Alimentary system Flashcards

1
Q

Define Digestion

A

Process of breaking down macro-molecules to allow absorption

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2
Q

Define Absorption

A

Process of moving nutrients and water across a membrane

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3
Q

Describe the different pathways after ingestion.

A
  1. Digestion -> Excretion
  2. Digestion -> Absorption
  3. Excretion
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4
Q

List the components of the GI system.

A

(Salivary glands - Parotid, sublingual and sub-mandibular)

  • Oesophagus
  • Stomach
  • Liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Pancrease
  • Duodenum
  • Jejenum
  • Ileum
  • Appendix
  • Ascending colon
  • Transverse colon
  • Descending colon
  • Sigmoid colon
  • Rectum
  • Anus
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5
Q

List the main diseases of the Upper, mid and lower GI tract.

A
  • Oesophageal cancer
  • Barret’s oesophagus
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
  • Stomach cancer
  • Gastric ulcers
  • Liver sclerosis
  • Hepatitis
  • Jaundice
  • Cholangiti
  • Liver failure
  • Diabetes
  • Pancreatitis
  • Pancreatic cancer
  • Duodenal ulcers
  • Obesity
  • Coeliac disease
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Irritable bowel syndrome
  • Appendicitis
  • Colon cancer
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6
Q

What are the general symptoms related to GI tract disease?

A
  • Anorexia
  • Weight loss
  • Anaemia
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7
Q

What are the symptoms related to upper GI tract disease?

A
  • Haematemesis (vomiting blood)
  • Melaena (dark faeces)
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia (painful swallowing)
  • Heartburn
  • Acid regurgitation
  • Belching
  • Chest pain
  • Epigastric pain
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8
Q

What are the symptoms related to hepatobilary GI tract disease?

A
  • Right upper quadrant pain
  • Biliary colic (pain related to gallbladder)
  • Jaundice
  • Dark urine
  • Pale stool
  • Abdominal distension (Ascites)
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9
Q

What are the symptoms related to mid GI tract disease?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Steatorrhoea
  • Diarrhoea
  • Abdominal distension
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10
Q

What are the symptoms related to lower GI tract disease?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Bleeding
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhoea
  • Incontinence
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11
Q

List the general signs and symptoms seen in GI tract disease.

A
  • Cachexia (weakness, and wasting of body)
  • Obesity
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Anaemia
  • Jaundice
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12
Q

List the signs and symptoms seen in the hands in GI tract disease.

A
  • Koilinychia (spoon shaped nails)
  • Leuconychia (white spots on nails)
  • Clubbing
  • Dupytrens contracture (fixed forward curvature of finger/s)
  • tachycardia
  • tremor
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13
Q

List the signs and symptoms seen in the abdomen in GI tract disease.

A
  • Organ enlargement
  • Mass
  • Tenderness
  • Distension
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14
Q

List the signs and symptoms seen in the anus and rectum in GI tract disease.

A
  • Haemorrhoids
  • Fistula (abnormal passage)
  • Fissure (tear/open sore)
  • Rectal masses
  • Proctitis (inflammation)
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15
Q

What basic investigations can be done for the GI system?

A
  • History: presenting symptoms, dietary habits, family history, ethnicity, environmental factors, travel
  • Physical examination: hands, skin, palpable abdominal organs, digital rectal exam, rigid sigmoidoscopy
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16
Q

What further investigations/procedures can be done for the GI system?

A

Haematology, biochemistry and microbiology:

  • Blood tests: blood sugar (glucose, fasting glucose, glucose intolerance, HbA1C)
  • Tumour markers (CA19-9 - pancreatic and other GI cancers)
  • Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Crohn’s disease)
  • Urea and electrolytes (absorption disorders)
  • Liver function tests
  • Antibodies
  • Microbiology - Hep B, Hep C, faecal occult blood)

Procedures:

  • Endoscopy
  • Colonoscopy
  • Ultrasound
  • CT, MRI, X-ray
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17
Q

What GI tract diseases have the highest mortality rates?

A
  • GI tract cancers (cumulatively) have the largest proportion of deaths from cancer
  • Liver cirrhosis is the largest cause of death out of all GI tract diseases (and increasing)
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18
Q

What is the prevalence of ulcerative colitis? What is the treatment?

A

1 in 500

Treatment - colectomy

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19
Q

What is the prevalence of Crohn’s disease?

A

1 in 1000

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20
Q

What is Coeliac disease? What is the prevalence?

A
  • Gluten insensitivity

- 1 in 87

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21
Q

Outline pancreatic conditions.

A

Acute pancreatitis:

  • mild to life-threatening
  • blockage of pancreatic duct causing back-up of pancreatic enzymes causing severe inflammation
  • ethanol and gallstones in 80%

Chronic pancreatitis:

  • permanent damage to pancreas
  • alcohol excess main cause
  • can greatly impair quality of life
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22
Q

What infections are common in the GI tract?

A

Bacterial:

  • Helicobacter Pylori:(commonly found) nausea, bloating, weight loss
  • Escherichia coli: nausea, diarrhoea, cramps

Viral:
- Norovirus: nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea

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23
Q

Describe the consequences of H. pylori infection.

A
  • 85% no long term effects
  • 14% peptic ulceration
  • 1% gastric adenocarcinoma or lymphoma
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24
Q

What environmental factors affect the susceptibility to GI disease across the world?

A
  • Energy intake
  • Staple foods
  • Changes in food through time
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25
Q

What is QALY and DALY?

A

QALY - quality adjusted life year

DALY - disability adjusted life years

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26
Q

Describe the economic burden of GI disease.

A
  • Mortality and lost years
  • Absence from work
  • Morbidity
  • NHS prescription
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27
Q

Outline the basic plan of the gut wall.

A

Mucosa:

  • Epithelium
  • Lamina Propria: loose connective tissue, contains capillaries, nerve endings, lymphatic capillaries
  • Muscularis mucosae

Submucosa: connective tissue, containing nerve plexus (including enteric nervous system) and larger vessels.

Muscularis: smooth muscle (containing nerve plexus)

Serosa/Adventitia:

  • connective tissue, outer lining keeping it suspended
  • epithelium
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28
Q

Outline the anatomy of the oesophagus.

A
  • Starts at C5
  • Passes through the thorax, and diaphragm to connect to the stomach
  • Ends at T10
  • Passes close to the trachea and aorta (if ruptures can be fatal)
  • Divided into thirds: Cervical (narrow), middle and lower
  • More smooth muscle as you go down
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29
Q

What is the function of the oesophagus?

A

Conduit for food, drink and swallowed secretions from pharynx to stomach

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30
Q

Describe the epithelium of the oesophagus.

A
  • Non-keratinising
  • Stratified squamous
  • ‘Wear and tear’ lining (extremes of temp and textures)
  • Lubrication: mucus secreting glands (and also saliva)
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31
Q

Describe the sphincters in the oesophagus.

A
  • Upper and lower oesophageal sphincters
  • Tonically active: permanently closed unless swallowing
  • Due to pressure differences without the sphincters there would be a tendency of contents of the stomach to be drawn up or air to be drawn in
  • Initiation of swallowing cause nerve impulses to travel to the brain and back to open the sphincters, then once food passes the upper oesophageal sphincter it closes (to be able to breathe) whereas the lower remains open till the food enters the stomach
  • Structure: Mix of skeletal and smooth. Upper - skeletal, mid - mix, lower - smooth.
  • Involuntary control by swallowing centre in brain, though initiation is voluntary
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32
Q

How is a bolus of food moved through the oesophagus?

A
  • Circular muscle is particularly important
  • Peristaltic wave:
    Circular muscle above food contracts, and circular muscle below the food relaxes
  • Assisted by longitudinal muscle
  • Oesophagus detects presence of food and so can initiate a secondary peristaltic wave
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33
Q

Describe the features of the gasto-oesophageal junction.

A
  • Lower oesophageal sphincter = skeletal muscle of diaphragm assisting the circular muscle of oesophagus to constrict and close it
  • As the lower part of the oesophagus is in the abdomen there is no pressure difference between it and the stomach so less likely to have stomach contents moving up
  • Pregnancy or a very large meal can lead to reflux
  • Epithelial transition from stratified squamous to simple columnar (stomach) at the zigzag (Z) line
  • Gastric folds (rugae) in the stomach for increased surface area to expand or contract as required
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34
Q

Describe the mechanism of belching.

A

Initiation of a swallowing reflex to open both sphincter and allowing release (due to the pressure) of gas from the stomach

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35
Q

What is the function of the stomach?

A

Breaks food down into smaller particles stored (due to acid and pepsin), hold food and release at a controlled steady state into duodenum, kill parasites and certain bacteria

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36
Q

Describe the features of the stomach.

A
  • Simple columnar epithelium
  • Made up of the fundus and body (secreting mucus, HCl and pepsinogen), Cardia and pylori region (secreting mucus only) and the antrum (secretes gastrin)
  • Acid produced about 2L/day, can reach 150mM H+
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37
Q

Describe the different cell types in the stomach.

A
  • Epithelial cells secreting mucus with large amount of bicarbonate, found all over the stomach. Protects the lining of the stomach by neutralising acid at the surface
  • Chief cell - Protein-secreting (pepsinogen) epithelial cell, abundant RER and Golgi for packaging and modifying for export, masses of apical secretion granules.
  • Parietal cell - Many mitochondria to actively transport H+, cytoplasmic tubovesicles contain H+/K+ ATPase, internal canuliculi near apical surface. When active the tubular vesicle fuse with the membrane and project into the cannaliculi.
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38
Q

Outline the production of H+ by parietal cells.

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase converts CO2 and H2O to H+ and HCO3-
  • HCO3- is exchanged for Cl- which enters the cell
  • H+ ions are actively transported into the lumen in exchange for K+ ions
  • Cl- moves with H+ out of the cell
  • K+ is taken up into the cell (via Na+/K+ pump) and then exits into the lumen
  • Fusion of the tubular vesicles and the canaliculi mean increase no. of H+/K+ ATPase
    NET = secretion of HCL into the lumen
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39
Q

How does the chief and parietal cell interact?

A
  • Chief cells secrete pepsinogen which is an inactive precursor
  • The acidic environment created by the parietal cells causes a conformation change leading to enzymatic activity within the pepsinogen and cleavage of other pepsinogen molecules
  • This leads to production of pepsin (protease)
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40
Q

Describe the features of gastrin.

A
  • Produced in the Pyloric antrum
  • Stimulates acid secretion
  • At very high pH gastrin secretion is supressed (i.e. empty stomach)
  • After meal protein content changes pH to 3/4 -> there is no inhibition of gastrin -> gastrin secretion -> increase in acid
  • (OR) Gastrin stimulates histamine release from chromaffin cells in the lamina propria -> acid production
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41
Q

Outline the phases of gastric secretion.

A
  1. Cephalic phase: Thought, sight, smell and taste of food causes impulses from brain through vagus nerve to stomach. Acetyl choline stimulates acid production by stimulating parietal cells or histamine release from chromaffin cells.
  2. Gastric phase: When there is food in the stomach, the distension detected by stretch receptors signals brain through vagus, and in turn efferent impulses stimulate more acid production. Enteric nervous system also acts in response to stretch. Chemoreceptors detect to chemical changes and respond with gastrin secretion.
  3. Intestinal phase: Mostly inhibitory. As stomach contents passes into the small intestine (particularly if pH
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42
Q

Describe the enterogastric reflex

A
  • Low pH of chyme stimulates secretion of enterogastrones from the small intestine.
  • Enterogastrones: gastric inhibitory peptidem cholecystokinin, secretin
  • Secreted into the blood and switch off acid production in the stomach
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43
Q

What drugs are used to decrease acid secretion?

A
  • Omeprazole: Proton pump inhibitor that prevents the release of H+ into the lumen
  • Ranitidine: Histamine receptor antagonist to prevent stimulation of acid production by acetyl choline or gastrin
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44
Q

What is the function of the small intestine?

A

To absorb nutrients, salt and water

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45
Q

Describe the structure of the small intestine.

A
  • Approx. 6m long, 3.5 cm in diametre
  • Duodenum - 25cm
  • Jejenum - 2.5m
  • Ileum - 3.75m
  • All have same basic histology with some differences- no sudden transition between them
  • Mesentery: fan-shaped connective tissue which throws the small intestine into folds and supports the blood supply
  • External wall - longitudinal and circular muscles (motilit)
  • Internal mucosa - arranged into circular folds. Covered in villi (about 1mm tall) with invaginations known as crypts of Lieberkuhn
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46
Q

What are the features of the villi?

A
  • Only occur in the small intestine (where most absorption takes place)
  • Increase surface area
  • Motile, have a rich blood supply and lymph drainage for absorption of digested nutrients
  • Have good innervation from the submucosal plexus
  • Have simple epithelium (1 cell thick) dominated by enterocytes (columnar absorptive cells)
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47
Q

Describe the cell types found in the small intestine.

A
Mucosa lined with simple columnar epithelium consisting of:
- Primary enterocytes (absorptive cells)
- Scattered goblet cells 
- Enteroendocrine cells
Crypts of Lieberkuhn epithelium include:
- Paneth cells
- Stem cells
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48
Q

Describe the features of enterocytes.

A
  • Most abundant type in small intestine
  • Tall columnar cells with microvilli and a basal nucleus
  • Specialised for absorption and transport of substances
  • Short lifespan of about 1-6 days (average 30hrs)
  • Tight junctions between cells prevent paracellular movement and allow polarity of proteins
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49
Q

Describe the features of the microvilli.

A
  • About 0.5-1.5μm high
  • Make up the brush border
  • Several thousand per cell
  • Surface covered with glycocalyx, a rich carbohydrate later which protects from digestion and allows absorption. It traps a layer of water and mucous (unstirred layer) which regulated the rate of absorption from intestinal lumen
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50
Q

What is the important of villi, microvilli and folds?

A

Increase the surface are from 0.4m^2 to around 200m^2 (500 fold)

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51
Q

Describe the features of goblet cells.

A
  • 2nd most abundant epithelial cell type
  • Mucous containing granules accumulate at the apical end -> goblet shape
  • Mucous = large glycoprotein that facilitates passage os material through the bowel
  • Abundance increases along the length of the bowel (as more water in absorbed it becomes harder to move)
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52
Q

Describe the features of the enteroendocrine cells.

A

(Chromaffin cells)

  • Columnar epithelial cells, scattered among the absorptive cells
  • In intestine most often found in the lower parts of the crypts
  • Hormone secreting, e.g. to influence gut motility
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53
Q

Describe the features of paneth cells.

A
  • Found only in bases of the crypts
  • Contain large acidophilic granules which contain antibacterial enzyme lysozyme (protect stem cells) and glycoproteins (protect from the enzymes) and zinc (co-factor of enzymes)
  • Engulf some bacteria and protozoa
  • May have a role in regulating intestinal flora
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54
Q

Describe the lifespan of the epithelium.

