ALL Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Muscle Imbalances

A

Alteration of a muscle length surrounding a joint

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2
Q

Obesity

A

The condition of being considerably overweight and refers to a person with a body mass index of 30 or greater, or who is at least 30 pounds over his or her recommended weight

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3
Q

What is the BMI of a typical obese individual

A

30 or greater

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4
Q

Refers to a person with a body mass index of 25-29.9 or who is between 25-30 pounds over the recommended weight

A

Overweight

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5
Q

These are also known as cholesterol and triglycerides and are carried in the bloodstream by protein molecules known as HDL and LDL

A

Blood lipids

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6
Q

Chronic metabolic disorder caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fats and proteins

A

Diabetes mellitus

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7
Q

A state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility and a lack of core and joint stability

A

Deconditioned

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8
Q

The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body positions and limb movement

A

Proprioception

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9
Q

An unstable physical situation in which exercises are performed that cause the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms (examples include using stability balls and single-leg squats versus traditional

A

Proprioceptively enriched movement

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10
Q

Smaller divisions of training progressions that fall within the three building blocks of training

A

Phases of training

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11
Q

A muscle’s ability to contract for an extended period

A

Muscular endurance

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12
Q

The ability of the neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion

A

Neuromuscular efficiency

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13
Q

What is the first phase of training that should be completed before anything else to prevent injury and or tension at the joints

A

Stabilization training

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14
Q

The muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power

A

Prime mover

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15
Q

Set of two exercises that are performed back-to-back without any rest between them

A

Superset

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16
Q

What type of training goal should be done by individuals with a goal of maximal muscle growth

A

Hypertrophy training

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17
Q

ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

A

Rate of force production

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18
Q

the combination and interrelation of the nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems

A

human movement systems

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19
Q

A conglomeration of billions of cells specifically designed to provide a communication network within the human body

A

Nervous system

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20
Q

The ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or external environment

A

Sensory function

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21
Q

The ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow proper decision making, which produces the appropriate response

A

Integrative function

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22
Q

The neuromuscular response to the sensory information

A

Motor function

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23
Q

The functional unit of the nervous system

A

Neuron

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24
Q

These neuron transmit nerve impulses from effector sites via receptors to the brain and spinal cord – respond to touch, sound light and other stimuli

A

Sensory neurons

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25
Q

Transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another

A

Interneurons

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26
Q

Transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites

A

Motor neurons

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27
Q

The portion of the nervous system that consists of the brain and spinal cord

A

Central nervous system

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28
Q

Cranial and spinal nerves that spread throughout the body

A

Peripheral nervous system

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29
Q

Sensory receptor responsible for sensing distortion and pressure in body tissues

A

Mechanoreceptors

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30
Q

Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change

A

Muscle spindles

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31
Q

Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change

A

Golgi-tendon organs

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32
Q

Receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and declaration of the joint

A

Joint receptors

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33
Q

The body’s framework composed of bones and joints

A

Skeletal system

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34
Q

Provide a resting ground for muscles and protection of vital organs

A

Bones

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35
Q

Junction of bones, muscles and connective tissue at which movement occurs

A

Joints

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36
Q

Portion of the skeletal system that consists of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column

A

Axial Skeleton

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37
Q

Portion of the skeletal system that includes the upper and lower extremities

A

Appendicular Skeleton

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38
Q

The link between the axial and appendicular skeleton

A

Pelvic girdle

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39
Q

The process of resorption and formation of bone

A

Remodeling

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40
Q

A type of bone cell that removes bone tissue

A

Osteoclasts

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41
Q

A type of cell that is responsible for bone formation

A

Osteoblasts

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42
Q

The end of long bones, which is mainly composed of cancellous bone, and house much of the red marrow involved in red blood cell production

A

Epiphysis

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43
Q

The shaft portion of a long bone

A

Diaphysis

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44
Q

The region of a long bone connecting the diaphysis to the epiphysis – a layer of cartilaginous cells in which growth in length of the diaphysis occurs

