All Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between a delay queue and a message timer?

A

Delay Queue: postpone the delivery of all new messages between 0 seconds and 15 minutes

Message Timer: an initial invisibility timer for a particular message between 0 seconds and 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is connection draining?

A

Where an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) keeps open any in-flight connections while an instance is deregistering or unhealthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA)?

A

A network device that can be attached to an EC2 instance that accelerates high-performance computing (HPC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the periods after which data is available for:

1) basic monitoring
2) detailed monitoring
3) standard resolution metrics
4) high resolution metrics

A

Basic Monitoring: 5 minutes
Detailed Monitoring: 1 minute

Standard Resolution Metrics: 1 minute
High Resolution Metrics: 1 second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between a CloudFormation stack and a StackSet?

A

Stack: a set of AWS resources created and managed as a unit.

StackSet: enables create, update, and delete of stacks across multiple accounts and regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between RTO and RPO?

A

RTO (Recovery Time Objective): the time it takes to return a system to a working state after a disaster

RPO (Recovery Point Objective): the amount of data that can be lost (measured in seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between horizontal and vertical scalability?

A

Horizontal: more instances; scale-out/scale-in

Vertical: more powerful machine; scale-up/scale-down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many messages per second is supported by an SQS FIFO queue without batching? With batching?

A

Without Batching: 300 messages

With Batching: 3,000 messages

So, up to 10 messages in a batch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a visibility timeout?

A

The period during which SQS prevents other consumers from receiving and processing a given message.

Default: 30 seconds
Min: 0 seconds
Max: 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between an inbound endpoint and an outbound endpoint in Route 53?

A

Inbound: on-prem -> AWS

Outbound: AWS -> on-prem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between CloudWatch, CloudTrail, and Config?

A

CloudWatch: performance monitoring, events, alerts

CloudTrail: account-specific activity/audit

Config: resource-specific history, audit, and compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the possible targets for Kinesis Data Firehose?

A

1) S3
2) Redshift
3) ElasticSearch (OpenSearch)
4) Splunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is AWS DataSync?

A

A service that enables transferring data from on-prem to AWS storage services such as:

1) S3
2) EFS
3) FSx for Windows File Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a Service Control Policy (SCP)?

A

A policy that manages control over all accounts in an AWS organization

(does NOT affect service-linked roles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which file protocols does File Gateway support?

A

1) NFS (Network File System)

2) SMB (Server Message Block)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) work across regions?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the difference between an Aurora multi-master DB cluster and a single-master DB cluster?

A

Multi-Master: All DB instances can perform write operations; there is no failover or downtime; appropriate if continuous availability is required

Single-Master: One DB instance performs write operations; all others are read-only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What attribute allows you to persist an EBS volume even after its EC2 instance terminates?

A

DeleteOnTermination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the pricing differences between alias records and CNAME records?

A
  • No charge for alias queries

- Charge for CNAME queries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does Aurora break ties when promoting read replicas?

A
Take highest priority (lowest number, 0-15)
Then
Largest size
Then
Pick arbitrarily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the supported S3 lifecycle transitions, in order?

A

Standard -> Standard IA -> Intelligent tiering -> One-zone IA -> Glacier Instant Retrieval -> Glacier Flexible Retrieval -> Glacier Deep Archive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What error is displayed when the target groups for a load balancer have no registered targets?

A

503: Service Unavailable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the different scaling policies for an auto-scaling group and what are their differences?

A

Target tracking: scale based on a metric

Step scaling: increase/decrease capacity in proportion to the size of the alarm breach; can continue responding to alarms

Simple scaling: scaling must complete and the cooldown period must expire before additional alarms can be responded to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which runtimes does Lambda support?

A
  • C#/.NET
  • Go
  • Java
  • Node.js
  • Python
  • Ruby
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many concurrent executions does Lambda support per account per region?

A

1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which services can be invoked from an S3 event notification?

A
  • SNS
  • SQS
  • Lambda
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For which events can S3 public event notifications?

A
  • New object created
  • Object removal
  • Restore object
  • Reduced Redundancy Storage object lost
  • Replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between a Spread, Partition, and a Cluster Placement Group?

A

EC2 instances are deployed such that they are:

Cluster: …close together in a single AZ
Partition: …not sharing hardware with another partition
Spread: …each instance running on different hardware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is VPC Peering?

A

A connection between 2 VPCs through a private IPv4 or IPv6 address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between a Virtual Private Gateway and a Customer Gateway?

