Alimentary System Flashcards

1
Q

What is digestion?

A

The process of breaking down macromolecules to allow absorption

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2
Q

What is absorption?

A

The process of moving nutrients and water across a membrane

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3
Q

What are the possible routes from ingestion to excretion or absorption?

A

Ingestion-> digestion-> excretion

Ingestion-> digestion-> absorption

Ingestion-> excretion

Ingestion -> absorption

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4
Q

What are the main parts of the GI system?

A

Mouth and oesophagus

Stomach

Small intestine (duodenum, jejunum and ileum)

Liver

Biliary system (gall bladder)

Pancreas

Large intestine (colon, rectum and anus)

Colon= caecum, appendix, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon

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5
Q

Outline the route from swallowing to evacuation?

A

Swallow-> back of throat (epiglottis stops it falling into trachea)-> oesphagus-> stomach (highly acidic)-> duodenum (pancreas secretes into, bile in)-> digested products -> jejjenum and ileum-> colon-> evacuation

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6
Q

What are some possible diseases of the GI system?

A
Oesophageal cancer
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Barrett's oesophagus
Stomach cancer
Gastric ulcers
Duodenal ulcers
Liver sclerosis
Hepatitis
Jaundice
Cholangitis
Liver failure
Diabetes
Pancreatitis
Pancreatic cancer
Obesity
Coeliac disease
IBS
Crohn's disease
Appendicitis 
Colon cancer
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7
Q

What does the disease burden of GI disease affect?

A

The patient
The economy
The population
Society

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8
Q

What are typical signs and symptoms of GI tract diseases

A

GENERAL
Anorexia
Weight loss
Anaemia

UPPER GI
Haematemesis
Melaena (bleeding high in GI tract-> dark colour, like tar)
Nausea and vomiting
Dysphagia
Odynophagia
Heartburn
Acid regurgitation
Belching (excess gas)
Chest pain
Epigastric pain
HEPATOBILIARY
RUQ pain (right upper quadrant)
Biliary colic (when biliary tree is obstructed by gallstone)
Jaundice (icterus)
Dark urine (pruritus)
Pale stool (cholestasis)
Abominal distension (ascites)
MID GI AND PANCREAS
Abdominal pain
Steatorrhoea 
Diarrhoea
Abdominal distension
LOWER GI
Abdominal pain
Bleeding 
Constipation
Diarrhoea
Incontinence
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9
Q

What signs are doctors looking for with GI basis? (General, hands, abdomen, anus and rectum)

A
GENERAL
Cachexia
Obesity
Lymphadenopathy
Anaemia
Jaundice

HANDS
Koilinychia (spooning-> concave)
Leuconychia
Clubbing (especially distalling)
Dupytrens contractures (can’t hold hand out flat)
Tachycardia (hold radial pulse or detect tremor)
Tremor

ABDOMEN
Organ enlargement 
Mass 
Tenderness
Distension
ANUS AND RECTUM
Haemorrhoids
Fistula 
Fissure
Rectal masses
Prolapse
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10
Q

What investigations are carried out for the GI system?

A
HISTORY
Symptoms
Dietary habits
Family history
Ethnicity 
Environmental
Travel
BASIC PHYSICAL EXAM
Hands
Skin
Palpable abdominal organs
Digital rectal exam
Sigmoidoscopy

HAEMATOLOGY, BIOCHEMISTRY AND MICROBIOLOGY
Blood tests
- Blood sugar (glucose, fasting glucose, glucose tolerance test, HbA1C)
- Tumour markers (CA19-9 – pacreatic and other GI cancers)
- Eythrocyte sedimentation rate (Crohn’s disease)
- Urea & electrolytes (absorption disorders)

Liver function tests
Antibodies
Microbiology (HBV, HCV, faecal occult blood)

PROCEDURES
Endoscopy 
Colonoscopy
Ultrasound
CT
MRI
X-ray
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11
Q

Outline the national and global burden of GI disease to the population?

A

5% UK adults suffer chronic illness e.g. pancreatic, liver, inflammatory bowel disease

Drug prescriptions >£4 billion

Responsible for 12% UK deaths

1/8 hospital admissions

1/4 main operations

GI increasing especially in middle-aged adults (but heart and lung disease more common)

WORLDWIDE
Malnutrition, enteric infections, viral hepatitis and consequences, gastric cancer

UK
Dyspepsia, liver disease (due to alcohol and obesity), colon cancer

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12
Q

Why are liver deaths significant?

A

The only top 5 cause of mortality that is rising

Prevalence growing

Burden of alcoholic liver disease-> younger people, more males

Liver cancer more likely later in life, slightly more males

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13
Q

How can neural tube defects in infants/fetuses?

A

Vitamin B12 and folate (folic acid)

Now routinely screened in UK

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14
Q

What are the main causes of abnormal liver function tests?

A

Chronic HepB

Chronic HepC
Alcohol-related steato-hepatitis (this is hugely increasing due to increasing alcohol consumption)

Obesity-related steato-hepatitis

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15
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

IBD
Colon only, superficial

Prevalence: 1 in 500
Incidence: 10-16 per 100,000

Cause: Thought to be autoimmune
Poorly understood

Symptoms: pain, bloody stool, weight loss, bloating

Treatment: Colectomy

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16
Q

What is Crohn’s disease?

A

IBD
Entire GI tract, deeper

Prevalence: 1 in 1000

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17
Q

What is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)?

A

Acid escapes from stomach into oesophagus
Oesophagus cant handle this very low pH

Can lead to chronic oesophagitis
Chronic oesophagitis is generally regarded as the primary cause of Barrett’s oesophagus, and the
epithelial changes that occur have been linked to a substantially increased risk of oesophageal
carcinoma

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18
Q

What are the common biliary conditions?

A
ACUTE PANCREATITIS
Mild to life-threatening
Blockage of pancreatic duct
Back-up of pancreatic enzymes (-> severe inflammation
ethanol and gallstones in 80%)

CHRONIC PANCREATITIS
Permanent damage to pancreas
Alcohol excess main cause
can greatly impair quality of life

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19
Q

What are common GI infections?

A

BACTERIAL
Helicobacter pylori (
Gram negative, spiral bacterium) = nausea, bloating, weight loss
Escheria coli= nausea, diarrhoea, cramps

VIRAL
Norovirus= nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea

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20
Q

Outline the possible effects of h. pylori

A

85%= no long term effects
14%= peptic ulceration
1% gastric adenocarcinoma or lymphoma

-> Duodenal ulcer (main complication is perforation and bleeding)
Massively based on environment
- Energy intake
- Staple foods
- Foods in last 5 decades
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21
Q

What ranking (in terms of common cancer) is bowel cancer?

A

2nd most common UK cancer

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22
Q

What are the most common GI diseases globally?

A

GORD (gastro-oesophageal reflux disease)
Non-ulcerative dyspepsia (indigestion)
Functional bowel disease (which most people will self-treat during their life time)

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23
Q

What are QALY and DALY?

A
QALY= quality-adjusted life year
DALY= disability-adjusted life years
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24
Q

What are the main types of GI cancer?

A

LIVER
May be primary or secondary
Primary liver cancer arise in liver cells, e.g. hepatocellular and cholangio carcinomas – more prevalentin association with cirrhosis
(If detected at an early stage by ultrasound scanning, with an associated 50% 5 yr survival)
Cholangiocarcinoma – no treatment

Secondary liver cancer is metastatic cancer from other primary locations; is more common in the UK
but results in later detection

PANCREATIC CANCER
95% adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic duct
Difficult to diagnose early there has one of the poorest survival rates (2% at 5yrs)