A
  • Cell proliferation, differentiation and death are continuous processes in the gut epithelium
  • Enterocytes and goblet cells of the small intestine have a short life span (about 36hrs)
  • Continually replaced by dividing stem cells in the crypts
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55
Q

Outline the stem cells found in the small intestine and their role.

A
  • Undifferentiated cells which remain capable of cell division to replace cells which die
  • Epithelial stem cells are essential in the GI tract to continually replenish the surface epithelium
  • Continually divide by mitosis
  • Migrate up to the tip of villus, replacing older cells that die by apoptosis (‘escalator’ of migration)
  • At villus tips cells become senescent and sloughed (shed) into the lumen of the intestine to be digested and reabsorbed
  • Differentiate into various cell types (pluripotent)
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56
Q

Why does the small intestine have a rapid turnover of cells?

A
  • Enterocytes are first line of defense against GI pathogens and may be affected directly by toxic substances in the diet
  • Effect of agents which interfere with cell function, metabolic rate etc will be diminished
  • Any lesions with be short-lived
  • If there’s impaired production of new cells (e.g. radiation) there will be severe intestinal dysfunction
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57
Q

Describe the how cholera affects the small intestine.

A
  • Cholera enterotoxin results in prolonged opening of the chloride channels in the small intestine allowing uncontrolled secretion of water
  • Bodily fluid moves freely into the lumen and hence out through the intestine, leading to rapid, massive dehydration and death
  • Treatment is rehydration. Cholera bacteria will clear when the epithelium will be replaced
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58
Q

Outline the distinguishing features of the duodenum.

A
  • Distinguished by presence of Brunner’s glands: submucosal coiled tubular mucous glands secreting alkaline fluid, open into the base of the crypts
  • Alkaline secretion of Brunner’s glands: neutralises acidic chyme from the stomach, protecting proximal small intestine, help optimise pH for the action of pancreatic digestive enzymes
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59
Q

Outline the distinguishing features of the Jejenum.

A
  • Characterised by the presence of numerous, large folds in the submucosa, called plicae circulares (or valves of Kerckring)
  • Also present in the duodenum and ileum but plicae in the jejenum tend to be taller, thinner and more frequent
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60
Q

Outline the distinguishing features of the Ileum.

A
  • Shares some features with large intestine
  • Has a lot of Peyer’s patches: large clusters of lymph nodules in the submucosa
  • Prime immune system against intestinal bacteria (other mechanisms = bactericidal paneth cells, rapid cell turnover)
  • Well positioned to prevent bacteria from colon migrating up into the small intestine
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61
Q

What is the function of the small intestine’s motility?

A
  • Mix ingested food with digestive secretions and enzymes
  • Facilitate contact between contents of intestine and intestinal mucosa
  • Propel intestinal contents along the alimentary tract
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62
Q

What are the three types of movement in the small intestine?

A
  • Segmentation (mixing)
  • Peristalsis (propelling)
  • Migratory motor complex (sweeps through gut, preventing accumulation of residue)
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63
Q

Outline segmentation of the small intestine.

A
  • Mixes contents of the lumen
  • Segmentation occurs by stationary contraction of circular muscles at intervals
  • More frequent contractions in duodenum compared to ileum to allow pancreatic enzymes and bile to mix with chyme
  • Although chyme moves in both directions the net effect is movement towards the colon
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64
Q

Outline peristalsis in the small intestine.

A
  • Involves sequential contraction of adjacent rings of smooth muscle
  • Propels chyme towards the colon
  • Most waves of peristalsis travel about 10 cm (not full length)
  • Segmentation and peristalsis result in chyme being segmented, mixed and propelled towards the colon
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65
Q

Outline migrating motor complex in the small intestine.

A
  • In fasting there’s cycles of smooth muscle contraction
  • Each cycle there’s contraction of adjacent segments of small intestine
  • Begin in stomach, migrate through small intestine towards colon. On reaching terminal ileum, next contraction starts in the duodenum
  • Prevents migration of colonic bacteria into the ileum and may ‘clean’ the intestine of residual food
  • Also occurs in fed state, but less ordered and less frequent
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66
Q

Describe digestion in the small intestine.

A
  • Digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
  • Occurs in alkaline environment
  • Digestive enzymes and bile enter the duodenum from pancreatic duct and bile duct
  • Duodenal epithelium also produces its own enzymes
  • Digestion occurs both in the lumen and in contact with the membrane
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67
Q

Outline the mechanisms of absorption in the small intestine.

A
  • Passive diffusion: no carrier protiens, with the concentration gradient, no energy required
  • Facilitated diffusion: carrier proteins, with the concentration gradient, no energy required
  • Primary active transport: carrier proteins, against concentration gradient, energy required from hydrolysis of ATP
  • Secondary active transport: carrier proteins, against concentration gradient, energy required from electrochemical gradient
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68
Q

Outline the digestion of carbohydrates.

A
  • Begins by salivary α-amylase, but it’s destroyed by acidic pH in stomach
  • Most digestion occurs in the small intestine
  • Pancreatic α-amylase secreted into duodenum by pancreas in response to a meal. Continues digestion of starch and glycogen in small intestine.
  • Acts mainly in lumen, and some adsorbs to brush border.
  • Digestion of amylase products and simple carbohydrates occurs at the membrane (e.g. by maltase, lactase, sucrase)
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69
Q

What are the requirements of pancreatic α-amylase?

A
  • Cl-

- slightly alkaline pH (Brunner’s glands in duodenum=alkaline secretion)

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70
Q

Outline the different types of carbohydrates and their break down.

A
  • Simple carbohydrates, e.g. monosaccharides - glucose and fructose, diasaccharides - sucrose and maltose. Broken down at membrane.
  • Complex carbohydrates, e.g. starch, cellulose, pectins. Sugars bonded together to form a chain. Broken down in lumen
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71
Q

Outline the absorption of carbohydrates in the small intestine.

A

Apical:
- Absorption of glucose and galactose is by secondary active transport. Carrier protein = SGLT-1 (sodium-glucose transport protein) on apical membrane.
- Absorption of fructose is by facilitated diffusion. Carrier protein = GLUT-5 on apical membrane
Basal:
- GLUT-2 facilitates exit at the basolateral membrane

  • Can absorb 10kg of simple sugars per day
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72
Q

Outline the digestion of protein in the small intestine.

A
  • Begins in the stomach by pepsin, but pepsin is inactivated in the alkaline duodenum
  • Pancreatic proteases are secreted as precursors
  • Trypsin is activated by enterokinase, an enzyme located on duodenal brush border
  • Trypsin then activated the other proteases
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73
Q

Outline the absorption of proteins in the small intestine.

A
  • Brush border peptidases break down the larger peptides prior to absorption
  • Amino acids are absorbed by facilitated diffusion and secondary active transport
  • Di- and tri-peptides are absorbed using carrier proteins distinct from single amino acids
  • Cytoplasmic peptidases break down most of the di- and tri- peptides before they cross the basolateral membrane
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74
Q

Summarise the process of digestion of lipids in the small intestine.

A
  • Lipids are poorly soluble in water
  • Four stage process in the small intestine:
    1. Secretion of bile and lipases
    2. Emulsification (bile)
    3. Enzymatic hydrolysis of ester linkages
    4. Solubilization of lipolytic products in bile salt micelles
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75
Q

Outline the emulsification of lipids in the small intestine.

A
  • Fat is hydrophobic
  • Bile and lipases are secreted into the duodenum
  • Bile salts facilitate the emulsification of fat into the suspension of lipid droplets ( about 1μm diametre)
  • Function of emulsification is to increase the surface area for digestion
  • Allows pancreatic lipase to split triglycerides
  • A triglyceride is broken down into two free fatty acids and a monoglyceride at the fat/water interface
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76
Q

What is a bile salt molecule?

A
  • Steroid nucleus planar with two faces (amphipathic)
  • Hydrophobic (nucleus and methyl) face dissolves fat
  • Hydrophilic (hydroxul and carboxyl) face dissolves in water
  • Emulsify lipids and allow diffusion of micelles into enterocytes via microvilli
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77
Q

Outline the structure of bile salt micelles.

A
  • Micelles = hydrophilic head regions in contact with the surrounding solvent, sequestering the hydrophobic tail regions in the micelle centre
  • Mixed micelles in small intestine = water insoluble monoglycerides from lipolysis are solubilised by forming a lipid core, stabilised by bile salts.
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78
Q

How are lipids digested?

A
  • Lipase breaks down triglycerides into free fatty acids and monoglycerides.
  • Pancreatic lipase complexes with colipase
  • Colipase prevents bile salts from displacing lipase from the fat droplet
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79
Q

What other enzymes are involved in lipid digestion?

A
  • Phopsholipase A2: hydrolyses fatty acids at the 2 position in many phospholipids, resulting in lysophospholipids and free fatty acids
  • Pancreatic cholesterol esterase: hydrolyses cholesterol ester to free cholesterol and fatty acid
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80
Q

Outline the absorption of lipids in the small intestine.

A
  • Bile salt micelles are important as they are absorbed much quicker than emulsion
  • Micelles allow the transport across the unstirred layer and present the fatty acids and monoglycerides to the brush border
  • The whole micelle is not absorbed together: bile salts are absorbed in the ileum (transported back to liver for recycling - enterohepatic circulation), but lipid absorption is completes by the middle of the jejunum
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81
Q

Outline the metabolism of lipids in enterocytes.

A

Monoglycerides and free fatty acids are absorbes by enterocytes and resynthesised into tri-glycerides by to pathways:

  • Monoglyceride acylation (major)
  • Phosphatidic acid pathway (minor)
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82
Q

Describe monoglyceride acylation.

A
  • Fatty acids bind to the apical membrane
  • Fatty acid binding proteins (FABP) facilitate transfer of fatty acids from apical membrane to the smooth ER
  • In the smooth ER fatty acids are esterified into diglycerides and triglycerides
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83
Q

Describe the phosphatidic acid pathway.

A

Tri-glycerides are synthesised from CoA fatty acid and α-glycerophosphate

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84
Q

What are the features of chylomicrons?

A
  • Lipoprotein particles synthesised in enterocytes as an emulsion
  • 80-90% triglycerides, 8-9% phospholipids, 2% cholesterol, 2% protein and a trace of carbohydrate.
  • Chylomicrons are transportef to the golgi and secreted across the basement membrane by exocytosis
  • Too big to enter blood capillaries
  • Enter lacteals (lymph channels) instead
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85
Q

Describe the joining of the small and large intestine.

A
  • Ileocaecal sphincter joins the ileum of the small intestine and the caecum of the large intestine
  • Relaxation and contraction controls the passage of material into the colon
  • Also prevents the back flow of bacteria into the ileum
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86
Q

Describe the gross anatomy of the liver.

A
  • 4 lobes: left, right, caudate and quadrate
  • Falciform ligament divides right (bigger) and left lobe then
  • The inferior free edge of the falciform ligament contains the ligamentum teres
  • Gall bladder is posterior in junction of segments 4 and 5
  • Calot’s triangle = bound by cystic duct, bile duct and cystic artery. Tringular space which is dissected in a cholecystectomy to find safe window to expose gallbladder
  • Superiorly: coronary ligament (right lobe), left triangular ligament
  • Posteriorly: Hilis (common bile duct, hepatic portal vein and hepatic portal artery), Inferior vena cava
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87
Q

What is the origin of the liver in embryology?

A

Liver and biliary system have common origin with ventral part of pancreas, at the distal foregut/proximal midgut

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88
Q

What are the developing layers in liver embryology?

A
  • Endoderm (parencymal cells (secretory cells) originate from this): one of three germ layers in very early embryo (innermost layer). Consists of flattened cells which subsequently become columnar and the epithelial lining of multiple systems.
  • Mesoderm (connective tissue originates from this): middle layer. Differentiates from the rest of embryo through intracellular signally leading to polarisation by an organising centre
  • Somites: form skin and muscoskeletal parts of the body.
  • Ectoderm: outside layer
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89
Q

Outline the stages of liver development.

A
  • Stage 11 (-29 days): Liver bud develops (hepatic diverticulum), invades septum transversum (mesoderm/connective tissue)
    Cell differentiation
  • Stage 12 (-30 days): Septum transversum (connective tissue) develops into liver stroma. Hepatic diverticulum forms hepatic trabeculae
  • Stage 13 (-32 days): Epithelial cord proliferation enmeshing stromal capillaries (Parenchyma entangles with connective tissue)
  • Stage 14 (-33 days): Enlargement of the liver bud, Haematopoietic function appears.
  • Stage 18 (-44 days): Bile ducts become reorganised (continuity between liver cells and gut)
  • Stage 18-23 (-44-56 days): Structure of the liver develops e.g. ductal plates form that receive biliary canaliculi. Begins migrating to right side.
  • 70 days: Liver mostly in right side
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90
Q

Describe the blood supply to the liver.

A
  • 25% of resting cardiac output
  • Dual: 20% arterial blood from hepatic artery (left and right branches), 80% venous blood draining from gut through hepatic portal vein.
  • Blood from liver drains into inferior vena cava via hepatic vein
  • Arterial blood for oxygen supply to tissues, venous blood from gut supplies deoxygenated blood full of nutrients (for metabolic activity)
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91
Q

What is Couinaud Classification?

A
  • 8 functionally independent segments of the liver each with their own vascular inflow, outflow and biliary drainage.
  • The portal vein, hepatic artery and bole duct drains centrally
  • The hepatic vein drains peripherally
  • Each segment can be resected without damaging those remaining
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92
Q

What are the positions of the segments in the liver? (clockwise)

A
  1. Caudate lobe
  2. Lateral to falciform ligament and superior to portal venous supply
  3. Lateral to falciform ligament and inferior to portal venous supply
  4. Medial to falciform ligament
  5. Medial and inferior right hemisphere
  6. Posterior portion of right hemisphere
  7. Above 6
  8. Above 5 (medial and superior right hemisphere)
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93
Q

Summarise the cells in the liver and their functions.

A
  • Hepatocytes: 80% of cells
  • Endothelial cells: Lining blood vessels and sinusoids
  • Cholangiocytes (bile duct epithelial cells): Lining biliary structures
  • Kupffer cells: Fixed (liver) macrophages
  • Hepatic stellate cells: Vit A storage cells (Ito cells), may be activated to a fibrogenic myofibroblastic phenotype
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94
Q

Describe the histological appearance of the cells in the liver.

A
  • Hepatocytes: large cells with pale and rounded nuclei. Cords (sheets) radiating from the central vein. 80% of liver mass
  • Kupffer or Hepatic stellate cells: Flattened, dense cell nuclei that appear to be in the sinusoids
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95
Q

Outline the function of hepatic stellate cells.

