI” for nacelle anti‐ice
  • “WAI” for wing anti-ice
108
Q

On the -8, what indications are displayed, on primary EICAS, when the nacelle anti‐ice and/or the wing anti‐ice valve is open?

A
  • “EAI” for engine nacelle anti‐ice
  • “WAI” for wing anti-ice
109
Q

Is wing antiice effective with the leading edge flaps extended?

A

No, wing anti‐ice is ineffective when the LEF are not retracted.

110
Q

Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on the ground?

A

No, on the ground, WAI system is inhibited

111
Q

When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?

A

One or more engines on each wing is operating.

112
Q

On the ground, when is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard?

A
  • Engines not operating
  • Equipment cooling selector
    in NORM
  • Ambient temperature
    moderate or high
113
Q

Equipment cooling provides cooling air for what compartment and systems?

A
  • Flight deck equipment
  • Electrical and equipment
    racks (E & E)
114
Q

How can you manually configure the equipment cooling system for flight?

A

Positioning the Equipment Cooling Selector to STBY.

115
Q

What is the function of the LOWER LOBE CARGO CONDITIONED AIR FLOW RATE Selector?

A

Provides forward and aft cargo lobe conditioned air

116
Q

What happens if a pack temperature controller (PTC) detects a fault in a pack channel?

A

Control of the respective pack switches to the other PTC.

117
Q

How many pack temperature controllers (PTC) are provided?

A

Two – A and B

118
Q

On the 747-8 with Main Deck and FWD/AFT lower lobe temperature selector in the OFF position, what is the temperature zone target?

A
  • 68◦F/ 20◦C
119
Q

747-8, the Nitrogen Generation System converts bleed air to nitrogen enriched air for what purpose?

A

Reduce flammability of center wing tank fuel

120
Q

On the 747-8, what does the alternate ventilation system provide with Pack 1+2+3 shutdown and the airplane depressurized?

A

outside air to the flight deck

121
Q

ON the 747-8, what position are the MAIN DECK FWD and AFT TEMP selectors normally placed in during preflight?

A

OFF

122
Q

ON the 747-8, what position is the LOWER LOBE AFT CARGO HT selectors normally placed in during preflight?

A

Low

123
Q

On the 747-8, the TEMP DEV CGO advisory message HI or LO respectively indicate?

A
  • HI : 9◦F (5◦C) higher than selected temperature
  • LO : 9◦F (5◦C) lower than selected temperature
124
Q

The 747-8 Lower Lobe Aft Cargo Heat Selector regulates temperature control valve to maintain at least __ ◦F/ __ ◦C in LOW position and __ ◦F/ __ ◦C in HIGH position ?

A
  • 40◦F/ 4◦C
  • 50◦F/ 10◦C
125
Q

The 747-8 ECS Left and Right trim air is provided to which temperature zones?

A

Left trim air system
➢ flight deck
➢ upper deck
➢ crew rest
➢ aft Main deck

Right trim air system
➢ forward main deck
➢ forward lower lobe
➢ aft lower lobe

126
Q

When in the descent mode, will the cabin altitude controllers program a positive or a negative pressurization at touchdown?

A

Small positive pressurization at touchdown.

127
Q

What action would allow manual operation of the pressurization system?

A

Turn both Outflow Manual switches to ON
➢ All automatic cabin altitude control functions are
bypassed

128
Q

When does the cabin altitude controller switch from controllers(i.e. A to B)?

A
  • Automatically selects A or B on alternate flights
  • Will switch automatically if the other fails
129
Q

How many cabin altitude controllers are provided?

A

Two controllers A and B
➢ Each controller controls both outflow valves

130
Q

How can you gain manual control of the landing altitude?

A

By pushing the (LDG ALT) switch

➢ Additional information
❖ landing altitude set by rotating Landing Altitude selector
❖ landing altitude followed by MAN displayed on primary EICAS
❖ the EICAS advisory message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed

131
Q

What does the Zone System (SYS) Fault Light indicate?

