Alimentary System Flashcards

1
Q

What is digestion?

A

The process of breaking down macromolecules to allow absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is absorption?

A

The process of moving nutrients and water across a membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the possible routes from ingestion to excretion or absorption?

A

Ingestion-> digestion-> excretion

Ingestion-> digestion-> absorption

Ingestion-> excretion

Ingestion -> absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the main parts of the GI system?

A

Mouth and oesophagus

Stomach

Small intestine (duodenum, jejunum and ileum)

Liver

Biliary system (gall bladder)

Pancreas

Large intestine (colon, rectum and anus)

Colon= caecum, appendix, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Outline the route from swallowing to evacuation?

A

Swallow-> back of throat (epiglottis stops it falling into trachea)-> oesphagus-> stomach (highly acidic)-> duodenum (pancreas secretes into, bile in)-> digested products -> jejjenum and ileum-> colon-> evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some possible diseases of the GI system?

A
Oesophageal cancer
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Barrett's oesophagus
Stomach cancer
Gastric ulcers
Duodenal ulcers
Liver sclerosis
Hepatitis
Jaundice
Cholangitis
Liver failure
Diabetes
Pancreatitis
Pancreatic cancer
Obesity
Coeliac disease
IBS
Crohn's disease
Appendicitis 
Colon cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the disease burden of GI disease affect?

A

The patient
The economy
The population
Society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are typical signs and symptoms of GI tract diseases

A

GENERAL
Anorexia
Weight loss
Anaemia

UPPER GI
Haematemesis
Melaena (bleeding high in GI tract-> dark colour, like tar)
Nausea and vomiting
Dysphagia
Odynophagia
Heartburn
Acid regurgitation
Belching (excess gas)
Chest pain
Epigastric pain
HEPATOBILIARY
RUQ pain (right upper quadrant)
Biliary colic (when biliary tree is obstructed by gallstone)
Jaundice (icterus)
Dark urine (pruritus)
Pale stool (cholestasis)
Abominal distension (ascites)
MID GI AND PANCREAS
Abdominal pain
Steatorrhoea 
Diarrhoea
Abdominal distension
LOWER GI
Abdominal pain
Bleeding 
Constipation
Diarrhoea
Incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What signs are doctors looking for with GI basis? (General, hands, abdomen, anus and rectum)

A
GENERAL
Cachexia
Obesity
Lymphadenopathy
Anaemia
Jaundice

HANDS
Koilinychia (spooning-> concave)
Leuconychia
Clubbing (especially distalling)
Dupytrens contractures (can’t hold hand out flat)
Tachycardia (hold radial pulse or detect tremor)
Tremor

ABDOMEN
Organ enlargement 
Mass 
Tenderness
Distension
ANUS AND RECTUM
Haemorrhoids
Fistula 
Fissure
Rectal masses
Prolapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What investigations are carried out for the GI system?

A
HISTORY
Symptoms
Dietary habits
Family history
Ethnicity 
Environmental
Travel
BASIC PHYSICAL EXAM
Hands
Skin
Palpable abdominal organs
Digital rectal exam
Sigmoidoscopy

HAEMATOLOGY, BIOCHEMISTRY AND MICROBIOLOGY
Blood tests
- Blood sugar (glucose, fasting glucose, glucose tolerance test, HbA1C)
- Tumour markers (CA19-9 – pacreatic and other GI cancers)
- Eythrocyte sedimentation rate (Crohn’s disease)
- Urea & electrolytes (absorption disorders)

Liver function tests
Antibodies
Microbiology (HBV, HCV, faecal occult blood)

PROCEDURES
Endoscopy 
Colonoscopy
Ultrasound
CT
MRI
X-ray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Outline the national and global burden of GI disease to the population?

A

5% UK adults suffer chronic illness e.g. pancreatic, liver, inflammatory bowel disease

Drug prescriptions >£4 billion

Responsible for 12% UK deaths

1/8 hospital admissions

1/4 main operations

GI increasing especially in middle-aged adults (but heart and lung disease more common)

WORLDWIDE
Malnutrition, enteric infections, viral hepatitis and consequences, gastric cancer

UK
Dyspepsia, liver disease (due to alcohol and obesity), colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are liver deaths significant?

A

The only top 5 cause of mortality that is rising

Prevalence growing

Burden of alcoholic liver disease-> younger people, more males

Liver cancer more likely later in life, slightly more males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can neural tube defects in infants/fetuses?

A

Vitamin B12 and folate (folic acid)

Now routinely screened in UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the main causes of abnormal liver function tests?

A

Chronic HepB

Chronic HepC
Alcohol-related steato-hepatitis (this is hugely increasing due to increasing alcohol consumption)

Obesity-related steato-hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

IBD
Colon only, superficial

Prevalence: 1 in 500
Incidence: 10-16 per 100,000

Cause: Thought to be autoimmune
Poorly understood

Symptoms: pain, bloody stool, weight loss, bloating

Treatment: Colectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Crohn’s disease?

A

IBD
Entire GI tract, deeper

Prevalence: 1 in 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)?

A

Acid escapes from stomach into oesophagus
Oesophagus cant handle this very low pH

Can lead to chronic oesophagitis
Chronic oesophagitis is generally regarded as the primary cause of Barrett’s oesophagus, and the
epithelial changes that occur have been linked to a substantially increased risk of oesophageal
carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the common biliary conditions?

A
ACUTE PANCREATITIS
Mild to life-threatening
Blockage of pancreatic duct
Back-up of pancreatic enzymes (-> severe inflammation
ethanol and gallstones in 80%)

CHRONIC PANCREATITIS
Permanent damage to pancreas
Alcohol excess main cause
can greatly impair quality of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are common GI infections?

A

BACTERIAL
Helicobacter pylori (
Gram negative, spiral bacterium) = nausea, bloating, weight loss
Escheria coli= nausea, diarrhoea, cramps

VIRAL
Norovirus= nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Outline the possible effects of h. pylori

A

85%= no long term effects
14%= peptic ulceration
1% gastric adenocarcinoma or lymphoma

-> Duodenal ulcer (main complication is perforation and bleeding)
Massively based on environment
- Energy intake
- Staple foods
- Foods in last 5 decades
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What ranking (in terms of common cancer) is bowel cancer?

A

2nd most common UK cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the most common GI diseases globally?

A

GORD (gastro-oesophageal reflux disease)
Non-ulcerative dyspepsia (indigestion)
Functional bowel disease (which most people will self-treat during their life time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are QALY and DALY?

A
QALY= quality-adjusted life year
DALY= disability-adjusted life years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the main types of GI cancer?

A

LIVER
May be primary or secondary
Primary liver cancer arise in liver cells, e.g. hepatocellular and cholangio carcinomas – more prevalentin association with cirrhosis
(If detected at an early stage by ultrasound scanning, with an associated 50% 5 yr survival)
Cholangiocarcinoma – no treatment

Secondary liver cancer is metastatic cancer from other primary locations; is more common in the UK
but results in later detection

PANCREATIC CANCER
95% adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic duct
Difficult to diagnose early there has one of the poorest survival rates (2% at 5yrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common large bowel disease?