A
  • Vitamin A storage

- Activation -> ECM production (fibrogenesis)

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96
Q

Outline the function of Sinusoidal endothelial cells.

A

Fenestrated to allow lipid and other large molecule movement to and from hepatocytes

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97
Q

Outline the function of Kipffer cells.

A
  • Phagocytosis, including RBC breakdown

- Secretion of cytokines that promote hepatic stellate cell activation (-> proliferation, contraction and fibrogenesis)

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98
Q

What are the micro-anatomy structures in the liver?

A
  • Lobules: Morphological. Classically hexagonal, divided into At the corners of the lobule (hexagon) there are portal tracts/triad (hepatic artery, vein and bile duct)
  • Acinis: Functional unit. Elliptical or diamond shaped, hepatocytes divided into zones dependent on proximity to arterial blood supply.
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99
Q

What are portal tracts in the liver?

A
  • Around edges of adjoining lobules

- Composed of: an arteriole, branch of the portal vein and bile duct

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100
Q

Outline the structure of acini.

A
  • Less clearly defined
  • Divided into zones, dependent on distance to vascular supply (Zone 1 = periportal, 2 = Transition zone, 3 = Pericentral)
  • Zone 1 (closest) receives most oxygenated blood therefore is least susceptible to ischaemic injury, but most susceptible to viral hepatitis or hemosderin deposition (iron overload)
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101
Q

What are the divisions of the lobules in the liver?

A
  • Centrilobular
  • Midzonal
  • Periportal
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102
Q

Outline the functions of the acini.

A
  • Zone 1 is involved in gluconeogenesis, fatty acid oxidation and cholesterol synthesis
  • Zone 3 involved in glycolysis, lipogenesis and P450 based drug detoxification.
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103
Q

Outline the flow of bile in the liver.

A
  • Produced by hepatocytes
  • Flows along bile canaliculus to interlobular bile ducts
  • Into right/left hepatic ducts -> Common hepatic duct (-> Cystic duct gallbladder) -> Common bile duct -> Ampulla vater (joining of common bile duct and pancreatic duct) -> small intestine
  • Opposite direction to blood flow
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104
Q

What are some functions of hepatocytes? What is necessary for their action?

A
  • Protein metabolism: Synthesis, packaging, deamination of amino acids produce urea and reuse carbon skeleton (RER and golgi)
  • Carbohydrate metabolism: e.g. glycolysis, glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, glucogenesis (SER, mitochondria, cytoplasmic enzymes)
  • Lipid metabolism: Triglyceride metabolism - synthesis of fatty acids -> triglycerides and lipoproteins for transport to cells, and digested triglyceride chylomicron remnants processed into lipoproteins. Bile acid production (and salt e.g. Na+) (SER, peroxisomes, mitochondria)
  • Detoxification: Metabolise, modify/detoxifiy exogenous compounds e.g. drugs. (Lysosomes, SER)
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105
Q

Outline the embryology of the biliary structures.

A
  • Hepatic diverticulum/bud divides in the pars hepatica and pars cystica around 4 weeks
  • The pars cystica develops into the gallbladder and cystic duct by around 8 weeks
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106
Q

Outline the gross anatomy of the biliary system.

A
  • Gallbladder lies on ventral surface of the right lobule of the median lobe
  • Left and right hepatic ducts join to form the common hepatic duct
  • Cystic (from gallbladder) and common hepatic duct unite to form the common bile duct
  • Common bile duct enters the duodenum
  • Lower end of common bile duct is surrounded by muscle proximally known as the Sphincter of Oddi which controls release of bile
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107
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

Large, multifunctional organ

  • Digestion
  • Biosynthesis (glucose, protein, fat, bile)
  • Energy metabolism
  • Degradation and detoxifaction
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108
Q

Outline the role of the liver as a glucose buffer.

A
  • After a meal, blood glucose increases and is taken up by the tissues
  • Stored as glycogen mainly in the muscle and liver
  • Breakdown of liver glycogen maintains blood glucose concentration between meals (muscle cannot release glucose back into the blood)
  • 24hr fast will exhaust liver glycogen (80g)
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109
Q

Outline the role of the liver after exhaustion of glycogen.

A

Gluconeogenesis: synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources

  • From lactate -> pyruvate –(6 ATP)–> glucose (through Cori cycle)
  • From amino acids via deamination (removal of amino group) e.g. Alanine -> Pyruvation -> Glucose
  • From triglycerides -> glycerol -> glucose
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110
Q

Outline the role of liver in protein synthesis.

A
  • Synthesises 90% of plasma proteins (remainder are γ-globulins) Makes 15-50g/day
  • Importance: binding/carrier function, plasma -> colloid osmotic pressure (decrease can lead to oedema)
  • Synthesis of blood clotting factors
  • Synthesis of dietary ‘non-essential’ amino acids by transamination
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111
Q

Give an example of transamination.

A

General: amino acid + keto acid -> new amino acid + new keto acid

E.g. Alanine + α-oxoglutaric acid -> Glutamic acid + pyruvic acid

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112
Q

What is the process of synthesis of dietary ‘non-essential’ amino acids?

A
  • Transamination
  • ‘Non-essential’ amino acids are ones which cannot be obtained from diet
  • Start with appropriate α-keto acid precursor
  • Exchange of an amino acid group from an amino acid to a keto-acid
  • Essential amino acids (Lys, Leu, Ile, Met, Thr, Tyr, Val, Phe) don’t have appropriate keto acid precursors.
  • Glutamic acid is the most common intermediate in transamination reactions
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113
Q

What is deamination and why is the liver important in the process?

A
  • Deamination is the conversion of an amino acid into the corresponding keto acid by the removal of the amine group as ammonia and replacing it with a ketone
  • Occurs primarily of glutamic acid because it is the end product of many transamination reactions
  • Deaminatio = NH3 production = Highly toxic (especially to the CNS)
  • Liver converts NH3 to urea
  • Urea is a water soluble, metabolically inert, non-toxic product excreted in urine
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114
Q

Outline the role of the liver in fat (trygylceride) metabolism.

A
  • Fat is main energy store for body - 100x glycogen
  • Stored in adipose and liver
  • When glycogen store is full, liver can convert excess glucose and amino acids to fat (Lipogenesis)
  • Liver metabolises fat as energy store: converts fatty acids to Acetyl CoA (β-oxidation) -> TCA cycle in liver
  • OR Liver converts 2 Acetyl CoA -> acetoacetate (ketone body) for transport in blood, travels to other tissues –(by thiophorase)–> Acetyl CoA -> Energy
    Note: The liver does not have thiophorase -> cannot use ketone bodies
  • Ketone bodies produced in liver to be used by other tissues
  • Synthesises lipoproteins, cholesterol and phospholipids
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115
Q

How is lipoprotein synthesised in the liver?

A
  • Chylomicrons travel in the blood from the small intestine, and are broken down to release TAGs using lipoprotein lipase
  • In hepatocytes TAGs, cholesterol, phospholipid and a protein coat packaged into lipoproteins which stabalises the lipid.
  • Synthesis of lipoproteins, cholesterol, and phospholipids allow lipid transport in aqueous medium (blood)
  • Allows lipid transport in aqueous medium
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116
Q

Outline cholesterol synthesis in the liver.

A
  • Synthesised from Acetyl CoA connected to a sterol nucleus (also in diet)
  • Can be produced in different ways:
    • Acetyl CoA –(HMG-CoA)–> melavonate -> cholesterol
    • Cholesterol delivered by chylomicrons
    • Cholesterol delivered by HDLs from tissues
  • Cholesterol is then packaged in lipoproteins with phospholipids and sent around the body
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117
Q

What is enterohepatic recirculation?

A
  • Active reabsorption of bile salts (and other products in bile) mainly in terminal ileum.
  • De-conjugation and de-hydroxylation by bacteria make bile salt lipid soluble
  • Absorbed by Na+/bile salt co transport -> recirculate via hepatic portal vein back to liver
  • Hepatocytes avidly extract bile salts (one pass clears them all)
  • Bile salts are re-conjugated and some re-hydroxylated before reuse
  • Bile salt pool is secreted twice per meal
  • Less than 5% of bile isn’t absorbed in terminal ileum. In colon they’re converted to secondary bile acids
  • This can prolong the action of drugs e.g morphine in liver failure
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118
Q

What are the different sources of triglycerides?

A
  • Adipose tissue

- From diet in chylomicrons through lymph system

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119
Q

What are the different types of lipoproteins?

A
  • VLDL: lot of triglycerides (usually what liver produces)
    Can be converted to:
  • LDL: high cholesterol phospholipid. (Bad cholesterol - atherosclerosis) Delivers to tissues
  • HDL: high protein content. (Good cholesterol) Removes from tissues
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120
Q

How long can the body survive on fat stores (with water)?

A

About 2-8 weeks but depends on fat stores

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121
Q

Outline some features of bile production.

A
  • Produced by hepatocytes then drain into canuliculi
  • Gall bladder holds 15-60ml
  • Major component = bile salts (50% dry weight) , also has cholesterol, phospholipids (lecithin), bile pigments (bilirubin, biliverdin), bicarbonate ions and water
  • Some components are insoluble but mostly stable
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122
Q

What is the process of bile formation?

A
  • Addition of carboxyl and hydroxyl of cholesterol
  • To form cholic acid (primary bile acids)
  • Conjugation with taurine or glycine
  • Forms bile acid conjugates
    (Each process increases H2O solubility)
  • Moves to the gall bladder, and released into duodenum when required
  • Bacteria in ileum de-conjugate and de-hydroxylate primary bile salts to form secondary bile salts (active form -> increases bile salts)
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123
Q

What is the function of bile?

A
  • Digestion/absorption fats:
  • Excretion variety substances via GI tract
  • Neutralise acid chyme from stomach
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124
Q

How is bile secreted?

A
  • Released into the duodenum during digestion. Small amounts during cephalic, gastric phases due to vagal nerve and gastrin
  • Intestinal phase, cholecystokinin (CCK) causes contraction gall bladder and relaxation of sphincter of Oddi
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125
Q

How does bile aid digestion and absorption of fats?

A
  • Emulsify fat droplets with bile salts, which increases surface area for digestion
  • Hydrolysis of triglycerides in emulsified fat droplets into fatty acid and monoglycerides by pancreatic lipase
  • Dissolving fatty acids and monoglycerides into micelles to produce mixed micelles
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126
Q

How does bile relate to excretion in the GI tract?

A
  • Liver breaks down/inactivates steriod and peptide hormones which are then secreted into the bile for excretion
  • Also performs similar role with variety of foreign compounds - usually drugs e.g. cannabis
  • Excretory route for excess cholesterol: lecithin allows more cholesterol in micelles. Too much cholesterol excretion = gall stones. It’s also lost in salts
  • Excretion of bile pigments. Bilirubin from break down of haem from old red blood cells (15% from other proteins). Iron from haem group is removed in spleen and conserved. Porphyrin group reduced to bilirubin and conjugated to glucoronic acid in liver. Liver disease - gall stone made from red blood cell (dark red/black)
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127
Q

What other functions does the liver perform?

A

Larder function: (storage)

  • Vitamins (A,D,E,K) stores enough for 6-12 months, except Vit K which has a smaller store and is continuously used in blood clotting.
  • Iron as ferritin. Available for erythropoeisis
  • Vitamin B12 - Lack can lead to pernicious (megaloblastic) anaemia, nerve demyelination
  • Glycogen and fat store

Protection:
- Liver sinusoids contain tissue macraphages (Kupffer cells). Bacteria may cross from gut to blood - Kupffer cells destroy these and prevent them entering the rest of the body

Ca2+ metabolism:
- UV light converts cholesterol to vitamin D precursor, which requires a double hydroxylation to convert it to the active form. First is in the liver, second is in the kidneys. Lack of Vit D -> rickets

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128
Q

Outline the development of the pancreas.

A
  • Arises from the foregut at the foregut-midgut junction
  • Dorsal (larger, on left) and ventral buds (smaller, on right)
  • Ventral bud is a part of hepatobiliary bud
  • In development, as duodenum rotates to form C shape the ventral bud swings round to lie adjacent to the dorsal bud
  • Both buds fuse
  • Ventral bud ducts becomes main pancreatic duct, and dorsal duct can become accessory pancreatic duct
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129
Q

Describe the regions of the pancreas.

A

5 main regions

  • Body
  • Head (duct exits here)
  • Neck
  • Tail (islet tissue most abundant)
  • Uncinate (hook like process at bottom)
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130
Q

Describe the position of the pancreas.

A
  • Lies mainly on posterior abdominal wall extending from C-shaped duodenum to the hilum of the spleen
  • Main posterior relations: IVC, abdominal aorta and left kidney
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131
Q

Which vessels supply the pancreas with blood?

A
  • Coeliac artery

- Superior mesenteric artery

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132
Q

What methods can be used to image the pancreas?

A
  • MRI

- Angiography (especially to test for neuroendocrine tumours - blush appears)

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133
Q

Define endocrine and exocrine.

A
  • Endocrine: Secretion into blood stream to have an effect on distant target organ. From ductless glands
  • Exocrine: Secretion into a duct to have a direct local effect
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134
Q

What endocrine secretions does the pancreas release?

A
  • Insulin: reduced blood glucose by increasing glucose uptake, lipogenesis and glygogenesis
  • Glucagon: increases blood glucose by increasing gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
  • Somatostatin: ‘endocrine cyanide’ - inhibits other secretions
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135
Q

What is the distribution of functions in the pancreas?

A
  • Endocrine: 2%
    Islets of Langerhans secretes insulin and glucagon (also somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide) which regulates blood glucose, metabolism and growth effects
  • Exocrine: 98%
    Secretes pancreatic juice into the duodenum via pancreatic duct/common bile duct which has digestive function

Note: In pancreatic disease, both are affected e.g. cystic fibrosis

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136
Q

What is the difference structurally between the functionally different parts of the pancreas?

A

Exocrine: Ducts, acini are grape-like clusters of secretory units, acinar cells secrete pro-enzymes into ducts

Endocrine: Derived from branching duct system but lose contact with ducts and become islets, differentiate into α and β-cells secreting into blood. More in tail than head of pancreas

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137
Q

Outline the composition of cells in the islets.

A
  • α-cells form about 15-20% of islet tissue and secrete glucagon
  • β-cells form about 60-70% of islet tissue and secrete insulin
  • δ-cells form about 5-10% of islet tissue and secrete somatostatin
  • Highly vascular ensuring all endocrine cells have close access to a site for secretion
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138
Q

What is pancreatic juice composed of?

A
  • Low volume, viscous, enzyme-rich secreted by ACINAR CELLS

- High volume, watery, HCO3- rich secreted by DUCT and CENTRIACINAR cells

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139
Q

Describe the appearance of the cells in pancreatic acini.