A

Epiphyseal plate

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45
Q

A dense membrane composed of fibrous connective tissue that closely wraps all bone

A

Periosteum

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46
Q

The central cavity of bone shafts where marrow is stored

A

Medullar cavity

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47
Q

Cartilage that covers the articular surfaces of bone

A

Articular cartilage

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48
Q

flattened or indented portions of bone which can be muscle attachment sites

A

depressions

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49
Q

projections protruding from the bone where muscles, tendons, and ligaments can attach

A

processes

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50
Q

A series of irregularly shaped bones called vertebrae that houses the spinal cord

A

Vertebral column

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51
Q

1st Seven vertebrae starting at the top of the spinal column

A

cervical spine

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52
Q

twelve vertebrae located in the upper/middle back behind the ribs

A

thoracic spine

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53
Q

five vertebrae of the low back below the thoracic spine

A

lumbar spine

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54
Q

triangular bone located below the lumbar spine

A

sacrum

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55
Q

located below the sacrum, more commonly known as the tailbone

A

coccyx

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56
Q

More specific term for joint motion

A

anthrokinematics

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57
Q

joints that are held together by a joint capsule and ligaments and are most associated with movement in the body

A

synovial joints

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58
Q

This joint is a non-axial joint and is the simplest moving of all joints

A

gliding joint

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59
Q

these joints because the condyle of one bone fits into the cavity of another bone to form the joint

A

condyloid joints

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60
Q

uniaxial joint allowing movement predominately in only the saggital plane

A

hinge joint

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61
Q

this joint is only found in the carpometacarpal joint in the thumb, allowing movement in two planes of motion

A

saddle joint

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62
Q

these joints are found in the atlantoaxiao joint at the base of the skull and the radioulnar joint of the elbow, allowing movement in one plane of motion

A

pivot joints

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63
Q

these are the most mobile of all joints, allowing movement in all three planes

A

ball-and-socket joints

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64
Q

joints that do not have a joint cavity, connective tissue, or cartilage

A

Nonsynovial joint

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65
Q

primary connective tissue that connects bones together and provides stability, input to the nervous system, guidance and the limitation of improper joint movement

A

ligament

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66
Q

What is the best type of exercise for bone strength and health

A

weight-bearing exercise

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67
Q

Series of muscles that moves the skeleton

A

muscular system

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68
Q

A layer of connective tissue that surrounds the muscle

A

epimysium

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69
Q

the connective tissue that surrounds fascicles

A

perimysium

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70
Q

the deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers

A

endomysium

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71
Q

connective tissue that attach muscle to bone and provide as an anchor for muscles to produce force

A

tendons

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72
Q

the functional unit of a muscle that produces muscular contraction and consist of repeating sections of actin and myosin

A

sarcomere

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73
Q

the contraction of a muscle generated by neural stimulation

A

neural activation

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74
Q

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it activates

A

motor unit

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75
Q

chemical messengers that cross the neuromuscular junction that transmit impulses from nerve to muscle

A

neurotransmitters

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76
Q

Type 1 Muscle fibers also known as ( ) muscle fibers have a high oxidative capacity and don’t fatigue as easily

A

Slow-twitch

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77
Q

Type 2 muscle fibers also known as (. ) muscle fibers have a low and oxidative capacity and fatigue easily

A

fast-twitch

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78
Q

these hormones help prepare the body for activity and are participants in the fight or flight reflex

A

catecholamines

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79
Q

In both men and women, this hormone plays a major role in the growth and repair of tissue

A

Testosterone

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80
Q

This hormone is referred to as a catabolic hormone and is associated with tissue breakdown

A

Cortisol

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81
Q

This hormone is primarily an anabolic hormone that is responsible for most growth and development during childhood up until puberty

A

Growth Hormone

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82
Q

These hormones are responsible for carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism

A

Thyroid hormones

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83
Q

a hollow muscular organ that pumps blood through the body by means of rhythmic contraction

A

heart

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84
Q

The space in the chest between the lungs that contains all the internal organs of the chest except the lungs

A

Mediastinum

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85
Q

A specialized area of cardiac tissue, located in the right atrium of the heart, which initiates the electrical impulses that determine the heart rate aka the pacemaker of the heart

A

SA Node

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86
Q

A small mass of specialized cardiac muscle fibers, located in the wall of the tight atrium of the heart, that receives the heartbeat impulse from the SA node and directs them to the walls of the ventricles

A

AV Node

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87
Q

the superior chamber of the heart that receives blood from the veins and forced it into the ventricles

A

Atrium

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88
Q

The inferior chamber of the heart that receives blood from the corresponding atrium, in turn, forces blood into the arteries

A

Ventricle

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89
Q

The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

A

Stroke volume

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90
Q

The rate at which the heart pumps

A

Heart rate

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91
Q

heart rate x stroke volume; the overall performance of the heart

A

cardiac output

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92
Q

networks of hollow tubes that circulate blood through the body

A

blood vessels

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93
Q

vessels that transport blood away from the heart

A

arteries

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94
Q

The smaller blood vessels and the site of exchange of chemicals and water between the blood and tissues

A

capillaries

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95
Q

vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart

A

veins

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96
Q

small terminal branches of an artery, which end in capillaries

A

arterioles

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97
Q

the very small veins that connect capillaries to the larger veins

A

venules

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98
Q

a system of organs that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream

A

respiratory system

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99
Q

skeletal structures and soft tissues that work together to allow proper respiratory mechanics to occur and help pump blood back to the heart during inspiration

A

respiratory pump

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100
Q

the process of actively contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body

A

inspiration

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101
Q

the process of actively or passively relaxing the inspiratory muscles to move air out of the body

A

expiration

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102
Q

the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the tissues of the body

A

diffusion

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103
Q

the highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion

A

Maximal Oxygen Consumption; VO2 Max

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104
Q

The study of energy in the human body

A

bioenergetics

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105
Q

all of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself – process in which nutrients are acquired, transported, used and disposed of the body

A

metabolism

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106
Q

the examination of bioenergetic as it relates to the unique physiologic changes and demands placed on the body during exercise

A

exercise metabolism

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107
Q

the material or substance on which an enzyme acts

A

substrates

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108
Q

organic compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen which are an important source of energy

A

carbohydrates

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109
Q

a simple sugar manufactured by the body from carbohydrates, fat and to a lesser extent protein

A

glucose

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110
Q

the complex carbohydrate molecule used to store carbohydrates in the liver and muscle cells

A

Glycogen

111
Q

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body

A

triglycerides

112
Q

amino acids linked by peptide bonds, which consist of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and usually sulfur

A

Protein

113
Q

The formation of glucose from non-carb sources such as amino acids

A

gluconeogenesis

114
Q

energy storage and transfer unit within the cells of body

A

adenosine triphosphate

115
Q

a high energy compound occurring in all cells from which ATP is formed

A

adenosine diphosphate

116
Q

the breakdown of triglycerides into smaller subunits called free fatty acids to convert FFas into acetylCoA molecules, which then enter the kreb’s cycle and help to make more ATP