A

Virtual Private Gateway: on the AWS VPC side of the VPN connection

Customer Gateway: on the on-prem customer side of the VPN connection

Both are needed to set up a site-to-site VPN connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between S3 Transfer Acceleration and Global Accelerator?

A

S3 Transfer Acceleration: upload files to an edge location through CloudFront that gets forwarded to your S3 bucket through the AWS network

Global Accelerator: 2 static IPs that users connect to at the edge where it is forwarded to your application through the AWS network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)?

A

An in-memory cache for DynamoDB

33
Q

What is VPN CloudHub?

A

A service that allows connections between multiple sites with a site-to-site VPN connection through a hub-and-spoke model

34
Q

What is the difference between a NAT instance and a NAT gateway?

A

NAT instance: an EC2 server used as a NAT; can be used as a bastion host; supports security groups; supports port forwarding

NAT gateway: a NAT managed by AWS

35
Q

What are the 4 configurations supported by the VPC console wizard?

A

1) VPC with 1 public subnet
2) VPC with public and private subnets
3) VPC with public and private subnets and site-to-site VPN access
4) VPC with private subnet only and site-to-site VPN access

36
Q

What is enhanced fanout?

A

A feature of Kinesis Data Streams to enable each consumer to have their own 2 MB/s pipe per shard

(instead of the default, which is a single 2 MB/s pipe for all consumers)

37
Q

What is the difference between SQS and Kinesis Data Streams?

A

SQS:

  • message-based ack/fail with visibility timeout
  • increase throughput at read time by adding more consumers

Kinesis Data Streams:

  • multiple concurrent consumers
  • consume records in the same order a few hours later
38
Q

What is AWS OpsWorks?

A

A configuration management service that provides managed instances of Chef and Puppet

39
Q

What is AWS X-Ray?

A

A service which shows an end-to-end view of request as they travel across distributed applications, including across AWS accounts

40
Q

What is CloudTrail?

A

A service which monitors AWS account activity

41
Q

What are VPC Flow Logs?

A

They capture info about IP traffic to/from your VPC

42
Q

What is the difference between a gateway endpoint and an interface endpoint?

A

Gateway endpoint: specified as a target for a route in route table to either S3 or DynamoDB

Interface endpoint: an ENI with a private IP which is the entry point for non-S3 and non-DynamoDB AWS services

43
Q

Which two services use Gateway VPC Endpoints?

A

S3 and DynamoDB

44
Q

What is the difference between a launch template and a launch configuration?

A

Launch configurations are deprecated

Launch templates have more features

45
Q

What is the difference between Cognito User Pools and Cognito Identity Pools?

A

Cognito User Pool: a way to log into an app; a serverless database of users

Cognito Identity Pool: a way to provide temp access to AWS resources

46
Q

What is the difference between a dedicated host and a dedicated instance?

A

With dedicated hosts, you can bring your own license.

Although both give you dedicated hardware, a dedicated HOST is the SAME hardware as long as you are paying.

A dedicated INSTANCE is the same hardware as long as the EC2 instance is RUNNING. Start/stop it and you may get different hardware

47
Q

What is the difference between site-to-site VPN and Direct Connect?

A

Site-to-Site VPN: connect on-prem with VPC over VPN on public internet. Takes minutes to configure

Direct Connect: physical connection between on-prem and VPC. Takes 1 month to set up. Private network, private connection

48
Q

What is a transit gateway?

A

A network hub for interconnecting VPCs and on-prem networks

49
Q

What is AWS Global Accelerator?

A

A service that leverages 2 anycast IP addresses…

…which will forward traffic to an edge location…

…which will forward traffic through the AWS network to your application

Used especially with non-HTTP traffic! (e.g., UDP, MQTT, etc.)

50
Q

What is the difference between unicast IP and anycast IP?

A

Unicast IP: one IP per server

Anycast IP: one IP for multiple servers

51
Q

What is the difference between the EFS modes Bursting Throughput and Provisioned Throughput?

A

Bursting Throughput: throughput scales as the filesystem grows

Provisioned Throughput: instantly provision throughput independent of the amount of data stored.

52
Q

What are the different EFS modes?

A

1) Performance—General Purpose
2) Performance—Max I/O
3) Throughput—Bursting Throughput
4) Throughput—Provisioned Throughput

53
Q

What is the difference between CloudFront and Global Accelerator?

A

CloudFront: cached content is served from the edge

Global Accelerator: the edge proxies packets to your application

54
Q

What is the maximum number of instances per AZ when using a single spread placement group?