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25
What is the most common large bowel disease?
IBS | 1/3 population
26
What are anal diseases?
Faecal incontinence (soiling) may affect 1/20 people By age 50, about 1/2 population have haemorrhoids Over half of the >70yr old population have diverticula of the large intestine
27
What are the main economic burdens of GI disease?
``` HEALTHCARE COSTS In-patients 6.1% GI Out-patients 6.9% GI Primary care 3.9% GI Community health and social care 3% GI ``` COSTS Not-working= early death, short-term sick, long-term sick NHS costs= healthcare and drugs >3 billion
28
What is the cost of dyspepsia?
40% adults suffer with dyspepsia, of which 2% consult their GP £600 million for endoscopies and prescribed drugs £100 million for OTC drugs
29
What NHS prescriptions are commonly given for GI disease (and cost)?
``` Antacids Antispasmodics Ulcer-healing Chronic diarrhoeal agents Laxatives Haemorrhoid treatment Stoma care Intestinal secretion drugs ``` Total cost to NHS in 1995/6 was £0.83 billion
30
What screening programme is available in the UK for GI diseases?
NHS bowel cancer screening (BCSP) programme
31
What are the social problems of GI disease?
DIETARY LIMITATION Lactose intolerance, diabetes, cholecystitis, coeliac, alcohol FLATULENCE Sound and smell INCONTINENCE AND SOILING TREATMENT Smell and sight E.g. stoma bag
32
What percentage of British adults suffer long-standing illness of the GI tract?
5%
33
What 4 layers can the gut wall be divided into?
Mucosa= epithelium, lamina propria, LCT and muscularis mucosae Submucosa= connective tissue, nerve plexuses Muscularis= smooth muscle, nerve plexuses Serous/adventitia= connective tissue +/- more epithelium
34
What parts of the gut wall are made up of mucosa?
Colonic epithelium Stomach epithelium Small intestinal epithelium
35
What parts of the gut wall are made up of submucosa?
Submucosa Ganglion cells and nerves (also muscularis) Submucosal gland
36
What parts of the gut wall are made up of muscularis?
Longitudinal muscle Circular muscle Ganglion cells and nerves (also submucosa)
37
What parts of the gut wall are made up of serosa/adventitia?
Seroa (external)
38
Where does the oesophagus start and end?
C5 (where pharynx becomes oesophagus) | T10 (pierces into the diaphragm)
39
What does the oesophagus do?
Gets food from the mouth to the stomach Important in control of swallowing Food comes in through the mouth-> the tongue forces food posteriorly to the pharynx (soft palette raised to close nasal cavity) into the pharynx (under neural control) The oesophagus passes very close to the recurrent laryngeal nerves and the pericardium These may be damaged in excessive oesophagus extension
40
Why is the oesophageal lining important for function?
Designed for 'wear and tear' Stratified squamous epithelium Non-keratinising-> moist Lubricated by mucus secreting gland Many layers act as protective layer if surface layer damaged 2 sphincters (prevent backflow of food) Tonically active
41
How is the upper oesophageal sphincter opened?
Swallowing centre within the medulla | Under parasympathetic control via vagus
42
How does the amount of skeletal muscle in the oesophagus change?
Lots in upper oesophagus (some voluntary control in upper half) Decreases as it descends (Smooth muscle increases as it descends)
43
What happens when food has entered and the upper oesophagus sphincter is closed?
Bolus of food moved down by peristalsis (purely under muscular control, gravity has no effect)
44
How does peristalsis lead to rhythmic contraction down the oesophagus?
Circular muscle is major driver Assisted by longitudinal muscle Muscle just superior to bolus contracts One in front/inferior relaxes If food gets stuck, swallowing centre can start a wave of 2nd peristalsis
45
How long does it take for food to move 30cm along the oesophagus?
9 seconds
46
What is the difference in the structure of the upper and lower oesophageal sphincters?
``` Upper= skeletal muscle Lower= skeletal and smooth ```
47
Why does the oesophagus have a tendency to draw stuff up from the stomach?
Negative pressure | But sphincter prevents this (sealed off)
48
How does swallowing and breathing rely on sphincters?
``` Upper= only open to let food in, can't breathe when it's open Lower= open until food passes down ```
49
What is the gastro-oesophageal junction?
Where the oesophagus and stomach are joined At the Z-line, stratified squamous lining of the oesophagus gives way to the simple columnar epithelium of the stomach
50
Where is the lower sphincter?
At the gastro-oesophageal junction
51
What are the 3 contributing mechanisms which lead to the lower sphincter action?
The pressure difference between the abdominal oesophagus and stomach Contraction of the diaphragm As the stomach expands, it compresses the Z-line
52
What do the lower sphincter and diaphragm aim to prevent?
Acid reflux
53
What causes heartburn?
Acidic content is ejected into the oesophagus Lower sphincter not working properly Common in pregnancy because stomach is forced upwards so lower oesophagus is forced back into thorax -> Loss of pressure difference and contractile element of diaphragm Also after large meal
54
What are rugae and what do they allow?
``` Gastric folds (present when stomach is empty) As stomach distends-> rugae expand ``` Allow for huge changes in surface area Allows stomach to expand after meal
55
What is the role of the stomach?
Break food down into smaller particles stored (due to acid & pepsin) Hold food and release at a controlled steady rate into duodenum Kill parasites and certain bacteria
56
What is the structure of the stomach?
``` Cardia Fundus Body Antrum Pyloris ```
57
When is the stomach content released into the duodenum?
Sphincters of the stomach are closed post-eating for about 4 hours before release into duodenum Bolus churned steadily during this time
58
What are the secretions (by part of stomach)?
Cardia and pyloric region= mucus only Body and fundus= mucus, HCl, pepsinogen Antrum= gastrin
59
How does the epithelium vary within the stomach?
Slight variation due to different secretory functions Simple columnar Invaginates into mucosa- tubular glands
60
Where are mucus producing cells in the stomach and what is their role?
All regions | Mucin 'mops up' excess acid
61
Where is HCL produced?
Parietal cells
62
Where is gastric produced?
Endocrine cells
63
How much acid is produced by the stomach per day?
2L per day | 150mM [H+]
64
What is the epithelial surface and lumen pH in the stomach?
Epithelial surface= pH 6-7 Neutralised by bicarbonate ions trapped in mucus gel (mucins= gel coating) Lumen= pH 1-2
65
What is the chief cell?
Pepsinogen secreting cell Protein-secreting epithelial cell Abundant RER Golgi packaging and modifying for export Masses of apical secretion granules (Pepsinogen passes through gastric pit into stomach)
66
What is a parietal cell?
``` RESTING Many mitochondria (requires lots of ATP) Cytoplasmic tubulovesicles (contain H+/K+ ATPase) Internal canaliculi (extend to apical surface) ``` SECRETING (active state) Tubovesicles fuse with membrane and microvilli project into canaliculi (which also fuse to form large open reservoir extending to apical surface-> H+ diffuse out through stomach lumen)
67
How do parietal cells cause H+ to diffuse out through the stomach lumen and HCL production?
On BL membrane= Na/K pump (K in, passive diffusion into lumen) H+ ions generated by carbonic anhydrase (and bicarbonate ions) from CO2 and H2O H+ ions are acively secreted into the reservoir in exchange for K All bicarbonate ions are exchanged out of the cell for Cl entry (also diffuses into reservoir) H+ and Cl- ions bond-> HCl (Need high H/K ATPase and carbonic anhydrase)
68
What does pepsinogen do?
Interacts with HCl-> pepsin (via autocatalytic process) The pepsinogen on its own has conformation with internal active site which is protected Acidic environment of the stomach exposes the active site Pepsin itself then further catalyses its own production once the active site is exposed (positive feedback) Pepsin is a protease
69
What is gastrin?
Endocrine product of the stomach (predominant) Produced predominantly in the pyloric antrum One of its major actions is to stimulate histamine release from the chromafin cells within the lamina propria Together, these then increase acid production in the stomach There is a sort of negative feedback system, as the stomach gets more acidic – gastrin secretion is inhibited A protein rich meal acts against this, as proteins make very good buffers for acid
70
What effect do histamine and gastrin have on stomach acid production?
Together-> increase acid production
71
List the phases of gastric secretion
Cephalic phase Gastric phase Intestinal phase
72
What happens in the cephalic phase of gastric secretion?
Thought/sight/smell and taste of food- central effect Central effect mediated by efferent vagus nerve-> ACh production ACh acts directly of parietal cells (to increase acid) or indirectly on chromaffin cells (increase histamine) Prepares for arrival of food HCl pepsin and gastrin present
73
What happens in the gastric phase of gastric secretion?
Distension when food enters stomach-> activates stretch receptors Contents activatate chemoreceptors (local enteric phase) ACh and gastrin release (more than during cephalic) HCl pepsin present
74
What happens in the intestinal phase of gastric secretion?
Largely inhibitory effect on acid secretion Food leaves stomach and enters small intestine (pH must be increased, acid secretion reduced) = Chyme ( Protein concentration in duodenum stimulates gastrin secretion Gastric inhibitory peptide Cholecystokinin Secretin Enterogastrones-> enterogastric effect
75
How can stomach acid secretion be decreased pharmacologically?
Affect H/K ATPase (omeprazole) Affect histamine receptor (-> cAMP and Ca) (ranitidine)
76
What stimuli is best to decrease stomach acid secretion?
Protein (high content in meal)
77
What is chyme?
Semifluid mass of partly digested food that is expelled by the stomach into the duodenum via pyloric sphincter
78
What is the function of the small intestine?
To absorb nutrients, salt and water (from the lumen to the blood)
79
How long is the small intestine (and its parts)?
6m long, 3.5cm diameter ``` Duodenum= 25cm Jejunum= 2.5m Ileum= 3.75m ```
80
Describe the mesentery surrounding the small intestine
Fan shaped mesentery Throws the small intestine into folds Large blood supply to support the metabolic functions of the cells and aid absorption
81
Outline the histological organisation of the small intensine
No sudden transition between duodenum, jejunum and ileum All have same basic histological organisation (differences are slight) External wall has longitudinal and circular muscles (important for motility) Internal mucosa arranged in circular folds and covered in villi (1mm tall) Invaginations known as Crypts of Lieberkühn
82
What is the structure and function of intestinal villi?
1mm tall Simple epithelium= 1 cell thick (like rest of intestine), dominated by enterocytes Have good innervation from the submucosal plexus Motile, have a rich blood supply and lymph drainage for absorption of digested nutrients Increase surface area for absorption (most nutrients absorbed in small intestine) Villi only occur in the small intestine
83
What are between the villi?
Crypts of lieberkuhn | Epithelium which include paneth cells and stem cells
84
What are the cell types in the epithelium?
``` LINE MUCOSA (simple columnar epithelium consisting of:) Enterocytes= absorptive Goblet cells= mucous secreting Enteroendocrine cells= hormone secreting ``` IN CRYPTS OF LIEBERKUHN (epithelium includes:) Paneth cells= antibacterial, protect stem cells Stem cells= migrate up villus 'escalator', pluripotent
85
How much is the surface area increased by mucosal folds, villi and microvilli?
Cylindrical internal surface area of the small intestine increased by 500x 0.4-> 200m2 Maximum opportunity for nutrient absorption
86
What are enterocytes?
Columnar absorptive cells with microvilli and a basal nucleus Cells of intestinal lining Most abundant cells in small intestine Specialised for absorption and transport of substances Lifespan 1-6 days Tight junctions between cells are important for intercellular communication and to maintain polarity (stop proteins moving between surfaces)
87
What are microvilli?
0.5-1.5um high Make up brush border Several thousand microvilli per cell-> increased surface area Surface covered with glycocalyx
88
What is glycocalyx?
Rich carbohydrate layer on apical membrane that serves as protection from the digestional lumen But allows for absorption Traps a layer of water and mucous known as the “unstirred layer” -> regulates rate of absorption from intestinal lumen
89
What are goblet cells?
2nd most abundant epithelial cell type (between enterocytes) Goblet shape because mucous containing granules accumulate at the apical end of the cell (where brush border is) Increasing goblet cells along the entire length of the bowel (few in duodenum, many in colon)
90
What is mucous?
Large glycoprotein that facilitates passage of material through the bowel
91
What are enteroendocrine cells (chromaffin cells)?
Columnar epithelial cells scattered among absorptive cells Mostly in lower part of crypts in intestine Hormone secreting (influence gut motility
92
What are paneth cells?
Found only in bases of the crypts Contain large, acidophilic granules containing: - Lysozyme (antibacterial enzyme, protects stem cells) - Glycoproteins and zinc (essential trace metal for number of enzymes) Engulf some bacteria and protozoa May have a role in regulating intestinal flora
93
How long do epithelial cells survive?
Most cells are constantly proliferating Enterocytes and goblet cells of the small intestine have a short life span (36 hours) Continually replaced by dividing stem cells in the crypts
94
What are stem cells (small intestine)?
Undifferentiated cells which remain capable of cell division to replace cells which die Epithelial stem cells are essential in the GI tract to continually replenish the surface epithelium Continually divide by mitosis Migrate up to tip of villus, replacing older cells that die by apoptosis Differentiate into various cell types (pluripotent)
95
Describe the cells in the crypt from bottom to top
Paneth cells Stem cells Crypt enterocytes Escalator of epithelial migration
96
How does the 'escalator of epithelial migration' work?
Dividing stem cells in the crypts -> surface and tips of villi At villus tips, cells become senescent -> sloughed into the lumen of the intestin-> digested and reabsorbed For rapid turnover of enteroctyes
97
Why is there such a rapid turnover of enterocytes?
Rapid turnover (compared with lifespan of weeks/months for other epithelial cell types e.g. lung, blood vessels) Because enterocytes are are the first line of defence against GI pathogens/toxic substances in the diet Effects of agents which interfere with cell function, metabolic rate etc will be diminished Any lesions will be short-lived If escalator-like transit of enterocytes is interrupted through impaired production of new cells (e.g. radiation) severe intestinal dysfunction will occur
98
What did John Snow do?
London physician | Proved water bourne transmission of cholera in 1849
99
What does cholera enterotoxin do?
Causes prolonged opening of the chloride channels in the small intestine-> uncontrolled secretion of water Causes rapid, massive dehydration-> death (unless treated with rehydration, cholera bacteria will clear and epithelium will be replaced)
100
Describe the histological organisation of the duodenum?
Brunner's glands Submucosal coiled tubular mucous glands secreting alkaline fluid Open into base of crypts Alkaline secretions of Brunner's glands-> neutralises acidic chyme from stomach (protects proximal small intestine) and helps optimise pH for pancreatic digestive enzymes)
101
Describe the histological organisation of the jejunum?
``` Plicae circulares (valves of Kerchring) Numerous, large fold in the submucosa ``` Present in duodenum and ileum too but in jejunum= taller, thinner and more frequent Frilling interior (formed of circular folds in mucosa)
102
Describe the histological organisation of the ileum?
Some features shared with large intestine Lots of Peyer's patches (large clusters of lymph nodules in submucosa) Prime immune system against intestinal bacteria (other mechanisms for defence= bactericidal Paneth cells, rapid cell turnover) Well positioned to prevent bacteria from colon migrating up into small intestine
103
What are the functions of small intestine motility?
To mix ingested food with digestive secretions and enzymes To facilitate contact between contents of intestine and the intestinal mucosa To propel intestinal contents along alimentary tract
104
What is segmentation?
Mixes the contents of the lumen Segmentation by stationary contraction of circular muscles at intervals (breaks big bolus into smaller segments) More frequent contractions in duodenum compared to ileum-> allow pancreatic enzymes and bile to mix with chyme General movement DOWN
105
What is peristalsis?
Sequential contraction of adjacent rings of smooth muscle Propels chyme towards the colon Most waves travel about 10cm
106
What do segmentation and peristalsis result in?
Chyme being segmented, mixed and propelled towards the colon
107
What is the migrating motor complex?
Sweeping wave of contraction helps propel down cut In fasting= cycles of smooth muscle contractions Each cycle= contraction of adjacent segments of small intestine Begins in stomach-> through small intestine-> terminal ileum-> duodenum Prevents migration of colonic bacteria into the ileum (may clean intestine of residual food) Less ordered and less frequent in fed state
108
What are the 3 methods that contribute to motility?
Segmentation= mixing Peristalsis= propelling Migratory motor complex= sweeps through gut, prevents accumulation of residue
109
How does digestion in the duodenum occur?
In an alkaline environment Involves digestive enzymes (from pancreatic duct) and bile (from bile duct) Duodenal epithelium also produces digestive enzymes (in contact with brush border) Digestion in lumen and unstirred layer of the membrane
110
What are the mechanisms of absorption?
PASSIVE DIFFUSION No carrier proteins With gradient No energy required ``` FACILITATED DIFFUSION Carrier proteins With gradient No energy required Tends to equilibrate substance across the membrane E.g. GLUT-5, GLUT-2 ``` ``` PRIMARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT Carrier proteins Against gradient Energy required (hydrolysis of ATP) E.g. Na+/K+ ATPase, H+/K+ ATPase ``` SECONDARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT Carrier proteins Against gradient Energy required (electrochemical gradient) E.g. SGLT-1 co-transport, HCO3-/Cl- counter transport, Na+/H+ counter transport
111
How are carbohydrates digested?
Digestion begins in the mouth by salivary -amylase, but is destroyed in the stomach (acid pH) Most of the digestion of carbohydrates occurs in the small intestine
112
What are simple carbohydrates?
Monosaccharides e.g. glucose and fructose Disaccharides e.g. maltose and sucrose
113
What are complex carbohydrates?
Sugars bonded together to form a chain E.g. starch, cellulose (amylose), pectins (amylopectin)
114
What is pancreatic a-amylase?
Secreted into duodenum in response to a meal Continues digestion of starch and glycogen into small intestine (started by salivary amylase) Needs Cl- for optimum activity and neutral/slightly alkaline pH (Brunner's glands in duodenum-> alkaline secretion) Acts mainly in lumen (some absorbs to brush border)
115
What enzymes in digestion of carbohydrates act in the lumen and in the membrane?
LUMEN= pancreatic a-amylase MEMBRANE= digestion of amylase products and simple carbohydrates (glucoamylase, sucrase, isomaltase, trehalase, lactase)
116
What are the products of lactose digestion?
Glucose | Galactose
117
What are the products of sucrose digestion?
Glucose | Fructose
118
What are the products of trehalose digestion?
Glucose
119
Outline how amylase products and simple carbohydrates (lactose, sucrose, trehalose) are digested?
Starch glycogen - > Amylase - > a-Dextrins, maltotriose, maltose - > glucose (with enzymes) Lactose -> glucose and galactose (with lactase) Sucrose-> glucose and fructose (with sucrase) Trehalose-> glucose (with trehalase)
120
What are brush border enzymes?
Maltase Lactase Sucrase Trehalase On enterocyte apical membrane
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How are carbohydrates absorbed?
SGLT-1 Absorption of glucose and galactose is by secondary active transport = Carrier protein SGLT-1 on apical membrane (Effective when glucose levels lower in lumen than enterocytes) GLUT5 Absorption of fructose is by facilitated diffusion = Carrier protein GLUT-5 on apical membrane (Effective at relatively low concs of fructose in lumen as tissue and plasma levels are low) GLUT-2 Facilitates exit of glucose at the basolateral membrane = Carrier protein GLUT-2 (high capacity, low affinity facilitative transporter) (Glucose between plasma and tissue/enterocyte generally equilibrated)
122
How many simple sugars can be absorbed by human SI per day?
10kg
123
How are proteins digested?
Protein digestion begins in the stomach by pepsin, but pepsin is inactivated in the alkaline duodenum Pancreatic proteases are secreted as precursors Trypsinogen-> (with enterokinase)-> trypsin Enterokinase= enzyme located on the duodenal brush border Trypsin then activates the other proteases
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What proteases does trypsin activate?
Trypsinogen-> trypsin Chemyotrrypsinogen-> chymotrypsin Proelastase-> elastase Procarboxypeptidase A-> carboxypeptidase A Procarboxypeptidase B-> carboxypeptidase B
125
How are proteins absorbed?
Brush border peptidases break down the larger peptides prior to absorption AAs are absorbed by facilitated diffusion and secondary active transport (similar to sugars) Di- and tri-peptides are absorbed using carrier proteins distinct from single amino acids Cytoplasmic peptidases break down most of the di- and tri-peptides before they cross the basolateral membrane
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How are lipids digested (4 stage process of bile digesting/absorbing fats)?
Lipids are poorly soluble in water so complicated to digest 1. Secretion of bile and lipases 2. Emulsification - Bile salts facilitate the emulsification of a fat into a suspension of lipid droplets, increasing the surface area for digestion 3. Enzymatic hydrolysis of ester linkages - Pancreatic lipase then splits the triglycerides into 2 fatty acids and a monoglyceride at a fat/water interface - Lipases complexes with colipase preventing the bile salts from displacing the lipase from the fat droplet 4. Solubilization of lipolytic products in bile salt micelles - Bile salts form micelles with the released fatty acids and glycerol
127
Why are lipids emulsified?
Water and fat don’t mix Bile and lipases are secreted into the duodenum Bile salts facilitate the emulsification of fat into a suspension of lipid droplets (1um diameter) Increases the surface area for digestion Allows pancreatic lipase to split triglycerides A triglyceride is broken down into two fatty acids and a monoglyceride at fat/water interface
128
Describe a bile salt molecule
Steroid nucleus planar Two faces= amphipathic Hydrophobic face (nucleus and methyl) dissolves in fat Hydrophilic face (hydroxyl and carboxyl) dissolves in water
129
What are bile salt micelles?