A

B-Oxidation

117
Q

The state of which the body’s metabolism is elevated after exercise

A

EPOC

118
Q

the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces

A

biomechanics

119
Q

positioned above a point of reference

A

Superior

120
Q

positioned below a point of reference

A

Inferior

121
Q

positioned nearest the center of the body or point of reference

A

proximal

122
Q

positioned farthest from the center of the body

A

distal

123
Q

on the front of the body

A

Anterior/ventral

124
Q

On the back of the body

A

Posterior/dorsal

125
Q

positioned near the middle of the body

A

Medial

126
Q

positioned toward the outside of the body

A

Lateral

127
Q

Positioned on the opposite side of the body

A

contralateral

128
Q

positioned on the same side of the body

A

ipsilateral

129
Q

divides the body into left and right halves

A

saggital plane

130
Q

a bending in which the joint segments decrease

A

flexion

131
Q

a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases

A

extension

132
Q

extension of a joint beyond the normal limit or range of motion

A

hyperextension

133
Q

divides the body into front and back halves

A

frontal plane

134
Q

Movement away from the midline

A

abduction

135
Q

divides the body into top and bottom halves

A

transverse planes

136
Q

rotation towards the middle of the body

A

internal rotation

137
Q

rotation away from the middle of the body

A

external rotation

138
Q

movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from an anterior position to a lateral position

A

horizontal abduction

139
Q

movement of the arm of thigh in the transverse plane from lateral position to an anterior position

A

horizontal adduction

140
Q

adduction of scapula; shoulder blades move towards the midline

A

scapular retraction

141
Q

abduction of scapula; shoulder blades move away from the midline

A

scapular protraction

142
Q

downward motion of the scapula

A

scapular depression

143
Q

upward motion of the scapula

A

scapular elevation

144
Q

when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in shortening of the muscle

A

concentric muscle action

145
Q

when a muscle is exerting force equal to the force being placed on it leading to no visible change in the muscle length

A

isometric muscle action

146
Q

When a muscle shortens at a constant speed over the full range of motion

A

isokinetic muscle action

147
Q

An influence applied by one object to another which results in acceleration or deceleration of the second object

A

Force

148
Q

The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length

A

length-tension relationship

149
Q

muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint

A

force-couple

150
Q

movement of the bones around the joints

A

rotary motion

151
Q

A force that produces rotation

A

torque

152
Q

motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli

A

motor behavior

153
Q

how the CNS integrates internal and external sensory information with previous experiences to produce a motor response

A

motor control

154
Q

Integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled movements

A

motor learning

155
Q

the change in motor skill behavior over time throughout the lifespan

A

motor development

156
Q

groups of muscles that are recruited by the CNS to provide movement

A

Muscle synergies

157
Q

the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement

A

proprioception

158
Q

the cooperation of the nervous and muscular system in gathering and interpreting information and executing movement

A

sensorimotor integration

159
Q

the use of sensory information and the sensorimotor integration to help the human movement system in motor learning

A

feedback

160
Q

the process whereby sensory information is used by the body to reactively monitor movement and the environment

A

internal feedback

161
Q

information provided by some external source, such as health and fitness professional, to supplement the internal environment

A

external feedback

162
Q

this pulse can be found by placing two fingers along the right side of the arm in line and just above the thumb

A

radial pulse

163
Q

this pulse can be found by lightly placing two fingers on the neck, just to the side of the larynx

A

carotid pulse

164
Q

This zone of training is used to build aerobic base and aids in recovery

A

One

165
Q

This training zone of training increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance

A

Two

166
Q

This training zone is used to build high end work capacity

A

Three

167
Q

How can you determine someone’s estimated maximal heart rate?

A

220-age

168
Q

the pressure of circulating blood against walls of the blood vessels after blood is ejected from the heart

A

blood pressure

169
Q

What is the recommended body fat percentage for a young man

A

8-22%

170
Q

What is the recommended body fat percentage for a young woman

A

20-35%

171
Q

What body fat percentage would signal that a man is “athletic”

A

5-13%

172
Q

What body fat percentage would signal that a woman is “athletic”

A

12-22%

173
Q

How can you calculate someone’s fat mass?