A

IBS

1/3 population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are anal diseases?

A

Faecal incontinence (soiling) may affect 1/20 people

By age 50, about 1/2 population have haemorrhoids

Over half of the >70yr old population have diverticula of the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the main economic burdens of GI disease?

A
HEALTHCARE COSTS
In-patients 6.1% GI 
Out-patients 6.9% GI
Primary care 3.9% GI
Community health and social care 3% GI

COSTS
Not-working= early death, short-term sick, long-term sick
NHS costs= healthcare and drugs >3 billion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the cost of dyspepsia?

A

40% adults suffer with dyspepsia, of which 2% consult their GP

£600 million for endoscopies and prescribed drugs

£100 million for OTC drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What NHS prescriptions are commonly given for GI disease (and cost)?

A
Antacids
Antispasmodics
Ulcer-healing
Chronic diarrhoeal agents
Laxatives
Haemorrhoid treatment
Stoma care
Intestinal secretion drugs

Total cost to NHS in 1995/6 was £0.83 billion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What screening programme is available in the UK for GI diseases?

A

NHS bowel cancer screening (BCSP) programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the social problems of GI disease?

A

DIETARY LIMITATION
Lactose intolerance, diabetes, cholecystitis, coeliac, alcohol

FLATULENCE
Sound and smell

INCONTINENCE AND SOILING

TREATMENT
Smell and sight
E.g. stoma bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What percentage of British adults suffer long-standing illness of the GI tract?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What 4 layers can the gut wall be divided into?

A

Mucosa= epithelium, lamina propria, LCT and muscularis mucosae

Submucosa= connective tissue, nerve plexuses

Muscularis= smooth muscle, nerve plexuses

Serous/adventitia= connective tissue +/- more epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What parts of the gut wall are made up of mucosa?

A

Colonic epithelium
Stomach epithelium
Small intestinal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What parts of the gut wall are made up of submucosa?

A

Submucosa
Ganglion cells and nerves (also muscularis)
Submucosal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What parts of the gut wall are made up of muscularis?

A

Longitudinal muscle
Circular muscle
Ganglion cells and nerves (also submucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What parts of the gut wall are made up of serosa/adventitia?

A

Seroa (external)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does the oesophagus start and end?

A

C5 (where pharynx becomes oesophagus)

T10 (pierces into the diaphragm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the oesophagus do?

A

Gets food from the mouth to the stomach
Important in control of swallowing

Food comes in through the mouth-> the tongue forces food posteriorly to the pharynx (soft palette raised to
close nasal cavity) into the pharynx (under neural control)

The oesophagus passes very close to the recurrent laryngeal nerves and the pericardium

These may be
damaged in excessive oesophagus extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why is the oesophageal lining important for function?

A

Designed for ‘wear and tear’

Stratified squamous epithelium

Non-keratinising-> moist
Lubricated by mucus secreting gland
Many layers act as protective layer if surface layer damaged
2 sphincters (prevent backflow of food)

Tonically active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is the upper oesophageal sphincter opened?

A

Swallowing centre within the medulla

Under parasympathetic control via vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does the amount of skeletal muscle in the oesophagus change?

A

Lots in upper oesophagus (some voluntary control in upper half)
Decreases as it descends

(Smooth muscle increases as it descends)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens when food has entered and the upper oesophagus sphincter is closed?

A

Bolus of food moved down by peristalsis (purely under muscular control, gravity has no effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does peristalsis lead to rhythmic contraction down the oesophagus?

A

Circular muscle is major driver
Assisted by longitudinal muscle

Muscle just superior to bolus contracts
One in front/inferior relaxes

If food gets stuck, swallowing centre can start a wave of 2nd peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long does it take for food to move 30cm along the oesophagus?

A

9 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the difference in the structure of the upper and lower oesophageal sphincters?

A
Upper= skeletal muscle
Lower= skeletal and smooth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why does the oesophagus have a tendency to draw stuff up from the stomach?

A

Negative pressure

But sphincter prevents this (sealed off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does swallowing and breathing rely on sphincters?

A
Upper= only open to let food in, can't breathe when it's open
Lower= open until food passes down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the gastro-oesophageal junction?

A

Where the oesophagus and stomach are joined

At the Z-line, stratified squamous lining of the oesophagus gives way to the simple columnar epithelium of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where is the lower sphincter?

A

At the gastro-oesophageal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the 3 contributing mechanisms which lead to the lower sphincter action?

A

The pressure difference between the abdominal oesophagus and stomach

Contraction of the diaphragm

As the stomach expands, it compresses the Z-line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do the lower sphincter and diaphragm aim to prevent?

A

Acid reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What causes heartburn?

A

Acidic content is ejected into the oesophagus
Lower sphincter not working properly

Common in pregnancy because stomach is forced upwards so lower oesophagus is forced back into thorax
-> Loss of pressure difference and contractile element of diaphragm

Also after large meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are rugae and what do they allow?

A
Gastric folds (present when stomach is empty) 
As stomach distends-> rugae expand

Allow for huge changes in surface area
Allows stomach to expand after meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the role of the stomach?

A

Break food down into smaller particles stored (due to acid & pepsin)

Hold food and release at a controlled steady rate into duodenum

Kill parasites and certain bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the structure of the stomach?

A
Cardia
Fundus
Body
Antrum
Pyloris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When is the stomach content released into the duodenum?

A

Sphincters of the stomach are closed post-eating for about 4 hours before release into duodenum
Bolus churned steadily during this time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the secretions (by part of stomach)?

A

Cardia and pyloric region= mucus only

Body and fundus= mucus, HCl, pepsinogen

Antrum= gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How does the epithelium vary within the stomach?

A

Slight variation due to different secretory functions

Simple columnar
Invaginates into mucosa- tubular glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where are mucus producing cells in the stomach and what is their role?

A

All regions

Mucin ‘mops up’ excess acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where is HCL produced?

A

Parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where is gastric produced?

A

Endocrine cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How much acid is produced by the stomach per day?

A

2L per day

150mM [H+]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the epithelial surface and lumen pH in the stomach?

A

Epithelial surface= pH 6-7
Neutralised by bicarbonate ions trapped in mucus gel (mucins= gel coating)

Lumen= pH 1-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the chief cell?

A

Pepsinogen secreting cell

Protein-secreting epithelial cell

Abundant RER

Golgi packaging and modifying for export

Masses of apical secretion granules

(Pepsinogen passes through gastric pit into stomach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a parietal cell?

A
RESTING
Many mitochondria (requires lots of ATP)
Cytoplasmic tubulovesicles (contain H+/K+ ATPase)
Internal canaliculi (extend to apical surface)

SECRETING (active state)
Tubovesicles fuse with membrane and microvilli project into canaliculi (which also fuse to form large open reservoir extending to apical surface-> H+ diffuse out through stomach lumen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do parietal cells cause H+ to diffuse out through the stomach lumen and HCL production?