A
  • Temperature zone duct overheat or zone temperature controller fault has occurred.
  • Master trim air valve failed closed
  • Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to
    flow
132
Q

Under what conditions would High Pressure (HP) air be used?

A
  • Descent
  • Other low power setting
    operations
133
Q

How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event of a bleed duct leak is detected?

A
  • Close the respective isolation valve
  • Close the engine bleed air valves.
134
Q

What does a bleed duct isolation (ISLN) VALVE light indicate?

A

Isolation valve position disagrees with switch position

135
Q

When bleed air pressure is available the Engine Bleed Air Switches control which valves by system logic,?

A
  • PRV
  • HP Bleed Valve
  • Engine Bleed Air Valve
136
Q

Describe the general function of pressure regulating valve (PRV):

A

Prevents damage to ducting and equipment downstream by limiting bleed air pressure.

137
Q

Under what conditions would Intermediate Pressure (IP) air be used?

A

High power setting operations.

138
Q

With a right duct isolated, how will this affect the hydraulic systems?

A
  • The hydraulic demand pump 4 is turned off
  • No hydraulic system 3 and 4 reservoir pressure
139
Q

With the EICAS message STARTER CUTOUT 1,2,3,4 shown, will Nacelle anti-ice be available for the related engine?

A

No

140
Q

With a right duct isolated, how will the affected leading edge flaps extend?

A

The right wing LEF operate electrically in secondary mode
➢ Expect EICAS message FLAPS PRIMARY

141
Q

The outer BANK LIMIT Selector applies to which roll mode?

A

HDG SEL

142
Q

How do you re-engage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S or G/S?

A

Push the speed switch

143
Q

How do you re‐engage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is VNAV ___ or FLCH SPD?

A

Cycle the A/T ARM switch to OFF and back to ARM

144
Q

How can manually you select climb thrust after takeoff or a go‐around?

A

Push the Thrust (THR) Switch.

145
Q

What function is reflect if the THR switch light remains extinguished or is illuminated

A

Extinguished: Thrust Limit function Illuminated : A/T mode function

146
Q

How can you de‐select the approach mode AFTER localizer and glide‐slope captured?

A

Select TO/GA or Disengage autopilot and position both F/D switches off.

147
Q

Can the glideslope be captured prior to Localizer intercept?

A

No, glideslope capture is inhibited until localizer capture and the intercept angle is within 80 degrees of the localizer course.

148
Q

What does an amber horizontal line displayed through the affected ACTIVE pitch or roll mode indicate?

A

A flight mode fault is detected

149
Q

Will the autothrottles engage if TO/GA is not selected prior to 50 kts airspeed during takeoff?

When will they operate in that case?

A

No

The autothrottles will automatically engage above 400 feet when VNAV captures.

150
Q

When will VNAV activate during takeoff?

A
  • VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation
151
Q

Which pitch mode does not provide autothrottle speed protection with the autothrottles and autopilot engaged?

A

Vertical Speed (V/S)

152
Q

When is TO/GA mode terminated after takeoff?

A

By selecting any other pitch and roll mode, or by activation of LNAV/VNAV modes

153
Q

How can you disarm, LNAV, LOC, VNAV and APP modes when armed and prior to capture?

A

Push the mode switch a second time

154
Q

In flight, when is TO/GA armed?

A

Flaps out of up or Glideslope captured

155
Q

For Autoland, what controls are used by the AFDS to steer the airplane on the localizer centerline after touchdown?

A

Rudder and nose wheel steering

156
Q

On approach, with first push of TO/GA, what active Autothrottle mode would the FMA display with the A/T armed?

A

THR

157
Q

What autothrottle mode is activated with the second push of the TO/GA switch?

A

THR REF, at full go‐around thrust

158
Q

When does the autothrottle annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff?

A

65 knots

159
Q

What climb rate is achieved during a go- around with one push of the TO/GA switches?

A

2,000 feet per minute of climb

160
Q

With the APP switch selected, what altitude will the electrical busses isolate allowing multiple autopilot engagement for Autoland operations?