A

Body fat % x scale weight

174
Q

This test is designed to estimate an individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level or sub maximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for 3 minutes

A

YMCA 3-minute step test

175
Q

a postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and adducted and internally rotated knees

A

pronation distortion syndrome

176
Q

a postural distortion syndrome characterized by an anterior tilt to the pelvis (arched low back)

A

Lower crossed syndrome

177
Q

a postural distortion syndrome characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders

A

upper crossed syndrome

178
Q

the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint

A

flexibility

179
Q

capability to be elongated or stretched

A

extensibility

180
Q

the combination of flexibility and the nervous system’s ability to control this range of motion efficiently

A

Dynamic range of motion

181
Q

the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonist, antagonists, and stabilizers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion

A

neuromuscular efficiency

182
Q

predictable patterns of muscle imbalances

A

postural distortion patterns

183
Q

the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns

A

relative flexibility

184
Q

alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint

A

muscle imbalance

185
Q

The simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place

A

reciprocal inhibition

186
Q

the concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agent, which inhibits its functional antagonist

A

altered reciprocal inhibition

187
Q

the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover

A

synergistic dominance

188
Q

the motions of joints in the body

A

anthrokinematics

189
Q

Altered force at the joint that result in abnormal muscular activity and impaired neuromuscular communication at the joint

A

arthrokinetic dysfunction

190
Q

the process by which neural impulsed that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles

A

autogenic inhibition

191
Q

consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body

A

pattern overload

192
Q

this type of flexibility is designed to increase joint ROM, improve muscle imbalances and correct altered joint motion

A

corrective flexibility

193
Q

stretching technique that focuses on neural system and fascial system in the body – by applying gentle force to an adhesion or knot, the elastic

A

myofascial release

194
Q

the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds

A

Static stretching

195
Q

the process of using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion

A

active-isolated stretch

196
Q

the active extension of a muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through the full available range of motion

A

dynamic stretch

197
Q

the ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply-oxygen rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity

A

Cardiorespiratory fitness

198
Q

Cardiorespiratory training programs that systematically progress clients through various stages to achieve optimal levels of psychologic, psychical and performance adaptations by placing stress on the cardiorespiratory system

A

Integrated respiratory training

199
Q

low intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise that is to follow

A

General warm up

200
Q

low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow

A

specific-warm up

201
Q

what does FITTE stand for??

A

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment

202
Q

the number of training session in a given time frame

A

frequency

203
Q

the level of demand that a given activity places on the body

A

Intensity

204
Q

the highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion

A

VO2 max

205
Q

The difference between resting and maximal or peak oxygen consumption

A

oxygen uptake reserve (Vo2R)

206
Q

The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from aerobic to anaerobic energy production

A

Ventilatory threshold

207
Q

The length of time an individual is engaged in a given activity

A

Time

208
Q

The type or mode of physical activity that an individual is engaged in

A

Type

209
Q

The amount of pleasure derived from performing a physical activity

A

Enjoyment

210
Q

Excessive frequency, volume, intensity of training, resulting in fatigue

A

Overtraining

211
Q

A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel in toward the spine

A

drawing-in maneuver

212
Q

Occurs when you have contracted both the abdominal, lower back, and buttock muscles at the same time

A

bracing

213
Q

When the body is in equilibrium and stationary meaning no linear or angular movement

A

balance

214
Q

The ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling

A

dynamic balance

215
Q

ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

A

rate of force production

216
Q

exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involved in explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action

A

Plyometric (reactive) training

217
Q

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically) stabilized (isometrically) and then accelerated (concentrically)

A

integrated performance paradigm

218
Q

The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible

A

speed

219
Q

The number of strides taken in a given amount of time

A

stride rate

220
Q

the distance covered with each stride

A

stride length

221
Q

proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion and natural pelvis

A

Frontside mechanics

222
Q

proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and natural pelvis

A

backside mechanics

223
Q

the ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly while maintaining proper posture

A

agility

224
Q

the ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities

A

quickness

225
Q

prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce distress to the system

A

exhaustion

226
Q

division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages

A

periodization

227
Q

principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

A

specificity

228
Q

refers to the weight and movements placed on the body

A

mechanical specificity

229
Q

refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection

A

neuromuscular specificity

230
Q

refers to the energy demand placed on the body

A

metabolic specificity

231
Q

the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time

A

muscular endurance

232
Q

enlargement of skeletal muscle fiber in response to overcoming from high volumes of tension