Micelles = hydrophilic "head" regions in contact with surrounding solvent, hydrophobic tail regions in the micelle centre with lipid core (free fatty acids and cholesterol inside bile salts) Mixed micelles in small intestine= water insoluble monoglycerides from lipolysis are solubilised by forming a core, stabilised by bile salts - Transported to GI epithelial cells for absorption HYDROPHILIC DOMAINS FACE OUT HYDROPHOBIC DOMAINS FACE IN (i->o, o->i)
130
How are triglycerides broken down?
Lipase breaks down triglycerides into monoglycerides and free fatty acids Pancreatic lipase complexes with colipase Colipase prevents bile salts from displacing lipase from the fat droplet Also important= phospholipase A1 and pancreatic cholesterol esterase
131
What does phospholipase a2 do?
Hydrolyses fatty acids at the 2 position in many phospholipids -> lysophospholipids and free fatty acids
132
What does pancreatic cholesterol esterase do?
Hydrolyses cholesterol ester to free cholesterol and fatty acid
133
How are lipids absorbed?
Micelles are important in absorption (absorbed much quicker than emulsion) Micelles allow transport across the unstirred layer, and present the fatty acids and monoglycerides to the brush border The whole micelle is not absorbed together - Bile salts are absorbed in the ileum - Lipid absorption is usually complete by the middle of the jejunum Bile salts are transported back to the liver for recycling (enterohepatic circulation)
134
By what pathways are lipids metabolised?
``` Monoglyceride acylation (major) Phosphatidic acid pathway (minor) ```
135
Describe the monoglyceride acylation (major) pathway?
Fatty acids bind to the apical membrane Fatty acid binding proteins (FABP) facilitate transfer of fatty acids from apical membrane to the smooth ER In the smooth ER - fatty acids esterified into diglycerides and triglycerides
136
Describe the phosphatidic acid pathway (minor) pathway?
Triglycerides are synthesised from CoA fatty acid and a-glycerophosphate
137
What are chylomicrons?
Lipoprotein particles synthesised in enterocytes as an emulsion Chylomicrons are transported to the Golgi and secreted across the basement membrane by exocytosis Too big to enter blood capillaries of villi Enter lacteals (lymph channels) instead
138
What are chylomicrons comprised of?
``` 80-90% triglycerides 8-9% phospholipids 2% cholesterol 2% protein Trace carbohydrate ```
139
How is the ileum separated from the colon?
Ileocaecal sphincter
140
How is the passage of material into the colon controlled?
Ileocaecal sphincter Relaxation and contraction Also prevents back flow of bacteria into the ileum
141
Summarise carbohydrate, protein and lipid digestion
CARBOHYDRATE Pancreatic a-amylase and brush border enzymes PROTEIN Trypsin, which activates other proteases LIPID Emulsification by bile, hydrolysis and solubilisation into bile salt micelles
142
Approximately how many people are affected by liver disease?
2 million Incidence is rising >1 million hospital admissions a year 1 in 10 deaths of people in their 40s are due to liver disease
143
Describe the surface anatomy of the liver
Predominantly in right upper quadrant (apex into LUQ) Superior border at the level of the 5th costal cartilage Protected mainly by ribcage, superiorly by the diaphragm and interiorly by abdominal muscles and organs Surface anatomy important in biopsy to avoid damaging other organs Dull region= liver (percussion) Large inspiration then expiration prior to insertion of needle
144
Describe the morphological anatomy of the liver
4 lobes= right, left, caudate, quadrate Caudate above quadrate and both between L and R (behind falciform ligament) R and L lobes separated by the falciform ligament Right lobe is much larger (60% mass) ``` Coronary ligament (above R lobe) and left triangular ligament (above L lobe) connect the liver to the abdominal wall and diaphragm -> Falciform ligament-> Ligamentum teres (round ligament) connects to front of abdomen ```
145
How does the gall bladder link anatomically to the liver?
Gall bladder lies inferiorly in the arch of the liver (under R lobe) Shouldn't be palpable unless enlarged
146
What is Calot's triangle?
Bound by vystic duct, bile duct and cytic artery Triangular space (dissected in cholecystectomy to ID window to safely expose gallbladder)
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What are the embryological origins of the liver?
Liver and biliary system share a common origin with the ventral part of the pancreas Secretory cells derived from endoderm (parenchymal cells) -> Embedded in mesoderm At junction between foregut and midgut Arises from the septum transversum- point at which the ectoderm of the amnion meets endoderm of the yolk sac Mesenchymal structure of the septum provides a framework on which the parenchymal (hepatocyte) cells and bile ducts with associated blood supply can develop ENDODERM= parenchymal cells, flattened cells become columnar and become epithelial lining MESODERM= forms connective tissue, differentiates from rest of embryos through IC signalling-> polarisation Somites form skin and musculoskeletal parts of body SEE CARNEGIE STAGING
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Outline the Carnegie staging of liver development
Carnegie staging= 23 stages, during first 60 days of development STAGE 1-10 Fertilisation-> blastocyst-> primary yolk sac-> septum traversum (stage 9) STAGE 11 (29 days) Hepatic diverticulum or liver bud development (Diverticulum invades septum transversum) Cell differentiation STAGE 12 (30 days) Septum transversum forming liver stroma Hepatic diverticulum forming hepatic trabeculae ``` STAGE 13 (32 days) Epithelial cord proliferation enmeshing stromal capillaries ``` ``` STAGE 14 (33 days) Enlargement of the liver bud Haematopoietic function appears ``` ``` STAGE 18 (44 days) Bile ducts become reorganised (continuity between liver cells and gut) ``` STAGE 18-23 (44-56 days) Cell differentiation Early structural organisation Biliary ductules developed in periportal connective tissue and ductal plates form that receive biliary canaliculi
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What is the septum traversum?
Thick mass of cranial mesenchyme-> gives rise to parts of throacic diaphragm and ventral mesentry of the foregut in the developed human being Arises from the mesoderm
150
What is the liver formed from?
The liver bud (first apparent around 29 days, stage 11)
151
When does the gall bladder diverticulum arise?
Stage 11 29 days Grows into transverse septum
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What happens to the pancreas by 8 weeks of liver development?
Pancrease migrates to posterior, left portion of the abdominal cavity/coelom
153
What happens to the liver after 10 weeks of development?
Liver rotates to the right
154
Describe the blood supply of the liver
25% of resting cardiac output (rich blood supply) DUAL BLOOD SUPPLY= direct and indirect 1. Hepatic artery (L and R branches) - 20% arterial blood from - T o bring oxygen 2. Hepatic portal vein (HPV) - 80% venous blood draining from the gut - Brings everything from gut (before it can get into systemic circulation)
155
Where does blood from the liver drain into?
Inferior vena cava via the hepatic vein
156
Describe the functional anatomy of the liver
Couinaud classification 8 functionally independent segments (can resect a segment without bleeding and damaging the sounding) ``` Centrally= portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct Peripherally= hepatic vein ``` Determined by blood supply Each segment can be resected without damaging those remaining
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What are the Couinaud segments?
Numbered clockwise from the posterior central caudate lobe 1. Caudate lobe 2. Lateral to falciform ligament and superior to portal venous supply 3. Lateral to falciform ligament and inferior to portal venous supply 4. Medial to falciform ligament 5. Medial and inferior right hemisphere 6. Posterior portion of right hemisphere 7. Above 6 8. Above 5 (medial and superior right hemisphere)
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What cell types are in the liver?
Hepatocytes (80%)= large cells with pale and rounded nuclei Endothelial cells= lining blood vessels and sinusoids, fenestrated (allows lipids and other large molecules to move to and from hepatocytes) Cholangiocytes (aka bile duct epithelial cells)= lining biliary structures Kupffer cells= fixed phagocytes (liver macrophages), phagocytosis and secretion of cytokines that promote HSC activation (proliferation, contraction and fibrogenesis) Hepatic stellate cells= Vitamin A storage cells (Ito cells), may be activated to a fibrogenic myofibroblastic phenotype and produce collagen, important in liver disease
159
Describe the micro-anatomy (histology) of the liver
Units known as lobules Classical lobule is hexagonal and divided in concentric centrilobular, midzonal and periportal parts Lobules consist of a central vein (which drains into hepatic veins- IVC) with radiating hepatocyte sheets Round the edges of adjoining lobules are portal triads - Hepatic arteriole - Branch of hepatic portal vein - Bile duct Capillary sinusoids eventually drain into central vein Between sheets of hepatocytes and capillary sinusoids are bile canaliculi (drain bile produced in hepatocytes into ductules which flow outwards into the portal triad)
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Whats the difference between a lobule and acinis?
LOBULES Lobules are HISTOLOGICAL units within the liver Easily identified and are centred around central veins which drain into the hepatic veins ACINI Acini are FUNCTIONAL units which are aligned around the portal triad, and divided into zones dependent on their proximity to arterial blood supply These are less easy to visualise Unit of hepatocytes divided into zones dependent on proximity to arterial blood supply
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What cells are flattened with dense cell nuclei that appear to be in the sinusoids?
Kupffer cells or hepatic stellate cells
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What does the portal triad include?
Hepatic arteriole Branch of hepatic portal vein Bile duct
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How does de-oxygenated, nutrient rich blood reach the liver?
Hepatic portal vein
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How does oxygenated blood reach the liver?
Hepatic artery
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Where do the hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery flow towards?
The central vein
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What is an acinus?
Unit of hepatocytes divided into zones dependent on proximity to arterial blood supply Cluster of cells like a 'berry' Demarcated by zone: - Periportal - Transition zone - Pericentral The terminal acinus is centred on the the portal tract and each hepatic acinusis centred on the line connecting two portal triads
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Which zone of the liver receives the most oxygenated blood and why?
Periportal zone 1 is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood Makes it least susceptible to ischaemic injury but most susceptible to viral hepatitis or hemosiderin deposition in haemachromatosis Involved in gluconeogenesis, oxidation of fatty acids and cholesterol synthesis
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Which zone of the liver receives the least oxygenated blood and why?
Zone 3 (pericentral) is least susceptible to ischaemic injury Furthest from entering vascular supply Involved in glycolysis, lipogenesis and P450 based drug detoxification
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Where do canaliculus interface between?
Sinusoids (sinusoidal faces) and hepatocytes (lateral faces)
170
What produces bile?
Hepatocytes
171
Where does bile flow?
Secreted in bile canaliculi Drain into ductules-> intralobular bile ducts-> right/left hepatic ducts-> join outside liver to form common hepatic duct THEN EITHER... -> Cystic duct drains the gall bladder OR -> Common bile duct unites with common hepatic duct-> forms COMMON BILE DUCT (joined by pancreatic duct before entering duodenal papilla) Opposite direction to blood flow
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What are the functions of the liver?
Bile production and excretion Excretion of bilirubin, cholesterol, hormones, and drugs Metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates Enzyme activation Storage of glycogen, vitamins, and minerals Synthesis of plasma proteins, such as albumin, and clotting factors
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How is the liver involved in carbohydrate metabolism?
SER Mitochondria Cytoplasmic enzymes Glycolysis = Glucose oxidation to form ATP and pyruvate Pyruvate-> Krebs cycle-> more ATP Glycogenesis = Storage of excess glucose as glycogen Glycogenolysis =Breakdown of glycogen to glucose Gluconeogenesis = De novo synthesis of glucose
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How is the liver involved in detoxification?
Lysosomes SER Metabolise, modify/detoxify exogenous compounds, e.g. drugs
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How do biliary structures develop embryonically?
Liver bud gives rise to gall bladder bud Eventually hepatic diverticulum/bud divides in the pars hepatic and pars cystica around 4 weeks -> forms liver sites and necessary structures (particularly those that connect liver to gall bladder) Cystic diverticulum (pars cystica)-> cystic duct and gallbladder by around 8 weeks
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Why is the biliary system important?
Important in excretion of toxins and secretion of fats Bile neutralises chyme and aids digestion of fats
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What does the gall bladder do?
STORES Serves as a reservoir of bile between meals Stores 50ml-> released after meal for fat digestion ACIDIFIES BILE CONCENTRATES BILE By H2O diffusion following net absorption of Na, Cl, Ca, HCO3 -> decreased intra-cystic pH -> reduced volume of stored bile by 80-90%
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How is the common bile duct formed and what does it do?
Cystic duct fuses gall bladder to the hepatic duct-> common bile duct The common bile duct has a spiral muscular structure which twists/untwists -On untwisting of the duct and sphincter of Oddi, it becomes patent and secretes bile into the ampulla (in the 2nd part of the duodenum) At the ampulla, the CBD may also join the pancreatic duct
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Why might structural abnormalities of the biliary tree affect digestion?
Bile neutralises chyme and aids digestion of fats
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How can a biliary tree be seen?
ERCP (endoscopic retrograde choliographic pancreatography) - A wire is passed through the spinchter of Oddi (along with a scope), and dye is injected to the see the branches of the bile ducts - This can be used to see any obstructions, e.g. gall stones or tumours - Is also good because as it is invasive, provides opportunity to solve problem found, e.g. removing the obstruction MRI - Can also be used to observe the effects of gall stones or tumours on the biliary tree, e.g. dilation due to accumulation of bile, or constriction of the distal end of the bile duct
181
Describe how the liver has a role as a glucose buffer (i.e. the role of liver in glucose metabolism)
It is important to control blood glucose After a meal, blood glucose increases and must be taken up into tissues -> stored mainly as glycogen in muscle and liver Between meals, liver glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) maintains blood glucose concentration However a 24hr fast will deplete the glycogen store (only 80g), then blood glucose must then be increased by another pathway
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What is gluconeogenesis?
The process of synthesising glucose from non-carbohydrate sources CORI CYCLE Glucose is broken down anaerobically in muscles into lactate Lactate can be used by the liver to synthesise glucose (via pyruvate) Requires 6 ATP and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) ``` From lactate (rbc metabolism anaerobic, also muscle) Lactate-> pyruvate -> glucose ``` VIA DEAMINATION OR FROM TRIGLYCERIDES Synthesised from AAs via deamination or from triglycerides Alanine-> pyruvate-> glucose Triglycerides-> glycerol-> glucose
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What is the role of the liver in protein metabolism: synthesis?
Synthesis 90% plasma proteins (remainder are -globulins) Makes 15-50 g/day Importance of plasma proteins -binding/carrier function, plasma COP - oedema Synthesis of blood clotting factors and dietary “non-essential” AAs by transamination
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What is the role of the liver in protein metabolism: transamination?
Transamination= synthesis of dietary non-essential AAs from an alpha-keto acid precursor Involves exchange of amino group (NH2) on an acid with a ketone group (=O) on another acid E.g. pyruvic acid (keto acid) + glutamic acid (aa)-> alanine (AA) + a-ketoglutaric acid
185
What AAs don't have a keto acid precursor?
Essential AAs
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What is the role of the liver in protein metabolism: deamination?
Deaminate AAs prior to use as an energy source Deamination is the conversion of an AA into the corresponding keto acid = Remove amine group as ammonia = Replaced with a ketone group Deamination occurs primarily on glutamic acid because glutamic acid is the end product of many transamination reactions -> NH3 (needs to be converted)
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Why does ammonia need to be converted?
NH3 highly toxic – particularly to CNS Liver converts NH3 to urea Urea very water soluble, metabolically inert, non-toxic Excreted in urine
188
What is the role of the liver in fat (triglyceride) metabolism?
Fat is the main energy store in body (100x glycogen) -> Stored in adipose and liver When glycogen stores full, liver can convert excess glucose and AAs to fat for storage Metabolises fats as energy source (converts FA’s to AcetylCoA, by Krebs/TCA cycle in liver) OR Produces ketone bodies Synthesise lipoproteins, cholesterol, phospholipids
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How do ketone bodies provide energy?
Ketone bodies produced in the liver Transported to other tissues and used as energy Water soluble (no need for carriers) Liver can convert 2 AcetylCoA -> acetoacetatic acid for transport in blood -> other tissues -> acetyl CoA -> energy Ketone bodies= cetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetone (their spontaneous breakdown product)
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How are lipoproteins synthesised by the liver?
Synthesis of lipoproteins required for lipid transport in aqueous environment Contain triglycerides and cholesterol core, with a phospholipid and protein coat (stabilising the lipid)
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What are the lipoprotein types?
There are various types of lipoproteins depending on their composition: ``` VLDL = lots of triglycerides (IDL = intermediate density lipoprotein) LDL = high cholesterol and phospholipids (bad cholesterol) HDL = high protein coat (good cholesterol) ``` In decreasing density= HDL > LDL > IDL > VLDL The lower the density, the larger the diameter
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What is the difference between good and bad cholesterol?
LDL delivers cholesterol to tissues | HDL can transport it back to the liver for re-processing and/or disposal as bile salts
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What does cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP) do?
Shuttles cholesterol from HDL to LDLs | So inhibiting it-> good for drugs to prevent atherosclerosis (but side effects in current attempts)
194
How is cholesterol synthesised?
Cholesterol= sterol nucleus synthesised from acetyl CoA (and dietary intake)
195
What is cholesterol used for?
Used in the synthesis of various compounds including steroid hormones and bile salts Important in cell/organelle membrane structure
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What are phospholipids?
Compound containing fatty acid, phosphoric acid and nitrogen containing base Important in cell/organelle membrane structure
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Where is bile formed and concentrated?
Continually secreted by liver | Stored and concentrated in gall bladder
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How much bile can the gall bladder hold?
Holds 15-60ml | Concentrates bile salts
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What are the major components of bile?
``` Bile salts (50% dry weight) Cholesterol Phospholipids (lecithin) Bile pigments (bilirubin, biliverdin) Bicarbonate ions and water ``` Separately, some components would be insoluble, but together, bile is stable solution
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How are bile acids/salts made?
IN LIVER Addition of carboxyl and hydroxyl groups to cholesterol (increases water solubility) ->Primary bile acids (from oxidation of cholesterol into cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids) Conjugated with taurine or glycine -> bile acid conjugated in liver (->taurocholic and glycocholic acids) This increases the water solubility further IN GALL BLADDER Bile acid conjugates stored/concentrated Primary bile acids are de-conjugated and de-hydroxylated to form bile salt (ionised) conjugates (secondary bile salts)– involves bacteria in ileum
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What is the function of bile?
Digestion/absorption fats (4 stage process) Excretion variety substances via GI tract Neutralise acid chyme from stomach
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Explain bile secretion
Released into duodenum during digestion Small amounts during cephalic and gastric phases due to vagal nerve and gastrin In intestinal phase, CCK causes contraction of the gall bladder and relaxation of sphincter of Oddi
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Describe enterohepatic recirculation
Active reabsorption of bile salts in terminal ileum In addition, de-conjugatation and de-hydroxylation by bacteria make bile salt lipid soluble (Lose
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Why does bile excrete substances via the GI tract?
Liver breaks down/inactivates steroid and peptide hormones Secreted into bile for excretion Also performs similar role with variety of “foreign” compounds- usually drugs Excretory route for excess cholesterol (lecithin allows more cholesterol in micelles) Too much-> gall stones or lost in salts EXCRETION OF BILE PIGMENTS Bilirubin from breakdown of haem from old red blood cells (15% from other proteins) Iron from haem removed in spleen and conserved Porphyrin group reduced to bilirubin and conjugated to glucoronic acid in liver.
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How can failure to excrete substances with bile lead to liver disease?
Bile pigment gallstones
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What is the 'larder' function of the liver?
Storage of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K). - Stores sufficient 6-12 month except Vit K where store is small. - Vit K is essential for blood clotting Storage of iron as ferritin - Available for erythropoeisis Storage Vit B12 - Pernicious (megaloblastic) anaemia, nerve demyelination Glycogen and fat store
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How does the liver have a role in protecting against bacteria?