A

On BL membrane= Na/K pump (K in, passive diffusion into lumen)

H+ ions generated by carbonic anhydrase (and bicarbonate ions) from CO2 and H2O

H+ ions are acively secreted into the reservoir in exchange for K

All bicarbonate ions are exchanged out of the cell for Cl entry (also diffuses into reservoir)

H+ and Cl- ions bond-> HCl

(Need high H/K ATPase and carbonic anhydrase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does pepsinogen do?

A

Interacts with HCl-> pepsin (via autocatalytic process)

The pepsinogen on its own has conformation with internal active site which is protected

Acidic environment of the stomach exposes the active site

Pepsin itself then further catalyses its own production once the active site is exposed (positive
feedback)

Pepsin is a protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is gastrin?

A

Endocrine product of the stomach (predominant)

Produced predominantly in the pyloric antrum

One of its major actions is to stimulate histamine release from the chromafin cells within the lamina propria

Together, these then increase acid production in the stomach

There is a sort of negative feedback system, as the stomach gets more acidic – gastrin secretion is inhibited

A protein rich meal acts against this, as proteins make very good buffers for acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What effect do histamine and gastrin have on stomach acid production?

A

Together-> increase acid production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

List the phases of gastric secretion

A

Cephalic phase

Gastric phase

Intestinal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What happens in the cephalic phase of gastric secretion?

A

Thought/sight/smell and taste of food- central effect

Central effect mediated by efferent vagus nerve-> ACh production
ACh acts directly of parietal cells (to increase acid) or indirectly on chromaffin cells (increase histamine)
Prepares for arrival of food

HCl pepsin and gastrin present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens in the gastric phase of gastric secretion?

A

Distension when food enters stomach-> activates stretch receptors
Contents activatate chemoreceptors (local enteric phase)
ACh and gastrin release (more than during cephalic)

HCl pepsin present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What happens in the intestinal phase of gastric secretion?

A

Largely inhibitory effect on acid secretion
Food leaves stomach and enters small intestine (pH must be increased, acid secretion reduced)
= Chyme (
Protein concentration in duodenum stimulates gastrin secretion

Gastric inhibitory peptide
Cholecystokinin
Secretin

Enterogastrones-> enterogastric effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How can stomach acid secretion be decreased pharmacologically?

A

Affect H/K ATPase (omeprazole)

Affect histamine receptor (-> cAMP and Ca) (ranitidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What stimuli is best to decrease stomach acid secretion?

A

Protein (high content in meal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is chyme?

A

Semifluid mass of partly digested food that is expelled by the stomach into the duodenum via pyloric sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the function of the small intestine?

A

To absorb nutrients, salt and water (from the lumen to the blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How long is the small intestine (and its parts)?

A

6m long, 3.5cm diameter

Duodenum= 25cm
Jejunum= 2.5m
Ileum= 3.75m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Describe the mesentery surrounding the small intestine

A

Fan shaped mesentery
Throws the small intestine into folds
Large blood supply to support the metabolic functions of the cells and aid absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Outline the histological organisation of the small intensine

A

No suddentransition between duodenum, jejunum and ileum

All have same basic histological organisation (differences are slight)

External wall has longitudinal and circular muscles (important for motility)
Internal mucosa arranged in circular folds and covered in villi (1mm tall)
Invaginations known as Crypts of Lieberkühn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the structure and function of intestinal villi?

A

1mm tall
Simple epithelium= 1 cell thick (like rest of intestine), dominated by enterocytes
Have good innervation from the submucosal plexus

Motile, have a rich blood supply and lymph drainage for absorption of digested nutrients

Increase surface area for absorption (most nutrients absorbed in small intestine)

Villi only occur in the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are between the villi?

A

Crypts of lieberkuhn

Epithelium which include paneth cells and stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the cell types in the epithelium?

A
LINE MUCOSA (simple columnar epithelium consisting of:) 
Enterocytes= absorptive
Goblet cells= mucous secreting
Enteroendocrine cells= hormone secreting

IN CRYPTS OF LIEBERKUHN (epithelium includes:)
Paneth cells= antibacterial, protect stem cells
Stem cells= migrate up villus ‘escalator’, pluripotent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How much is the surface area increased by mucosal folds, villi and microvilli?

A

Cylindrical internal surface area of the small intestine increased by 500x

0.4-> 200m2

Maximum opportunity for nutrient absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are enterocytes?

A

Columnar absorptive cells with microvilli and a basal nucleus

Cells of intestinal lining
Most abundant cells in small intestine

Specialised for absorption and transport of substances

Lifespan 1-6 days

Tight junctions between cells are important for intercellular communication and to maintain polarity (stop proteins moving between surfaces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are microvilli?

A

0.5-1.5um high
Make up brush border
Several thousand microvilli per cell-> increased surface area
Surface covered with glycocalyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is glycocalyx?

A

Rich carbohydrate layer on apical membrane that serves as protection from the digestional lumen
But allows for absorption

Traps a layer of water and mucous known as the “unstirred layer” -> regulates rate of absorption from intestinal lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are goblet cells?

A

2nd most abundant epithelial cell type (between enterocytes)

Goblet shape because mucous containing granules accumulate at the apical end of the cell (where brush border is)

Increasing goblet cells along the entire length of the bowel (few in duodenum, many in colon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is mucous?

A

Large glycoprotein that facilitates passage of material through the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are enteroendocrine cells (chromaffin cells)?

A

Columnar epithelial cells scattered among absorptive cells

Mostly in lower part of crypts in intestine

Hormone secreting (influence gut motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are paneth cells?

A

Found only in bases of the crypts

Contain large, acidophilic granules containing:

  • Lysozyme (antibacterial enzyme, protects stem cells)
  • Glycoproteins and zinc (essential trace metal for number of enzymes)

Engulf some bacteria and protozoa

May have a role in regulating intestinal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How long do epithelial cells survive?

A

Most cells are constantly proliferating

Enterocytes and goblet cells of the small intestine have a short life span (36 hours)

Continually replaced by dividing stem cells in the crypts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are stem cells (small intestine)?

A

Undifferentiated cells which remain capable of cell division to replace cells which die

Epithelial stem cells are essential in the GI tract to continually replenish the surface epithelium

Continually divide by mitosis

Migrate up to tip of villus, replacing older cells that die by apoptosis

Differentiate into various cell types (pluripotent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Describe the cells in the crypt from bottom to top

A

Paneth cells
Stem cells
Crypt enterocytes

Escalator of epithelial migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How does the ‘escalator of epithelial migration’ work?

A

Dividing stem cells in the crypts -> surface and tips of villi

At villus tips, cells become senescent -> sloughed into the lumen of the intestin-> digested and reabsorbed

For rapid turnover of enteroctyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Why is there such a rapid turnover of enterocytes?