A

muscular hypertrophy

233
Q

the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load

A

strength

234
Q

the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time

A

power

235
Q

one complete movement of a single exercise

A

repetition

236
Q

a group of consecutive repetitions

A

Set

237
Q

An individual’s level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage

A

training intensity

238
Q

the speed at which each repetition is performed

A

repetition tempo

239
Q

the time taken to recuperate between sets

A

rest interval

240
Q

amount of physical training performed within a specified period

A

training volume

241
Q

the number of training sessions performed during a specified period

A

training frequency

242
Q

the timeframe of a workout or the length of time pent in one phase of training

A

training duration

243
Q

the process of choosing appropriate exercises for a client’s program

A

exercise selection

244
Q

Which type of pressure within the arterial system represents when the heart is resting and filling with blood?

A

diastolic

245
Q

What is the preferred pulse point to record a client’s heart rate?

A

radial artery

246
Q

Which assessment should a trainer use to determine which heart rate zone a client should begin training at

A

YMCA STEP TEST

247
Q

What is a good test for a trainer to assess the muscular endurance of the upper body

A

Push up assessment

248
Q

What affect do beta-blockers have on the heart?

A

They decrease heart rate

249
Q

A trainer performs static stretching of the calves on his client after assessing an overhead squat. What may have prompted him to do so?

A

The client’ feet turned out

250
Q

What type of flexibility would be appropriate for the power level phase 5 of the OPT model?

A

functional flexibility

251
Q

To most effectively target tensor fascia later, while standing a client’s back leg should be in what position

A

externally rotated

252
Q

Which type of flexibility is designed to increase joint range of motion, improve muscle imbalances and correct altered joint motion?

A

corrective flexibility

253
Q

Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances

A

postural distortion patterns

254
Q

what does dynamic stretching use to improve soft tissue extensibility

A

reciprocal inhibition

255
Q

how long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release

A

30 seconds minimum

256
Q

how can a trainer tell that a client is ready to advance from stage 1 to stage 2 cardiorespiratory training

A

client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes

257
Q

what formula is used to determine a client’s target heart rate during exercise?

A

Heart Rate Reserve Method

258
Q

what are the muscles of global stabilization system primarily responsible for?

A

transferring loads between the upper and lower extremities

259
Q

If a client is portraying difficult in a prone iso-ab exercise, what is one way to regress the movement?

A

quadruped arm and opposite leg raise

260
Q

what do the local core stabilizers attach to?

A

vertebrae

261
Q

How long should a client hold the landing position of a squat jump?

A

3-5 seconds

262
Q

Ice-skaters are an example of which type of exercise?

A

Plyometric-Power

263
Q

What is an alternative name for plyometric training?

A

Reactive training

264
Q

During butt kicks, a personal trainer recognize his client arching his low back at the height of the jump, This signifies that which muscle group may be experiencing some tightness?

A

quadriceps

265
Q

how much caffeine per kg of body weight should be consumed about an hour prior to exercise to produce the most effective ergogenic response

A

3-6 mg

266
Q

What is the recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement

A

3-6 mg/kg

267
Q

Excess intake of Vitamin D can lead to

A

Calcification of arteries

268
Q

large doses of beta-carotene cause an increased risk of?

A

Lung cancers in smokers

269
Q

How should calcium supplements be consumed for best results

A

spaced throughout the day

270
Q

What is the process of communication that shows appreciation of clients and their strengths?

A

affirmations

271
Q

What are the two type of fitness goals

A

process and product

272
Q

A client has achieved the maintenance stage if he or she has maintained change for

A

6 months or more

273
Q

What is the most frequently reported reason for people not exercising

A

lack of time

274
Q

Shortness of breath

A

Dyspnea