Liver sinusoids contain tissue macrophages (Kupffer cells) Bacteria may cross from gut lumen into blood Kupffer cells destroy these and prevent bacteria entering the rest of the body
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What is the liver's role in calcium metabolism?
UV light converts cholesterol to Vitamin D precursor, which requires a double hydroxylation (to convert it to the active form) First hydroxylation is in the liver (second in the kidneys) Can lead to rickets if this fails
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How does the pancreas develop embryonically?
A foregut derivative arising at the foregut-midgut junction Dorsal and ventral buds Duodenum rotates to form a C shape - > Ventral bud (part of hepatobiliary bud) swings round to lie adjacent to the dorsal bud - > Both buds fuse Ventral bud duct becomes main pancreatic duct
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How is the pancreas divided?
Subdivided into head, neck, body, tail and uncinate process
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Where in the pancreas is islet tissue most abundant?
Islet tissue most abundant in tail
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Describe the structure and location of the pancreas
5 regions Lies mainly on the posterior abdominal wall extending from the C-shaped duodenum to the hilum of the spleen Pancreatic juice reaches duodenum via main (and accessory) pancreatic ducts
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How does pancreatic juice reach the duodenum?
Via main (and accessory) pancreatic ducts The branches of the duct system of both the ventral and dorsal buds give rise to both exocrine (acinar) and exocrine (islets) tissue
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What are the anatomical relations of the pancreas?
Main posterior relations are IVC, abdominal aorta and left kidney Spleen lies supralaterally to the left, with left and right kidneys posterolaterally on either side (each associated with their own adrenal gland) Close relations with (and supply from) coeliac and superior mesenteric arteries
215
What scans can be used to image the pancreas?
MRI To image pancreatic tumour Angiography For assessing pancreatic disease Contrast agent into blood supply (tumour needs blood supply to grow)
216
What are the endocrine roles of the pancreas?
Secretion into the blood stream to have effect on distant target organ (Autocrine/Paracrine) Ductless glands 2% of gland Islets of Langerhans Secretes insulin and glucagon (and somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide) -> Regulates blood glucose, metabolism and growth effects
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What are the exocrine roles of the pancreas?
Secretion into a duct to have direct local effect 98% of gland Secretion of pancreatic juice into duodenum via pancreatic duct/common bile duct Digestive function
218
What is insulin?
Anabolic hormone Promotes glucose transport into cells and storage as glycogen Reduces blood glucose Promotes protein synthesis and lipogenesis
219
What is glucagon?
Increases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis | -> increased blood glucose
220
What is somatostatin?
Hormone that inhibits growth hormone | 'Endocrine cyanide'
221
What percentage of the pancreatic gland is endocrine and exocrine?
``` Endocrine= 2% Exocrine= 98% ```
222
What kind of function does pancreatic disease affect?
May involve endocrine AND exocrine effects e.g. cystic fibrosis
223
What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine cells?
EXOCRINE Ducts Acini are grape-like clusters of secretory units Acinar cells secrete pro-enzymes into ducts ``` ENDOCRINE Derived from the branching duct Lose contact with ducts- become islets Differentiate into alpha and beta cells secreting into blood Tail>head ```
224
What is the composition of islets?
IN ENDOCRINE TISSUE α-cells (A) Form about 15-20% of islet tissue Secrete glucagon β-cells (B) Form about 60-70% of islet tissue Secrete insulin δ-cells (D) Form about 5-10% of islet tissue Secrete somatostatin The islets are highly vascular, ensuring that all endocrine cells have close access to a site for secretion
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What is pancreatic juice composed of?
Acinar cells= low volume, viscous, enzyme-rich Duct and centroacinar cells= high volume, watery, bicarbonate-rich (so quite alkaline)
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What is between the exocrine acini and endocrine islets?
Connective tissue with columnar epithelium lining the interspersed minor pancreatic duct (which fuse to form the major pancreatic duct)
227
Describe pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
Duct and centroacinar cells Pancreatic juice is rich in bicarbonate - 120 mM (mmol/L) - pH 7.5-8.0 Neutralises acid chyme from the stomach - > Prevents damage to duodenal mucosa - > Raises pH to optimum range for pancreatic enzymes to work Washes low volume enzyme secretion out of pancreas into duodenum
228
What are pancreatic acinar cells?
Large with apical secretory granules Store inactive precursors in order to protect the tissue from auto-digestion
229
Describe the pancreatic duct cells
Small, pale with few granules
230
How does duodenal pH affect bicarbonate secretion rate in the pancreas?
More stomach contents squirted into it-> increased rate of bicarbonate Pancreas working as much as possible around pH 3 Duodenal pH
231
Why does bicarbonate secretion stop when the pH is still acid in the pancreas?
Bile also contains bicarbonate and helps neutralise the acid chyme Brunner's glands secrete alkaline fluid
232
How is bicarbonate secreted (pancreas)?
1. SEPARATION OF H+ AND HCO3- Catalysed by carbonic anhydrase CO2 diffuses into the duct cell from the blood, reacting with H2O to form H+ and HCO3 CO2 AND H2O HCO3 Simultaneously, Na+ moves down a concentration gradient between tight junctions (paracellular transport) H2O follows ``` 2. TRANSPORT OF H+ AND HCO3- OUT OF THE DUCT CELL Coupled exchange driven by electrochemical gradients (secondary active transport) The HCO3- is exchanged with Cl- ``` (Cl has a high lumen concentration compared to IC duct cell concentration so bicarbonate is transported into the lumen with Cl going into the cell) H+ is exchanged with Na+, which has a higher blood conc compared with the cell conc so flows into the cell and H+ is transported into the blood 3. MAINTENANCE OF NA+ GRADIENT Primary active transport using ATP For step 2 (done using the Na/K exchange pump) 4. RETURNING OF THE K+ TO THE BLOOD AND CL- TO THE DUCT CELL Via protein channels K via K channel Cl via Cl channel (CFTR)
233
What is the difference in the bicarbonate reaction in the stomach and pancreas?
The same reaction CO2 and H2O H+ and HCO3 Occurs in gastric parietal cells and pancreatic duct cells In the stomach, the hydrogen goes into gastric juice and the bicarbonate into blood In the pancreas, the bicarbonate is secreted into the juice and the hydrogen into the blood
234
What are the enzymes secreted by pancreatic juice?
ACINAR CELL ENZYME SECRETION Enzymes for digestion of fat (lipases), protein (proteases) and carbohydrates (amylase) are synthesised and stored in zymogen granules Zymogens= pro-enzymes
235
How is acinar cell enzyme secretion controlled (pancreas)?
Proteases are released as inactive pro-enzymes-> protects acini and ducts from auto-digestion Pancreas also contains a trypsin inhibitor to prevent trypsin activation Enzymes become activated ONLY in duodenum
236
How can auto-digestion result from pancreatic duct blockage?
Blockage of pancreatic duct may overload protection and result in auto-digestion (= acute pancreatitis)
237
How does pancreatic enzyme secretion affect protein digestion?
Protein digestion is started in the stomach by pepsin, which acts in acid conditions When the chyme enters the duodenum, the pepsin is soon inactivated by the alkaline conditions The pancreas produces a cocktail of proteases, all released as precursors The duodenal brush border produces enterokinases-> cleaves trypsinogen between a valine and an isoleucine-> active form of trypsin-> can activate other proteases All the proteases are fairly short lived as they are digested themselves
238
What is the difference between lipase and proteolytic/ other lipolytic enzymes?
Lipase secreted in active form but requires colipase, which is secreted as precursor (Lipases require presence of bile salts for effective action) Trypsin converts all other proteolytic and some lipolytic enzymes
239
How do pancreatic enzyme functions alter?
Pancreatic secretions adapt to diet e.g. high protein, low carbs, increases proportion of proteases, decreases proportion of amylases Pancreatic enzymes (and bile) are essential for normal digestion of a meal Lack of these can lead to malnutrition even if the dietary input is OK (unlike salivary, gastric enzymes)
240
How does Orlistat work?
Anti-obesity drug Inhibits pancreatic lipases to limit intestinal fat absorption -> Steatorrhoea (increased faecal fat) because pancreatic lipase secretion significantly reduced
241
How is pancreas secretion controlled?
INITIAL CEPHALIC PHASE Pancreatic secretion begins before food enter the duodenum via a vagal reflex in response to the sight/smell/taste of food Involving cholinergic synapses which result in enzyme-rich component only Low volume- mobilises enzymes GASTRIC PHASE When food arrives in the stomach-> stimulates pancreatic secretion Same mechanisms as the cephalic phase ``` INTESTINAL PHASE (70-80% of pancreatic secretion) Hormonally mediated when acid chyme enters the duodenum from the stomach Hormones= secretin and CCK: cholecystokinin, into the blood Both components of pancreatic juice stimulated ```
242
How are bicarbonate secretion and enzyme secretion controlled?
Bicarbonate secretin is controlled by secretin release (involves cAMP) Enzyme secretion is controlled by vagal reflex and CCK (cholecystokinin) - In response to fats/proteins and stimulates enzyme secretion - Also stimulates bile secretion - Involves Ca2+ and PLC via vagus reflex
243
When do the cephalic and intestinal phases end?
Cephalic phase ends when meal is eaten Intestinal phase ends with absorption of fats and peptides (removes the local luminal stimulus for CCK release)
244
How do pancreatic stimuli interact?
Synergistic interaction between CCK and secretin i CCK alone= no effect on bicarbonate secretion CCK combined with secretin= shows marked increase in bicarbonate secretion compared to secretin alone Vagus nerve has similar effect to CCK
245
What effect does secretin have on enzyme secretion?
No effect
246
Outline the role of the pancreas during a meal?
Food mixed, digested in stomach, pH 2 -> Chyme squirted into duodenum H+ ions in duodenum - > Stimulate release of secretin - > Stimulate release of pancreatic juice (plus bile and Brunner’s gland secretions) to raise pH to neutral/alkaline Peptides and fat in duodenum - > Cause sharp rise in CCK and vagal nerve - > Stimulates pancreatic enzyme release (peaks by 30 mins, continues until stomach empty) CCK potentiates effects of secretin on aqueous component (necessary because most of duodenum not at low pH)
247
What does the large intestine consist of?
``` Colon Cecum Appendix Rectum Anal canal ```
248
What is the cecum?
Blind pouch just distal to the ileocecal valve | Larger in herbivores
249
What is the appendix?
Thin, finger-like extension of the cecum | Not physiologically relevant in humans
250
Describe the function of the colon
Function= reabsorption of electrolytes and water, elimination of undigested food/waste
251
What are the dimensions of the colon?
1.5m long | 6cm diameter
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What are the parts of the colon?
ASCENDING On the R side of abdomen Runs from cecum to hepatic flexure TRANSVERSE Hangs off the stomach (attached by mesocolon) Running from hepatic flexure to splenic flexure DESCENDING On the L side of abdomen Runs from splenic flexure to sigmoid colon SIGMOID S shaped colon running from descending colon to rectum
253
What are the structural features of the colon?
Appendices epiploicae Taeni coli Haustra Solitary nodules
254
What are appendices epiploicae?
Fatty tags of the peritoneum surrounding colon | Structural/functional purpose unknown- possible protective against intra-abdominal infections
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What are taeni coli?
3 longitudinal bands running along length of colon | Important for large intestine motility
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What are haustra?
Pouchings of the colon wall | Taenia coli are shorter than the length of the colon -> forms pouched avoid segments
257
What are the solitary nodules in the colon?
Nodules of lymphoid tissue in the wall of the colon
258
What is the blood supply to the proximal transverse colon?
Middle colic artery | Branch of the superior mesenteric artery
259
What is the blood supply to the distal third of transverse colon?
Inferior mesenteric artery
260
What does the different blood supply between the proximal transverse colon and distal third of the transverse colon reflect?
Embryological division between the midgut and hindgut NB. Region between the two is sensitive to ischaemia
261
What are Peyer's patches?
Nodules of lymphoid tissue Common in the walls of the distal small intestines (In large intestine= solitary nodules)
262
How does the colon have a role in (re)absorption?
Colon absorbs electrolytes and water More in proximal colon Na+ and Cl- absorbed by exchange mechanisms and ion channels Water follows by osmosis K+ moves passively into lumen Large intestine can reabsorb approx 4.5 litres water (usually 1.5 litres) Above this threshold = diarrhoea Ions, vitamins and minerals
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How much water can the large intestine reabsorb?
Approx 4.5 litres water (usually 1.5 litres)
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What is the rectum?
Dilated distal portion of the alimentary canal Terminal portion= anal canal
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What is the histology of the rectum?
Similar to the colon | But distinguished by transverse rectal folds in its submucosa and the absence of taenia coli in its muscularis externa
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What is the anal canal surrounded by?
Anal sphincters: Internal (circular) muscle External (striated) muscle
267
How is the large intestine similar to the small intestine?
Enterocytes and goblet cells are abundant Abundant crypts Stem cells found in the crypts IMPORTANT DIFFERENCE IS THAT VILLI ARE ABSENT
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Describe the large intestine mucosal organisation
Mucosa appears smooth at the gross level because it has no villi (smaller SA than small intestine) Enterocytes have short, irregular microvilli and primarily concerned with resorption of salts (Water is absorbed as it passively follows the electrolytes, resulting in more solid gut contents) Crypts are dominated by goblet cells
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Describe the goblet cells in the large intestine
Higher number of goblet cells than small intestine More prevalent in the crypts than along the surface Number increases distally toward the rectum
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What stimulates goblet cell secretion in the large intestine?
Acetylcholine (parasympathetic and enteric nervous system)
271
What is the function of the mucus secreted by the large intestine's goblet cells?
The mucus facilitates the passage of the increasingly solid colonic contents, and covers bacteria and particulate matter
272
What cells are found in the large intestine?
Goblet cells (dominate crypts) Microvilli (glycocalyx doesn't contain digestive enzymes like it does in small intestine) NB. No paneth cells Enteroendocrine cells (rarer than in small intestine)
273
What is the difference between microvilli in small and large intestines?
Glycocalyx in large intestine don't contain digestive enzymes (does in SI)
274
What are the muscular layers of the large intestine?
Like the small intestine, muscularis externa consists of an inner circular and outer longitudinal layer CIRCULAR LAYER Circular muscles segmentally thickened LONGITUDINAL LAYER Longitudinal layer concentrated in three bands- taenia coli Between the taenia, longinitudinal layer is thin Bundles of muscle from the teniae coli penetrate the circular layer at irregular intervals Shorter than circular muscle layer (have haustra= ovoid segments) Can contract individually Movements of large intestine are more complicated than small intestine
275
How does motility of the large intestine occur?
Colonic contractions- kneading process (minimally propulsive- 5-10cm/hr at most) Promotes absorption of electrolytes and water PROXIMAL COLON= ‘antipropulsive’ patterns dominate to retain chyme TRANSVERSE AND DESCENDING COLON= localised segmental contractions of circular muscle (Haustral contractions) cause back and forth mixing Short propulsive movements every 30 mins Increase in frequency following a meal
276
What does 'mass movement' mean regarding the large intestine?
1-3 times daily- mass movement- resembles peristaltic wave Can propel contents 1/3-3/4 of length of large intestine in few seconds Food that contains fibre (indigestible material) promotes rapid transport through colon)
277
How is the large intestine controlled?
PARASYMPATHETIC Vagus nerve= controls ascending colon and most of the transverse colon Pelvic nerves= innervates more distal colon part SYMPATHETIC Lower thoracic and upper lumbar spinal cord External anal sphincter controlled by somatic motor fibres in the pudendal nerves ENTERIC
278
Outline the enteric control of the large intestine
Enteric nervous system also important- Hirschsprung’s disease (no enteric intramural ganglia) Myenteric plexus ganglia concentrated below taenia coli Presence of food in stomach can stimulate mass movement- hormonal? Neural? Hormonal/paracrine control e.g. aldosterone promotes sodium and water absorption (synthesis of Na+ ion channel, Na+/K+ pump)
279
What is defecation?
Rectum filled with faeces by mass movement in the sigmoid colon Stores stool until convenient to void Defecation reflex controlled primarily by the sacral spinal cord- both reflex and voluntary actions Reflex to sudden distension of walls of rectum Pressure receptors send signals via myenteric plexus to initiate peristaltic waves in descending, sigmoid colon and rectum Internal anal sphincter inhibited (Weak intrinsic signal augmented by autonomic reflex) External anal sphincter under voluntary control Urge resisted, sensation subsides
280
What is the difference between the control of the internal and external anal sphincter?
Internal anal sphincter inhibited (weak intrinsic signal augmented by autonomic reflex) External anal sphincter under voluntary control
281
What is the social part of the rectum?
Last few centimeters of the rectum known as the "social part" Can distinguish between solid, liquid and gas Perceptual ability is important in knowing what can be passed appropriately in what circumstance
282
What are faeces?
150g/day adult Two thirds water Solids: cellulose, bacteria, cell debris, bile pigments, salts (K+) Bile pigments give colour Bacterial fermentation gives odour
283
Describe the large intestine flora
All mammals have symbiotic relationships with their gut microbial community (microbiome) Stomach and small intestine have few bacteria- protected Large intestine contains many, essential to normal function - Diverse, highly metabolically active community - Approximately 1.5kg of live bacteria in average adult human (active biomass=major human organ)
284
What is the role of intestinal flora?
Synthesize and excrete vitamins e.g. Vitamin K- germ-free animals can have clotting problems Prevent colonization by pathogens by competing for attachment sites or for essential nutrients Antagonize other bacteria through the production of substances which inhibit or kill non-indigenous species Stimulate the production of cross-reactive antibodies Antibodies produced against components of the normal flora can to cross react with certain related pathogens, and thereby prevent infection or invasion Stimulate the development of certain tissues, including cecum and lymphatic tissues Fibre (indigestible carbohydrate) can be broken down by colonic bacteria Produces short chain fatty acids which can regulate gut hormone release, or be absorbed to be used as an energy source or to influence functions such as food intake or insulin sensitivity directly
285
What are the most prevalent types of normal flora?
BACTEROIDES (most prevalent) Gram-negative, anaerobic, non-sporeforming bacteria  Implicated in the initiation colitis and colon cancer BIFIDOBACTERIA Gram-positive, non-sporeforming, lactic acid bacteria Have been described as "friendly" bacteria Thought to prevent colonization by potential pathogens
286
Recent research has identified links between gut bacteria and....? (5)
``` Drug metabolism Insulin resistance Bile acid metabolism Lipid metabolism Obesity ```
287
Define: diffusion
Process whereby atoms or molecules intermingle because of their random thermal motion Rapid over microscopic distances, slowover macroscopic distances
288
How is the cell membrane involved in diffusion?
The cell membrane acts as a diffusion barrier Enables cells to maintain cytoplasmic concentrations of substances different from their extracellular concentrations Lipid soluble (non-polar) molecules can cross more easily than water soluble (polar) molecules
289
How do molecules cross the epithelium to enter the bloodstream?
Different protein populations in different places on cell Apical plasma membrane Lateral plasma membrane Basal plasma membrane Tight junction
290
What is paracellular transport into the bloodstream?
Through tight junctions and lateral intercellular spaces
291
What is transcellular transport into the bloodstream?
Through the epithelial cells | Into basal lamina
292
How can solutes cross cell membranes?
Simple diffusion Facilitates transport Active transport
293
What types of transport proteins are there?
Channel proteins form aqueous pores allowing specific solutes to pass across the membrane Carrier proteins bind to the solute and undergo a conformational change to transport it across the membrane Channel proteins allow much faster transport than carrier proteins
294
How do ion channels work?
Ion-selective filter in aqueous pore Hydrophilic surface lines pore Hydrophobic surface in lipid bilayer Can be ligand-gated (IC or EC) or mechanically gated
295
What are the types of carrier-mediated transport?
Uniport= transported molecule in Symport (coupled)= transported molecule in and co-transported ion in Antiport (coupled)= transported molecule in and co-transported ion out
296
What ions, minerals and vitamins are important in alimentary absorption?
Water and ions Calcium Iron Vitamins (B12)
297
How are water and electrolytes absorbed?
99% of the H2O presented to the GI tract is absorbed The absorption of water is powered by the absorption of ions Many ions slowly absorbed by passive diffusion (Calcium and iron are incompletely absorbed, and this absorption is regulated)
298
Where is most water absorbed?
In the small intestine (approx 8L a day) | Especially the jejunum
299
How much water a day is absorbed in the large intestine?
1.4L
300
Where does the 8L + 1.4L (reabsorbed in SI and LI) come from?
``` 2L= ingest 1.2L= saliva 2L= gastric secretions 0.7L= bile 1.2L= pancreas 2.4L= intestinal ``` (8L absorbed in SI, 1.4L in LI)
301
Explain the standing gradient osmosis