A

Rapid turnover (compared with lifespan of weeks/months for other epithelial cell types e.g. lung, blood vessels)

Because enterocytes are are the first line of defence against GI pathogens/toxic substances in the diet

Effects of agents which interfere with cell function, metabolic rate etc will be diminished

Any lesions will be short-lived

If escalator-like transit of enterocytes is interrupted through impaired production of new cells (e.g. radiation) severe intestinal dysfunction will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What did John Snow do?

A

London physician

Proved water bourne transmission of cholera in 1849

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does cholera enterotoxin do?

A

Causes prolonged opening of the chloride channels in the small intestine-> uncontrolled secretion of water

Causes rapid, massive dehydration-> death (unless treated with rehydration, cholera bacteria will clear and epithelium will be replaced)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Describe the histological organisation of the duodenum?

A

Brunner’s glands
Submucosal coiled tubular mucous glands secreting alkaline fluid
Open into base of crypts

Alkaline secretions of Brunner’s glands-> neutralises acidic chyme from stomach (protects proximal small intestine) and helps optimise pH for pancreatic digestive enzymes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Describe the histological organisation of the jejunum?

A
Plicae circulares (valves of Kerchring)
Numerous, large fold in the submucosa

Present in duodenum and ileum too but in jejunum= taller, thinner and more frequent

Frilling interior (formed of circular folds in mucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Describe the histological organisation of the ileum?

A

Some features shared with large intestine

Lots of Peyer’s patches (large clusters of lymph nodules in submucosa)

Prime immune system against intestinal bacteria (other mechanisms for defence= bactericidal Paneth cells, rapid cell turnover)

Well positioned to prevent bacteria from colon migrating up into small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the functions of small intestine motility?

A

To mix ingested food with digestive secretions and enzymes

To facilitate contact between contents of intestine and the intestinal mucosa

To propel intestinal contents along alimentary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is segmentation?

A

Mixes the contents of the lumen

Segmentation by stationary contraction of circular muscles at intervals (breaks big bolus into smaller segments)

More frequent contractions in duodenum compared to ileum-> allow pancreatic enzymes and bile to mix with chyme

General movement DOWN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

Sequential contraction of adjacent rings of smooth muscle
Propels chyme towards the colon
Most waves travel about 10cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What do segmentation and peristalsis result in?

A

Chyme being segmented, mixed and propelled towards the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the migrating motor complex?

A

Sweeping wave of contraction helps propel down cut

In fasting= cycles of smooth muscle contractions

Each cycle= contraction of adjacent segments of small intestine

Begins in stomach-> through small intestine-> terminal ileum-> duodenum

Prevents migration of colonic bacteria into the ileum (may clean intestine of residual food)

Less ordered and less frequent in fed state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the 3 methods that contribute to motility?

A

Segmentation= mixing

Peristalsis= propelling

Migratory motor complex= sweeps through gut, prevents accumulation of residue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How does digestion in the duodenum occur?

A

In an alkaline environment

Involves digestive enzymes (from pancreatic duct) and bile (from bile duct)

Duodenal epithelium also produces digestive enzymes (in contact with brush border)

Digestion in lumen and unstirred layer of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the mechanisms of absorption?

A

PASSIVE DIFFUSION
No carrier proteins
With gradient
No energy required

FACILITATED DIFFUSION
Carrier proteins
With gradient
No energy required
Tends to equilibrate substance across the membrane
E.g. GLUT-5, GLUT-2
PRIMARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT
Carrier proteins
Against gradient
Energy required (hydrolysis of ATP)
E.g. Na+/K+ ATPase, H+/K+ ATPase

SECONDARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT
Carrier proteins
Against gradient
Energy required (electrochemical gradient)
E.g. SGLT-1 co-transport, HCO3-/Cl- counter transport, Na+/H+ counter transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How are carbohydrates digested?

A

Digestion begins in the mouth by salivary -amylase, but is destroyed in the stomach (acid pH)

Most of the digestion of carbohydrates occurs in the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are simple carbohydrates?

A

Monosaccharides e.g. glucose and fructose

Disaccharides e.g. maltose and sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are complex carbohydrates?

A

Sugars bonded together to form a chain

E.g. starch, cellulose (amylose), pectins (amylopectin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is pancreatic a-amylase?

A

Secreted into duodenum in response to a meal

Continues digestion of starch and glycogen into small intestine (started by salivary amylase)

Needs Cl- for optimum activity and neutral/slightly alkaline pH (Brunner’s glands in duodenum-> alkaline secretion)

Acts mainly in lumen (some absorbs to brush border)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What enzymes in digestion of carbohydrates act in the lumen and in the membrane?

A

LUMEN= pancreatic a-amylase

MEMBRANE= digestion of amylase products and simple carbohydrates (glucoamylase, sucrase, isomaltase, trehalase, lactase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the products of lactose digestion?

A

Glucose

Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the products of sucrose digestion?

A

Glucose

Fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the products of trehalose digestion?

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Outline how amylase products and simple carbohydrates (lactose, sucrose, trehalose) are digested?

A

Starch glycogen

  • > Amylase
  • > a-Dextrins, maltotriose, maltose
  • > glucose (with enzymes)

Lactose -> glucose and galactose (with lactase)

Sucrose-> glucose and fructose (with sucrase)

Trehalose-> glucose (with trehalase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are brush border enzymes?

A

Maltase
Lactase
Sucrase
Trehalase

On enterocyte apical membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How are carbohydrates absorbed?

A

SGLT-1
Absorption of glucose and galactose is by secondary active transport
= Carrier protein SGLT-1 on apical membrane
(Effective when glucose levels lower in lumen than enterocytes)

GLUT5
Absorption of fructose is by facilitated diffusion
= Carrier protein GLUT-5 on apical membrane
(Effective at relatively low concs of fructose in lumen as tissue and plasma levels are low)

GLUT-2
Facilitates exit of glucose at the basolateral membrane
= Carrier protein GLUT-2 (high capacity, low affinity facilitative transporter)
(Glucose between plasma and tissue/enterocyte generally equilibrated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How many simple sugars can be absorbed by human SI per day?

A

10kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How are proteins digested?

A

Protein digestion begins in the stomach by pepsin, but pepsin is inactivated in the alkaline duodenum

Pancreatic proteases are secreted as precursors

Trypsinogen-> (with enterokinase)-> trypsin

Enterokinase= enzyme located on the duodenal brush border

Trypsin then activates the other proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What proteases does trypsin activate?

A

Trypsinogen-> trypsin

Chemyotrrypsinogen-> chymotrypsin

Proelastase-> elastase

Procarboxypeptidase A-> carboxypeptidase A

Procarboxypeptidase B-> carboxypeptidase B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How are proteins absorbed?

A

Brush border peptidases break down the larger peptides prior to absorption

AAs are absorbed by facilitated diffusion and secondary active transport (similar to sugars)

Di- and tri-peptides are absorbed using carrier proteins distinct from single amino acids

Cytoplasmic peptidases break down most of the di- and tri-peptides before they cross the basolateral membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

How are lipids digested (4 stage process of bile digesting/absorbing fats)?