A

Below 1,500 feet radio altitude

161
Q

When will the FLARE mode activate during autoland?

A

At approximately 50’ RA.

162
Q

What pitch is commanded by the AFDS when TO/GA is selected in a windshear recovery?

A

15 degrees pitch‐up or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower

163
Q

Describe the condition that would cause VNAV ALT to display as the pitch mode.

A

A conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and MCP altitude.

164
Q

What is the maximum intercept angle that the localizer (LOC) will capture with the Approach (APP) or LOC mode armed?

A

Less than 120 degrees

165
Q

During autoland, what action normally disconnects the autothrottles?

A

A reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle

166
Q

When does the ROLLOUT mode activate?

A

Below 5 feet

167
Q

How are the autothrottle, roll, or pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMAs?

A

Green box around the mode for 10 seconds.

168
Q

On the 747-8, how would you deactivate LOC or FAC mode once they have captured?

A
  • Selecting a roll mode other than LNAV
  • Pushing TOGA
  • Disengaging the autopilot and positioning both F/D
    switches to OFF
169
Q

On the 744,LCF, -8, NO AUTOLAND displays on PFD if a multichannel approach (MCA) is selected but MCA engage status (LAND 2/3) has not been annunciated by __ feet?

A

600 feet AGL

170
Q

On the 747-8, What does the FAC (armed) as a Roll Mode FMA indicate?

A

APP switch selected and AFDS is set for conduct of an IAN (Integrated Approach Navigation) procedure

171
Q

What minimum maneuver capability is provided at the top of the amber bar on the PFD airspeed display?

A

1.3g

172
Q

If the display selector panel fails, how can you select the synoptic displays for the lower EICAS?

A
  • Through the respective CDU
173
Q

What indicates you are 1/3 of a dot deviation from the Localizer?

A
  • The Localizer pointer is just touching the rectangle during expanded localizer deviation scale.
  • At low radio altitudes, with autopilot or FD engaged, scale turns amber and flashes to indicate excessive LOC deviation
174
Q

How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?

A
  • Through the related CDU.
175
Q

What source selector switch would you likely move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag in view on the PFD?

A

Air Data Source Selector

176
Q

When is the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI) displayed?

A

Flaps are not up

177
Q

On the 747-8, how is the airspeed range
for acceptable VNAV path indicated on the
PFD airspeed display (flaps up or down)?

A
178
Q

747-8, Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) bars change color to __ if the Navigation Path Pointer moves into the bar area for __ seconds

A
  • Amber
  • 5 seconds
179
Q

On the 747-8, When do the Vertical Anticipation Cues display?

A
  • Within 25NM of missed approach point
  • Within 60◦ of Final Approach Course
  • Track within 90◦ of FAC
  • <6000 feet above field elevation
180
Q

On the 747-8, when do IAN Scales display?

A
  • LNAV/VNAV are not active modes
  • Approach is in the active flight plan
  • <150 NM from destination or
  • <50 NM from T/D
  • <FMC is in the descent mode
181
Q

On the 747-8, what will display if the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) initialization is not complete within six minutes?

A

ATT:RST initialization message

182
Q

On the 747-8, what does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) represent?

A

A profile view of the airplane and its environment along the current track

183
Q

747-8, VSD enroute swath is inhibited on takeoff and approach when the airplane is within __NM of the runway and less than __ ft AFE?

A
  • 6 NM
  • 3000 ft
184
Q

747-8, Electronic Checklist Open Loop action items require __?

A

flight crew to manually confirm completion with Cursor Control

185
Q

What does the IRS ON battery (BAT) light indicate on the Overhead Maintenance Panel?

A

IRS operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus)

186
Q

When is full alignment of the IRS required?

A

When the time from the last full alignment to the next expected arrival time exceeds 18 hours.

187
Q

What CDU pages are available during Alternate Navigation?

A
  • Alternate navigation LEGS
  • Alternate navigation PROGRESS
  • Alternate navigation RADIO
188
Q

Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?

A

No, turbulence can only be sensed when there is sufficient precipitation.