Driven by Na+ Transport of Na+ from lumen into enterocyte- complex and varies between species (NB. Ions= Na, Cl, HCO3, K) Osmotic flow of water from the gut lumen via adjacent cells, tight junctions into the intercellular space Water distends the intercellular channels and causes increased hydrostatic pressure Ions and water move across the basement membrane of the epithelium and are carried away by the capillaries
302
What happens to the intracellular sodium in standing gradient osmosis?
Active transport of Na+ into the lateral intercellular spaces by Na+K+ATPase transport in the lateral plasma membrane
303
How are other ions (not Na) absorbed?
SECONDARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT Cl- co-transported with Na+ (ileum) Cl- exchanged with HCO3- (colon) into enterocytes [Electrical potential created by Na transport) PASSIVE TRANSPORT K+ diffuses in via paracellular pathways in small intestine, leaks out between cells in colon
304
What effect on fluid would high concentrations of ions in the intercellular spaces cause?
Fluid there would be hypertonic
305
How does transport of Na+ become more efficient from lumen into enterocyte (as it travels down the intestine)?
Becomes more efficient as travel down intestine: - Counter-transport in exchange for H+ (proximal bowel) - Co-transport with amino acids, monosaccharides (jejunum) - Co-transport with Cl- (ileum) - Restricted movement through ion channels (colon)
306
How is calcium absorbed?
Duodenum and Ileum absorb Ca2+ Ca2+ deficient diet increases gut’s ability to absorb Vit D and parathyroid hormone stimulate absorption
307
How much calcium is from diet, secretions and absorption?
Diet 1-6g/day Secretions 0.6g Absorb 0.7g
308
What are the IC and EC concentrations of calcium?
Low intracellular [Ca2+]= 100 nM (0.1µM) But can increase 10– to 100-fold during various cellular functions). High extracellular fluid [Ca2+] = 1-3mM. (Plasma [Ca2+] approx 2.2-2.6 mM) (Luminal [Ca2+] varies in mM range)
309
How is calcium carried across the apical membrane?
Intestinal calcium-binding protein (IMcal)- facilitated diffusion Ion channel
310
Why does calcium need to be transported while maintaining low IC concentrations? How is this maintained
Ca acts as an intracellular signalling molecule Binds to calbindin in cytosol, preventing its action as an intracellular signal (facilitates transport of Ca through cytosol of the intestinal epithelial cell) PLASMA MEMBRANE CA ATPASE Ca2+ pumped across basolateral membrane by plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase (PMCA) against concentration gradient PMCA has a high affinity for Ca2+ (but low capacity) Maintains the very low concentrations of calcium normally observed within a cell PLASMA MEMBRANE NA/CA EXCHANGER Ca2+ pumped across basolateral membrane by plasma membrane Na+/Ca2+ exchanger against concentration gradient. The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger has a low affinity for Ca2+ but a high capacity Requires larger concs of Ca2+ to be effective
311
How is vitamin D related to calcium absorption?
Essential for normal Ca2+ absorption (by enhancing synthesis of calbindin and Ca-ATPase) Deficiency causes rickets, osteoporosis 1, 25-dihydroxy D3 taken up by enterocytes: - Enhances the transport of Ca2+ through the cytosol - Increases the levels of calbindin - Increases rate of extrusion across basolateral membrane by increasing the level of Ca2+ ATPase in the membrane
312
Why is it important to absorb ion?
Can act as electron donor and electron acceptor - Oxygen transport (red blood cells) - Oxidative phosphorylation (mitochondrial transport chain) Critical BUT poisonous if too much (body has no mechanism for actively excreting iron) Need to absorb quickly as required but also limit that absorption
313
How much iron is ingested and absorbed every day?
Adult Ingests approx 15-20mg/day Absorbs only 0.5-1.5mg/day (5% inorganic iron ingested, absorbed by small intestine)
314
How is iron present in the diet?
Inorganic iron (Fe3+ ferric, Fe2+ ferrous) As part of haem group (haemoglobin, myoglobin and cytochromes)
315
How does ferric vs ferrous iron affect absorption?
Cannot absorb Fe3+, only Fe2+ Fe3+ insoluble salts with: hydroxide, phosphate and HCO3- Vit C reduces Fe3+ to Fe2+ Haem smaller part of diet, but more readily absorbed (20% of presented, rather than 5%)
316
How is haem absorbed?
Dietary haem is highly bioavailable Haem is absorbed intact into the enterocyte Evidence that this occurs via heme carrier protein 1 (HCP-1), and via receptor-mediated endocystosis Fe2+ liberated by Heme oxygenase
317
Describe iron uptake
Duodenal cytochrome B (Dcytb) catalyzes the reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+ in the process of iron absorption in the duodenum of mammals Fe2+ transported via divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT-1), a H+-coupled co-transporter Fe2+ binds to unknown factors, carried to basolateral membrane, moves via ferroportin ion channel into blood
318
How do Fe2+ and Fe3+ travel?
Fe2+ moves across baslolateral membrane via ferroportin Fe3+ binds to apotransferrin, travels in blood as transferrin (Hepcidin, the major iron regulating protein, suppresses ferroportin function to decreases iron absorption) OR FERRITIN
319
What is Hephaestin and what does it do?
Hephaestin is a transmembrane copper-dependent ferroxidase Converts Fe2+ to Fe3+
320
How does ferritin store iron ions?
Binds to apoferritin in cytosol to form ferritin micelle Ferritin is globular protein complex Fe2+ is oxidised to Fe3+ which crystallises within protein shell A single ferritin molecule can store up to 4,000 iron ions In excess dietary iron absorption or increased iron concentration in the cytosol-> produce more ferritin Prevents absorption of too much iron - Irreversible binding of iron to ferritin in the epithelial cells - Iron/Ferritin is not available for transport into plasma. - Iron/Ferritin is lost in the intestinal lumen and excreted in the faeces. - Increase in iron concentration in the cytosol increases ferritin synthesis
321
What are vitamins?
Organic compounds that cannot be manufactured by the body but vital to metabolism
322
How are vitamins absorbed?
Passive diffusion predominant mechanism Fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) transported to brush border in micelles K taken up by active transport Specific transport mechanisms for vitamin C (ascorbic acid), folic acid, vitamin B1 (thiamine), vitamin B12
323
How is vitamin B12 absorbed?
Liver contains a large store (2-5mg) Impaired absorption of vit B12 retards the maturation of red blood cells- pernicious anaemia Most Vit B12 in food is bound to proteins
324
What is R protein?
To avoid denaturation of B12 HOW DOES IT WORK? In the stomach, low pH and the digestion of proteins by pepsin releases free vit B12 But B12 is easily denatured by HCl Binds to R (haptocorrin) released in saliva nad from parietal cells R proteins digested in duodenum
325
What is intrinsic factor?
Vit B12 binding glycoprotein secreted by parietal cells Vit B12/IF is resistant to digestion No IF then no absorption of vit B12 Vit B12/IF complex binds to cubilin receptor, taken up in distal ileum (mechanism unknown, but thought to involve receptor-mediated endocytosis) Can then enter cell
326
What happens when VitB12/IF complex is in the cell?
Once in cell, Vit B12/IF complex broken- possibly in mitchondria B12 binds to protein transcobalamin II (TCII), crosses basolateral membrane by unknown mechanism Travels to liver bound to TCII TCII receptors on cells allow them to uptake complex Proteolysis then breaks down TCII inside the cell
327
What are the 8 important features describing abdominal pain? ('The Imperial Way')
SOCRATES ``` Site Onset Character Radiation Associated symptoms Timing Exacerbating/relieving factors Severity ```
328
What are characteristics of GI pain?
Initially poorly located Onset usually over hours (can be very quick) Usually more of a dull ache May have associated GI symptoms
329
``` The .... is associated with pain where? Foregut Midgut Hindgut Retroperitoneal organs Diaphragm ```
``` FOREGUT Oesophagus Stomach Pancreas Liver Gallbladder Duodenum ``` MIDGUT Duodenum-> mid transverse colon HINDGUT Transverse colon-> anal canal RETROPERITONEAL ORGANS Kidney Pancreas DIAPHRAGM Liver Gallbladder Duodenum
330
Describe what is meant by embryological sites of pain
The site of abdominal pain depends on whether the visceral or parietal peritoneum is stimulated (the innervation of which depends on its embryological origin)
331
``` Where is pain in the .... felt? Foregut Midgut Hindgut Retroperitoneal organs Diaphragm ```
``` Foregut= epigastrium Midgut= umbilical region Hindgut= suprapubic Retroperitoneal organs= back pain (or epigastric that radiates to back) Diaphragm= shoulder tip pain ```
332
``` In which of the 9 'quadrants' would you be likely to feel pain if you had problems with ...? Oesophagus Stomach Small Bowel Large Bowel Appendix Hepatic pain Biliary Pain Pancreatitis ```
(Imagine 9 quadrants labelled in rows- top 123, middle 456, bottom 789) ``` Oesophagus= 2 Stomach= 2 (towards 3) Small Bowel= 5 (non-specific in centre of abdomen) Large Bowel= 5 or 8 Appendix= 7 (starts in 5) Hepatic pain= 1 Biliary Pain= 1 Pancreatitis= 2 (epigastric radiates to back) ```
333
Describe the symptoms of periotonitis
Sharp Very severe Well-located initially but becomes more generalised Worse on movement Guarding= involuntary, abdominal muscles tense up when someone touches abdomen Rebound tenderness= push hand onto stomach is ok, but take away-> rebound (very painful)
334
What is colicky pain?
Starts and stops abruptly e.g. renal stones Muscular contractions of a hollow tube in an attempt to relieve an obstruction by forcing content out It may be accompanied by vomiting and sweating
335
What hollow tubes are there (that may lead to colicky pain)?
``` Renal Ureter Urethra Colon Bile ducts Pancreatic ducts ```
336
What kind of pain does kidney stones cause?
Gradual onset with left flank pain Comes and goes Radiates from flank to groin Worst ever pain (no relief from pain killers, can't stand still)
337
What are common non-GI causes of abdominal pain?
``` Renal pain= flank to groin Bladder= suprapubic Pneumonia= upper quadrant Heart attack= epigastric Pelvic Inflammatory Disease= lower abdomen Musculo skeletal= anywhere ```
338
What are the 9 quadrants called?
1. RUQ/right hypochondriac region 2. Epigastrium region 3. LUQ/left hypochondriac region 4. Right lumbar region 5. Umbilical region 6. Left lumbar region 7. Right ileac region 8. Suprapubic region 9. Left ileac region
339
What pain is associated with pancreatitis?
Severe epigastric and RUQ pain going through to the back Onset after drinking alcohol Intermittent similar pain in past Usually fit and well (Significant smoking and alcohol history)
340
How does pancreatitis present?
Jaundiced/cholangitis Unwell and in shock Tachycardic (body trying to maintain perfusion to organs by making heart beat faster in response to dropped blood pressure) Hypotensive Severe epigastric and RUQ pain on palpation (radiating to back) Nausea and vomiting common May have organ failure (chest/kidney)
341
How can acute pancreatitis be diagnosed?
HISTORY EXAMINATION TESTS: SIMPLE Blood pressure Pulse Urine dipstick TESTS: BLOOD TESTS Full Blood Count Urea and Electrolytes (show kidney function) Inflammation markers (CRP, ESR)(raised indicates ongoing inflammation, relevant to liver) Liver Function Tests Clotting (clotting worse with severe inflamation) Calcium Glucose (increases in pancreas not working well, enough insulin not being produced) TESTS: COMPLEX BLOOD TEST Amylase (Lipase) Triglycerides TESTS: SIMPLE IMAGING Chest Xray Abdominal Xray TESTS: CROSS SECTIONAL IMAGING Ultrasound CT scan MRCP (Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography) TESTS: INVASIVE TEST ERCP ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio-Pancreatography)
342
What blood results would you except from a patient with acute pancreatitis?
SIMPLE Hb 132 WCC 17.8 (high, normal
343
What are the causes of pancreatitis?
GET SMASHED ``` Gallstones Ethanol Trauma Steroids Mumps Autoimmune Scorpion venom (only in Trinidad and Tobago) Hyperlipidaemia/Hypercalcaemia ERCP Drugs (azathioprine, NSAID, furosemide, sulphonamides) ```
344
What are the complications of pancreatitis?
``` SYSTEMIC Hypovolaemia Hypoxia Hypocalcaemia Hyperglycaemia DIC Multiple organ failure ``` ``` LOCALISED Pancreatic necrosis Fluid collections- mature into pseudocysts Splenic vein thrombosis/pseudoaneurysm Chronic pancreatitis ```
345
What systems can present with abdominal pain?
``` GI Renal Reproductive Musculoskeletal Neurological ```
346
What is cancer?
Disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells in a part of the body
347
What is a primary cancer?
Cancer arising directly from cells in an organ
348
What is a secondary cancer/metastasis?
Cancer spreads from another organ | Directly or by blood/lymph
349
What cells in the GI tract can lead to cancer?
EPITHELIAL CELLS Squamous= squamous cell carcinoma Glandular= adenocarcinoma (most common) NEUROENDOCRINE CELLS Enterochromaffin= carcinoid tumours Interstitial cells of Cajal= GI stromal tumours ``` CONNECTIVE TISSUE (mostly fairly benign) Smooth muscle= leiomyoma/leiomyosarcomas Adipose tissue= lipomas ```
350
What is dysphagia?
Difficulty swallowing
351
What needs to be known about a patient with dysphagia?
``` How long? What can’t you swallow? Vomiting? Other symptoms e.g. weight loss Risk factors (previous reflux, overweight, smoking, alcohol) ```
352
What 3 sections are the oesophageal anatomy in?
1. Cervical oesophagus- narrow 2. Middle oesophagus (includes aorta, left main bronchus) 3. Lower oesophagus (includes left atrium) As you go down: Increased smooth muscle Reduced skeletal muscle
353
What are the two main types of oesophageal cancer?
Adenocarcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Should have squamous cells lining oesophagus But common acid reflux-> cells to change to be more like stomach lining to get metaplastic columnar epithelium
354
What causes oesophageal adenocarcinoma?
From metaplastic columnar epithelium Lower 1/3 of oesophagus Related to acid reflux More common in developed world NB. As you go down: Increased smooth muscle Reduced skeletal muscle
355
What causes oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma?
From normal oesophageal squamous epithelium Upper 2/3 Acetaldehyde pathway More common in less developed world NB. As you go down: Increased smooth muscle Reduced skeletal muscle
356
What tests can be used to identify oesophageal cancer?
Endoscopy OGD Gastroscopy
357
How does reflux progress to oesophageal cancer?
Chronic exposure to acid Injury (ongoing inflammation, cytokine drive) Oesophagitis (inflammation)-> Barrett's (metaplasia)-> Dysplasia-> Carcinoma (neoplasia) 15% of population -> GORD 5-13% with GORD-> Barrett's 5% with Barrett's-> Dysplasia 0.5-30% with Dysplasia-> Carcinoma
358
What is Barrett's oesophagus?
Replacement of the Squamous cell mucosa with columnar mucosa Form of metaplasia Body tries to prevent damage to oesophagus but becoming like stomach
359
What is the individual risk of adenocarcinoma in Barrett's oesophagus?
0.12% per year Real concern is... Low grade dysplasia= 0.5% annual risk of cancer High grade dysplasia= 5-30% annual risk of cancer -> oesphageal adenocarcinoma
360
What is dysplasia?
Expansion in immature cell types replacing more mature cells
361
What is metaplasia?
Replacement of one differentiated cell type with another
362
What can be given to a patient with low grade dysplasia (Barrett's)?
Reassure her Start her on anti-acid medication (proton pump inhibitor-> doesn't affect reflux but not acid so less inflammation) Start surveillane (ACG) Think about aspirin
363
What is the recommended surveillance (ACG) for Barrett's oesophagus?
ACG (Seattle protocol) 4 biopsies every 1 cm along segment Barrett’s Oesophagus (no dysplasia) Every 3-5 years (NICE 2013) Low grade dysplasia Every 6 months until no dysplasia High grade dysplasia Flat – RFA (e.g. HALO) Nodular – endoscopic mucosal resection then HALO
364
What could cause new onset loose stool 4-5x daily over six months with some blood (and weight loss)? (M 65y)
10-20% risk of cancer
365
What increases the risk of bowel cancer?
Family history Specific inherited conditions- FAP, HNPCC, Lynch Syndrome Uncontrolled ulcerative colitis (8-10y without treatment-> huge risk increase) Age (biggest risk factor, >60) Previous polyps
366
What causes normal epithelium to develop into colon carcinoma?
Sequence of genetic errors (APC, K-ras, p53, 18q) so not simple Mendelian inheritance 1. Normal epithelium (APC mutation) 2. Hyperpoliferative epithelium and aberrant cryptic foci (COX-2 overexpression) 3. Small adenoma (K-ras mutation) 4. Large adenoma (p53 mutation, then loss of 18q) 5. Colon carcinoma
367
How can development of normal epithelium into colon carcinoma be stopped/slowed?
JUST STUDY ATM 1. Normal epithelium (Aspirin and other NSAIDs, folate, calcium) 2. Hyperpoliferative epithelium and aberrant cryptic foci (Aspirin and other NSAIDs) 3. Small adenoma (Oestrogen, aspirin and other NSAIDs,) 4. Large adenoma 5. Colon carcinoma
368
What are common symptoms of colon carcinoma?
Asymptomatic (incidental anaemia) Change in bowel habit (normally diarrhoea or occasionally/late constipation) Blood in stool Acute intestinal obstruction
369
What GI/anal symptoms aren't associated with colorectal cancer?
Rectal bleeding with anal symptoms - Itch - Soreness / discomfort - External lump - Prolapse Change in bowel habit to harder or less frequent stool Abdominal pain in the absence of obstruction Positive findings at colonoscopy are as frequent as for completely asymptomatic age matched control
370
How would a patient with possible colorectal cancer be investigated?
Colonoscopy CT Virtual colonoscopy ``` Abdominal X-Ray (not much use) CT Scan (can't see small lesions) Barium enema (not comfortable and time-consuming) ```
371
What are the advantages and disadvantages of an abdominal Xray (for colorectal cancer)?
ADVANTAGES Cheap Easy Quick DISADVANTAGES 4x radiation than chest Xray Sensitivity for obstruction 77% Specificity for obstruction 50%
372
What are the advantages and disadvantages of an abdominal plain CT (for colorectal cancer)?
ADVANTAGES Easy Quick See large lesions DISADVANTAGES May miss smaller lesions No tissue No therapy
373
What are the advantages and disadvantages of a barium enema (for colorectal cancer)?
Barium liquid is instilled into the large intestine through the anus then pump up air behind it ADVANTAGES Reasonable sensitivity and specificity DISADVANTAGES Time Intensive Technically demanding Unacceptable to patients
374
What are the advantages and disadvantages of a colonoscopy (for colorectal cancer)?
``` ADVANTAGES Safe Relatively quick High Sensitivity Able to obtain tissue ``` DISADVANTAGES Bowel prep: 2 days of iatrogenic diarrhoea Small risk of perforation (
375
What is CT virtual colonoscopy?
CT scan but with 'labelled poo' Modified (reduced) bowel prep “Tag” stool using Bismuth Computer aided subtraction to create images Reconstruct bowel from images
376
What are the advantages and disadvantages of a virtual CT colonoscopy (for colorectal cancer)?
``` ADVANTAGES Quick Easy Reduced Bowel prep more tolerable As good as colonoscopy for lesions >6mm ``` DISADVANTAGES Unable to obtain tissue Unable to remove lesions
377
What are Virchow's triad (in pancreatic cancer)?
Pain – 70% Anorexia – 10% Weight loss – 10% Often non-specific unwell for a while May present with diabetes = adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
378
What are the early and late symptoms of pancreatic cancer?
EARLY Abdominal pain Depression Glucose intolerance ``` LATE Weight loss Jaundice Ascites= fluid building up into peritoneum Obstructed gall bladder ```
379
What is the outcome of pancreatic cancer?
Outcome is poor: - Only 20% are suitable for a resection - Surgery is curative in 20-25% of cases 1 year survival 18% 5 year survival 2%
380
What are the risk factors of pancreatic cancer?
Smoking Drinking Obesity Family (especially rare conditions such as MEN)
381
What evidence do animal models provide regarding gut flora and IBD?
Evidence that the gut flora drives the inflammation in IBD
382
What is the antigenic load?
Pathogens Dietary antigens Everything that lives in it
383
What is the immunology of the GI tract?
Surface area of GI tract 400m2 Massive antigen load - Resident microbiota 10^14 bacteria - Dietary antigens - Exposure to pathogens State of restrained activation Tolerance vs. active immune response Immune homeostasis of gut requires presence of bacterial microbiota
384
What is the gut microbiota?
Qualitative and quantitative information about different microbes present in a system The ecological community of commensal, symbiotic and pathogenic microorganisms that share our body space 10^14 gut bacteria and 10^13 cells in body (genes in gut flora 100 times our own genome) 4 major phyla Provide traits we have not had to evolve on our own “Virtual” organ Mostly anaerobic Host-specific (more similar to family, change e.g. with antibiotic/surgery or becoming vegan)
385
What are the 4 major phyla in the gut microbiota?
Bacteroidetes Firmicutes Actinobacteria Proteobacteria)
386
The genes switched on by a single commensal bacteria can affect....
A single commensal bacteria switches on genes involving: ``` Mucosal barrier function Nutrient absorption/ dietary energy extraction Enteric nervous system Intestinal maturation Immune system development ```
387
What is metabonomics?
A catalogue of the metabolites in the same (e.g. in tissue or isolate) Metabolic profiles Biomarkes Metabotypes
388
What is microbiome?
The functions that microbiata have e.g. bile metabolism
389
What is metagenomics?
Either 'gain of function' or DNA-based approach to create gene catalogues (to define microbiome)
390
What is metataxonomics?
Creation of 16S rRNA gene inventories Used to define microbiota ``` Population/community dynamics Diversity indices Microbial biomarkers DNA=diversity RNA=metabolic activity Robust, strong bioinformatic support – software and databases £20-£50 per sample ```
391
How can the gut microbiome be investigated?
BOTTOM-UP (info from DNA-> RNA-> metabolites) Metagenomics (what are they doing) and metataxonomics (who's there and is it changing) TOP DOWN Metabolomics/metabonomics
392
What percentage of stool sample is microbial biomass?
50-55% (including mucus etc.) | 50-250g
393
How much microbial biomass is in the large intestine?
The large intestine contains 1-2 kg of microbial biomass Have microbes all way through GI (even very acidic stomach because about pH5 between meals) Thus it is one of the most densely populated microbial ecosystems on Earth
394
Are babies born sterile?
Used to think so Mucus plug in anus= contains bacteria Some may be exposed to bacteria in utero In first 18 months, established community First, baby is colonised from exposure to mother (reflects C-section= skin bacteria and vaginal birth= vagina bacteria) Metabolites tell if preterm birth In the first year of life the process can be influenced by antibiotics
395
What microoganisms colonise the gut?
Viruses: 1200 viral genotypes Limited information Eukaryotes: Very few studies of the human gut, but murine (mouse) systems show large fungal diversity Bacteria: MAJORITY 16S rDNA sequence inventory >1000 bacterial species in total, but 160 species per person present and possibly >7000 strains Immune system developed to not respond to certain bacteria in gut (so can see when bad bacteria are in) So humans= superorganisms, with it’s own genome contributing to the various phenotypes with which we are familiar and an extended genome (predominantly bacterial)
396
Why is it hard for studies to identify what microbiota are healthy?