A

Lipids are poorly soluble in water so complicated to digest

  1. Secretion of bile and lipases
  2. Emulsification
    - Bile salts facilitate the emulsification of a fat into a suspension of lipid droplets, increasing the surface area for digestion
  3. Enzymatic hydrolysis of ester linkages
    - Pancreatic lipase then splits the triglycerides into 2 fatty acids and a monoglyceride at a fat/water interface
    - Lipases complexes with colipase preventing the bile salts from displacing the lipase from the fat droplet
  4. Solubilization of lipolytic products in bile salt micelles
    - Bile salts form micelles with the released fatty acids and glycerol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Why are lipids emulsified?

A

Water and fat don’t mix

Bile and lipases are secreted into the duodenum

Bile salts facilitate the emulsification of fat into a suspension of lipid droplets (1um diameter)

Increases the surface area for digestion

Allows pancreatic lipase to split triglycerides

A triglyceride is broken down into two fatty acids and a monoglyceride at fat/water interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe a bile salt molecule

A

Steroid nucleus planar

Two faces= amphipathic

Hydrophobic face (nucleus and methyl) dissolves in fat

Hydrophilic face (hydroxyl and carboxyl) dissolves in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are bile salt micelles?

A

Micelles = hydrophilic “head” regions in contact with surrounding solvent, hydrophobic tail regions in the micelle centre with lipid core (free fatty acids and cholesterol inside bile salts)

Mixed micelles in small intestine= water insoluble monoglycerides from lipolysis are solubilised by forming a core, stabilised by bile salts
- Transported to GI epithelial cells for absorption

HYDROPHILIC DOMAINS FACE OUT
HYDROPHOBIC DOMAINS FACE IN
(i->o, o->i)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How are triglycerides broken down?

A

Lipase breaks down triglycerides into monoglycerides and free fatty acids

Pancreatic lipase complexes with colipase

Colipase prevents bile salts from displacing lipase from the fat droplet

Also important= phospholipase A1 and pancreatic cholesterol esterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What does phospholipase a2 do?

A

Hydrolyses fatty acids at the 2 position in many phospholipids
-> lysophospholipids and free fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What does pancreatic cholesterol esterase do?

A

Hydrolyses cholesterol ester to free cholesterol and fatty acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

How are lipids absorbed?

A

Micelles are important in absorption (absorbed much quicker than emulsion)

Micelles allow transport across the unstirred layer, and present the fatty acids and monoglycerides to the brush border

The whole micelle is not absorbed together

  • Bile salts are absorbed in the ileum
  • Lipid absorption is usually complete by the middle of the jejunum

Bile salts are transported back to the liver for recycling (enterohepatic circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

By what pathways are lipids metabolised?

A
Monoglyceride acylation (major)
Phosphatidic acid pathway (minor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Describe the monoglyceride acylation (major) pathway?

A

Fatty acids bind to the apical membrane

Fatty acid binding proteins (FABP) facilitate transfer of fatty acids from apical membrane to the smooth ER

In the smooth ER - fatty acids esterified into diglycerides and triglycerides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Describe the phosphatidic acid pathway (minor) pathway?

A

Triglycerides are synthesised from CoA fatty acid and a-glycerophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are chylomicrons?

A

Lipoprotein particles synthesised in enterocytes as an emulsion

Chylomicrons are transported to the Golgi and secreted across the basement membrane by exocytosis

Too big to enter blood capillaries of villi

Enter lacteals (lymph channels) instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are chylomicrons comprised of?

A
80-90% triglycerides
8-9% phospholipids
2% cholesterol
2% protein
Trace carbohydrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How is the ileum separated from the colon?

A

Ileocaecal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

How is the passage of material into the colon controlled?

A

Ileocaecal sphincter
Relaxation and contraction

Also prevents back flow of bacteria into the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Summarise carbohydrate, protein and lipid digestion

A

CARBOHYDRATE
Pancreatic a-amylase and brush border enzymes

PROTEIN
Trypsin, which activates other proteases

LIPID
Emulsification by bile, hydrolysis and solubilisation into bile salt micelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Approximately how many people are affected by liver disease?

A

2 million
Incidence is rising
>1 million hospital admissions a year
1 in 10 deaths of people in their 40s are due to liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Describe the surface anatomy of the liver

A

Predominantly in right upper quadrant (apex into LUQ)

Superior border at the level of the 5th costal cartilage

Protected mainly by ribcage, superiorly by the diaphragm and interiorly by abdominal muscles and organs

Surface anatomy important in biopsy to avoid damaging other organs

Dull region= liver (percussion)

Large inspiration then expiration prior to insertion of needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Describe the morphological anatomy of the liver

A

4 lobes= right, left, caudate, quadrate
Caudate above quadrate and both between L and R (behind falciform ligament)

R and L lobes separated by the falciform ligament

Right lobe is much larger (60% mass)

Coronary ligament (above R lobe) and left triangular ligament (above L lobe) connect the liver to the abdominal wall and diaphragm 
-> Falciform ligament->  Ligamentum teres (round ligament) connects to front of abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

How does the gall bladder link anatomically to the liver?

A

Gall bladder lies inferiorly in the arch of the liver (under R lobe)

Shouldn’t be palpable unless enlarged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is Calot’s triangle?

A

Bound by vystic duct, bile duct and cytic artery

Triangular space (dissected in cholecystectomy to ID window to safely expose gallbladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the embryological origins of the liver?

A

Liver and biliary system share a common origin with the ventral part of the pancreas

Secretory cells derived from endoderm (parenchymal cells)
-> Embedded in mesoderm

At junction between foregut and midgut

Arises from the septum transversum- point at which the ectoderm of the amnion meets endoderm of the yolk sac

Mesenchymal structure of the septum provides a framework on which the parenchymal (hepatocyte) cells and bile ducts with associated blood supply can develop

ENDODERM= parenchymal cells, flattened cells become columnar and become epithelial lining

MESODERM= forms connective tissue, differentiates from rest of embryos through IC signalling-> polarisation

Somites form skin and musculoskeletal parts of body

SEE CARNEGIE STAGING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Outline the Carnegie staging of liver development

A

Carnegie staging= 23 stages, during first 60 days of development

STAGE 1-10
Fertilisation-> blastocyst-> primary yolk sac-> septum traversum (stage 9)

STAGE 11 (29 days)
Hepatic diverticulum or liver bud development
(Diverticulum invades septum transversum)

Cell differentiation

STAGE 12 (30 days)
Septum transversum forming liver stroma
Hepatic diverticulum forming hepatic trabeculae

STAGE 13 (32 days)
Epithelial cord proliferation enmeshing stromal capillaries
STAGE 14 (33 days)
Enlargement of the liver bud
Haematopoietic function appears
STAGE 18 (44 days)
Bile ducts become reorganised (continuity between liver cells and gut)

STAGE 18-23 (44-56 days)
Cell differentiation
Early structural organisation
Biliary ductules developed in periportal connective tissue and ductal plates form that receive biliary canaliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the septum traversum?