A
  • Acinar cells: large, with apical secretion granules

- Duct cells: small, pale

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140
Q

What are the features of Bicarbonate secretion in the pancreas?

A
  • Secreted by duct and centriacinar cells
  • Juice is rich in bicarbonate, about 120mM (plasma - 25mM). pH 7.5-8.0
  • Neutralises acid chyme from the stomach which prevents damage to duodenal mucosa and raises pH to optimum range for pancreatic enzymes to work
  • Washes low volume enzyme secretion out of pancreas into duodenum
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141
Q

How is the bicarbonate secretion rate affected by pH in the duodenum? Explain why.

A
  • Duodenal pH
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142
Q

Outline the mechanism of bicarbonate secretion by duct cells.

A
  1. CO2 enters cell and carbonic anhydrase catalyses reaction with water (CO2 + H2O -> H+ + HCO3-).
  2. Na+ moves down concentration gradient paracellularly (tight junctions), and H2O follows
  3. Cl/HCO3- exchange at lumen allows bicarbonate secretion
  4. Na+/H+ exchange at basolateral membrane into bloodstream
    Exchange is driven by electrochemical gradients (High ec (blood) Na, High Cl in lumen0
  5. Na+ gradient into cell from blood maintained by Na/K exchange pump (uses ATP - primary transport)
  6. K+ returns to blood, and Cl- to lumen via K+ and Cl- channel (CFTR)
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143
Q

What are the features of enzyme secretion in the pancreas?

A
  • Enzymes for digestion of fat (lipases), protein (proteases) and carbohydrates (amylase) are synthesised and stored in zymogen granules
  • Zymogens = pro-enzymes (precursors)
  • Proteases are releases as inactive pro-enzymes -> protects acini and ducts from autodigestion e.g. trypsinogen
  • Pancreas also contains a trypsin (protease) inhibitor to prevent its activation
  • Enzymes only become active in the duodenum
  • Blockage of pancreatic duct may overload protection and result in auto-digestion (acute pancreatitis)
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144
Q

Outline the features of trypsin.

A
  • Secreted by pancreas in inactive form trypsinogen
  • Duodenal mucosa secretes enzyme enterokinase (enteropeptidase) that converts trypsinogen to trypsin
  • Trypsin then converts all other proteolytic, and some lipolytic enzymes (Note: lipase is secreted in active form but needs colipase which is secreted as a precursor. Also lipases need bile salts for effective action)
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145
Q

What can alter the pancreatic enzyme function?

A
  • Pancreatic secretions adapt to diet e.g. high protein, low carbs, increases proportion of proteases and decreases proportion of amylases
  • Pancreatic enzymes (+bile) are essential for normal digestion of a meal. Lack of these can lead to malnutrition even if the dietary input is fine (unlike salivary and gastric enzymes)
  • Anti-obesity drug Orlistat inhibits pancreatic lipases -> inhibits intestinal fat absorption -> steatorrhea (increased faecal fat).
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146
Q

Describe generally, the innervation of the gut.

A
  • Vagus
  • Cholinergic
  • Communicates information from the brain to gut
  • Originates from nucleus solitarius in brain stem
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147
Q

Outline the phases of exocrine secretion in the Pancreas.

A
  • Cephalic phase:
    Reflex response to sight/smell/taste food. Enzyme-rich component only. Low volume -> mobilises enzymes
  • Gastric phase:
    Stimulation of pancreatic secretion originating from food arriving in stomach. Same mechanisms involved as for cephalic phase
  • Intestinal: (70-80% of pancreatic secretion)
    Hormonally mediated when gastric chyme enters duodenum. Both components of pancreatic juice stimulated (enzymes + HCO3- juice flows into duodenum)
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148
Q

What controls each component of pancreatic exocrine secretion?

A
  • Bicarbonate secretion is controlled by release of hormone SECRETIN which binds and upregulates cAMP intracellularly -> increased transportation across membrane
  • Enzyme secretion is controlled by vagal reflex and by hormone CHOLECYSTOKININ (CCK) which binds to acinar cells and change intracellular Ca2+ and Phospholipase C (PLC) -> fusion of zymogen vesicles with membrane
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149
Q

Describe the feedback mechanism of bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas.

A
  • S cells in the duodenum ahve proton receptors and detect the high H+ concentration in acidic chyme
  • They produce secretin into the blood and in the pancreas it binds to receptors in duct cells
  • Binding leads to secretion of bicarbonate which reacts with chyme and increases pH
  • Increase in pH = less H+ so S cells are no longer stimulated
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150
Q

Describe the feedback mechanism of enzyme secretion from the pancreas.

A
  • Presence of peptides and fat in the chyme in the duodenum activate receptors in C cells (or I cells)
    Note: also stimulates by vagus nerve (parasympathetic)
  • CCK secreted into blood and reaches pancreas, where it binds to acinar cells
  • Acinar cells stimulates to produce enzyme secretion (pro-enzymes and trypsinogen inhibitor)
  • Enzymes break down the peptides and fat -> C cells no longer stimulated
    (may be other mechanisms involved)
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151
Q

Describe the effects of stimulation of the exocrine secretion in the pancreas and their interaction.

A
  • CCK alone -> no effect on bicarbonate secretion
  • CCK can markedly increase bicarbonate secretion that has been stimulated by secretin
  • Vagus nerve has a similar effect to CCK (i.e. enhances production in presence of secretin)
  • Secretin has NO EFFECT of enzyme secretion
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152
Q

What makes up the large intestine?

A
  • Consists of the colon, cecum, eppendix, rectum and anal canal
  • Cecum is a blind pouch just distal to the ileocecal valve. Larger in herbivores
  • Appendix is a thin, finger-like extension of the cecum. Not physiologically relevant in humans
153
Q

What is the shape of the colon?

A
  • 1.5m long, 6cm diameter
154
Q

What is the main function of the colon?

A
  • Reabsorption of electrolytes and water

- Elimination of undigested food and waste

155
Q

Outline the anatomical position of the colon.

A
  • Ascending colon is on right side of the abdomen and runs from the cecum to the hepatic flexure (turn of colon, by liver)
  • Transverse colon runs from the hepatic flexure to the splenic flexure (turn of colon, by spleen).
  • Hangs off the stomach, attached by a wide band of tissue called the greater omentum
  • Attached at posterior by mesocolon
  • Descending colon runs from splenic flexure to the sigmoid colon
  • Sigmoid (S-shaped) colon runs from descending colon to the rectum
156
Q

Describe the blood supply to the colon.

A
  • Proximal colon (ascending and first part of transverse) supplied by the middle colic artery (a branch of the superior mesenteric artery)
  • Distal third of transverse and descending supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery

Reflects embryological division between the midgut and hidgut.
Due to the two different supplies, the area near the splenic flexure or transverse colon is most susceptible to ischaemia

157
Q

What special features are there in the colon wall?

A
  • Peritoneum carries fatty tags (appendices epiploicae). Unknown purpose, suggested that it has a protective function against intra-abdominal infection
  • Muscle coat has 3 thick longitudinal bands (taeniae coli) giving a pouched appearance (haustra). Taenia coli necessary for large intestine motility. Taenia coli are shorter than large intestine -> haustra form.
158
Q

Outline the re-absorption that takes place in the colon.

A
  • Colon absorbs electrolytes and water
  • More in proximal colon
  • Na+ and Cl- absorbed by exchange mechanisms and ion channels
  • Water follows by osmosis
  • K+ moves passively into lumen
  • Large intestine can reabsorb approx 4.5L water (usually 1.5L with most reabsorbed in small intestine). If there is more fluid than threshold -> diarroea
159
Q

Describe the features of the rectum.

A
  • Dilated distal portion of the alimentary canal
  • Histology similar to the colon, but distinguished by transverse rectal folds in its submucosa (allows faeces storage) and the absence of taenia coli in its muscularis externa
  • Terminal portion is anal canal. Surrounded by internal (circular muscle) and external (striated muscle) anal sphincters
  • Internal is smooth and autonomic control, External is striated and voluntary control.
160
Q

Outline the differences in the large intestine wall, compared to the small intestine.

A
  • Mucosa appears smooth at the gross level because it has no villi (smaller SA than small intestine)
  • Enterocytes have short, irregular microvilli and primarily concerned with resorption of salts
  • (Water is absorbed passively, as it follows electrolytes -> more solid gut contents)
  • Crypts have more goblet cells to secrete mucus to allow more solid contents to keep moving, with numbers increasing distally toward the rectum. Stimulated by ACh from parasympathetic NS and enteric
  • No paneth cells as bacteria are necessary
  • Enteroendocrine cells are rarer than in small intestine
  • Glycocalyx does not contain digestive enzymes
161
Q

Describe the muscle layers in the large intestine.

A
  • (like small intestine), muscularis externa consists of an inner circular and outer longitudinal layer
  • Circular muscles segmentally thickened
  • Longitudinal layer concentrated in 3 bands (taenia coli) between the taenia, the longitudinal layer is thin. Taenia coli is continuous until the rectum and anal canal
  • Bundles of muscle from the taenia coli penetrate the circular layer at irregular intervals
  • Taenia is shorter than circular muscle layer so lead to ovoid segments called haustra which can contract individually
  • Requires due to more complicated movement (than small intestine) to allow further absorption
162
Q

Outline the motility of the large intestine.

A
  • COLONIC contractions (kneading process): minimally propulsive, 5-10cm/hr at most. Promotes absorption of electrolytes and water
  • In proximal colon ‘antipropulsive’ patterns dominate to retain chyme
  • In transverse and descending colon, localised segmental contractions of circular called HAUSTRAL contractions cause back and forth mixing
  • Hautral movements are short, propulsive movements every 30 mins. Increase in frequency after a meal
  • MASS MOVEMENT: 1-3 times daily, resembles peristaltic wave. Can propel contents 1/3 - 3/4 of length of large intestine in a few seconds.
  • Food containing fibre (indigestible material) promoted rapid transport through the colon
163
Q

How is the large intestine controlled?

A
  • Parasympathetic: Stimulates colon
    Ascending colon and most of transverse innervated by the vagus nerve. More distal innervated by the pelvic nerves.
  • Sympathetic: Inhibits colon
    Pre-ganglionic cell bodies at lower thoracic and upper lumbar spinal cord
  • External anal sphincter controlled by somatic motor fibres in the pudendal nerves
  • Enteric nervous system: Important. E.g. no enteric intramural ganglia -> Hirschsprung’s disease. Myenteric plexus ganglia is concentrated below the taenia coli.
  • Presence of food in stomach can stimulate mass movement - could be neural or hormonal (unsure).
  • Hormonal/paracrine control e.g.aldosterone promotes Na+ and water absorption (by synthesis of Na+ ion channel, and Na+/K+ pump)
164
Q

How is defecation controlled?

A
  • Rectum filled with faeces by mass movement in the sigmoid colon
  • Stores stool until convenient to void (on transverse rectal folds)
  • Defecation reflex is controlled primarily by the sacral spinal cord - both reflex and voluntary actions
  • Reflex to the sudden distension of walls of rectum: pressure receptors send signals via myenteric plexus to initiate peristaltic waves in descending, sigmoid colon and rectum. Internal anal sphincter is inhibited (so it’s open).
  • Enteric nervous system has a weak intrinsic signal which can be augmented by autonomic reflex
  • External anal sphincter under voluntary control
  • If urge is resisted, the sensation subsides
  • Last few centimetres of rectum is ‘social part’, and it can tell the difference between solid, liquid and gas - important in knowing what can be passed appropriately in what circumstances. (steatorrhoea - can’t tell difference between gas and oil)
165
Q

Outline some features of faeces.

A
  • 150g/day for an adult
  • 2/3 water
  • Solids: cellulose, bacteria, cell debris, bile pigments, salts (K+ - as passively diffuses into lumen)
  • Bile pigment gives colour
  • Bacterial fermentation gives odour
166
Q

What is the large intestine flora?

A
  • Diverse, highly metabolically active community
  • All mammals have a symbiotic relationship with gut microbial community (microbiome)
  • Stomach and small intestine have few bacteria (protected by Paneth cells and acid)
  • Large intestine has many - essential for normal function
  • Average adult human comprises of about 1.5kg of live bacteria, with active biomass of an organ system
167
Q

What are the roles of the intestinal flora?

A
  • Synthesize and excrete vitamins e.g. Vitamin K - germ free animals can have clotting problems
  • Prevent colonization by pathogens by competing for attachment sites or for essential nutrients
  • Antagonize other bacteria through production of substances which inhibit or kill non-indigenous species
  • Stimulate the production of cross-reactive antibodies. Antibodies produced against components of the normal flora can cross react with certain related pathogens, and thereby prevent infection/invasion
  • Stimulate development of certain tissues, including cecum and lymphatic tissues
  • Fibre (indigestible carbohydrate) can be broken down by colonic bacteria - produces short chain fatty acids which can regulate gut hormone release, absorbed and used as an energy source or influence functions e.g. food intake or insulin sensitivity directly
168
Q

Give examples of the normal flora.

A
  • Most prevalent are Bacteroides: Gram negative, anaerobic, non-sporeforming bacteria. Implicated in the initiation of colitis and colon cancer
  • Bifidobacteria: Gram positive, non-sporeforming, lactic acid bacteria. Thought to prevent colonization by potential pathogens (‘friendly’)
169
Q

What has gut bacteria recently been linked to?

A
  • drug metabolism
  • insulin resistance
  • bile acid metabolism
  • lipid metabolism
  • obesity (extaction of more)
170
Q

What factor influences make-up of your microbiome?

A

Genetics

171
Q

What is the treatment for a persistant Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Stool substitute transplant therapy

- repopulates the gut with bacteria which may help to fight the infection

172
Q

Define diffusion.

A
  • Process whereby atoms or molecules intermingle because of their random thermal motion.
  • Occurs rapidly over microscopic distances, but slowly over macroscopic distances
173
Q

How does diffusion take place in in the body?

A
  • Multicellular organisms evolve circulatory systems to bring individual cells within diffusion range
  • The cell membrane acts as a diffusion barrier, enabling cells to maintain cytoplasmic concentrations of substances different from their extracellular concentrations
  • Lipid soluble (non-polar) molecules can cross more easily than water soluble (polar) molecules
174
Q

Define osmosis.

A

Water moving from a hypotonic region to a more hypertonic region

175
Q

What pathways can molecules use to cross the epithelium and enter the bloodstream?

A
  • Paracellular: through tight junctions and lateral intercellular spaces
  • Transcellular: through the epithelial cells
176
Q

What are the ways of crossing cell membranes? (processes)

A
Passive:
- Simple diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
Active:
- Active transport

2 types of transport proteins involved: (allow faster transport)

  • Channel proteins form aqueous pores allowing specific solutes to pass across the membrane
  • Carrier proteins bind to the solute and undergo a conformational change to transport it across the membrane
177
Q

What are the types of ion channels?