189
Q

How many FMCs are provided?

A

Two FMCs (flight management computers L and R)

190
Q

What factor determines “Econ” speed?

A
  • Cost index
191
Q

What VNAV Pitch mode would you expect at arrow #3 and arrow #4 with a “climb via” clearance?

A
  • # 3 VNAV SPD
  • # 4 VNAV PTH
192
Q

If you are flying an approach with the FMC in “on approach” logic, and the airplane rises more than 150 feet above the path, the FMA pitch mode will change from VNAV PTH to what pitch mode display?

A
  • VNAV SPD
193
Q

On a -400F Legacy FMC, when does the approach phase of the FMS start, also know as “on approach logic”?

A
  • When the initial fix of an approach sequences
  • When the runway is the active waypoint and within
    25nm
194
Q

NG FMC, “on approach” logic occurs under any of the following conditions?

A
  • Descent phase flaps out of up
  • First waypoint sequenced of active nav database
  • Aircraft less than 12NM from destination airport direct-
    to or intercept course-to active waypoint and a manually entered end of descent altitude constraint is lower than the destination airport plus 500 feet
  • The runway or missed approach point is the active waypoint and the airplane is within 25NM of the runway
195
Q

Are there VMCG issues when applying additional thrust manually during an assumed temperature thrust takeoff?

A

No, because the assumed temperature thrust setting is not considered a limitation and VMCG is calculated from the full engine rated thrust.

196
Q

What could happen if you advance the thrust levers further then TO 1 or TO 2 fixed derate following an engine failure?

A

Loss of directional control

197
Q

When does the CDU message INSUFFICIENT FUEL display?

A
  • Estimated fuel at destination is less than fuel reserve (FMC RSV) entered on the PERF INIT page.
198
Q

Can ATC monitor airplane position on the ground when the transponder is in STBY?

A

No

199
Q

Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?

A

No

200
Q

What happens when an active database expires in flight?

A

The expired database is used until the active date is changed after landing.

201
Q

How is the reference thrust changed from TO (D-TO, TO 1 or TO 2) to CON on upper EICAS following an engine failure in flight?

A
  • Automatically when airspeed exceeds VREF+98 and the flaps are up
  • Pushing the THR switch on the MCP changes thrust limit to CON
  • Accessing THRUST LIM page in CDU and manually selecting CON
202
Q

What databases are contained in the FMC?

A
  • Aero Engine (AEDB-performance)
  • Navigation
  • Operational Program Configuration (OPC)
  • MAGVAR Tables
203
Q

When will the FMC fail to sequence the active waypoint?

A

When more than 21 nm from the active route and not on an offset route.

204
Q

On the 747-8, What modes of operation are available for the MultiScan weather radar?

A
  • Manual mode – operates like traditional radar with full control over tilt and gain settings
  • Automatic mode – collects data from multiple scans and merges information into a total weather picture
205
Q

On the 747-8, does the MultiScan weather radar provide turbulence detection capability?

A
  • Yes – Displays magenta for moderate to severe turbulence when there is sufficient precipitation (Clear air turbulence cannot be sensed by the radar)
206
Q

When armed for takeoff, when does VNAV activate?

A

400 feet

207
Q

If the FMC cruise altitude is FL 250 and the clearance altitude of FL 190 is set in the MCP, what pitch mode FMA will display when FL 190 is captured?

A

VNAV ALT

208
Q

What VNAV FMA would display on the PFD during departure waypoint altitude constraints?

A

VNAV PTH

209
Q

What is the difference between RNP and ACTUAL? And where is it displayed?

A
  • RNP is required navigation performance
  • ACTUAL is Actual Aircraft Navigation Performance
  • Displayed on FMC POS REF page
210
Q

What is a conditional waypoint?

A

A conditional waypoint is based on a time or altitude requirement, and not based on a land reference

➢ Indicated when an event occurs, and not a geographically fixed position, i.e.., “when reaching 500 feet.”

211
Q

How many groups of leading flaps are provided, and how are they normally powered?