A

Thick mass of cranial mesenchyme-> gives rise to parts of throacic diaphragm and ventral mesentry of the foregut in the developed human being

Arises from the mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the liver formed from?

A

The liver bud (first apparent around 29 days, stage 11)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

When does the gall bladder diverticulum arise?

A

Stage 11
29 days

Grows into transverse septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What happens to the pancreas by 8 weeks of liver development?

A

Pancrease migrates to posterior, left portion of the abdominal cavity/coelom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What happens to the liver after 10 weeks of development?

A

Liver rotates to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Describe the blood supply of the liver

A

25% of resting cardiac output (rich blood supply)

DUAL BLOOD SUPPLY= direct and indirect

  1. Hepatic artery (L and R branches)
    - 20% arterial blood from
    - T o bring oxygen
  2. Hepatic portal vein (HPV)
    - 80% venous blood draining from the gut
    - Brings everything from gut (before it can get into systemic circulation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Where does blood from the liver drain into?

A

Inferior vena cava via the hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Describe the functional anatomy of the liver

A

Couinaud classification
8 functionally independent segments (can resect a segment without bleeding and damaging the sounding)

Centrally= portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct
Peripherally= hepatic vein

Determined by blood supply

Each segment can be resected without damaging those remaining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the Couinaud segments?

A

Numbered clockwise from the posterior central caudate lobe

  1. Caudate lobe
  2. Lateral to falciform ligament and superior to portal venous supply
  3. Lateral to falciform ligament and inferior to portal venous supply
  4. Medial to falciform ligament
  5. Medial and inferior right hemisphere
  6. Posterior portion of right hemisphere
  7. Above 6
  8. Above 5 (medial and superior right hemisphere)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What cell types are in the liver?

A

Hepatocytes (80%)= large cells with pale and rounded nuclei

Endothelial cells= lining blood vessels and sinusoids, fenestrated (allows lipids and other large molecules to move to and from hepatocytes)

Cholangiocytes (aka bile duct epithelial cells)= lining biliary structures

Kupffer cells= fixed phagocytes (liver macrophages), phagocytosis and secretion of cytokines that promote HSC activation (proliferation, contraction and fibrogenesis)

Hepatic stellate cells= Vitamin A storage cells (Ito cells), may be activated to a fibrogenic myofibroblastic phenotype and produce collagen, important in liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Describe the micro-anatomy (histology) of the liver

A

Units known as lobules

Classical lobule is hexagonal and divided in concentric centrilobular, midzonal and periportal parts

Lobules consist of a central vein (which drains into hepatic veins- IVC) with radiating hepatocyte sheets

Round the edges of adjoining lobules are portal triads

  • Hepatic arteriole
  • Branch of hepatic portal vein
  • Bile duct

Capillary sinusoids eventually drain into central vein

Between sheets of hepatocytes and capillary sinusoids are bile canaliculi (drain bile produced in hepatocytes into ductules which flow outwards into the portal triad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Whats the difference between a lobule and acinis?

A

LOBULES
Lobules are HISTOLOGICAL units within the liver
Easily identified and are centred around central
veins which drain into the hepatic veins

ACINI
Acini are FUNCTIONAL units which are aligned around the portal triad, and divided into zones dependent on
their proximity to arterial blood supply
These are less easy to visualise
Unit of hepatocytes divided into zones dependent on proximity to arterial blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What cells are flattened with dense cell nuclei that appear to be in the sinusoids?

A

Kupffer cells or hepatic stellate cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What does the portal triad include?

A

Hepatic arteriole
Branch of hepatic portal vein
Bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How does de-oxygenated, nutrient rich blood reach the liver?

A

Hepatic portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

How does oxygenated blood reach the liver?

A

Hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Where do the hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery flow towards?

A

The central vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is an acinus?

A

Unit of hepatocytes divided into zones dependent on proximity to arterial blood supply

Cluster of cells like a ‘berry’

Demarcated by zone:

  • Periportal
  • Transition zone
  • Pericentral

The terminal acinus is centred on the the portal tract and each hepatic acinusis centred on the line connecting two portal triads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which zone of the liver receives the most oxygenated blood and why?

A

Periportal zone 1 is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood

Makes it least susceptible to ischaemic injury but most susceptible to viral hepatitis or hemosiderin deposition in haemachromatosis

Involved in gluconeogenesis, oxidation of fatty acids and cholesterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which zone of the liver receives the least oxygenated blood and why?

A

Zone 3 (pericentral) is least susceptible to ischaemic injury

Furthest from entering vascular supply

Involved in glycolysis, lipogenesis and P450 based drug detoxification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Where do canaliculus interface between?

A

Sinusoids (sinusoidal faces) and hepatocytes (lateral faces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What produces bile?

A

Hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Where does bile flow?

A

Secreted in bile canaliculi

Drain into ductules-> intralobular bile ducts-> right/left hepatic ducts-> join outside liver to form common hepatic duct

THEN EITHER…
-> Cystic duct drains the gall bladder
OR
-> Common bile duct unites with common hepatic duct-> forms COMMON BILE DUCT (joined by pancreatic duct before entering duodenal papilla)

Opposite direction to blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

Bile production and excretion

Excretion of bilirubin, cholesterol, hormones, and drugs

Metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates

Enzyme activation

Storage of glycogen, vitamins, and minerals

Synthesis of plasma proteins, such as albumin, and clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

How is the liver involved in carbohydrate metabolism?

A

SER
Mitochondria
Cytoplasmic enzymes

Glycolysis
= Glucose oxidation to form ATP and pyruvate
Pyruvate-> Krebs cycle-> more ATP

Glycogenesis
= Storage of excess glucose as glycogen

Glycogenolysis
=Breakdown of glycogen to glucose

Gluconeogenesis
= De novo synthesis of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

How is the liver involved in detoxification?

A

Lysosomes
SER

Metabolise, modify/detoxify exogenous compounds, e.g. drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How do biliary structures develop embryonically?

A

Liver bud gives rise to gall bladder bud

Eventually hepatic diverticulum/bud divides in the pars hepatic and pars cystica around 4 weeks

-> forms liver sites and necessary structures (particularly those that connect liver to gall bladder)

Cystic diverticulum (pars cystica)-> cystic duct and gallbladder by around 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Why is the biliary system important?

A

Important in excretion of toxins and secretion of fats

Bile neutralises chyme and aids digestion of fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What does the gall bladder do?

A

STORES
Serves as a reservoir of bile between meals
Stores 50ml-> released after meal for fat digestion

ACIDIFIES BILE

CONCENTRATES BILE
By H2O diffusion following net absorption of Na, Cl, Ca, HCO3
-> decreased intra-cystic pH
-> reduced volume of stored bile by 80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

How is the common bile duct formed and what does it do?

A

Cystic duct fuses gall bladder to the hepatic duct-> common bile duct

The common bile duct has a spiral muscular structure which twists/untwists
-On untwisting of the
duct and sphincter of Oddi, it becomes patent and secretes bile into the ampulla (in the 2nd part of the
duodenum)

At the ampulla, the CBD may also join the pancreatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Why might structural abnormalities of the biliary tree affect digestion?