Predictable to a phylum level but large degree of randomness (so much variability between people) Don't know consequences of where you are in the continuum of possible bacterial ratios Community does show remarkable stability in large intestine
397
Outline the benefits and problems of the microbiota
``` MICROBIOTA AS AN ASSET Defence - bacterial antagonism Priming of mucosal immunity Peristalsis (works musculature in gut) Metabolism of dietary carcinogens (from cooking food e.g. carbon sauces) Synthesis of B & K vitamins Epithelial nutrients (e.g. short chain fatty acids like acetate, proprionate, butyrate)= made by bacteria breaking down plant material- colonocytes use as an energy source and controls gut hormones Conversion of prodrugs Utilisation of indigestible (CH2O)n ``` MICROBIOTA AS A LIABILITY Procarcinogens carcinogens Overgrowth syndromes (e.g. of c.diff diarrhoea) Opportunism - Translocation (after surgery/trauma, organisms leak out of gut-> sepsis) Essential ingredient for IBD MAYBE (LIABILITY) Utilisation of indigestible (CH2O)n – obesity Role in insulin resistance and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
398
What diseases provide evidence for a role of the gut microbiota?
``` Asthma/eczema IBD Colon cancer Heart disease Depression Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease Obesity Diabetes ``` Also affect drug activation/inactivation (Also non-GI affect breast cancer and metabolic syndrome)
399
What parts of a host are affected by absence of microbiome?
``` Intestinal Exocrine Endocrine Vascular Infection Immunity Epithelial Morphology Metabolism Nutritional Hepatic ``` I=3, E=3, M= 2, N/B/H= 1 each NB. Without germs, animals do survive (so microbiota not essential for survival) but altered function and causes intolerance - Immune function (without germs-> oral tolerance) - Metabolic function (without germs-> altered enzymes) - Physiological function (without germs-> altered motility) - Trophic function (without germs-> altered cell turnover)
400
What are the ecological interactions between members of different species?
+= win, -= loss, 0= neutral Parasitism/predation E.g. H. pylori or C. difficile GOOD FOR HOST? - GOOD FOR MICROBIATA? + ``` Amensalism Microbes which cause inadvertent damage to the host GOOD FOR HOST? - - 0 GOOD FOR MICROBIATA? 0 - - (I.e. 3 options= 0-, --, -0) ``` ``` Commensalism Probiotic microbes which don't reproduce in host E.g. L. lactis GOOD FOR HOST? + GOOD FOR MICROBIATA? 0 ``` Mutualism E.g. FMT for CDAD GOOD FOR HOST? + GOOD FOR MICROBIATA?+
401
What is amensalism?
Microbes which cause inadvertent damage to the host I.e. organism grows and in doing so inadvertently damages another BUT unlike a pathogen not evolved to do so (collateral damage) E.g. make phenol which can-> colorectal cancer
402
Why might IBD result from amensalism?
No 1 causative agent (multifactorial) Doesn't develop in sterile rodents Microbiota may be causing disease
403
Why can't Koch's postulate be used for IBD?
Don't have an organism | No way to verify pathogenic traits
404
How are the host genome and gut microbiome related?
Co-evolved Same number of bacterial cells as there are human cells, but 150x more genes than in the human karyome Probably due to metabolites (communication between proteomes and metabonomes)
405
Why is the proteome described as the 'missing link' in understanding the microbiome?
Link between host genome and gut microbiome probably because of communication between proteomes and metabonomes Bacterial proteases are a potential virulence factor in colorectal cancer and IBD Also compromise tight junction integrity
406
What is a microbiome niche?
Places colonized by microbes All niches are colonized from mouth-rectum But there are different species in each niche
407
Why do bodies produce bile?
Cholesterol homeostasis Dietary lipid / vitamin (fat soluble ADEK) absorption ``` Removal of xenobiotics/ drugs/ endogenous waste products E.g. - Cholesterol metabolites - Adrenocortical hormones - Other steroid hormones ``` Alkaline phosphatase (ALP also excreted into bile)
408
What is the composition of human bile?
``` PERCENTAGES OF COMPOSITION Water= 97 Bile salts= 0.7 Inorganic salts= 0.7 Bile pigments (BR= bilirubin, bilivirden)= 0.2 Fatty acids= 0.15 Lecithin= 0.1 Fat= 0.1 Cholesterol= 0.06 ``` Alkaline phosphatase Drug metabolites (higher mw>urine) Trace metals e.g. Fe, Zn, Mn, Pb, Cu IN AN ALKALINE ELECTROLYTE SOLUTION
409
How much bile is produced per day?
500ml per day
410
What produces bile?
60% hepatocytes (liver cells) Up to 40% by cholangiocytes (biliary epithelium) Bile drains from liver, through bile ducts into duodenum and duodenal papilla
411
Why is bile green/yellow?
Glucoronides of bile pigment
412
What happens in the hepatocytes and the biliary tree in bile production/modification?
HEPATOCYTES (60% bile) Lipids, bile acids and organic ions added CHOLANGIOCYTES (40% bile) Alters pH, fluidity and modifies bile as it flows through H20 drawn INTO bile (osmosis through paracellular junctions) Luminal glucose and some organic acids also reabsorbed HCO3- and Cl- actively secreted INTO bile by CFTR mechanism (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator) Cholangiocytes contribute IgA by exocytosis (SUMMARY= H2O in , Cl- in for Cl- out/HCO3- out)
413
Outline bile flow
Bile flow closely related to concentration of bile acids and salts in blood TRANSPORTERS Biliary excretion of bile salts and toxins performed by transporters on apical surface of hepatocytes and cholangiocytes These biliary transporters also govern rate of bile flow Dysfunction of the transporters -> cholestasis (slow bile flow) Main transporters include the: - Bile Salt Excretory Pump (BSEP) - MDR related proteins (MRP1 & MRP3) - Products of the familial intrahepatic cholestasis gene (FIC1) and multidrug resistance genes (MDR1 & MDR3)
414
How does BSEP (the bile transporter) work?
ABCB11 gene Active transport of bile acids across hepatocyte canalicular membranes into bile Secretion of bile acids is a major determinant of bile flow
415
How does MDR1 (the bile transporter) work?
Mediates canalicular excretion of xenobiotics, cytotoxins
416
How does MDR3 (the bile transporter) work?
Encodes a phospholipid transporter protein that translocates phosphatidylcholine from inner to outer leaflet of canalicular membrane
417
What are the 4 bile acids in humans?
PRIMARY (formed in liver) Cholic acid Chenodeoxycholic acid SECONDARY Deoxycholic acid Lithocholic acid Converted by colonic bacteria
418
What do bile salts do?
Reduce surface tension of fats | Emulsify fat preparatory to its digestion/absorption
419
Why are bile salts potentially cytotoxic in high concentrations?
Detergent-like actions | Irritates gut lining
420
What is the BLOOD anatomy of the biliary system?
Central veins-> coalesce-> hepatic veins-> inferior vena cava
421
What is the transit time from blood in portal vein to central hepatic vein?
8.4 seconds from: | Blood in portal vein-> liver lobule-> central hepatic vein
422
What regulates bile flow and secretion?
Ampulla of bile duct Controlled by Sphincter of Oddi Closed between meals Gall bladder stores bile in this time CCK (cholecystikinin) released when food enters stomach-> sphincter opens and gall bladder contracts and pumps bile into duodenum Why gallstones-> worse after eat (gall bladder squeezes against stones)
423
Outline enterohepatic circulation
BETWEEN LIVER AND GUT Liver makes bile and liver cells transfer various substances, including drugs, from plasma to bile (into duodenum and intestine) Some bile acids and some drug toxic metabolites are reabsorbed from blood and go back into the liver (Reabsorbed particularly in terminal ileum-> transported out of enterocytes-> uptake by hepatocytes-> bile-> repeat) Can also return to liver by portal blood
424
How does enterohepatic circulation affect drug accumulation?
Many hydrophilic drug conjugates (esp. glucoronide) are concentrated in bile GUT-> glucoronide hydrolysed-> active drug re-released-> reabsorbed-> cycle repeated 'Reservoir' of re-circulating drug Can prolong the action e.g. morphine Affects dose especially in patients with liver acids
425
Explain the enterophepatic circulation of bile salts
95% bile salts absorbed from small (terminal) ileum - By Na+/bile salt co-transport Na+-K+ ATPase system 5% converted to 2o bile acids in colon: - Deoxycholate absorbed - Lithocholate 99% excreted in stool Absorbed bile salts -> back to liver via portal vein then re-excreted in bile 3g bile salt pool re-cycles repeatedly in enterohepatic circulation (2x/meal; 6 – 8x/day)
426
How many times does the bile salt pool re-cyle in enterohepatic circulation?
2x per meal
427
What is terminal ileal resection/disease?
Decreased bile salt reabsorption Increased stool [fat] Because enterohepatic circulation interrupted and liver can’t increase rate of bile salt production enough to make it up
428
What would happen if bile couldn't enter the gut?
50% ingested fat in faeces | Malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins (ADEK)
429
What proportion of solids are in the bile in the hepatic duct and gallbladder?
Hepatic duct bile= 2-4% | Gallbladder bile= 10-12%
430
What mM/L of bile salts are in the bile in the hepatic duct and gallbladder?
Hepatic duct bile= 10-20 | Gallbladder bile= 50-200
431
What pH is the bile in the hepatic duct and gallbladder?
Hepatic duct bile= 7.8-8.6 | Gallbladder bile= 7.0-7.4
432
What are the effects of a cholecystectomy?
Cholecystectomy= removal of gallbladder Periodic discharge of bile from GB aids digestion BUT is NOT ESSENTIAL (so get regular drip of bile not released when possible) Normal health and nutrition exist with continuously slow bile discharge into duodenum Avoid foods with high fat content (bile isn't concentrated enough to efficiently digest bile)
433
How is bilirubin (BR) excreted?
BR = H2O-INSOLUBLE, yellow pigment BR bound to albumin from spleen (haemoglobin broken down)-> unconjugated bilirubin mostly dissociated in liver Free BR enters hepatocyte and binds cytoplasmic proteins-> conjugated to glucoronic acid (UDPGT from smooth ER)-> diglucoronide-BR Diglucoronide-BR is more soluble than free BR -> Transported across concentration gradient into bile canaliculi- (bile is mostly water)> GI tracts
434
What is the total BR made up of?
Free unconjugated BR (from spleen before liver) Conjugated BR (conjugated in hepatocytes and is in bile ducts and gut)
435
Where does bilirubin come from?
75% BR from Hb breakdown 22% from catabolism of other haem proteins 3% from ineffective bone marrow erythropoiesis
436
What are urobilinogens?
H2O-SOLUBLE, colourless derivatives of BR formed by action of GIT bacteria Formed mainly in intestines
437
What happens from old RBCs-> stercobilinogen? (Bilirubin metabolism and excretion pathway)
SPLEEN RBCs broken down in spleen (release haem) Unconjugated bilirubin bound to albumin Travels in blood to liver LIVER Unconjugated bilirubin splits from albumin Becomes conjugated by UDPGT (enzyme) ``` Bilirubin can be made soluble and travel in bile Enters duodenum (and kidneys) ``` KIDNEYS Small amount goes to kidneys and is excreted as urobilinogen COLON Remaining bilirubin (conjugated) enters colon Reduced by gut bacteria to stercobilinogen (comes out in faeces)
438
What is the GI tract permeable to (regarding BR)?
Permeable to unconjugated BR and urobilinogens
439
Why is faeces brown?
Oxidation of stercobilinogen to stercobilin
440
What causes cholestasis?
Pale faeces Cessation of bile flow -> Usually results in jaundice (but jaundice doesn't mean there is cholestasis)
441
What causes jaundice?
Excess bilirubin in blood (>34-50 microM/L) -> Yellow tinge to skin, sclerae, mucous membranes)
442
How does the spleen convert RBCs to bilirubin?
Haemoglobin-> globin and haem Haem-> bilirubin and iron
443
What can causes jaundice?
Pre-hepatic Hepatic/hepatocellular Post-hepatic/obstructive
444
What are the pre-hepatic causes of jaundice?
Increased quantity of BR: - Haemolysis - Massive Transfusion - Haematoma resorption - Ineffective erythropoiesis Look for: Hb drop without overt bleeding; better than liver function test
445
What are the hepatic causes of jaundice?
1. Defective uptake - Drugs (contrast, rapamycin) - CCF 2. Defective conjugation (with glucoronate) (2A) LOW CONJUGATION - Hypothyroidism - Gilbert's - Crigler-Najjar (2B) HIGH CONJUGATION - Congen: HH, Wilson’s, α1ATD - Infection: Hep A/B/C, CMV, EBV - Toxin: EtOH, drugs - AI: Auto-immune hepatitis - Neoplasia: HCC, mets - Vasc: Budd-Chiari 3. Defective BR excretion Too low - Dubin-Johnson - Rotor's Liver Failure: - Acute/Fulminant - Acute on Chronic - Viral hep, EtOH, AID, PBC, PSC etc. Intrahepatic cholestasis: - Sepsis, TPN, Drugs
446
What are the post-hepatic causes of jaundice?
Defective Transport of BR by biliary duct system E.g. common bile duct stones, HepPancBil malignancy, local LNpathy Look out for sepsis (cholangitis)
447
What is Gilbert's syndrome?
Commonest hereditary cause of increased bilirubin - Up to 5% of the population - Autosomal recessive inheritance - Elevated unconjugated bilirubin in bloodstream CAUSE 70%-80% reduction in glucuronidation activity of the enzyme UDPGT-1A1 SYMPTOMS No serious consequences Mild jaundice may appear under: exertion, stress, fasting, infections Usually asymptomatic
448
What causes acute liver failure?
Imbalanced hepatocyte destruction and hepatocyte regeneration ``` CAUSES Toxins= paracetamol, amanita phalloides, bacillus cereus Pregnancy diseases Idiosyncratic drug reactions Vascular diseases Metabolic causes ``` AETIOLOGY Apoptosis (e.g. Acetaminophen= Paracetamol): - Follows activation of caspases (cystein proteases) after oxidative mitochondrial damage - Nuclear shrinkage but no cell membrane rupture - Therefore no release of intracellular content, no secondary inflammation Necrosis (Ischaemia): - Caused by same insults as apoptosis - Associated with ATP exhaustion (depleted stores) resulting in swollen cell - Eventually lyses-> release of intracellular content-> seconddary inflammation Other factors (that regulate pathways of hepatocyte death) - Cellular nitric oxide (NO) - Antioxidants - Various pro- and anti-inflammatory cytokines e.g. IFN, IL-10, IL-12, natural killer cell-derived IL-5 SYMPTOMS Initially non-specific (malaise, nausea, lethargy) Jaundice Catastrophic illness Can rapidly lead to coma/death due to multi-organ failure
449
What types of acute liver failure are there?
``` FULMINANT HEPATIC FAILURE Rapid development ( ```
450
How common is ALF?
Relatively uncommon (
451
Outline the causes of ALF
TOXINS Over past 30y, paracetamol (Acetaminophen, ACM) is commonest cause= up to 70% ALF cases DISEASES OF PREGNANCY AFLOP, HELLP, hepatic infarction, HEV, Budd-Chiari IDIOSYNCRATIC DRUG REACTIONS Single Agent: Isoniazid, NSAID’s, valproate Drug combinations: Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, trimethoprim/sulphamethoxazole, rifampicin/isoniazid VASCULAR DISEASES Ischaemic hepatitis, post-OLT hepatic artery thrombosis, post-arrest, VOD METABOLIC CAUSES Wilson’s disease, Reye’s syndrome
452
At what dose can paracetamol cause serious damage?
Toxicity possible > 10g Severe toxicity certain > 25g Lower doses potentially hepatotoxic in: Chronic alcoholics Malnutrition or fasting Tegretol, Phenobarbital, Rifampacin Of all cases of paracetamol self-poisoning:
453
How does hepatocyte failure affect normal liver function?
(1. Normal, 2. Consequence of hepatic failure) Detoxification Encephalopthay and cerebral oedema Glycogen storage Hypoglycaemia Production of clotting factors Coagulopathy and bleeding Immunological function and globulin production Increased susceptibility to infection Maintenance of homeostasis Circulatory collapse, renal failure
454
How does diminished protein synthesis in liver failure cause ALF symptoms?
Decreased albumin -> ascites and oedema Decreased clotting factors-> bruising and bleeding Decreased complement -> infection and sepsis
455
How does defective metabolism in liver failure cause ALF symptoms?
Carbohydrate -> hypoglycaemia Protein catabolism -> low urea Ammonia Clearance -> encephalopathy and coma
456
What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
Accumulated neurotoxic substances in brain.? Affecting astrocyte function? ``` E.g. Short-chain fatty acids False neurotransmitters e.g. tyramine, octopamine, and beta-phenylethanolamines Manganese Ammonia Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) ```
457
Why is acute liver failure so prevalent in the far east?
ALF accounts for 15% of liver transplants/yr in UK, BUT 70% of transplants in Far East Differences in aetiology - Usually drug-induced in West - Viral hepatitis in developing world and Far East (endemic) Exacerbations of chronic hep B (Hong Kong), Hepatitis E (India)
458
What causes death in ALF?
``` Bacterial and fungal infections Circulatory instability Cerebral Oedema Renal failure Respiratory failure Acid-base and electrolyte disturbance Coagulopathy ```
459
What is the only therapeutic intervention proven to benefit ALF patients?
Emergency liver transplant Timing/selection of patients is crucial Unnecessary transplant: - Carries
460
What is the survival rate of a liver transplant?
5 year survival rate with OLT ranges between 60-80% No recurrence of disease BUT patient will require life-long immunosuppression NB. 5% of all transplants in the UK
461
Describe the human microbiome project
5 year project launched by NIH published in Nature 242 healthy men/women - samples from different body sites 10,000 different types of organism found Is there a core set of microbes that all humans share?
462
What are common infections of the GI tract?
Oral candidiasis Helicobacter pylori Infective diarrhoea (bacterial, viral, amoebic) Clostridium difficile
463
What is oral candidiasis?
Caused by candida albicans Carried in 50% individuals WHAT DOES IT CAUSE Yeast/ fungal infection In immunocompromised states e.g. HIV; chemotherapy; or treatment with corticosteroids TREATMENT Treat with oral anti-fungals e.g. nystatin; or IV antifungals if immunocompromised
464
What is helicobacter pylori?
Gram negative microaerophilic rod WHAT DOES IT CAUSE Leads to Gastritis/ gastric or duodenal ulcers/ gastric carcinoma BUT 80% infected individuals are asymptomatic INVESTIGATION Blood antibody, stool antigen, urea breath test, biopsy ureases test TREATMENT 1 week eradication therapy with proton pump inhibitor and clarithromycin / amoxicillin
465
What are the main causes of traveller's diarrhoea?
``` Escherichia coli (E coli) Shigella Salmonella Cholera Rotavirus Norovirus Giardia ```
466
What is norovirus?
Acute gastroenteritis
467
What are the types of e.coli?
E. coli is the type species of the genus (Escherichia) Escherichia is the type genus of the family Enterobacteriaceae ENTEROTOXIGENIC Cholera like toxin Watery diarrhoea ENTEROHAEMORRHAGIC EO157/H7 Verotoxin/shigatoxin Haemolytic uraemic syndrome ENTEROPATHOGENIC: EPEC Common in kids nurseries ENTEROINVASIVE Shigella like illness Bloody diarrhoea Megacolon
468
What is c. difficiile and how is it enhanaced by antibiotics?
Clostridium difficile Causes large intestine infection Antibiotics kill many commensal gut bacteria so c. diff gains a foothold and produces toxins-> mucosal injury Neutrophils and RBCs leak into gut between injured epithelial cells ``` LEADS TO Overgrowth of c. diff-> pseudomembranous colitis (antibiotic associated colitis) Bloody diarrhoea Mucous Abdominal pain ``` TREATMENT Isolation Stop current antibiotics Metronidazole and vancomycin
469
What is cholera?
Gram negative extracellular bacillus Targets Cl- channels -> huge water and salt loss in ricewater like diarrhoea LEADS TO Causes extreme dehydration and possible hypovolaemic shock TREATMENT Supportive (fluid replacement, salt, water, sugar and IV fluids)
470
What symptoms does food intolerance usually cause?
Diarrhoea | Other common GI disease symptoms
471
Outline faecal transplantation in c. diff
Multi-centre long-term follow-up colonoscopic FMT for recurrent c. diff infection - > Cure rate of 98% - > Symptoms for ~ 1 year before FMT and 74% better in 3 days Stool resembles donor stool in 2 weeks Persistence for over 30 days post FMT (Compared to other treatments: FMT 1/16 recurrence Vanc only 8/13 recurrence Vanc and lavage 7/13 recurrence)
472
What contributes to the innate GI defence against infection?
``` Gastric acid Commensal oral flora Peristalsis Mucus secretion from goblet cells Proteases- intraluminal enzymes Protective shield of the enterocyte membrane and brush border ```
473
What are the 2 main immunological defences of the GI tract?
MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue) GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)
474
What are the main physical defences of the GI tract?
Anatomical (epithelial barrier, peristalsis) | Chemical (enzymes, pH gastric acid)
475
What is in the epithelial barrier of the GI tract?
MUCUS LAYER Goblet cells EPITHELIAL MONOLAYER Tight junctions Antimicrobial peptides Transports IgA PANETH CELLS Bases of crypts Defensins Lysozyme
476
Where in the GI tract is rich in MALT?
The oral cavity | E.g. tongue, palatine, lingual and pharyngeal tonsils
477
What are the primary and secondary lymphoid organs?
Thymus and bone marrow – primary lymphoid organs Spleen and lymph nodes – secondary lymphoid tissues
478
Describe not-organised and organised GALT?
NOT-ORGANISED Intra-epithelial lymphocytes (mainly CD8) Lamina propria lymphocytes (antigen presenting cells) ORGANISED Cryptopatches (tiny lymphoid aggregates in colon) Peyer’s patches (in small intestine, distal ileum) Isolated lymphoid follicles Mesenteric lymph nodes
479
What does GALT do?
Generates lymphoid cells and antibodies IgA secretory and interstitial IgG IgM Cell mediated immunity (adaptive and innate)
480
What are Peyer's patches?
In small intestine (mainly distal ileum) Development requires exposure to bacterial microbiota - 50 in last trimester foetus - 250 by teens Organised collection of naïve T and B-cells Covered by follicle associated epithelium (FAE) Antigen uptake (antigen sampling) via M (microfold) cells within FAE Similar isolated lymphoid follicles elsewhere in GI tract (30,000 in total)
481
Describe the structure of a Payer's patch and the FAE
Under follicle associated epithelium (FAE) there is a sub-epithelial dome (dendritic cells) with M cells This is connected to a follicle (with B cells) that is: - Surrounded by T cell areas (naive T cells) - Connected to lymph nodes FAE - No goblet cells - No secretory IgA - Lack microvilli - Infiltrated by T-cells, B-cells, macrophages, dendritic cells
482
How are M cells involved in antigen sampling?
Form portal of entry for antigens (instead of mucosal epithelium) Antigen sampling/uptake controlled by M-cells Transport to antigen-presenting cells in sub-epithelial dome DCs take up antigen and process Present to naïve B or T-cells in Peyer’s patch or transport antigen to lymph nodes Results in development of gut homing markers Transfer to mesenteric lymph node to proliferate
483
What is the B cell adaptive response following antigen uptake by M cells?
B-cells - Mature naïve B-cells expressing IgM in PPs - Upon antigen presentation class switch to IgA - Influenced by presence of T-cells and epithelium via cytokines Further maturation to become IgA secreting plasma cells Populate lamina propria
484
What does IgA do in the immunological response of the GI tract?
IgA= specialised immunoglobulin of the gut IgA secreting cell numbers reflects bacterial load Up to 90% of gut B-cells secrete IgA STRUCTURE Dimeric structure secreted by plasma cells in submucosa TRANSPORT - Dimeric Ig binds to poly-Ig receptor on epithelial cell membrane - Receptor and IgA endocytosed to form vesicle (then undergo enzymatic cleavage-> form secretory IgA-> secreted into lumen from epithelial cells by transcytosis) ``` EFFECTS Binds luminal antigen Prevents invasion Prevents adherence Does not activate complement or cytotoxic lymphocytes ```