A
  • Three groups on each wing: outboard, midspan, and inboard sections.
  • Normally pneumatically powered from the bleed air duct.
212
Q

What are the two groups of trailing edge flaps, and how are they powered?

A
  • Inboard and outboard
  • Inboard powered by hydraulic system 1
  • Outboard by system 4
213
Q

Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?

A
  • NO, there is no protection provided by the FCUs in alternate mode.
214
Q

How are the trailing edge flaps driven in primary mode?

A

Hydraulically

215
Q

How long does the flap indication on primary EICAS remain displayed after all flaps are up?

A

10 seconds

216
Q

What protection features do FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in primary mode?

A
  • Asymmetry protection
  • Flap load relief
  • Flap position information to EICAS and other
    systems
217
Q

How many Flap Control Units (FCUs) are provided?

A
  • Three
218
Q

What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in alternate mode?

A

Flaps 25

219
Q

What EICAS Advisory message displays if all three FCUs fail in their control function?

A

FLAPS CONTROL

220
Q

How does the Flap Alternate Control mode work?

A
  • Bypasses the FCUs
  • Can be manually selected
  • All flaps are extended or retracted by
    electric motors
221
Q

Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?

A

NO

➢ The FCU provide asymmetry protection in normal
mode.

222
Q

What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or midspan leading edge flap group?

A
  • Both groups switch to secondary mode
223
Q

When do the spoiler panels extend to the up position during landing if the speedbrake lever is NOT Armed?

A
  • Thrust levers 1 and 3 near idle position.
  • Main landing gear on the ground
  • Reverse thrust levers 2 or 4 pulled up to the idle detent
224
Q

747-8, To improve takeoff performance and reduce noise, outboard ailerons deflected down# at which flap settings? They return to the neutral position at which flap settings? Inboard ailerons droop in which flap settings?

A

The downward deflection is removed if the

  • 10 or 20
  • 25 or 30
  • 10 or greater

angle of attack is above the stick shaker

225
Q

Describe the function of the Stabilizer (STAB) Trim Cutout Switches AUTO position.

A
  • Supplies hydraulic power for stabilizer trim
  • Shuts off related system hydraulic power if
    unscheduled trim detected.
226
Q

What is the affect on the flap system during engine reverse thrust operation?

A

Inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract automatically

227
Q

What surface component is moved when stabilizer trim inputs are made?

A
  • Leading edge of the movable horizontal stabilizer
  • Stabilizer trim varies the angle of incidence of the
    horizontal stabilizer
228
Q

What is the purpose of the yaw dampers?

A

To improve airplane lateral and directional stability and
provide turn coordination.

229
Q

How does the aileron lockout system work, and what is its purpose?

A

Locks outboard ailerons in the neutral position at high airspeeds.

➢ Additional information
❖ Permits full travel of the outboard ailerons at low
airspeeds
❖ Prevents over‐controlling at high airspeeds

230
Q

What system assists the 747-8 in pitch stability and landing flare?

A

Pitch augmentation control system (PACS)

➢ Additional Information
❖ During the landing flare, this system provides a small amount
of nose up elevator as the airplane approaches the runway, without moving the control column

231
Q

When does the 747-8 takeoff and landing tail strike protection activate?

A
  • PACS senses imminent tail strike Decreasing elevator deflection

➢ Additional Information
❖ Activation of tail strike protection does not move the control
column

232
Q

Takeoff trim setting is calculated based on__?

A

FMC calculated:
➢ gross weight
➢ center of gravity
➢ takeoff thrust derate selection
➢ takeoff flap selection (747-8 only)

233
Q

Will pushing control wheel Stabilizer Trim switches, with multiple autopilots engaged, cause the autopilot to disconnect?

A

No
Stabilizer trim switches are inhibited with multiple autopilots engaged

234
Q

Describe the OFF position of the landing gear.

A

Landing gear hydraulic system is depressurized.