A

Bile neutralises chyme and aids digestion of fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

How can a biliary tree be seen?

A

ERCP (endoscopic retrograde choliographic pancreatography)
- A wire is passed through the spinchter of Oddi (along with a scope), and dye is injected to the see the branches of the bile ducts
- This can be used to see any obstructions, e.g. gall stones or tumours
- Is also good because as it is invasive, provides opportunity to solve problem found, e.g. removing the
obstruction

MRI
- Can also be used to observe the effects of gall stones or tumours on the biliary tree, e.g. dilation due to accumulation of bile, or constriction of the distal end of the bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Describe how the liver has a role as a glucose buffer (i.e. the role of liver in glucose metabolism)

A

It is important to control blood glucose

After a meal, blood glucose increases and must be taken up into tissues
-> stored mainly as glycogen in muscle and liver

Between meals, liver glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) maintains blood glucose concentration

However a 24hr fast will deplete the glycogen store (only 80g), then blood glucose must then be increased by another pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

The process of synthesising glucose from non-carbohydrate sources

CORI CYCLE
Glucose is broken down anaerobically in muscles into lactate
Lactate can be used by the liver to synthesise glucose (via pyruvate)
Requires 6 ATP and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)

From lactate (rbc metabolism anaerobic, also muscle) 
Lactate->  pyruvate -> glucose

VIA DEAMINATION OR FROM TRIGLYCERIDES
Synthesised from AAs via deamination or from triglycerides

Alanine-> pyruvate-> glucose
Triglycerides-> glycerol-> glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is the role of the liver in protein metabolism: synthesis?

A

Synthesis 90% plasma proteins (remainder are -globulins)

Makes 15-50 g/day

Importance of plasma proteins -binding/carrier function, plasma COP - oedema

Synthesis of blood clotting factors and dietary “non-essential” AAs by transamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is the role of the liver in protein metabolism: transamination?

A

Transamination= synthesis of dietary non-essential AAs from an alpha-keto acid precursor

Involves exchange of amino group (NH2) on an acid with a ketone group (=O) on another acid
E.g. pyruvic acid (keto acid) + glutamic acid (aa)-> alanine (AA) + a-ketoglutaric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What AAs don’t have a keto acid precursor?

A

Essential AAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is the role of the liver in protein metabolism: deamination?

A

Deaminate AAs prior to use as an energy source

Deamination is the conversion of an AA into the corresponding keto acid
= Remove amine group as ammonia
= Replaced with a ketone group

Deamination occurs primarily on glutamic acid because glutamic acid is the end product of many transamination reactions

-> NH3 (needs to be converted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Why does ammonia need to be converted?

A

NH3 highly toxic – particularly to CNS

Liver converts NH3 to urea

Urea very water soluble, metabolically inert, non-toxic

Excreted in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is the role of the liver in fat (triglyceride) metabolism?

A

Fat is the main energy store in body (100x glycogen)
-> Stored in adipose and liver

When glycogen stores full, liver can convert excess glucose and AAs to fat for storage

Metabolises fats as energy source (converts FA’s to AcetylCoA, by Krebs/TCA cycle in liver)
OR
Produces ketone bodies

Synthesise lipoproteins, cholesterol, phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How do ketone bodies provide energy?

A

Ketone bodies produced in the liver
Transported to other tissues and used as energy
Water soluble (no need for carriers)

Liver can convert 2 AcetylCoA -> acetoacetatic acid for transport in blood -> other tissues -> acetyl CoA -> energy

Ketone bodies= cetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetone (their spontaneous breakdown product)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

How are lipoproteins synthesised by the liver?

A

Synthesis of lipoproteins required for lipid transport in aqueous environment

Contain triglycerides and
cholesterol core, with a phospholipid and protein coat (stabilising the lipid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What are the lipoprotein types?

A

There are various types of lipoproteins depending on their composition:

VLDL = lots of triglycerides
(IDL = intermediate density lipoprotein)
LDL = high cholesterol and phospholipids (bad cholesterol)
HDL = high protein coat (good cholesterol)

In decreasing density= HDL > LDL > IDL > VLDL
The lower the density, the larger the diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is the difference between good and bad cholesterol?

A

LDL delivers cholesterol to tissues

HDL can transport it back to the liver for re-processing and/or disposal as bile salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What does cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP) do?

A

Shuttles cholesterol from HDL to LDLs

So inhibiting it-> good for drugs to prevent atherosclerosis (but side effects in current attempts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

How is cholesterol synthesised?

A

Cholesterol= sterol nucleus synthesised from acetyl CoA (and dietary intake)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What is cholesterol used for?

A

Used in the synthesis of various compounds including steroid hormones and bile salts

Important in cell/organelle membrane structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

Compound containing fatty acid, phosphoric acid and nitrogen containing base

Important in cell/organelle membrane structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Where is bile formed and concentrated?

A

Continually secreted by liver

Stored and concentrated in gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

How much bile can the gall bladder hold?

A

Holds 15-60ml

Concentrates bile salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What are the major components of bile?

A
Bile salts (50% dry weight)
Cholesterol
Phospholipids (lecithin)
Bile pigments (bilirubin, biliverdin)
Bicarbonate ions and water

Separately, some components would be insoluble, but together, bile is stable solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

How are bile acids/salts made?

A

IN LIVER
Addition of carboxyl and hydroxyl groups to cholesterol (increases water solubility)

->Primary bile acids (from oxidation of cholesterol into cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids)

Conjugated with taurine or glycine -> bile acid conjugated in liver (->taurocholic and glycocholic acids)

This increases the water solubility further

IN GALL BLADDER
Bile acid conjugates stored/concentrated

Primary bile acids are de-conjugated and de-hydroxylated to form bile salt (ionised) conjugates (secondary bile salts)– involves bacteria in ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What is the function of bile?

A

Digestion/absorption fats (4 stage process)

Excretion variety substances via GI tract

Neutralise acid chyme from stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Explain bile secretion

A

Released into duodenum during digestion

Small amounts during cephalic and gastric phases due to vagal nerve and gastrin

In intestinal phase, CCK causes contraction of the gall bladder and relaxation of sphincter of Oddi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Describe enterohepatic recirculation

A

Active reabsorption of bile salts in terminal ileum

In addition, de-conjugatation and de-hydroxylation by bacteria make bile salt lipid soluble
(Lose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Why does bile excrete substances via the GI tract?

A

Liver breaks down/inactivates steroid and peptide hormones

Secreted into bile for excretion

Also performs similar role with variety of “foreign” compounds- usually drugs

Excretory route for excess cholesterol (lecithin allows more cholesterol in micelles)

Too much-> gall stones or lost in salts

EXCRETION OF BILE PIGMENTS
Bilirubin from breakdown of haem from old red blood cells (15% from other proteins)
Iron from haem removed in spleen and conserved
Porphyrin group reduced to bilirubin and conjugated to glucoronic acid in liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

How can failure to excrete substances with bile lead to liver disease?