A

Ion channels have hydrophobic surface joining the lipid bi-layer, and hydrophilic surface forming an ion-selecting filter in the aqueous pore.
Ion channels can be gated in different ways:
- Voltage gated
- Ligand-gated (extracellular ligand)
- Ligand-gated (intracellular ligand)
- Mechanically gated

178
Q

What are the different types of transport across a membrane?

A
  • Uniport (movement of one molecule)
  • Coupled transport: (movement of two different molecules)
    - Symport: transported and co-transported molecule move in same direction
    - Anti-port: transported and co-transported molecule move in opposite directions
179
Q

What are the types of active transport?

A

Primary active transport:

  • e.g. Na+/K+ ATPase, H+/K+ ATPase
  • Liinked directly to cellular metabolism (uses ATP to power the transport)

Secondary active transport:

  • e.g. SGLT-1 co-transport, HCO3-/Cl- counter transport, NA+/H+ counter transport
  • Derives energy from the concentration gradient of another substance that is actively transported
180
Q

What is Facilitated diffusion?

A

Enhances the rate of substance can flow down its concentration gradient. This tends to equilibrate the substance across the membrane and doesn’t require energy.

E.g. GLUT-5, GLUT-2

181
Q

What are the features of water and electrolyte absorption?

A
  • 99% of water presented to GI tract is absorbed
  • The absorption of water is powered by the absorption of ions
  • The greatest amount of water is absorbed in the small intestine, especially the jejenum (approx. 8L/day)
  • Approximately 1.4L/day absorbed in large intestine
  • Many ions slowly absorbed by passive diffusion
  • Ca2+ and iron are incompletely absorved - and this is regulated
182
Q

Where does the fluid absorbed by the GI tract come from?

A
  • Diet - 2L
  • Saliva - 1.2L
  • Gastric secretions - 2L
  • Bile - 0.7L
  • Pancreas - 1.2L
  • Intestinal 2.4L
183
Q

What is standing gradient osmosis?

A

The reabsorption of water against the osmotic gradient in the intestines.

184
Q

Outline how ions and water are absorbed.

A

Water absorption is driven by Na+ transport from lumen into enterocyte and becomes more efficient as you travel down the intestine:

  • Counter-transport of Na+ in exchange for H+ in proximal bowel (Na+/H+)
  • Co-transport of Na+ with amino acids and monosaccharides in jejenum
  • Co-transport of Na+ with Cl- in the ileum
  • Na+ ion channels (colon)
  • K+ diffuses in via paracellular pathways in small intestine and leaks back out between cells in the colon (passive)
  • CO2 and H2O react to form H+ (for Na+/H+) and HCO3- (CL-/HCO3-)
  • [Na+] increase in cell -> Na+/K+ ATPase actively transports Na+ into lateral intercellular spaces to maintain low Na+ conc. in cell
  • Cl- and HCO3- transported into intercellular spaces due to electricl potential created by the Na+ transport
  • High conc of ions = hypertonic fluid -> osmotic flow of water into intercellular spaces -> increased hydrostatic pressure which moves the water and ions into the blood stream (to be carried away)
185
Q

Outline some features of Ca2+ absorption.

A
  • Duodenum and Ileum absorb Ca2+
  • Ca2+ deficient diet increases gut’s ability to absorb
  • Vit D and parathyroid hormone stimulate absorption
  • Diet 1-6g/day, secreting/losing 0.6g and absorbing 0.7g
186
Q

How is Ca2+ distributed in the body? (i.e. concentrations)

A
  • Low intracellular [Ca2+] approx. 100nM (but can increase 10-100 fold during various cellular functions)
  • High extracellular fluid [Ca2+] approx. 1-3mM. Plasma [Ca2+] approx. 1-3mM, and luminal [Ca2+] varies in mM range.
187
Q

Outline the mechanism of Ca2+ intake in the intestines.

A
  • Calcium is carried across the apical membrane by:
    • Intestinal calcium-binding protein (IMcal) by facilitated diffusion
    • Ion channel
  • BUT Ca2+ acts as an intracellular signalling molecule so a low [Ca2+] concentration must be maintained. Ca2+ binds to calbindin in cytosol (preventing its actions as an intracellular signal.
  • Ca2+ is pumped across basolateral membrane by plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase (PMCA) against its concentration gradient.
  • PMCA has a high affinity for Ca2+ but low capacity and it maintains the very low concentrations of Ca2+ normally observed within a cell
  • Ca2+ also pumped across basolateral membrane by plasma membrane Na+/Ca2+ exchanger against concentration gradient.
  • The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger has a low affinity for Ca2+ but a high capacity (requires larger concentrations of Ca2+ to be effective)
188
Q

What is the importance of Vitamin D?

A
  • Essential for normal Ca2+ absorption

- Deficiency causes rickets, osteoporosis

189
Q

How does uptake of 1,25-dihydroxy D3 help Ca2+ uptake?

A
  • Enhances the transport of Ca2+ through the cytosol
  • Increases the levels of calblindin
  • Increases rate of extrusion across basolateral membrane by increasing the level of Ca2+ ATPase in the membrane
190
Q

What is the function of iron?

A
  • Can act as an electron donor and and electron acceptor
  • Essential for oxygen transport (red blood cells)
  • Oxidative phosphorylation (in the mitochondrial transport chain)

BUT: iron is toxic in excess, but the body has no mechanism for actively excreting iron. So it needs to be absorbed quickly as required, but also be limited.

191
Q

How much iron is taken up into the body?

A

Adults ingest approx 15-20mg/day but absorbs only 0.5-1.5mg/day

192
Q

In what form is iron absorbed?

A
  • Iron present in the diet as:
    • Inorganic iron (Fe3+ ferric, Fe2+ ferrous)
    • As part of heme (haem) group (haemoglobin, myoglobin and cytochromes)
  • Cannot absorb Fe3+, only Fe2+
  • Vit C reduces Fe3+ to Fe2+
  • Fe3+ insoluble salts with: hydroxide, phosphate, HCO3-
  • Heme is a smaller part of the diet, but more readily absorbed (20% of presented, rather than 5%)
193
Q

How is heme absorbed?

A
  • Dietary heme is highly bioavailable
  • Heme is absorbed intact into the enterocyte
  • Evidence that this occurs via the heme carrier protein 1 (HCP-1), and via receptor mediated endocytosis
  • Fe2+ liberated Heme oxygenase
    HCP-1 bound to heme —-> Fe2+
194
Q

How is iron taken up and transported into the blood?

A
  • Duodenal cytochrome B (Dyctb) catalyses the reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+ in the process of iron absorption in the duodenum
  • Fe2+ transported via divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT-1), a H+ coupled co-transporter
  • Fe2+ binds to unknown factors, carried to basolateral membrane, moves via ferroportin (FP) ion channel into blood
  • In the blood hephaestin (HP) is a transmembrane copper-dependent ferroxidase that converts Fe2+ to Fe3+
  • Fe3+ binds to apotransferrin (in blood), travels in blood as transferrin
  • Hepcidin, the major iron regulating protein, suppresses ferroportin function to decrease iron absorption (negative feedback)
195
Q

How is iron stored in enterocytes?

A
  • Fe2+ in the cell binds to apoferritin in cytosol to form ferritin micelle
  • Ferritin is a globular protein complex. Fe2+ is oxidised to Fe3+ which crystallises within protein shell
  • A single ferritin molecule can store up to 4000 iron ions
  • In excess dietary iron absorption, produce more ferritin
196
Q

How is absorption of too much iron prevented?

A
  • Irreversible binding of iron to ferritin in the epithelial cells
  • Iron/ferritin is not available for transport into plasma
  • Iron/ferritin is lost in the intestinal lumen and excreted in the faeces
  • Increase in iron concentration in the cytosol increases ferritin synthesis
197
Q

Give some features of the vitamins absorbed in the intestine.

A
  • Organic compounds that cannot be manufactured by the body but vital to metabolism
  • Passive diffusion predominant mechanism
  • Fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) transported to brush border in micelles. Vit K is taken up by active transport
  • Specific transport mechanisms for Vitamin C (ascorbic acid), folic acid, Vitamin B1 (thiamine), Vitamin B12
198
Q

What are the features of B12 absorption?

A
  • Liver contains a large store (2-5mg)
  • Impaired absorption of Vit B12 retards the maturation of red blood cells. PERNICIOUS ANAEMIA
  • Most Vit B12 in food is bound to proteins
199
Q

What is the problem with B12 absorption? How is this overcome?

A
  • In the stomach, low pH and the digestion of proteins by pepsin releases free Vit B12 BUT B12 is easily denatured by HCL
  • Bind to R protein (haptocorrin) released in saliva and from parietal cells
  • R proteins are digested in the duodenum (releasing B12)
200
Q

Outline the process of B12 absorption.

A
  • In the duodenum R proteins are digested releasing Vit B12
  • Vit B12 binds to Intrinsic factor, a glycoprotein secreted by parietal cells
  • VitB12-IF is resistant to digestion
  • No IF then no absorption of Vit B12
  • Vit B12-IF complex binds to cubilin receptor and is taken up in distal ileum (unknown mechanism - thought to involve receptor-mediated endocytosis)
  • Once inside the cell Vit B12-IF complex broken (possible in mitochondria)
  • B12 binds to protein transcobalamin II (TCII), crosses basolateral membrane by unknown mechanism
  • B12-TCII travels to the liver
  • TCII receptors on cells allow them to uptake complex
  • Proteolysis then breaks down TCII inside the cell
201
Q

In GI tract disease, what is the diagnostic approach?

A
  • History
  • Examination
  • Investigations:
    • Simple - blood tests, blood pressure, pulse, urine dipstick
    • Complex blood test
    • Simple imaging
    • Cross sectional imaging
    • Invasive test
202
Q

What are the eight important features describing abdominal pain?

A

(SOCRATES)

  • Site
  • Onset
  • Character
  • Radiation
  • Associated Symptoms
  • Timing
  • Exacerbating/relieving factors
  • Severity
203
Q

What are the characteristics of GI pain?

A
  • Initially poorly located
  • Onset usually over hours (can be very quick)
  • Usually more of a dull ache
  • May have associated GI symptoms
204
Q

Outline the different parts the GI tract.

A

Foregut:
- Oesophagus, stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder and duodenum (first part)
Midgut:
- Duodenum (last 2/3) to mid transverse colon
Hindgut:
- Transverse colon to the anal canal

  • Retroperitoneal organs (e.g. kidney, pancreas)
  • Diaphragm (e.g. liver, gallbladder or duodenum)
205
Q

Match the parts of the GI tract and their usual sites of pain,

A
  • Foregut - Epigastrium
  • Midgut - Umbilical region
  • Hindgut - Suprapubic
  • Retroperitoneal - Back pain
  • Diaphragm - Shoulder tip pain
206
Q

Match the organs in the GI tract and their usual regions abdominal of pain.

A
  • Oesophagus - Epigastric region
  • Stomach - Left hypochondriac region
  • Small Bowel - Umbilical region
  • Large Bowel - Umbilical and Hypogastric region
  • Appendix - Right Iliac region
  • Hepatic pain - Right hypochondriac region
  • Biliary pain - Right hypochondriac region
  • Pancreatitis - Epigastric region
207
Q

What pain is associated with Peritonitis?

A
  • Sharp and very severe
  • Localised initially, then becomes more generalised
  • Worse on movement
  • Guarding (tension of muscle on palpation)
  • Rebound tenderness
208
Q

What is Colicky pain? Where can it occur?

A

Muscular contractions of a hollow tube in an attempt to relieve an obstruction by forcing content out. It may be accompanied by vomiting and sweating.

Occurs in hollow tubes e.g.

  • Ureter
  • Urethra
  • Colon
  • Bile ducts
  • Pancreatic ducts
209
Q

What other non GI organs can cause abdominal pain? Where does the pain occur?

A
  • Renal pain - Flank to groin
  • Bladder - Suprapubic
  • Pneumonia - Upper quadrant
  • Heart attack - Epigastric
  • Pelvic Inflammatory disease - Lower abdomen
  • Musculo skeletal - Anywhere
210
Q

Name the regions of the abdomen.

A
  1. Right hypochondriac region
  2. Epigastic region
  3. Left hypochondriac region
  4. Right lumbar region
  5. Umbilical region
  6. Left lumbar region
  7. Right Iliac region
  8. Hypogastric region
  9. Left Iliac region

1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9

211
Q

What are the common features of pancreatitis?

A
  • Very variable presentation
  • Abdomen pain localised to the epigastrium and radiating to the back
  • Nausea and vomiting is common
  • Patient is acutely unwell and in shock
  • May have organ failure (chest/kidney)
  • May also have evidence of jaundice/cholangitis
  • Potentially VERY unwell
212
Q

In a simple blood test what is measured?

A
  • Full blood count
  • Urea and electrolytes
  • Inflammation markers (C reactive protein (CRP), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
  • Liver function tests
  • Clotting
  • Calcium
  • Glucose
213
Q

What additional things are measured in a complex blood test?

A
  • Amylase
  • Lipase
  • Triglycerides
214
Q

Give examples of imaging that can be performed.

A
  • Chest X-ray
  • Abdominal X-ray
  • Ultrasound
  • CT scan
  • MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiography/pancreatography)
215
Q

What invasive test can be done when presented with abdominal pain?

A

ERCP - Endoscopic retrograde Cholangio-pancreatography

216
Q

List the possible aetiologies of pancreatitis.

A

(GET SMASHED)

  • Gallstones
  • Ethanol
  • Trauma
  • Steroids
  • Mumps
  • Autoimmune
  • Scorpion venom
  • Hyperlipidaemia/hypercalcaemia
  • ERCP - Endoscopic retrograde Cholangio-pancreatography
  • Drugs (azathioprine, NSAID, furosemide, sulphonamides)
217
Q

What are the most common causes of pancreatitis?

A
  1. Gallstones

2. Ethanol

218
Q

What are the localised complications of pancreatitis?

A
  • Pancreatic necrosis
  • Fluid collections -> mature into pseuduocysts
  • Splenic vein thrombosis/pseudoaneurysm
  • Chronic pancreatits
219
Q

What are the systemic complications of pancreatitis?

A
  • Hypovolaemia
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
  • Multiple organ failure
220
Q

What are the 3 most common cancers in the GI tract?

A
  • Oesophageal cancer
  • Colon cancer
  • Pancreatic cancer
221
Q

Define cancer and the different types.

A
  • Cancer: a disease caused by uncontrollable division of abnormal cells in a part of the body
  • Primary: arising directly from the cells in an organ
  • Secondary/Metastasis: spread from another organ, directly or by other means (blood/lymph)
222
Q

Identify the tissue types in the GI tract and the cancers that can arise from them.