A

7

55
Q

What is an Internet Gateway?

A

It allows communication between instances in the VPC and the Internet

56
Q

What is VPN Connection? (AKA Site-to-Site VPN)?

A

Securely connect on-prem server with AWS VPC

57
Q

What does Amazon GuardDuty do?

A

Analyze logs and generate security findings, including against CryptoCurrency attacks

58
Q

What sorts of logs does GuardDuty analyze?

A

1) CloudTrail Event Logs
2) VPC Flow Logs
3) DNS Logs
4) Kubernetes Audit Logs

59
Q

What does Amazon Macie do?

A

Analyze S3 buckets for sensitive information (including PII)

60
Q

Which services can be used to buffer or throttle requests?

A

1) API Gateway
2) SQS
3) Kinesis

61
Q

What is the difference between Bursting Throughput and Provisioned Throughput

A

Both are EFS modes

Bursting Throughput: throughout scales as the filesystem grows

Provisioned Throughput: instantly provision throughput independent of the amount of data stored

62
Q

What are the different EFS modes?

A

1) Performance—General Purpose
2) Performance—Max I/O
3) Throughput—Bursting Throughput
4) Throughput—Provisioned Throughput

63
Q

What is an Elastic IP Address?

A

A static IPv4 address associated to your AWS account.

Can mask failure of an instance by rapidly remapping to a different instance.

64
Q

What conditions can an Application Load Balancer use to route a request?

A

1) http-request-method
2) path-pattern
3) host-header (name of host)
4) query-string
5) http-header
6) source-ip

65
Q

What does AWS PrivateLink do?

A

Creates a private connection between an application fronted by an NLB in one account with an ENI in another account

66
Q

Which AWS services can serve as the target for an Alias record?

A
  • Global Accelerator
  • Elastic Beanstalk
  • CloudFront
  • Route53 Record
  • API Gateway
  • VPC Interface Endpoints
  • ELB
  • S3 Websites
  • NOT an EC2 instance
67
Q

What is the difference between an Alias and a CNAME record?

A

Alias: maps to an AWS resource; can be used for the zone apex

CNAME: maps to any other hostname; cannot be used for the zone apex

68
Q

What does DNS hostnames do?

A

Gives an EC2 instance a public hostname that corresponds to its public IP

Disabled by default for non-default VPCs

69
Q

What does the DNS resolution option do?

A

Enables using AWS DNS server to resolve hostnames

70
Q

What options do you need to configure to create a private hosted zone?

A

Enable both DNS hostnames and DNS resolution

71
Q

What is cross-zone load balancing?

A

When enabled, a load balancer distributes traffic across all nodes equally.

When disabled, a load balancer distributes traffic across all Availability Zones equally.

72
Q

List and explain the differences between the different disaster recovery mechanisms.

A

1) Backup and Restore (RPO in hours, RTO <= 24 hours)
2) Pilot Light—critical systems only are already running in the cloud (RPO in minutes, RTO in hours)
3) Warm Standby—a full version of the system is running in the cloud, but not scaled (RPO in seconds, RTO in minutes)
4) Hot-site/multi-site/active-active—a full production scale backup is always running (RPO near zero, RTO potentially zero)

73
Q

What is S3 object lock?

A

Facilitates a WORM model (Write Once, Read Many) by preventing objects from being deleted or overwritten for a fixed amount of time (or indefinitely).

Only works in versioned buckets

74
Q

What are DynamoDB Streams?

A

An ordered flow of information about changes to items in DynamoDB tables

75
Q

List and explain the differences between Route53’s routing policies.

A
  • Simple—route traffic to a single resource
  • Failover—route traffic to a secondary resource if the health check to the primary resource fails
  • Geolocation—route traffic based on the location of USERS
  • Geoproximity—route traffic based on the location of RESOURCES
  • Latency—route traffic to the region with the lowest latency
  • Multivalue—respond to DNS queries with multiple records (can use health checks)
  • Weighted—control the percentage of requests that route to a particular resource
76
Q

What is the difference between the Geolocation and the Geoproximity routing policies?

A

Geolocation: route traffic based on the location of USERS

Geoproximity: route traffic based on the location of RESOURCES (you can change the size of the geographic region from which users are directed to your resource on a literal map by changing the BIAS)

77
Q

What is an access control list (ACL)?

A

A service policy that controls which principals in another account can access an AWS resource

78
Q

What is the only resource-based policy that IAM supports?

A

A trust policy