485
What do intra-epithelial lymphocytes do in the immunological response of the GI tract?
Make up one fifth of the intestinal epithelium Conventional T cells (also lamina propria) - Migrated from other tissues Unconventional T cells (Innate) - Resident - Express unusual combinations of CD4, CD8 or γδ T cell receptor Other innate immune cells -Resident NK cells (e.g. NKp44+ NK cells)
486
What is the T cell adaptive response in GI immunology determined by?
Determined by 3 signals: 1. Presentation of antigen (by DC) within MHC 2. Co-stimulatory signals on DC 3. Secretion of cytokines by DC
487
What is the cytokine millieu?
The pool of cytokines Affects development of the unconventional resident T cells of the gut The plastic response of T-cells to this milieu can lead to a proinflammatory environment Leading to an increase in Th1, ThIL17 with a decreased Treg cell count
488
What is gut homing?
Mechanism by which activated T cells and antibody-secreting cells (ASCs) are targeted to both inflamed and non-inflamed regions of the gut in order to provide an effective immune response Lymphocytes proliferate in MLNs - > Enter lymphatics to thoracic duct - > Enter circulation - > Selectively home to sites similar to initial priming Antigen presentation in GALT favours ‘gut homing’ characteristics (Integrins and chemokine receptors) Partly regulated by the adhesive interactions between lymphocytes and specialised post-capillary microvascular endothelial cells, such as high endothelial venules (HEVs) of lymphoid tissue
489
Lymphocyte activation: How is tracking of lymphocytes into areas of gut inflammation mediated?
Lymphocytes track into areas of gut inflammation Mediated by expression of tissue-specific adhesion molecules on vasculature walls
490
What is the mechanism of gut inflammation?
α4β7 integrin/MAdCAM-1 adhesion facilitates local gut inflammation Likely that these interactions mediate selective lymphocyte trafficking to GI mucosa and gut-associated tissues α4β7 integrin is a critical component of lymphocyte tracking to sites of local inflammation in IBD
491
What are the 2 main immunological roles of the gut?
Tolerance= food antigens, commensal bacteria Immunoreactivity= pathogens
492
What is immune tolerance?
Suppression of immune responses towards antigens
493
What leads to immune tolerance and what happens if this fails?
MECHANISMS OF IMMUNE TOLERANCE Deletion of responding lymphocytes Anergy TReg cells LOSS OF TOLERANCE (maybe->) Inflammatory bowel disease Coeliac disease Food allergy
494
What is the difference between intolerance and allergy to food
``` Food allergy= IgE and histamine response Nuts Hen egg white Cows milk Wheat Sesame seeds Soya Shell fish ``` Food intolerance= not mediated by immune system
495
What is coeliac disease?
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition NOT an allergy or an intolerance to gluten In cases of coeliac disease, the immune system mistakes substances found inside gluten as a threat to the body and attacks them This damages the surface of the small bowel (intestines), disrupting the body's ability to absorb nutrients from food Inflammatory reaction (dendritic cells of submucosa mature in a proinflammatory environment)-> subtotal villous atrophy Can’t absorb B12, folate…. So often present as anaemic
496
What is the genetic pathogenesis of coeliac disease?
Majority DQ8 HLA, some DQ2 (also need another HIIT)
497
Outline the epidemiology for IBD
Around 300,000 people in the UK have IBD Overall incidence of UC is higher than Crohn’s, but Crohn’s is increasing more Increasing incidence, especially in young and non-western societies Highest incidence rates in North America and northern/western Europe
498
What causes inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
Combo of: Genetic background (>160 susceptibility genes, 2/3 genes shared between UC/CD) Immune system Environmental factor Inappropriate chronic immune response against resident gut microbes - May be on account of distinct changes in the gut microbiota termed as dysbiosis Smoking-> in crohns is very bad (more likely to need operations and stronger drugs) In ulcerative colitis (removal of smoking= trigger factor)
499
What role does NOD-2 possibly have in IBD?
Creates protein relating to how body reacts to bacteria
500
What effects do reanastomosis and faecal stream diversion have on Chrohn's
Faecal stream diversion alleviates Crohn’s Reanastomosis triggers recurrence
501
What are the specific changes in microbiota function in Crohn's disease?
Overall CD is not caused by diminished diversity alone – but requires a susceptible genotype – as confirmed by research in mice with human relevant susceptibility mutations Shift-> increases in virulence and secretion pathways Fusobacteriaceae= biomarker, progression of colon cancer Pastueurellacaea, veillonellaceae, pathogenic E. coli= link with ulcer formation
502
What are the specific changes in microbiata function in Ulcerative colitis?
Decrease in Faecalibacterium prausnitzii and Roseburia hominus in UC (decrease in butyrate production)
503
Why is it challenging to study IBD?
``` Clinical Phenotype Confounders Age, gender, smoking Ethnicity, diet, surgery Medications “Healthy” controls ``` SAMPLING Faeces v mucosa - Axial and longitudinal variation Replication - Multiple samples from same region - Longitudinal sampling ``` COMMUNICATION Clinicians Microbial ecologists Bioinformatics Statisticians ``` ``` TECHNICAL 16S sequence Metagenomics Metatranscriptomics Metabonomics Economics ```
504
What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Inflammatory condition of the biliary tree associated with IBD May cause cholangiocarcinoma Cause is T-cell misdirection to the liver whether they contribute to inflammation and biliary destruction
505
What are paracrine hormones?
Hormones released by cells in the vicinity of the target cell and reach target cell by diffusion
506
How is GI function (overall) controlled?
Nervous system (intrisic/enteric and extrinsic/autonomic) Paracrine Endocrine
507
What is the enteric (intrinsic) nervous system?
Integrates motor and secretory activities (Independently of CNS) ``` Regulates: Motility Blood flow Water and electrolyte transport Secretion Absorption ``` GI tract wall= concentration of neurons 2nd only to CNS Rich plexus (network) of ganglia (nerve cells and glial cells) interconnected by tracts of fine, unmyelinated nerve fibres
508
What happens if there is enteric neural dysfunction/degeneration?
Inflammation (UC or CD) Post-operative injury Irritable bowel syndrome Ageing (constipation)
509
What are the main plexuses in the gut?
Myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s plexus) Minor plexuses (including deep muscular plexus (inside circular muscle) Submucosal plexus (Meissner's)
510
Where is the myenteric plexus and what does it do?
Located between the circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers Controls activity of muscularis externa Controls gut motor function
511
What do the minor plexuses include?
Deep muscular plexus (inside circular muscle) | Ganglia supplying biliary system and pancreas
512
Where is the submucosal plexus and what does it do?
Sensing environment within lumen Blood flow, epithelial and endocrine cell funpaction
513
How is the ANS involved in regulating GI function?
Regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands Not accessible to voluntary control Two branches: - Sympathetic - Parasympathetic
514
What does sympathetic control do to regulate GI function?
Activation of the sympathetic nerves usually inhibit the activities of the GI system (by inhibiting blood flow) Neurotransmitter= norepinerphrine (NA)
515
What is the main sympathetic innervation of the gut?
Thoracic splanchnic nerves carry innervation to fore and midgut Lumbar splanchnic nerves carry sympathetic innervation to the remainder of the gut
516
In the sympathetic nervous system, where are cell bodies of the pre and postganglionic neurons?
Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons in the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord Cell bodies of postganglionic neurons in the pre- and para- vertebral ganglia
517
What does parasympathetic control do to regulate GI function?
Excitation usually stimulates the activities of the GI tract Neurotransmitter= Acetylcholine (ACh)
518
What is the main parasympathetic innervation of the gut?
Most of the GI tract via branches of the vagus nerve (down to the level of the transverse colon) Remainder of the colon, the rectum and the anus receive parasympathetic fibers from the pelvic nerves
519
In the parasympathetic nervous system, where are cell bodies of the pre and postganglionic neurons?
Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons in the brainstem and sacral spinal cord (cranio-sacral)
520
How are smooth muscle, secretory cells, endocrine cells and blood vessels of the GI tract innervated by the ANS?
SEE DIAGRAM ANS -> Parasympathetic- vagal nuclei (vagus nerve) and sacral spinal cord (pelvi) nerves)-> enteric nervous system or ANS -> Sympathetic- thoracic and lumbar SC-> sympathetic ganglia-> blood vessels and enteric nervous system -- Enteric nervous system (myenteric plexus submucosal plexus) - > Smooth muscle - > Secretory cells - > Endocrine cells - > Blood vessels
521
Where do most sympathetic fibres terminate?
Terminate on neurones in the intramural plexuses Majority sympathetic fibres do not directly innervate structures in the GI tract BUT: Vasoconstrictor sympathetic fibres do directly innervate the blood vessels of the GI tract- coeliac, superior and inferior mesenteric
522
How are smooth muscle, secretory cells, endocrine cells and blood vessels of the GI tract innervated by the CNS?
SEE DIAGRAM CNS -> Sympathetic and parasympathetic efferents -> Enteric nervous system or -> Directly-> ABCD ------ Chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors in wall of GI tract -> Splanchnic and vagal afferents -> CNS or -> Local afferents-> enteric nervous system ``` --- Enteric nervous system (myenteric plexus submucosal plexus) -> Smooth muscle (A) -> Secretory cells (B) -> Endocrine cells (C) -> Blood vessels (D) ```
523
How is the GI tract innervated?
INTRINSIC INNERVATION Neurons of the enteric nervous system EXTRINSIC INNERVATION Afferents (pain, nausea, fullness) Afferents (coordination - sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems) Complexity allows fine control of the GI tract
524
What is the anatomical difference between the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system in terms of GI control?
PARASYMPATHETIC Innervates the gut via long preganglionic neurones (mostly via the vagus nerve) and short postganglionic neurones -> Promotes gut motility, secretion and digestion SYMPATHETIC Innervates the gut via short preganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres -> Inhibits gut motility and secretion -> Causes constriction of blood vessels and contraction of sphincters
525
What is the function of the GI endocrine system?
Produced by endocrine cells in the mucosa or submucosa of the stomach, intestine and pancreas Can act as paracrine or neurocrine factors REGULATES MECH PROCESS OF DIGESTION E.g. smooth muscle of GI tract and sphincters, gall bladder REGULATES CHEM PROCESS OF DIGESTION E.g. secretory cells located in the wall of the GI tract, pancreas and liver CONTROLS POST ABSORPTIVE PROCESSES (Post absorptive processes involved in the assimilation of digested food and CNS feedback regulating intake) E.g. GIP stimulates insulin release from pancreatic beta cells, PYY3-36 acts on the CNS to suppress appetite EFFECTS ON GROWTH/DEVELOPMENT OF GIT E.g. GLP-2 promotes small intestinal growth
526
What are the major gut hormones acting on the GI system?
``` STOMACH Gastrin Ghrelin Somatostatin Histamine ``` ``` PANCREAS Insulin Glucagon Somatostatin Pancreatic Polypeptide ``` UPPER DUODENUM/JEJUNUM Secretin CCK Somatostatin ``` ILEUM PYY GIP GLP-1 GLP-2 Oxyntomodulin Neurotensin Somatostatin ``` ``` COLON PYY GLP-1 Oxyntomodulin Neurotensin Somatostatin ```
527
How do histamine and somatostatin have paracrine actions on gastric parietal cells in the GI system?
Histamine release from the stomach wall cells is key to HCl secretion from the gastric parietal cells Somatostatin from the stomach can inhibit this secretion
528
Gastrin (synthesis, release, action)
SYNTHESIS In gastric antrum and upper small intestine RELEASE STIMULATED BY: - AAs and peptides in the lumen of the stomach - Gastric distension - Vagus nerve directly ACTION Gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion Release inhibited when pH of stomach falls below pH 3
529
Somatostatin (synthesis, release, action)
SYNTHESIS In endocrine D cells of the gastric and duodenal mucosa, pancreas (also hypothalamus) RELEASE In response to a mixed meal ACTION Somatostatin is a universal inhibitor (Endocrine Cyanide) Inhibits: Gastric secretion, motility, intestinal and pancreatic secretions, release of gut hormones, intestinal nutrient and electrolyte transport, growth and proliferation Analogues used to treat neuroendocrine tumours
530
Secretin (synthesis, release, action)
SYNTHESIS S cells in upper duodenum and jejunum RELEASE STIMULATED BY: Presence of acid in duodenum (pH below 4.5) ACTION Stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion (effect potentiated by CCK)
531
Cholecystokinin CCK (synthesis, release, action)
SYNTHESIS Secreted by cells most densely located in the small intestine RELEASE Stimulated by fat and peptides in the upper small intestine Independent of the vagus ACTION - Stimulates pancreatic enzyme release - Delays gastric emptying - Stimulates gallbladder contraction. - Decreases food intake and meal size
532
Gastric inhibitory peptide OR glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP) (synthesis, release, action)
SYNTHESIS Secreted by mucosal K cells (predominant in the duodenum and jejunum) RELEASE Following ingestion of a mixed meal ACTION Stimulates insulin secretion. GIP receptor antagonists reduce postprandial insulin release
533
Peptide YY (PYY) (synthesis, release, action)
SYNTHESIS Cells found throughout the mucosa of the terminal ileum, colon and rectum RELEASE From L cells post prandially (particularly protein) from intestines ACTION - PYY reduces intestinal motility, gallbladder contraction and pancreatic exocrine secretion - Inhibitor of intestinal fluid and electrolyte secretion - PYY3-36 inhibits food intake
534
Why was octreotide developed?
Developed because longer half life than somatostatin | Wouldn’t need to constantly infuse them-> so octreotide can chronically manipulate it but taken practically
535
When does an individual perceive thirst?
Body fluid osmolality is increased Blood volume is reduced Blood pressure is reduced Plasma osmolality increased is the more potent stimulus – change of 2-3% induces strong desire to drink Decrease of 10-15% in blood volume or arterial pressure required to produce the same response
536
What does ADH/VP do?
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin Acts on kidneys to regulate the volume and osmolality of urine Low plasma ADH -> large volume of urine is excreted (water diuresis) High plasma ADH -> small volume of urine is excreted (anti diuresis)
537
Where are osmoreceptors?
Hypothalamus, organum vasculosum (OVLT)and subfornical organ (SFO) Circumventricular organs (characterized by their extensive vasculature and lack of a normal BBB)
538
How do osmoreceptors affect ADH release?
Found in the hypothalamus, OVLT, and SFO Sense changes in body fluid osmolality Cells shrink or swell in response (expand when plasma more dilute, and vice versa) Send signals to the ADH producing cells in the hypothalamus to alter ADH release Same regions seem to regulate thirst
539
To maintain water balance. how is plasma osmolality increased and decreased?
INCREASED PLASMA OSMOLALITY Invokes drinking and ADH release Increased ADH stimulates kidney to conserve water DECREASED PLASMA OSMOLALITY Thirst is suppressed and ADH release decreased Absence of ADH the kidney excretes more water
540
What causes the sensation of thirst?
Don't know as much as about food intake Receptors in mouth, pharynx, oesophagus seem to be involved Relief of thirst sensation via these receptors is short lived Thirst is only completely satisfied once plasma osmolality is decreased or blood volume or arterial pressure corrected Circuits may be involved
541
How is RAAS involved in thirst?
Angiotensinogen from liver (with renin from juxtaglomerular cells) -> angiotensin I Angiotensin I (with ACE)-> angiotensin II-> thirst and other effects of vasonconstriction ANGIOTENSIN II-> SENSATION OF THIRST
542
How does angiotensin II evoke the sensation of thirst?
AII (angiotensin II) is increased when blood volume and pressure are reduced Activates SFO neurones AII contributes to the homeostatic response to restore and maintain the body fluids at their normal level Other factors? Neurotransmitters?
543
How is body weight controlled?
INTO HYPOTHALAMUS Ghrelin, PPY and other hormones Neural input from periphery and other brain regions Leptin HYPOTHALAMUS Responding to many inputs Integrated system OUT OF HYPOTHALAMUS Food intake Energy expenditure
544
What is in the hypothalamus?
``` Lateral hypothalamus Paraventricular nucleus Ventromedial hypothalamus Arcuate nucleus around 3rd ventricle ```
545
What is the arcuate nucleus?
Key brain area involved in the regulation of food intake Incomplete blood brain barrier, allows access to peripheral hormones Integrates peripheral and central feeding signals Two neuronal populations: - Stimulatory (NPY/Agrp neuron) - Inhibitory (POMC neuron)
546
Why is the arcuate nucleus at the bottom?
``` Sensing what goes on outside brain Incomplete BBB (peripheral factors gain access) ```
547
How does the arcuate nucleus link to the paraventricular nucleus?
Circulating factors in blood - > Arcuate nucleus - > Through 3rd ventricle SIGNALS TO PVN Increases feeding or decreases feeding PVN= controls appetite and energy expenditure
548
Describe the melanocortin system
POMC (in arcuate nucleus)-> alpha-MSH -> stimulates MC4R (in paraventricular nucleus) Agrp (in arcuate nucleus)-> Agrp -> inhibits MC4R (in paraventricular nucleus)
549
What mutations in the CNS affect appetite by altering the arcuate nucleus or PVN function?
No NPY or Agrp mutations associated with appetite discovered in humans (very dramatic and not common) POMC deficiency and MC4-R mutations cause morbid obesity Mutations not responsible for the prevalence of obesity- but useful to explain signalling
550
Other than the hypothalamus, where do signals come from to affect appetite regulation?
Higher centres Amygdala- emotion, memory Other parts of the hypothalamus, e.g. lateral hypothalamus Vagus to brain stem to hypothalamus
551
What are the peripheral signals of body homeostasis?
Long term- Leptin | Short term- Ghrelin, PYY
552
What is the adipostat mechanism and how does it increase/decrease food intake?
Circulating hormone produced by fat Hypothalamus senses the concentration of hormone Hypothalamus then alters neuropeptides to increase or decrease food intake Perhaps a problem with the regulation of the adipostat mechanism leads to obesity?
553
Describe what the ob/ob mouse shows
Big mouse= missing gene for leptin (hormone)
554
What is leptin?
167 AA protein hormone (leptin) coded for but missing in ob/ob mouse Made by adipocytes in white adipose tissue Circulates in plasma Acts upon the hypothalamus regulating appetite (intake) and thermogenesis (expenditure) When you get fatter-> release more leptin-> regulation But doesn't happen in ob/ob mouse Ob/ob mouse can be normalised when given leptin
555
When is leptin low/high?
Low when low body fat | High when high body fat
556
What 3 ways did people think the leptin regulatory loop could lead to obesity?
ABSENT LEPTIN Thought obese people had adipose tissue lacking leptin REGULATORY DEFECT Obese people had normal leptin levels but that more fat over a point meant no more leptin ``` LEPTIN RESISTANCE (this was the case) High leptin levels but hypothalamus doesn't lead to food intake, energy expenditure or fat/glucose metabolism ```
557
Describe leptin resistance
Leptin circulates in plasma in concentrations proportional to fat mass Fat humans have high leptin Obesity due to leptin resistance- hormone is present but doesn’t signal effectively Leptin is ineffective as a weight control drug
558
What is congenital leptin deficiency?
Small number of cases identified Mutation in ob gene- homologous to ob/ob mouse Severely hyperphagic and obese
559
How can congenital leptin deficiency be treated?
Leptin replacement Reduces body weight
560
Why do you feel less hungry after a meal?
Not bulk in stomach or nutrients in circulation Hormonal signal from the gut (Grehlin in stomach and PYY in descending colon/rectum)
561
How does what you're eating affect PYY secretion and what does it modulate?
Post-prandial secretion of PYY Released in proportion to calories you're eating Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus - Inhibits NPY release - Stimulates POMC neurones - Decreases appetite
562
What is Ghrelin and what does it modulate?
"Hunger hormone"= opposite of PYY release Peptide hormone produced by ghrelinergic cells in the gastrointestinal tract Fatty acid chain at Ser3 (to access brain and bind to R) Released before a meal, drops after Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus - Stimulates NPY/Agrp neurons - Inhibits POMC neurons - Increases appetite
563
What is the relationship between PYY and Ghrelin?
PYY (from intestines) - 36 AA chain, truncated version in food intake - Increases after meal Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus - Inhibits NPY release - Stimulates POMC neurones - Decreases appetite -- GHRELIN(from stomach) - Opposite of PYY release - Increases before meal Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus - Stimulates NPY/Agrp neurons - Inhibits POMC neurons - Increases appetite
564
What happens to rats with PYY and ghrelin?
PYY Rat= wants to eat (hungry) Increasing doses of PYY-> suppresses food intake GHRELIN In rats that aren't hungry Increasing doses of ghrelin-> think they are hungry-> eat more (Ghrelin suppresses hunger in humans)
565
How might obesity be treated in the future?
Gut hormones may represent a novel treatment for obesity Target only relevant circuits. Released daily without ‘side effects’ Exert effects throughout life without escape
566
Why does body weight need to be regulated?
Obesity is associated with comorbidities E.g. depression, sleep apnoea, stroke, MI, hypertension, diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, gout, osteoarthritis. bowel cancer, liver disease, lung disease, abnormal periods/infertility in women
567
What is the thrift gene hypothesis?
James Neel 1962 Specific genes selected for to increase metabolic efficiency and fat storage In the context of plentiful food and little exercise these genes predispose their carriers to obesity and diabetes Evolutionarily sensible to put on weight (thin humans didn’t survive famines, so didn’t pass their genes on to modern humans) Populations historically prone to starvation become most obese when exposed to Western diet and sedentary life-style (e.g. Pima Indians, Pacific Islanders)
568
What is adaptive drift hypothesis?
Normal distribution of body weight: the fat are eaten, the thin starve 10-20K yrs ago, humans learned to defend against predators Thus obesity not selected against Putting on body fat then a neutral change (genetic drift). (though unlikely to put on much weight) In current context, the inheritors of these genes become obese