A

Epithelial cells:
- Squamous -> squamous cell carcinoma
- Glandular epithelium -> adenocarcinoma
Neuroendocrine cells:
- Enterochromaffin cells -> carcinoid tumours
- Interstitial cells of Cajal -> Gastrointestinal stromal tumours
Connective tissue:
- Smooth muscle -> Leiomyoma/leiomyosarcomas
- Adipose tissue -> lipomas

223
Q

Which cancer is most common in the GI tract?

A

Adenocarcinoma

224
Q

Give some features of adenocarcinomas.

A
  • From metaplastic columnar epithelium
  • Lower 1/3 of oesophagus
  • Related to acid reflux
  • More common in more developed world
225
Q

Give some features of squamous cell carcinoma.

A
  • From normal oesophageal squamous epithelium
  • Upper 2/3
  • Acetylaldehyde pathway
  • More common in less developed world
226
Q

What is an endoscopy?

A

Examining the interior of a hollow organ (e.g. oesophagus) or cavity of the body using an endoscope.

227
Q

Outline the progression from acid reflux to cancer.

A
  1. Chronic exposure to acid
  2. Oesophagitis (inflammation) - injury, ongoing inflammation, cytokine drive
  3. Barrett’s Oesophagus (metaplasia: stratified squamous -> simple columnar)
  4. Dysplasia
  5. Carcinoma (neoplasm)
228
Q

What is the risk of cancer for a person with Barrett’s Oesophagus?

A
  • All Barrett’s: 0.12% per year (4% -> low grade dysplasia, 1.3% -> high grade dysplasia)
  • Low grade dysplasia: 0.5% annual risk of cancer (1.5% -> high grade dysplasia)
  • High grade dysplasia: 5-30% annual risk of cancer
229
Q

Define Metaplasia and Dysplasia.

A

Metaplasia: reversible change of one differentiated cell type to another

Dysplasia: expansion in immature cell types replacing more mature cells

230
Q

What are the surveillance guidelines for Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

(Seattle protocol)

  • 4 biopsies every 1cm along segment
  • Barrett’s oesophagus (no dysplasia): every 3-5 years
  • Low grade dysplasia: every 6 months until no dysplasia
  • High grade dysplasia: If flat then radiofrequency ablation (removal) (e.g. HALO), if nodular then endoscopic mucosal resection then HALO
231
Q

What are the risk factors of colon carcinoma?

A
  • Family history
  • Inherited conditions e.g. FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis), HNCCP (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer), Lynch syndrome
  • Uncontrolled ulcerative colitis (for a long time)
  • Age (most significant)
  • Previous polyps
232
Q

Give the stages of developing a colon carcinoma and the mutations associated with them.

A
  1. Normal epithelium
    - > APC mutation (adenomatous polyposis coli)
  2. Hyperproliferative epithelium . Aberrant cryptic foci -> COX-2 overexpression)
  3. Small adenoma (e.g. polyps)
    - > K-ras mutation
  4. Large adenoma
    - > p53 mutation, -> Loss of 18q
  5. Colon carcinoma

NOT a single gene process - a sequence of genetic errors. Therefore not simple Mendelian inheritance.

233
Q

What are the symptoms of colorectal cancer?

A
  • Most common: Asymptomatic (possible incidental anaemia)
  • Change in bowel habit: Diarrhoea, constipation (usually very late stage due to obstruction)
  • Blood in stool (black or altered and mixed with stool - more likely to be colon)
  • Acute intestinal obstruction (very late sign - bad prognosis)
234
Q

What symptoms are not associated with colorectal cancer?

A
  • Rectal bleeding with anal symptoms e.g. itch, soreness/discomfort, external lump, prolapse
  • Change in bowel habit to harder or less frequent (constipation)
  • Abdominal pain in the absence of obstruction

These patients have the same risk of cancer as age-matched controls.

235
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using an abdominal x-ray in diagnosing colorectal cancer?

A

+

  • cheap
  • easy
  • quick

-

  • Sensitivity for obstruction 77%
  • Specificity for obstruction 50%
236
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a CT in diagnosing colorectal cancer?

A

+

  • quick
  • easy
  • see large lesions
  • may miss smaller lesions
  • no tissue (e.g. sample)
  • no therapy
237
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a barium enema in diagnosing colorectal cancer?

A

+
- reasonable sensitivity and specificity

-

  • time intensive
  • technically demanding
  • unacceptable to patients

(not used very much)

238
Q

What is a barium enema?

A
  • Barium liquid is instilled into the large interesting through the anus
  • An X-ray is taken (with the barium showing up white)
239
Q

What is a colonoscopy?

A

Exam where a colonoscope (long, flexible tube) is inserted into the rectum and the camera on its tip allows imaging of the colon.

240
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a colonoscopy in diagnosing colorectal cancer?

A

+

  • safe
  • relatively quick
  • high sensitivity
  • able to obtain tissue
  • 2 days of iatrogenic diarrhoea
  • small risk of perforation (
241
Q

What is a CT virtual colonoscopy?

A
  • Dye given which tags the stool using Bismuth
  • CT scan done
  • Computer aided subtraction creates images of the inside of the colon
242
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a CT virtual colonoscopy in diagnosing colorectal cancer?

A

+

  • quick and easy
  • reduced bowel prep = more tolerable
  • as good as colonoscopy for lesions >6mm
  • unable to obtain tissue
  • unable to remove lesions
243
Q

What are the general symptoms associated with pancreatic cancer?

A

‘silent killer’

  • non-specific symptoms
  • Virchow’s triad:
    • Pain 70%
    • Anorexia 10%
    • Weight loss 10%
244
Q

What are the early signs of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Depression
  • Glucose intolerance
245
Q

What are the late signs of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Jaundic
  • Ascites (fluid filling peritoneal cavity)
  • Obstructed gall bladder (-> leading to jaundice)
246
Q

Outline the prognosis of pancreatic cancer.

A
  • Outcome is poor:
    • only 20% suitable for resections
    • surgery (remove pancreas and gall bladder) is curative in 20-25% of cases
  • 1 year survival 18%
  • 5 year survival 2%
247
Q

What are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Smoking
  • Drinking.
  • Obesity
  • Genetics: especially rare conditions e.g. MEN (multiple endocrine neoplasia)
248
Q

Define microbiota.

A

The qualitative and quantitative information about the different microbes present in a system

(who and how many?)

249
Q

Define Microbiome.

A

The functions that these microbiota have, (e.g. bile metabolism) their gene catalogue.

250
Q

Define Metagenomics.

A

Either ‘gain of function’ or DNA based approach to create gene catalogues used to define the microbiome.

251
Q

Define Metataxonomics.

A

Creation of 16S rRNA gene inventories, used to define the microbiota.

252
Q

Define Metabonomics.

A

A catalogue of the metabolites in a sample (in a tissue or isolate).

253
Q

What factors influence an individual’s life? (i.e disease)

A
  • Genetics
  • Environment
  • Microbiome (host specific- dependent on genetics and environment e.g. diet)
254
Q

What can change your microbiome?

A
  • diet
  • Antibiotics
  • pregnancy
  • surgery (particularly abdominal e.g. gastric bypass)
255
Q

Approximately how many microbes are present in an individual’s gut?

A

160 different species

256
Q

What are the ‘Omic’ approaches available to investigate the gut microbiome?

A
  • BOTTOM UP: (Metataxonomics, metagenomics) Flow of information is from DNA -> RNA -> protein -> metabolite. Find out what is in the sample and then what metabolites they produce. E.g. faeces sample.
  • TOP DOWN: (Metabolomics - sample tissue/cell, metabonomics - sample urine, blood etc). Look at the metabolite pool.
257
Q

Outline how metataxonomics work.

A
  • Take a sample e.g. faeces
  • DNA/RNA extracted from all microbes present in sample
  • Amplify SSU rRNA (16S rRNA gene or other house keeping gene present in all microbes) using PCR
  • Compare 16S rRNA to database to identify microorganisms (each species has slightly different coding sequence) e.g. using Illumina MiSeq, or Nanopore MinION

Function:

  • Identify population/community dynamics
  • Diversity indices (shown by DNA)
  • Microbial biomarkers
  • RNA shows metabolic activity
  • Antibiotic metabolism
258
Q

What percentage of the faeces is microbial?

A

50-55%

259
Q

Describe the microbiome after birth.

A
  • Some people born sterile, others not
  • Initially colonised by mother - depends of birth (vagina or caesarean) e.g. skin bacteria like staphilococcus aureus, or vaginal bacteria e.g. lactobacillus. Also breast-fed or formula etc.
  • If born preterm there are signals in the gut microbiome, or if antibiotics given there will be an effect
  • After 3 years the microbiome is relatively stable
260
Q

What is the mass of the gut microbiome?

A

Large intestine contains about 1-2kg of microbial biomass.

261
Q

What makes up the microbiome?

A
  • Viruses around 1200 viral genotypes (limited info)
  • Eukaryotes: very few studies
  • Bacteria:160 species per person and possible >7000 strains. >1000 species in total.
262
Q

What are the 2 types of bacteria at either end of the healthy continuum of the microbiome?

A
  • Bacterioides

- Firmicutes (clostridia)

263
Q

What are the positive functions of the microbiome?

A
  • Defence: bacterial antagonism
  • Priming of mucosal immunity
  • Peristalsis
  • Metabolism of dietary carcinogens
  • Synthesis of B and K vitamins
  • Epithelial nutients (e.g. short chain fatty acids e.g. butyrate)
  • Conversion of prodrugs
  • Utilisation of indigestible products (CH2O)n
264
Q

What are the harmful functions of the microbiome?

A
  • Turn procarcinogens -> carcinogens
  • Overgrowth syndromes
  • Opportunism e.g. translocation after surgery
  • Essential in irritable bowel disease (IBD)
    (controversial) :
  • Utilisation of indigestible (CH2O)n could lead to obesity
  • Role in insulin resistance and non alcoholic fatty liver disease
265
Q

What diseases have associations with the microbiome?

A
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Colon cancer
  • Heart disease
  • Depression
  • Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
  • Obesity
  • Diabetes
  • Asthma/eczema
266
Q

What other effect does the microbiome have, other than cause disease?

A

Change the metabolism of drugs.

267
Q

What is mutualism? Give an example.

A

Mutualism = beneficial for both organisms involved

E.g. Faecal microbiota transplantation (FMT) for clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD)

268
Q

What is commensalism?

A

Relationship where one organism recieves a benefit, and the other is unaffected.

269
Q

What is parasitism/predation? Give an example.

A

Relationship where one organism benefits and the expense of the other (i.e. host is harmed)

E.g. Helicobacter pylori or C. difficile

270
Q

What is amensalism?

A

Microbes which cause inadvertent damage to the host, but is not evolved to do so. (collateral damage). Often pathology can’t be pinned to one pathogen.

271
Q

Which proteins produced by the microbiome are associated with GI disease? How?

A
  • Bacterial proteases, and Lipopolysaccharides and endotoxins
  • Compromise the tight junction integrity allowing translocation of molecules in the lumen which can lead to inflammation.
  • Persistant exposure of liver to endotoxins causes low level chronic inflammation-> fat deposition -> non-alcoholic steatohepatitis -> non-alcoholic fatty liver diease -> cirrhosis and fibrosis
  • Bacteria also affect the levels of LPS and endotoxin
272
Q

Give an example of an application of knowledge of the gut microbiome in medicine.

A
  • CPT-11 is a molecule in chemotherapy which is cleaved and after having its effect on the tumour, the liver adds a sugar group on it (to prevent damage during excretion)
  • BUT some gut microbes cleave off the sugar group (using glucuronidase) to use as an energy source leading to diarrhoea -> patient taken off of chemotherapy
  • Drug developed which inhibited only the microbial glucuronidase -> patients can use chemotherapy for longer
273
Q

What is the function of bile?

A
  • Important to maintain cholesterol levels
  • Necessary for lipid and vitamin absorption in small intestine
  • Removal of xenobiotics (foreign)/drugs.endogenous waste products e.g. cholesterol metabolites, adrenocortical and other steroid hormones.
274
Q

What does bile consist of?

A
  • Water 97%
  • Bile salts
  • Inorganic salts
  • Bile pigments (Bilirubin, bilivirden)
  • Fatty acids
  • Lecithin
  • Fat
  • Cholesterol
  • Other e.g. drug metabolites, trace metals
    (alkaline electrolyte solution)
275
Q

Outline some features of bile.

A
  • 500ml produced a day
  • Green/yellow colour due to the glucoronides of bile pigments
  • 60% bile is secreted by hepatocytes
  • 40% secreted by cholangiocytes (biliary epithelial cells)
  • Bole drains from the liver, through bile ducts, into duodenum at the duodenal papilla
276
Q

What is the role of the biliary tree in bile production?

A
  • 40% bile secreted choliangocytes
  • Alters pH, fluidity and modifies bile as it flows through
  • H2O drawn into bile (osmosis through paracellular junctions)
  • Luminal glucose and some organic acids are also reabsorbed
  • HCO3- and Cl- actively secreted into bile by CFTR mechanism (cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator)
  • Cholangiocytes contribute IgA by exocytosis
277
Q

How does bile move out of cells?

A
  • Bile flow is closely related to the concentration of bile acids and salts in the blood
  • Biliary excretion of bile salts and toxins is performed by transporters on apical surface of hepatocytes and cholangiaocytes
  • These biliary transporters also govern the rate of bile flow
  • Dysfunction of the transporters is a cause of cholestasis
  • Main transporters include;
    • Bile salt excretory pump (BSEP)
    • MDR related proteins (MRP1 and MRP3)
    • products of the familial intrahepatic cholestasis gene (FIC1) and multidrug resistance genes (MDR1 and MDR3)
278
Q

What does the BSEP transporter do?

A
  • (controlled by ABCB11 gene)
  • Active transport of bile acids across hepatocyte canalicular membranes into bile
  • secretion of bile acids is a major determinant of bile flow
279
Q

What does the MDR1 transporter do?

A

Mediates canalicular excretion of xenobiotics and cytotoxins

280
Q

What does MDR3 transporter do?

A

Encodes a phospholipid transporter protein that translocated phosphatidylcholine from inner to outer leaflet of canalicular membrane

281
Q

What are the bile salts?

A
  • Na and K salts of bile acids
  • Conjugated in the liver to glycine and taurine
  • Bile acids are synthesised from cholesterol
  • There are four bile acids in humans:
  • 2 primary acids: (formed in the liver) cholic acid, chenodeoxycholic acid
  • 2 secondary acids: (primary converted by colonic bacteria) deoxycholic acid, litocholic acid
282
Q

What is the function of bile salts?

A
  • Reduce suface tension of fats

- Emulsify fat prepatory to its digestion/absorption

283
Q

How do bile salts function?