235
Q

How many degrees can the nose‐wheel steering system turn the nose gear with the tiller, and how many degrees with the rudder pedals?q

A
  • 70 degrees in either direction with the tiller
  • 7 degrees with the rudder pedals
236
Q

What does the BRAKE SOURCE amber light indicate when illuminated?

A

Active brake hydraulic sources (hydraulic systems 4, 1, and 2) have low pressure

237
Q

How are the landing gear held in position after retraction?

A
  • Main gear are held in the up position by uplocks
  • The nose gear is mechanically locked in the up
    position
238
Q

When does RTO apply maximum braking?

A
  • Airplane on the ground
  • Wheel speed above 85 knots
  • Thrust levers are closed
239
Q

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?

A

Provides for parking brake application

240
Q

What does a white, crosshatched, expanded gear position indication mean?

A

Related landing gear in transit

241
Q

What conditions must be satisfied in order for the landing gear lever lock to release?

A
  • Main gear are tilted
  • Body gear centered
242
Q

What hydraulic system pressurizes the brake accumulator?

A

System 4

243
Q

What value on the brake temperature monitoring system causes the BRAKE TEMP Advisory EICAS message to appear?

A

5

244
Q

How does the landing gear extend with the alternate gear extension system?

A

By pushing the alternate gear extend switches the gear uplocks and door latches are electrically released and the gear free‐falls.

➢Gravity and airloads extend the gear
➢Springs pull the downlocks into the locked position

245
Q

Why is it necessary to pressurize hydraulic system 4 before pressurizing the other systems?

A

Precludes the transfer of hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 into system 4. When the parking brake is set, and then released, brake hydraulic return lines dump into system 4.

246
Q

What does an EICAS message LIMITER indicate?

A
  • Brake torque limiter failure on more than one wheel per truck
  • The parking brake lever is released and the parking brake valve is not fully open
  • Brake system control unit power loss occurs
247
Q

What is the highest priority alert message?

A

Warning messages (red)

248
Q

What are the 4 types of EICAS messages?

A
  • Warning Messages
  • Caution Messages
  • Advisory Messages
  • Memo Messages
249
Q

What RED alert displays are shown or displayed on the PFD?

A
  • WINDSHEAR
  • PULL UP
250
Q

Can warning messages be canceled by pushing the CANC switch?

A

No

251
Q

What does the STATUS Cue mean?

A

A new status message exists on the (Secondary EICAS)
➢ Displayed Cyan color

252
Q

Which type of EICAS messages are listed in the DDG and provide for dispatch capability?

A

EICAS Status Messages

253
Q

Can amber alert messages be canceled or recalled?

A

Yes, by pushing the CANC switch or the RCL switch.

254
Q

When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the center of the airplane symbol on the PFD?

A

Outside the red outlined RA pitch regions.

255
Q

List some of the configuration conditions that will cause the CONFIG message to display during takeoff?

A
  • Flaps not in a takeoff position
  • Body gear not centered
  • Parking brake set
  • Speedbrake lever not in DN detent
  • Stabilizer trim not in takeoff range
256
Q

On the 747-8, what PFD message would you receive during a reject takeoff if the speedbrakes are not deployed?

A

RED PFD message SPEEDBRAKE to alert crew

257
Q

On the 747-8, during takeoff and landing a BANK ANGLE alert sounds for bank angles as small as __?

A
  • 10°
258
Q

What conditions will cause the CONFIG GEAR EICAS warning message?

A

Any landing gear not down and locked
➢ With any of the below conditions
✓ Any thrust lever is closed and the RA is less than
800 feet
✓ Flaps in a landing position (25 or more)

259
Q

When are master CAUTION lights and Beeper inhibited during takeoff?

A
  • 80 knots airspeed
260
Q

New Predictive Windshear warnings are inhibited at what airspeed during takeoff?

A
  • 100 knots airspeed
261
Q

Safety is best defined as __?

A
  • Managed Risk
    ➢ This acknowledges that “zero risk” is an impossibility but striving for it is not
262
Q

When faced with competing objectives, what must always remain the highest priority?

A

SAFETY

PC ORAL 747 (1 decks)

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