569
Explain the biochemistry of ethanol
``` Ethyl group (methyl group and methylene group) Hydroxy group ``` Structural formula= CH3CH2OH (C2H6O) Ethanol is practically insoluble in fats and oils The concentration of ethanol depends on the relative water content of the tissue (reaches equilibrium quickly with the concentration of ethanol in the plasma) Ethanol is not bound to plasma proteins
570
Outline the metabolism of ethanol
Ethanol-> ADH (NAD+->NADH) -> Acetaldehyde -> ALDH (NAD+->NADH) -> Acetate Ethanol-> Catalase (H202->H20) -> Acetaldehyde Ethanol-> CYP2E1 (NADPH-> NADP+ and H2O) -> Acetaldehyde ADH – alcohol dehydrogenase ALDH - Aldehyde dehydrogenase
571
What happens when too much alcohol is drunk to the metabolism of ethanol?
ADH-> Hypoxia (displaced ratio-> cell death) CYP2E1 and acetaldehyde-> ROS (-> free radical formation) Acetaldehyde (toxic) binds to certain AAs-> protein adduct formation (recognised as foreign-> inflammatory response)
572
What is AUDIT used for in alcohol use and what do scores mean?
Alcohol-use disorders identification test (IDs 92% hazardous and harmful drinkers, excludes 93% who aren't) ``` Staging risk 1–7: low-risk drinking 8–15: hazardous drinking 16–19: harmful drinking 20+: possible dependence ```
573
Who does liver disease kill?
Liver disease is the third biggest cause of premature mortality (in working life) Alcohol kills at a young age Productivity, taxes, working-> useful to state 75% of deaths from liver disease are result of excess alcohol consumption
574
How are hepatocytes damages due to ethanol toxicity?
Cellular and molecular mechanisms involved remain poorly understood Liver damage might be the result of direct toxic actions of ethanol or its metabolites within hepatocytes-> CELL DEATH
575
In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), what is involved?
NADH Introduction of xenobiotic metabolism Free radical generation Protein adduct formation ``` -> Myocardial and pancreatic injury Fatty liver Hypoxic liver damage Allergic reactions Cell damage Carcinogenesis Enhanced toxicity ```
576
In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is NADH involved?
Decreased FA oxidation - > FA ethyl esters-> myocardial and pancreatic injury - > increased triglyceride production-> fatty liver Increased glyceraldehyde reduction -> increased triglyceride production-> fatty liver Decreased galactose tolerance Increased oxygen consumption -> increased oxygen consumption-> hypoxic liver damage
577
In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is ALDH involved?
ALDH-> adenosine-> vasodilation-> hypoxic liver damage
578
In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is protein adduct formation involved?
Decreased microtubule function-> abnormal diagnostic tests Antibody formation-> allergic reaction and cell damage Directly to cell damage
579
In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is free radical generation involved?
Lipid peroxidation-> fatty liver Directly to carcinogenesis
580
In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is the introduction of xenobiotic metabolism involved?
- > carcinogenesis | - > enhanced toxicity (e.g. halogenated hydrocarbons)
581
How does chronic alcohol misuse lead to cirrhosis?
NB. Not everyone who drinks same amount will develop cirrhosis 90-95% -> steatosis (fatty liver) or steatohepatitis (inflammation) 10-20% from steatosis-> fibrosis 40-50% from steatohepatitis-> fibrosis 8-20%-> cirrhosis In some people steatohepatitis-> cirrhosis directly 3-10% cirrhosis-> HCC (hepatocellular carcinoma)
582
What factors contribute to developing cirrhosis?
GENETIC Female SNPs Hemochromatosis ``` ENVIRONMENTAL Binge drinking Viral hepatitis HIV Obesity and insulin resistance Cigarette smoking ```
583
What is steatosis?
``` Fatty liver Fat droplets deposited in the liver Occurs in up to 50-90% of heavy drinkers Leads to steatohepatitis and abnormal LFT’s Reversible if alcohol reduced ```
584
What is cirrhosis?
Irreversible scarring of liver with fibrous bands and regenerative nodules (as hepatic cells begin to die) Eventually develops in 20% after 15 years Impaired function Development of portal hypertension (back up of blood diverted to other veins and causes problems) Morbidity common, associated with jaundice, ascites, bleeding, cachexia, infections, and encephalopathy 3-5% per annum risk of developing liver cancer Death in most within 10 years
585
What is the macroscopic difference between a fatty liver and cirrhotic liver?
``` Fatty= smooth, fat Cirrhotic= pinker, rougher, nodules ```
586
What kind of cirrhosis is there? (Spectrum)
Compensated vs decompensated OR Asymptomatic vs symptomatic
587
What are the symptoms commonly associated with cirrhosis?
Jaundice (from bilirubin retention) Ascites (retention of water in abdominal cavity, pressure gradient issue as high portal hypertension and low pressure within abdominal cavity) Bleeding varices Encephalopathy
588
How is liver disease classified?
Child-Pugh is a way of classifying liver disease | A= least severe, C= worst
589
Does abstinence alter survival in liver disease?
Stop drinking-> liver can regenerate in early stages In cirrhosis-> can't reverse, can have transplant, abstinence still useful to improve 5yr survival rate (if Child-Pugh A)
590
What conditions are associated with chronic alcohol consumption?
``` Cirrhosis Chronic pancreatitis Alcoholic cardiomyopathy Stroke Neurological Fetal alcohol syndrome ```
591
What is chronic pancreatitis?
Up to 45% due to alcohol Exocrine insufficiency -> Steatorrhoea, vitamin deficiencies, hypocalcaemia Endocrine insufficiency -> Diabetes Chronic Pain Weight Loss
592
What is alcoholic cardiomyopathy?
Chronic long-term abuse of alcohol (i.e. ethanol) leads to heart failure Toxicity-> heart unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to heart failure Heart much bigger (3x), become dilated and baggy (radius of ventricles has increased so have to contract under higher pressure to -> SV) Higher BP in people who consume more alcohol Hypertension appears to reverse within 2 to 3 weeks of cessation of alcohol intake
593
How does alcohol affect stroke risk?
High alcohol intake is associated with the risk of stroke The effect is dose dependent – findings suggest a J-shaped curve (consuming small amounts of alcohol may be beneficial or just maybe better health/lifestyle) Increased risk of haemorrhagic stroke
594
How does alcohol affect brain function?
Ability to perform tasks, recall info and coordinate/balance are reduced HEAVY ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION (often together, malnutrition, deficiency in thiamine) Wernicke’s encephalopathy Korsakoff’s psychosis Optic toxicity Autonomic dysfunction Peripheral neuropathy
595
What is fetal alcohol syndrome?
Specific pattern of facial features Pre- and/or postnatal growth deficiency Evidence of central nervous system dysfunction Microencephaly (small brain) and migration anomalies (neural and glia cells don't migrate properly, just go to top of cortex) Agenesis of corpus callosum and ventricles are dilated Cerebellar anomalies Some babies are born with obvious FAS, many other babies will appear normal, but never reach their full potential as a result of the effects of alcohol in utero
596
What are the negative impacts of alcohol on society?
In 2014, there were 8,697 alcohol-related deaths registered in the UK In 2013/14, there were an estimated 1,059,210 admissions in England related to alcohol consumption The overall number of people in treatment for alcohol dependency during 2013-14 in England was 114,920 The total annual cost to society of alcohol-related harm is estimated to be £21bn The NHS incurs £3.5bn a year in costs related to alcohol Alcohol-related crime in the UK is estimated to cost between £8bn and £13bn per year
597
What is the alcohol harm paradox?
Deprived populations that apparently consume the same or less alcohol than less deprived populations suffer greater levels of harm ``` May be due to: Under reporting Drinking patterns Compounding / social and health resilience Health services Poverty gradient ```
598
How many grams in a unit of alcohol?
8g
599
How many units a week are recommended?
14 units a week for women and men max recommended | Should be spread evenly over 3+ days
600
How are units of alcohol calculated?
Percentage (ABV%) x volume (ml) Divided by 1000
601
How many units are in beer, red wine and white cider?
Beer 4. 5%, 568ml 2. 6 units Red wine 13. 0%, 250ml 3. 3 units White cider 7. 5%, 3L 22. 5 units
602
How does food-> acetyl CoA in energy metabolism?
CARBS Glycogen-> (glycogenolysis)-> glucose -> (glycolysis)-> pyruvate-> acetyl CoA FATS Triglycerides-> (lipolysis)-> free fatty acids -> (B oxidation)-> acetyl CoA PROTEIN Protein-> (proteinolysis)-> amino acids -> (deamination and oxidation)-> acetyl CoA
603
What is undernutrition?
Inadequate consumption Poor absorption Excessive loss of nutrients (NB. Malnutrition includes overnutrition)
604
What is the global burden of undernutrition?
``` A third of the global population live below recommended nutritional needs Most T2D -> 30-40% CVD -> Many cancers (risk factors) -> Many chronic diseases ```
605
What is Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
If human potential is to be fulfilled there are a number of basic needs that have to be met ``` (From bottom to top) Biological/physiological Security/safety Social needs Ego Self fulfilment ``` Building blocks to perform at best level (need bottom the most) Basic needs are oxygen, food, water and shelter
606
What is BMI?
Lot of ways assessing body composition BMI clinically relevant method of estimating adiposity Weight kg/height Much more useful to use with waist measurement
607
What do values of BMI mean?
>20 underweight 20-25 desirable weight 26 - 30 overweight 31-40 obese
608
How can undernutrition be checked?
BMI not as good for undernutrition as obesity/overweight Monitoring body weight -> Can be complicated by fluid balance Arm circumference (or measure triceps skinfold) NB. Hard in children because growing (but use growth charts0
609
What is body weight a reflection of?
Total cell mass In some case of malnutrition body weight is not reflective of nutritional status because of complications of oedema (oedema confounds body weight)
610
What do dietary reference values do?
Reflect the nutritional needs of a population A way of assessing nutritional adequacy Needed because people need many different nutrients to maintain health and reduce the risk of diet-related diseases These are different in requirements of nutrients at different stages of life e.g. women of childbearing age need more iron than men.
611
What are the dietary reference values?
Fall in normal distribution Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)= Mean requirement Reference Nutrient intake (RNI)= 2.5 SD above EAR (97.5%) Lower nutrient reference intake (LRNI)= 2.5 SD below EAR (population at risk below here e.g. of iron deficiencies, used for calories in UK) Not set at EAR because below what 50% of population needs so normally set it at RNI (cover majority of population)
612
Why is Vitamin C essential in man?
Ascorbic acid Anti oxidant Convert Fe3+ to Fe2+ Important in formation of collagen Varied amount for different ages/sexes/pregnancy/lactation Deficiency: Scurvy NB. James Lind 1700s, 12 men from ship (discovered citrus fruit can cause scurvy)
613
How do the Laws of Thermodynamic apply to humans?
WHEN WEIGHT IS STABLE Energy in = energy out and energy stored ``` WEIGHT GAIN Energy in > energy out - Increase intake - Decrease expenditure - Decrease in metabolic rate ```
614
What is included in total energy expenditure?
Total energy expenditure= heat produced and work on environment (when organism is at rest, all energy expenditure is equal to heat produced) Adaptive thermogenesis Physical activity (variable) Obligatory energy expenditure (BMR)
615
What is adaptive thermogenesis?
Extra energy when digest food or expended to keep warm Variable, regulated by brain Responds to temperature and diet Occurs in brown adipocyte mitochondria, skeletal muscle and other sites
616
What is obligatory energy expenditure?
Majority of energy expenditure BMR Required for performance of cellular and organ functions
617
What makes up energy intake?
Fat 9 Cho 4 Protein 4 Alcohol 7
618
What level are most nutritional recommendations set at?
RNI | 2.5 SD above the EAR
619
How does energy demand change during life?
Energy demand gets greater as you grow | Energy demand decreases as muscle mass is lost
620
What are the fates of acetyl CoA?
``` Pyruvate AA FAs Ketone bodies TCA ```
621
How is energy stored in the body?
Glycogen= stored in the liver and muscle Adipose tissue= major store Muscle= prolonged starvation Alcohol can't be stored-> changes other balances
622
How are macronutrients balanced?
Intake (alcohol, CHO, protein, fat) MINUS Expenditure (alcohol, CHO, protein, fat) EQUALS Stores (alcohol, CHO, protein, fat) Autoregulation perfect of alcohol, excellent of protein and carbs but poor of fat Burn alcohol first-> shift rest into storage Changes oxidation hierarchy - Alcohol, CHO, protein automatic adjustment of oxidation to intake, fat is not - Oxidation hierarchy leads to fat sparing
623
Outline human body growth in relation to body weight
Human body will increase in weight twenty fold from a baby to an adult All material in weight gain enters the human body as food and drink Grossly abnormal diets will cause changes in body weight, configuration and composition NB. Height 100 years ago limit related to energy intake, now possibly reach our genetic maximum
624
How does body composition change through life?
``` BODY WEIGHT- increases Fetus (20-25w)= 0.3 Full term baby= 3.5 Infant (1y)= 20 Adult man= 70 Obese man= 100 ``` ``` WATER (%)- decreases Fetus (20-25w)= 88 Full term baby= 69 Infant (1y)= 62 Adult man= 60 Obese man= 47 ``` ``` PROTEIN (%)- increases slightly (until obese) Fetus (20-25w)= 9.5 Full term baby= 12 Infant (1y)= 14 Adult man= 17 Obese man= 13 ``` ``` FAT (%)- increases Fetus (20-25w)= 0.5 Full term baby= 16 Infant (1y)= 20 Adult man= 17 Obese man= 35 ``` ``` REMAINDER (%)- increases Fetus (20-25w)= 2 Full term baby= 3 Infant (1y)= 4 Adult man= 6 Obese man= 7 ``` Fetus doesn't need fat because energy from mother
625
What peripheral signals regulate appetite?
Ghrelin PYY Leptin
626
What happens when lead body mass (LBM) is lost?
10%= impaired immunity, increased infection (10% mortality) 20%= decreased healing, weakness, infection (30% mortality) 30%= too weak to sit, pressure sores, pneumonia, no healing (50% mortality) 40%= death, usually from pneumonia (100% mortality)
627
What are the effects of severe childhood malnutrition?
Delays in chemical maturation | Can effect IQ
628
What are the major causes of under nutrition in the developing world?
``` Politics Climate Poor water Poor agricultural policy Demand of the developed world Food security will become the biggest public health issue in the coming years ```
629
What are the major causes of under nutrition in the developed world?
Age Change in social circumstances - Isolation - Death of a partner - Poor housing Illness 10% of free living elderly people are under nourished to a degree where their function is effected
630
What would happen after 44 days of no food?
David Blaine-> 30% body weight lost Ketones begin to supply energy to brain, muscle supplies amino acids for glucose Body begins energy conservation measures Some brain cells are still dependent on glucose, so a little gluconeogenesis occurs from protein catabolism
631
What are the signs of undernutrition?
``` Weight loss Loss of subcutaneous fat (loose skin on extremities) Muscle wasting Peripheral oedema (no cardiac disease) Glossitis, cracking edges of mouth Hair loss Chronic infections Poor wound healing, chronic wounds, pressure sores Listless, apathetic Recurrent pulmonary infections ```
632
What does energy restriction/starvation lead to?
Reduction in RMR ``` 1. Response to negative energy balance - Hormonal events - Decreased insulin - Decreased T4-> T3= decreased T3 - Glucagon - GH ``` - > - Substrate mobilisation - FFA and AAs -> PASSIVE (weight loss and change in body composition) --- 2. Response to reduced energy flux - Decreased SNS activity and catecholamines - > - Decreased metabolic flux - Decreased energy expenditure -> ACTIVE (decrease in metabolic activity of FFM)
633
During a short fast, how is fuel utilisation changed?
No change in brain Gut and liver have 33% loss of weight Some (5% ) loss in muscle and fat
634
During a short fast, how is fuel utilisation changed?
No change in brain Gut and liver still have 33% loss of weight Large (50% ) loss in muscle and fat (to protect brain)
635
What are two examples of undernutrition diseases?
Kwashiokor | Marasmus
636
What is Marasmus?
Disease of under nutrition ``` General energy deficit Growth failure No oedema Uncommon to be mental changes Good appetite ```
637
What is Kwashiokor?
Disease of under nutrition ``` Relative protein deficit Growth failure Oedema (looks pregnant) Mental changes Poor appetite ```
638
What is thiamine?
Thiamine= vitamine B1 Thiamine occurs in the human body as free thiamine and as various phosphorylated forms ``` Thiamine monophosphate (TMP) Thiamine triphosphate (TTP) Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) ``` Critical for release and utilisation of energy from food and nerve function Occurs naturally in unrefined cereals and fresh foods, particularly whole grain bread, fresh meat, legumes, green vegetables, fruit, and milk
639
What happens in vitamin B1 deficiency?
Beriberi Nervous system ailment caused by a deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) in the diet Thiamine is involved in the breakdown of energy molecules such as glucose, and is also found on the membranes of neurones SYMPTOMS Include severe lethargy and fatigue Complications affecting the cardiovascular, nervous, muscular, and gastrointestinal systems
640
What does beriberi often result from?
Chronic alcoholics with an inadequate diet (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome) Gastric bypass surgery People with diets mainly consisting of polished white rice (low thiamine because thiamine-bearing husk removed)
641
What is niacin?
Vitamin B3 (synthesised from troptophan) Nicotinamide is the derivative of niacin and used by the body to form the coenzymes nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) 200 enzymes require the niacin coenzymes
642
What happens when there is a deficiency of Niacin?
Pellagra Thought initially to be an infectious disease as it swept though Europe and the Far East Noted it appeared as staple crop was replaced by maize Not in Mexico because maize was softened with lime-> made niacin bio- available
643
What are energy intake and expenditure made up of?
INTAKE Protein Fat Carbohydrates EXPENDITURE Physical activity Thermogenesis REE= resting energy expenditure (>2/3 of expenditure)
644
What is the difference between the typical western diet and ideal diet?
Too much fat, lower carbs | Protein roughly ok but slightly too low
645
What is the relationship between lean body mass (FFM) and resting energy expenditure (REE)?
FFM is proportional to REE
646
How is obesity defined?
Weight Morbidity and mortality BMI (varies by ethnicity) Waist to hip ratio (central obesity)
647
Where is the UK in the ranking of global obesity?
About 6th in world (1/4 of population are obese) ``` USA= most Japan= least ``` Rising
648
What value does the waist:hip ratio?
``` Central obesity (ratio taken of waist circumference and hip circumference) High= at risk of metabolic syndrome of obesity ```
649
What is metabolic syndrome?
Combination of various conditions which-> more risk of CVD and increasing mortality 1 part is obesity (waist circumference M>102cm, F>88cm) Also: Hypertension (135/80) HDL (M6mmol/l)
650
What are the causes of obesity?
``` ENERGY INTAKE Energy per person of food sold fairly constant Increase in fast food outlets Too much fat, not enough carbs Diet composition and weight gain Little ability to store protein and CHO Autoregulation following fat ingestion difficult Satiety complex endocrine regulation ``` ENERGY USAGE Big reduction in energy expenditure over recent years. Difficult to quantify Amish community studies GENES Most obesity not monogenic The amount and site of weight gain is in part genetic Chronic overfeeding in identical twins is associated with better intra-twin than inter-twin correlation of amount and site of gain NB. Obesity genes BRAIN & ENDOCRINOLOGY Important physiological role in postprandial satiety and represent therapeutic targets BEHAVIOUR & CULTURE Individual behaviour and societal changes have contributed to obesity
651
How in energy (or fat) homeostasis maintained?
PPY, Ghrelin and Leptin into hypothalamus (White adipose tissue-> leptin) Hypothalamus - > Energy expenditure AND satienty and intake (insulin) - > White adipose tissue
652
How can obesity be managed?
Lifestyle diet and exercise Pharmacological Bariatric surgery
653
What are the benefits of weight loss?
``` Psychological benefit PCOS and fertility better Oesophagitis (imporved reflux) CHD risk improved Osteoarthritis (better mobility) Liver function improved ``` ``` DIABETES (10% weight loss) Mortality 20% decrease Glycaemic control better Blood pressure Cholesterol levels improve ```
654
How can obesity be managed?
Lifestyle= diet and exercise (needs supervision to work long term) Pharmacological Bariatric surgery Government should do more
655
What are current and possible future medical therapies for obesity?
Orlistat= prevents absorption of fat (works on lipase enzyme)-> diarrhoea and fatty stool FUTURE Contrave (naltrexone/ buproprione) Oral GLP-1
656
What are possible bariatric surgery procedures?
Adjustable band Sleeve gastrectomy Gastric bypass (shouldn't need diabetes meds anymore)
657
What happens to glycaemic control after bariatric surgery?
Improved glycaemic control Occurs immediately after the gastric bypass Change in insulin resistance Change in insulin secretion Changes in gut microbiota Changes in bile salt secretion
658
How does bariatric surgery affect mortality and long-term cardiovascular events?
MORTALITY Lower cumulative mortality 16 years of follow up than without surgery CV EVENTS Reduces number of total and fatal cardiovascular events
659
What are the health benefits of bariatric surgery?
Resolution/improvement of T2DM Resolution/improvement of hypertension Improved lipid profile Resulting in overall reduction in cardiac risk Resolution of obstructive sleep apnoea Resolution of PCOS and improved fertility Reduced cancer related deaths Regression of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease Reduced mortality
660
What are the criteria for bariatric surgery?
BMI >40 kg/m2 with no comorbidities BMI > 35 kg/m2 with comorbidities BMI 30-34.9kg/m2 with a short duration of type 2 diabetes
661
What are the health benefits of bariatric surgery?
Sept 2010 report from the Office of Health Economics Direct cost of obesity and related illnesses to the NHS is £4.3 billion a year 1.1 million patients are eligible according to NICE guidelines If 25% had surgery the gain within 3 years would be £1.3 billion
662
What is a duodenal-jejunal sleeve?
Endoscopically-delivered liner that creates a physical barrier between ingested food and the duodenum/ proximal jejunum EndoBarrier liner prevents the interaction of food with enzymes and hormones in the proximal intestine. In effect, food bypasses the duodenum (without surgery) Can be removed (bariatric surgery can't be undone) Weight loss and improved glycaemic control