A

Bile salts are ampiphilic:

  • one surface = hydrophilic domains (faces OUT). Other surface = hydrophobic domains (faces IN)
  • free fatty acids and cholesterol are inside the micelle
  • micelles are transported to the gastrointestinal tract for absorption
284
Q

What problem can arise with bile salts?

A

Because of detergent-like actions, bile salts are potentially cytotoxic in high concentrations.

  • may cause bile acid diarrhoea (BAD)
285
Q

Where does the bile flow?

A
  • Biliary ducts drain into left and right hepatic ducts
  • They join to form the common hepatic duct
  • Common hepatic duct exits liver and joins the cystic duct (exiting gallbladder)
  • Forms the common bile duct
  • Common bile duct enters the duodenum through ampulla of vater which is controlled by the sphincter of oddi
286
Q

How is bile flow controlled?

A
  • Between meals, the sphincter of oddi is closed so no bile enters the duodenum
  • Bile is stored in the gallbladder
  • When eating, entry of food into the stomach causes release of cholecystekinin
  • CCK causes opening of the sphincter and contraction of the gall bladder to release bile into the duodenum

Note:

  • the more fatty food eaten the more the gallbladder will contract.
  • gallbladder stones - more pain after eating because of contraction
287
Q

What is the effect of a disease/resected terminal ileum on enterohepatic cirulation?

A
  • Bile salts are not reabsored -> more than 5% of bile enters the colon
  • Increased fat in stool (as less bile salt micelles continue into the colon instead of being reabsorbed)
  • Malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K)
288
Q

How many cyces of bile are there?

A
  • 3g bile salt pool re-cycles about 2x per meal (6-8 times a day)
289
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder?

A
  • Stored bile (50ml), released after meal for fat digestion
  • Acidifies bile
  • Concentrated bile by H2O diffusion following net absorption of Na+, Cl-, Ca2+ and HCO3-. (intra-cyctic pH). Gall bladder can reduce volume of its stored bile by 80-90%
290
Q

What are the effects of a cholecystectomy?

A

(e. g. cancer, gallstones)
- Periodic discharge of bile from gall bladder aids digestion BUT is NOT essential
- Normal health and nutrition exist with continuous slow bile discharge into duodenum
- Avoid food with high fat content - after eating may feel uncomfortable as bile is less concentrated (to digest fats)

291
Q

What is Bilirubin?

A
  • Yellow pigment produced in various ways:
    • 75% from Haemoglobin breakdown (in spleen)
    • 22% from catabolism of other haem proteins
    • 3% from ineffective bone marrow erythropoiesis
292
Q

Outline the excretion of bilirubin.

A
  • It is insoluble in water, so binds to albumin and travels in the blood
  • Albumin-bilirubin complex dissassociates in the liver
  • Free bilirubin enters hepatocytes and binds to cytoplasmic proteins to be conjugated to glucoronic acid (by UDPGT/glucuronyl transferase from smooth ER)
  • Diglucoronide-BR complex is more soluble than free BR
  • It is transported across the concentration gradient into bile canuliculi and into the GIT
293
Q

What is the total bilirubin?

A

Total BR = Free BR (unconjugated) + Conjugated BR

294
Q

What happens to conjugated bilirubin in the GIT?

A
  • Bacterial action on bilirubin in intestines form Urobilinogen
  • About 50% of urobilinogen is reabsorbed and taken up via the portal vein to the liver, enters circulation and is excreted by the kidney (urine)
  • The GIT mucosa is impermeable to conjugated BR, but is permeable to unconjugated BR and urobilinogens (therefore some unconjugated BR enters the enterhepatic circulation)
  • Some urobilinogens pass through in stool as Stercobilinogen
295
Q

What happens to Stercobilinogen?

A

Oxidised to stercobilin which is brown (giving faeces its colour)

296
Q

Define cholestasis.

A

Cessation of blood flow.

297
Q

What is jaundice?

A
  • Excess bilirubin in blood (>34-50 microM/L)

(Normal level

298
Q

What are the 3 possible regions where the cause of jaundice may be?

A
  • Pre-hepatic
  • Hepatic
  • Post-hepatic/obstruction
299
Q

Outline the features of Pre-hepatic causes of hepatic.

A
  • Increased quantity of bilirubin (at the source)
    • Most common cause: haemolysis (increased break down of red blood cells)
    • Massive transfusion
    • Haematoma resorption
    • Ineffective erythropoiesis
  • Look for: Haemoglobin drop without overt bleeding. Where liver function is normal.
  • Tests: Blood film (look for red cell destruction), haptoglobins and LDH tests
300
Q

Outline the features of hepatic jaundice.

A
  • Hepaatocytes not working -> defective uptake, conjugation and/or BR excretion
  • Liver failure: Can be acute/fulminant or acute on chronic
  • Causes (many): e.g. Viral Hepatitis, ethanol, autoimmune disease (e.g. PBC, PSC), intrahepatic cholestasis (-> sepsis. treat with TPN, drugs), drugs
  • If high unconjugated BR - low BR uptake, low BR conjugation
  • If high conjugated BR - hepatocellular dysfunction, low hepatic BR excretion
301
Q

Outline the features of post-hepatic/obstructive jaundice.

A
  • Defective transport of BR by biliary duct system (by physical blockage usually)
  • E.g. Common bile duct stones, Hepatic/Pancreas.Biliary malignancy, local lymphadenopathy
  • Can lead to sepsis (cholangitis)
  • Confirm with CT/MRI/MRCP scan
  • High conjugated bilirubin
  • Dark urine, pale stool
302
Q

What is the other cause of jaundice?

A
  • Gilbert’s syndrome (benign cause of jaundice)
  • commonest hereditary cause of increased bilirubin
  • up to 5% of population
  • autosomal recessive inheritance
  • elevated unconjugated BR in bloodstream due to 70-80% reduction in glucuronidation activity of the enzyme UDPGT-1A1
  • no serious consequences. Mild jaundice may appear under
    • exertion, stress, fasting, infections
  • otherwise usually asymptomatic
303
Q

What is liver failure?

A

When the rate of hepatocytes death > regeneration with various causes.
- Acute: rapid development (

304
Q

What are the divisions of acute liver failure?

A
  • Hyperacute (0-7 days)
  • Acute (8-28 days)
  • Subacute (29 days - 12 weeks)
305
Q

What are the causes of acute liver failure?

A
  • Most common: (up to 70% of ALF cases) paracetamol overdose (>10g toxicity possible), lower doses potentially hepatotoxic in alcoholics, malnutrition or fasting.
  • Amanita phalloides (fungi)
  • Bacillus cereus (bacteria)
  • Viral hepatitis (B and E - main cause in Far East)
  • Pregnancy: e.g. acute fatty liver of pregnancy, HELLP, hepatic infarction etc
  • Idiosyncratic drug reactions
  • Vascular diseases e.g. ischaemic hepatitis
  • Metabolic e.g. Wilson’s disease
306
Q

What happens in liver failure?

A
  • Increased toxins in blood can cause enecephalopathy and cerebral oedema
  • Hypoglycaemia (no glycogen breakdown)
  • Coagulopathy and bleeding
  • Increased susceptibility to infection
  • Circulatory collapse, renal failure
307
Q

What are the symptoms of acute liver failure?

A
  • Initially non-specific: malaise (general unease), nausea, lethargy
  • Jaundice
  • After variable time period, encephalopathy
308
Q

What is the treatment for acute liver failure?

A
  • Emergency liver transplant in ONLY therapeutic intervention proven to benefit
309
Q

What are the disadvantages of a liver transplant for ALF?

A
  • Co-morbitdities and extent of failure may make is unnecessary
  • Commits patient to lifelong immunosuppression
  • Expensive
  • ‘Wastes a precious graft’
  • Operation risk is
310
Q

Outline some features of the immunology of the GI tract.

A
  • Surface area of GI tract = 400m^2
  • Large antigen load from resident microbiota (10^14 bacteria), dietary antigens and exposure to pathogens
  • Therefore it is in a state of restrained activation
  • Tolerance vs active immunity response
  • Immune homeostasis of gut requires presence of bacterial microbiota
311
Q

What are the features of an Oral Candidiasis infection?

A
  • Yeast/fungal infection
  • Most common is candida albicans
  • Carried in 50% of individuals
  • In immunocompromised states e,g, HIV, chemotherapy or treatment with cortiosteroids
  • Treated with oral anti-fungals e.g. nyastin, or IV antifungals if immunocompromised
312
Q

What are the features of gastric Helicobacter pylori infection?

A
  • Gram negative microaerophilic rod
  • Causes gastritis/gastric or duodenal ulcers/gastric carcinoma
  • BUT 80% of infected individuals are asymptomatic
  • Investigations: blood antibody, stool antigen, urea breath test, biopsy ureases test
  • Treatment: 1 week eradication therapy with proton pump inhibitor and clarithromycim/amoxicillun
313
Q

List the main causes of ‘traveller’s diarrhoea’.

A
  • Escherichia coli
  • Shigella
  • Salmonella
  • Cholera
  • Rotavirus
  • Norovirus
  • Giardia
314
Q

Outline the features of a norovirus infection.

A
  • Causes acute gastroenteritis
315
Q

What are the different strains of Escherichia coli? What do they cause?

A
Enterotoxigenix:
- Cholera-like toxin
- Causes watery diarrhoea
Enterohaemorrhagic:
- Antigens: EO157/H7
- Toxins: Verotoxin/shigatoxin
- Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Enteropathogenic: (EPEC)
- common in nurseries (children)
Enteroinvasive:
- Shigella like illness
- Bloody diarrhoea
- Megacolon
316
Q

Outline one mechanism for infection by ‘superbugs’ like Clostridum difficile.

A
  • Colon is colonised by commensal bacteria
  • Anitbiotics kill many of these bacteria
  • Allows colonization by Clostridium difficile (no competition)
  • Production of toxins causes mucosal injury
  • Neutrophils and red blood cells leak into gut between injured epithelial cells
    (antibiotic associated colitis)
317
Q

How is a ‘superbug’ infection like Clostridium difficile treatment?

A
  • Isolate (very contagious)
  • Stop current antibiotics
  • Metronidazol and vancomycin
  • For repeated infection - faecal microbiota transplantation
318
Q

What are the aspects of mucosal defence in the GI tract?

A

Physical to prevent invasion:

  • Anatomical: epithelial barrier, peristalsis
  • Chemical: enzymes, pH (gastric acid)

Commensal bacteria

‘Immunological’: following invasion

  • MALT (mucosal associated lymphoid tissue)
  • GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)
319
Q

What are the features of the epithelial barrier which allow defence?

A
  • Mucus layer: goblet cells
  • Epthelial monolayer: tight junctions, antimicrobial peptides, transports IgA
  • Paneth cells: bases of crypts, defensins, lysozymes
320
Q

What are the different parts of GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)?

A

Not organised:

  • Intra-epithelial lymphocytes
  • Lamina propria lymphocytes

Organised:

  • Cryptopatches
  • Peyer’s patches
  • Isolated lymphoid follicles
  • Mesenteric lymph nodes
321
Q

What is the function of GALT?

A

Generated lymphoid cells and antibodies:

  • IgA secretory and interstitial
  • IgG
  • IgM
  • Cell mediated immunity (adaptive and innate)
322
Q

What are the features of Peyer’s patches?

A
  • In the small intestine, mainly distal ileum
  • Development requires exposures to bacterial microbiota (50 in last trimester foetus, and 250 by teens)
  • Organised collection of naive T and B-cells
  • Covered by follicle associated epithelium (FAE): no goblet cells, no secretory IgA, lack microvilli, infiltrated by T-cells, B-cells, macrophages, dendritic cells
  • Antigen uptake via M (microfold) cells within FAE
  • Similar isolated lymphoid follicles elsewhere in GI tract (30,000 in total)
323
Q

Outline the structure of a Peyer’s patch.

A
  • Follicle associated epithelium - with M cell (antigen sampling)
  • Underneath is the sub-epithelial dome of dendritic cells. Trans epithelial dendritic cells can sample antigens as well.
  • Beneath, follicle (B-cells) with T-cell areas (naive T-cells) around the outisde
  • Lymph vessels connect the patch to lymph nodes
324
Q

What is the function of Peyer’s patches?

A
  • Antigen sampling by M cells
  • Transport to antigen presenting cells in sub-epithelial dome
  • Dendritic cells take up the antigen and process it to present to naive B or T-cells in peyer’s patch or transport antigen to lymph nodes.
  • This results in the development of gut homing markers (once antigen is recognised, defence response returns to gut)
  • Transfer to mesenteric lymph node to proliferate
325
Q

What is the role of B-cells in GI tract immunity?

A
  • Mature naive B-cells expressing IgM in PPs
  • Upon antigen presentation class switch to IgA
  • Influenced by presence of T-cells and epithelium via cytokines
  • Further maturation to become IgA secreting plasma cells
  • Populate lamina propria
326
Q

What are the features of IgA?

A
  • IgA secreting cell numbers reflects bacterial load (up to 90% of gut B-cells secrete IgA)
  • Dimeric structure at mucosal surfaces
  • Transported by epithelial cells into lumen
  • Binds luminal antigen
  • Prevents invasion and adherence
  • Does not activate complement or cytotoxic lymphocytes
  • Transported from submucosa to lumen by trancytosis
327
Q

Outline the features of Intra-epithelial lympocytes.

A
  • Make up one fifth of the intestinal epithelium
    Made up of:
  • Conventional T cells (also lamina propria), migrated from other tissues
  • Unconventional T-cells (innate), resident, express unusual combinations of CD4, CD8, or γδ T cell receptor
  • Other innate immune cells: Resident NK cells (e.g. NKp44+ NK cells)
328
Q

What is necessary to initiate the T cell adaptive response?

A
  • Presentation of antigen (by dendritic cells) within MHC
  • Co-stimulatory signals on DC
  • Secretion of cytokines by DC
329
Q

What are the different pathways that a naive T-cells can take when it interacts with an ANC?

A
  • Th1 -> cell mediated immunity
  • Th2 -> normal gut response (humoral immunity)
  • Th17 -> inflammatory disease?
  • Treg -> tolerance (normal)
330
Q

What is gut homing?

A
  • Lymphocytes proliferate in mesenteric lymph nodes
  • Enter the lymphatics to thoracic duct
  • Enter circulation
  • Selectively home to sites similar to initial priming
  • Antigen presentation in GALT favours ‘gut homing’ characterisitics (integrins and chemokine receptors)
331
Q

What mechanism is associated with gut inflammation?

A

α4β7(integrin)-MAdCAM-1 interactions facilitates local gut inflammation

332
Q

What is immune tolerance in the gut?

A

Suppression of immune responses towards antigens

Several mechanisms:

  • Deletion of responding lymphocytes
  • Anergy
  • TReg cells
333
Q

What diseases may be associated with loss of tolerance?

A
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Coeliac disease
  • Food allergy
334
Q

What are the features of Coeliac disease?

A
  • Villous atrophy
  • Intolerance to gluten
  • Pathogenesis: molecules of gluten are absorbed by enterocytes and converted to a deaminated peptide which is recognised by APCs and then activates a naive T cell
335
Q

What are the epidemiology of Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Overall incidence of ulcerative colitis is higher than Crohn’s but Crohn’s is increasing more
  • Increasing incidence, especially in young & non-western societies
336
Q

What are the causes of inflammatory bowel disease?

A
  • Genetic background: > 160 independent IBD susceptibility loci
  • Immune system: Animal models show germ free environment = no colitis
  • Environmental factors: smoking, stress, diet, Vitamin D
  • Faecal stream diversion elleviates Crohn’s and reanastomosis triggers recurrence - cause?
  • Gut microbiota - single organism? expansion or relative contraction? ‘functional’ changes? changes in mycobiome or virome?
  • Increased bacteriophage richness and decreased bacterial diversity
337
Q

What are the changes in microbiota in Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Fusobacteriaceae: biomarker, progression of colorectal cancer
  • Pasteurellacaea, Veillonellaceae and pathogenic E. coli: link with ulcer formation
338
Q

What are the changes in microbiota in Ulcerative colititis?

A
  • Decrease in butyrate production (Faecalibacterium prausnitzii and Roseburia hominus)
339
Q

What regulatory signal systems are there for the GI tract?

A
  • Nervous stimulation: neurotransmitters released from neurons innervate target cells (intrinsic - enteric, extrinsic - autonomic)
  • Paracrine: hormones released by cells in the vicinity of the target cell and reach target cell by diffusion
  • Endocrine: hormones produced by endocrine cells, released into the blood where they reach their targets via the circulation
340
Q

What are the features of the enteric nervous system?

A
  • Wall of GI tract contains many neurons (2nd only to CNS)
  • Rich plexus (network) of ganglia (nerve cells + glial cells) interconnected by tracts of fine, unmyelinated nerve fibres
  • Integrates motor and secretory activities of the GI system
  • Can function independently of central control
  • If ANS nerves to gut are cut, many motor and secretory activities continue (as controlled by enteric nervous system)
341
Q

What can happen if there is Enteric neural dysfunction/degeneration?

A
  • Inflammation (ulcerative colitis; Crohn’s disease)
  • Post-operative injury
  • Irritable bowel syndrome
  • Ageing (constipation)
342
Q

What does the enteric nervous system regulate?

A
  • Motility
  • Blood flow
  • Water and electrolytes transport
  • Secretion
  • Absorption
343
Q

What are the types of neurons in the enteric nervous system?

A
  • Sensory: respond to mechanical, thermal, osmotic and chemical stimuli
  • Motor: axons terminate on smooth muscle cells of the circular or longitudinal layers, secretory cells of the gastrointestinal tract or gastrointestinal blood vessels
  • Interneurons: neurons between neurons integrate the sensory input and effector output
344
Q

What are the types of plexuses in the enteric nervous system?

A
  • Myenteric Plexus: (Auerbach’s plexus)
    Located between the circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers. Controls activity of muscularis externa, controls GUT MOTOR function
  • Submucosal plexus: (Meissner’s plexus)
    Sensing environment within lumen. Blood flow, epithelial and endocrine cell function
  • Minor plexuses:
    Including deep muscular plexus (inside circular muscle), and the ganglia supplying biliary system and pancreas
345
Q

What is the function of the ANS?

A
  • Regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands.
  • Not accessible to voluntary control
  • Two branches: Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
346
Q

What are the nerves innervation the GI tract?

A

Sympathetic:

  • Cell bodies of pre-ganglionic neurons in thoracic and lumbar spinal cord
  • Greater and Lesser Splanchnic nerves - T5-11. Innervates fore and midgut
  • Lumbar splanchnic nerves L1-2 innervate remainder of gut
  • Neurotransmitter: norepinephrine

Parasympathetic:

  • Cell bodies of pre-ganglionic neurons in brainstem and sacral spinal cord
  • Cranial nerve X (vagus) - innervates down to transverse colon
  • Pelvic nerves S2-4 - remainder of colon, rectum and anus
  • Neurotransmitter: acetyl colon
347
Q

What do the branches of the ANS do?

A
  • Sympathetic: Its activation usually inhibits the activities of the GI system. Inhibits gut motility and secretion, and causes constriction of blood vessels and contracion of sphincters
  • Parasympathetic: Excitation usually stimulated the activities of the GI tract. Promotes gut motility, secretion and digestion.
348
Q

How do the sympathetic nerves innervate the GI tract?

A
  • Majority do not directly innervate structures but terminate on neurons in the intramural plexuses
  • BUT vasoconstrictor sympathetic fibers do directly innervate the blood vessels of the GI tract (coeliac, superor and inferior mesenteric)
349
Q

What are the feedback pathways from the gut?

A

Chemo and mechanoreceptors in the wall of the GI tract send impulses to

  • CNS through splanchnic and vagal afferents
  • Enteric NS (myenteric and submucosal) by local afferents
350
Q

What are the functions of extrinsic innervation?

A
  • Afferents detect pain, nausea, fullness

- Efferents allow co-ordination from sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

351
Q

What are the features of the gastrointestinal endocrine system?

A
  • Produced by endocrine cells in the mucosa/submucosa of the stomach, intestine and pancreas
  • Can act as paracrine or neurocrine factors
  • Endocrine cells are based further back (close to blood supply) with a finger-like projection up to the lumen.
  • Can sense nutrients:
    • K cells: Amino acids, glucose, (long chain) fatty acids -> gastric inhibitory peptide. Proximal intestine
    • I cells: Amino acids, glucose, (long chain) fatty acids -> cholecystekinin. Proximal intestine
    • L-cells: Amino acids, glucose, (long and short chain) fatty acids -> GLP-1, GLP-2 and PYY release. Distal intestine and colon
352
Q

What are the functions of the gastrointestinal endocrine system?

A
  • Regulation of the mechanical processes of digestion (e.g. smooth muscle of GI tract and sphincters, gall bladder)
  • Regulation of the chemical and enzymatic processes of digestion (e.g. secretory cells located in the wall of the GI tract, pancreas and liver
  • Control of post-absorptive processes involved in the assimilation of digested food and CNS feedback regulating intake (e.g. GIP stimulates insulin release from pancreatic β-cells, PYY3-36 acts of the CNS to suppress appetite)
  • Effects on the growth and development of the GI tract (e.g. GLP-2 promotes small intestinal growth)
353
Q

Give examples of the paracrine function of the GI endocrine system.

A
  • Histamine released from stomach wall cells is a key physiological stimulus to HCL secretion by gastric parietal cells
  • Somatostatin from the stomach can inhibit acid secretion by paracrine mechanisms
354
Q

What are the features of the hormone gastrin?

A
  • Synthesised in gastric antrum and upper small intestine
  • Release is stimulated by:
    • amino acids and peptides in the lumen of the stomach
    • gastric distension
    • vagus nerve directly
  • Gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion
  • Release inhibited when pH of stomach falls below pH3
355
Q

What are the features of the hormone somatostatin?

A
  • Synthesised in enterocrine D cells of the gastric and duodenal mucosa, pancreas (also hypothalamus)
  • Somatostatin is a universal inhibitor (endocrine cyanide)
  • Release in response to a mixed meal
  • Inhibits gastric secretion, motility, intestinal nutrient and electrolyte transport, growth and proliferation
  • Analogues are used to treat neuroendocrine tumours e.g. octreotide - more potent and targetted than somatostatin
356
Q

What are the features of the hormone Secretin?

A
  • Secreted by S cells of the upper duodenum and jejenum
  • Major stimulus is the presence of acid in the duodenum (pH falls below 4.5)
  • Stimulated pancreatic bicarbonate secretion (effect potentiated by CCK)
  • High concentrations -> inhibition of gastric acid and gastric emptying
357
Q

What are the features of the hormone Cholecystokinin?

A
  • Secreted by cells most densely located in the small intestine
  • Release stimulated by fat and peptides in the upper small intestine
  • Independent of the vagus nerve
  • Function:
    • stimulates pancreatic enzyme release
    • delays gastric emptying
    • stimulates gallbladder contraction
    • decreases food intake and meal size
358
Q

What are the features of the hormone GIP (glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide)?

A
  • Secreted by mucosal K cells (predominant in the duodenum and jejenum)
  • GIP released following ingestion of a mixed meal
  • Stimulates insulin secretion
  • GIP receptor antagonists reduce postprandial insulin release
359
Q

What are the features of the hormone PYY (Peptide YY)?

A
  • Cells found throughout the mucosa of the terminal ileum, colon and rectum
  • Released from L cells post prandially (particularly protein)
  • PYY reduces intestinal motility, gallbladder contraction and pancreatic exocrine secretion
  • Inhibitor of intestinal fluid and electrolyte secretion
  • PYY3-36 inhibits food intake
360
Q

What causes the perception of thirst?

A
  • Increased body fluid osmolality (most potent stimulus). Change of 2-3% induces strong desire to drink
  • Reduced blood volume
  • Reduced blood pressure

Decrease of 10-15 % in blood volume or pressure required to produce same response.

361
Q

What does Antidiuretic hormone do?

A
  • Acts on the kidneys to regulate the volume and osmolarity of urine
  • When plasma ADH is low a large volume of urine is excreted (water diuresis)
  • When plasma ADH is high a small volume of urine is excreted (anti-diuresis)
362
Q

Where are osmoreceptors found?

A
  • Hypothalamus
  • Organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) (above optic chiasm)
  • Subfornical organ (SFO) (beteen the fornix and hypothalamus)
363
Q

How do osmoreceptors work?

A
  • Sense changes in body fluid osmolality
  • Cells shrink or swell in response (expand when plasma is dilute, and vice versa)
  • Send signals to the ADH producing cells in the hypothalamus to alter ADH release
  • Same regions seem to regulate thirst
364
Q

How is water balance maintained?

A

Increased plasma osmolality

  • Invokes drinking and ADH release
  • Increased ADH stimulates kidney to conserve water

Decreased plasma osmolality

  • Thirst is suppressed and ADH release decreased
  • Absence of ADH the kidney excretes more water
365
Q

Describe how the sense of thirst works.

A
  • Thirst is decreased by drinking even before sufficient water has been absorbed by the GI tract to correct plasma osmolality
  • Receptors in the mouth, pharynx, oesophagus seem to be involved
  • Relief of thirst sensation via these receptors is short lived
  • Thirst is only completely satisfies once plasma osmolality is decreased or blood volume/arterial pressure is corrected
366
Q

What is the effect of Angiotensin II?

A

Evokes the sensation of thirst

367
Q

How does Angiotensin work?

A
  • It is increased when blood volume and pressure are reduced
  • Activates subfornical organ (SFO) neurons
  • It contributes to the homeostatic response to restore and maintain the body fluids at their normal level
368
Q

How does the homeostasis of body weight work? What effects it?

A

Food intake vs Energy expenditure

  • Hypothalamus ‘decides’ food intake and recieves input from:
    • Ghrelin, Peptide YY and other gut hormones
    • Neural input from periphery and other brain regions
    • Leptin (from adipose)
    • Other (complex integration system)
369
Q

Outline the areas of the hypothalamus.

A

Paraventricular nucleus
Lateral hypo. ( 3rd ) Lateral hypo.
Ventromedial Hypo ( Ventricle ) Ventromedial Hypo
( )
Arcuate nucleus( )Arcuate nucleus

370
Q

What is the Arcuate nucleus?

A
  • Key brain area involved in the regulation of food intake
  • Incomplete blood brain barrier which allows access to peripheral hormones
  • Integrates peripheral and central feeding signals
  • Two DISTINCT neuronal populations:
    • Stimulatory (NPY (neuropeptide Y)/Agrp (Agouti-related peptide) neuron) - increases feeding
    • inhibitory (POMC neuron) - decreases feeding
371
Q

How does the melanocortin system work?

A
  • POMC neurons produce POMC which is cleaved to produce α-Melanocortin stimulating hormone (MSH)
  • α-MSH binds to the Melanocortin-4 receptor (MC4R) on paraventricular nuclei
  • Causes a decrease in food intake
  • Agrp (agouti-related peptide) is an antagonist which bind to the MC4R and prevent α-MSH binding thereby increasing food intake
372
Q

What mutations are there related to the melanocortin system?

A
  • No NPY or Agrp mutation associated with appetite discovered in humans
  • POMC deficiency and MC4-R mutations cause morbind obesity
  • Mutations are not responsible for the prevalence of obesity but is usefule to explain signalling
373
Q

What other brain regions are involved in signalling the hypothalamus?

A
  • Higher centres
  • Amygdala - emotion, memory
  • Other parts of hypothalamus e.g. lateral hypothalamus
  • Vagus to brainstem to hypothalamus
374
Q

What is the adipostat mechanism of appetite regulation?

A
  • Circulating hormone produced by adipocytes in white adipose tissue - Leptin
  • Hypothalamus senses the concentration of hormone in the plasma
  • Then alters neuropeptides to increase or decrease food intake (and regulates thermogenesis)
  • The ob/ob mouse lacks leptin (obese), and when replaced it decreases its weight
  • More fat = more leptin
375
Q

What are the possible mechanisms by which leptin can be involved in obesity?

A
  • Absent leptin -> increased food intake, decreased energy expenditure and decreased fat and glucose metabolism
  • Regulatory defect -> and increase in adipose still releases normal leptin levels
  • Leptin resistance -> high leptin levels with no effects
376
Q

What is congenital leptin deficiency?

A
  • Small number of cases identified (RARE)
  • Mutation in ob gene (homologous to ob/ob mouse)
  • Severely hyperphagic and obese
  • When leptin is replaced their weight decreases
377
Q

What regulates short term appetite?

A
  • Ghrelin - stimulated hunger

- Peptide YY3-36 - inhibits hunger

378
Q

What is Peptide YY3-36?

A
  • 36 amino acids long but truncated (34 amino acids long) in PYY3-36
  • Post-prandial secretion of PYY increases with increasing meal size/calorie intake
  • Direcly modulates neurons in the arcuate nucleus:
    • Inhibits neuropeptide Y release (less stimulation)
    • Stimulates POMS neurons (more inhibition)
    • therefore it decreases appetite
  • Studies show that PYY makes people eat less and feel less hungry
379
Q

What is Ghrelin?

A
  • Peptide, with fatty acid attached to serine (3rd amino acid). Fatty acid necessary to bind to receptor, and possibly helps it to access parts of the brain more easily
  • Ghrelin release is highest before a meal, then it drops
  • Causes increased hungriness by:
    • Stimulating neuropeptide/Argp neurons
    • Inhibiting POMC neurons
    • Thereby increasing appetite
  • Studies show ghrelin increases amount of food eaten and hunger