A

Bile pigment gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is the ‘larder’ function of the liver?

A

Storage of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K).

  • Stores sufficient 6-12 month except Vit K where store is small.
  • Vit K is essential for blood clotting

Storage of iron as ferritin - Available for erythropoeisis

Storage Vit B12
- Pernicious (megaloblastic) anaemia, nerve demyelination

Glycogen and fat store

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

How does the liver have a role in protecting against bacteria?

A

Liver sinusoids contain tissue macrophages (Kupffer cells)

Bacteria may cross from gut lumen into blood

Kupffer cells destroy these and prevent bacteria entering the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is the liver’s role in calcium metabolism?

A

UV light converts cholesterol to Vitamin D precursor, which requires a double hydroxylation (to convert it to the active form)

First hydroxylation is in the liver (second in the kidneys)

Can lead to rickets if this fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

How does the pancreas develop embryonically?

A

A foregut derivative arising at the foregut-midgut junction

Dorsal and ventral buds

Duodenum rotates to form a C shape

  • > Ventral bud (part of hepatobiliary bud) swings round to lie adjacent to the dorsal bud
  • > Both buds fuse

Ventral bud duct becomes main pancreatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

How is the pancreas divided?

A

Subdivided into head, neck, body, tail and uncinate process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Where in the pancreas is islet tissue most abundant?

A

Islet tissue most abundant in tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Describe the structure and location of the pancreas

A

5 regions

Lies mainly on the posterior abdominal wall extending from the C-shaped duodenum to the hilum of the spleen

Pancreatic juice reaches duodenum via main (and accessory) pancreatic ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

How does pancreatic juice reach the duodenum?

A

Via main (and accessory) pancreatic ducts

The branches of the duct system of both the ventral and dorsal buds give rise to both exocrine (acinar) and exocrine (islets) tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What are the anatomical relations of the pancreas?

A

Main posterior relations are IVC, abdominal aorta and left kidney

Spleen lies supralaterally to the left, with left and right kidneys posterolaterally on either side (each associated with their own adrenal gland)

Close relations with (and supply from) coeliac and superior mesenteric arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What scans can be used to image the pancreas?

A

MRI
To image pancreatic tumour

Angiography
For assessing pancreatic disease
Contrast agent into blood supply (tumour needs blood supply to grow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What are the endocrine roles of the pancreas?

A

Secretion into the blood stream to have effect on distant target organ
(Autocrine/Paracrine)
Ductless glands

2% of gland
Islets of Langerhans

Secretes insulin and glucagon (and somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide)
-> Regulates blood glucose, metabolism and growth effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What are the exocrine roles of the pancreas?

A

Secretion into a duct to have direct local effect

98% of gland

Secretion of pancreatic juice into duodenum via pancreatic duct/common bile duct

Digestive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What is insulin?

A

Anabolic hormone

Promotes glucose transport into cells and storage as glycogen

Reduces blood glucose

Promotes protein synthesis and lipogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What is glucagon?

A

Increases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

-> increased blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What is somatostatin?

A

Hormone that inhibits growth hormone

‘Endocrine cyanide’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What percentage of the pancreatic gland is endocrine and exocrine?

A
Endocrine= 2%
Exocrine= 98%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What kind of function does pancreatic disease affect?

A

May involve endocrine AND exocrine effects e.g. cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine cells?

A

EXOCRINE
Ducts
Acini are grape-like clusters of secretory units
Acinar cells secrete pro-enzymes into ducts

ENDOCRINE
Derived from the branching duct
Lose contact with ducts- become islets
Differentiate into alpha and beta cells secreting into blood
Tail>head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What is the composition of islets?

A

IN ENDOCRINE TISSUE

α-cells (A)
Form about 15-20% of islet tissue
Secrete glucagon

β-cells (B)
Form about 60-70% of islet tissue
Secrete insulin

δ-cells (D)
Form about 5-10% of islet tissue
Secrete somatostatin

The islets are highly vascular, ensuring that all endocrine cells have close access to a site for secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What is pancreatic juice composed of?

A

Acinar cells= low volume, viscous, enzyme-rich

Duct and centroacinar cells= high volume, watery, bicarbonate-rich (so quite alkaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What is between the exocrine acini and endocrine islets?

A

Connective tissue with columnar epithelium lining the interspersed minor pancreatic duct (which fuse to form the major pancreatic duct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Describe pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

A

Duct and centroacinar cells

Pancreatic juice is rich in bicarbonate

  • 120 mM (mmol/L)
  • pH 7.5-8.0

Neutralises acid chyme from the stomach

  • > Prevents damage to duodenal mucosa
  • > Raises pH to optimum range for pancreatic enzymes to work

Washes low volume enzyme secretion out of pancreas into duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What are pancreatic acinar cells?

A

Large with apical secretory granules

Store inactive precursors in order to protect the tissue from auto-digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Describe the pancreatic duct cells

A

Small, pale with few granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

How does duodenal pH affect bicarbonate secretion rate in the pancreas?

A

More stomach contents squirted into it-> increased rate of bicarbonate

Pancreas working as much as possible around pH 3

Duodenal pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Why does bicarbonate secretion stop when the pH is still acid in the pancreas?

A

Bile also contains bicarbonate and helps neutralise the acid chyme

Brunner’s glands secrete alkaline fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

How is bicarbonate secreted (pancreas)?

A
  1. SEPARATION OF H+ AND HCO3-
    Catalysed by carbonic anhydrase
    CO2 diffuses into the duct cell from the blood, reacting with H2O to form H+ and HCO3

CO2 AND H2O HCO3

Simultaneously, Na+ moves down a concentration gradient between tight junctions (paracellular transport)
H2O follows

2. TRANSPORT OF H+ AND HCO3- OUT OF THE DUCT CELL
Coupled exchange driven by
electrochemical gradients (secondary active transport)
The HCO3- is exchanged with Cl- 

(Cl has a high lumen concentration compared to IC duct cell concentration so bicarbonate is transported into the lumen with Cl going into the cell)

H+ is exchanged with Na+, which has a higher blood conc compared with the cell conc so flows into the
cell and H+ is transported into the blood

  1. MAINTENANCE OF NA+ GRADIENT
    Primary active transport using ATP
    For step 2 (done using the Na/K exchange pump)
  2. RETURNING OF THE K+ TO THE BLOOD AND CL- TO THE DUCT CELL
    Via protein channels
    K via K channel
    Cl via Cl channel (CFTR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What is the difference in the bicarbonate reaction in the stomach and pancreas?

A

The same reaction CO2 and H2O H+ and HCO3

Occurs in gastric parietal cells and pancreatic duct cells

In the stomach, the hydrogen goes into gastric juice and the bicarbonate into blood

In the pancreas, the bicarbonate is secreted into the juice and the hydrogen into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What are the enzymes secreted by pancreatic juice?

A

ACINAR CELL ENZYME SECRETION
Enzymes for digestion of fat (lipases), protein (proteases) and carbohydrates (amylase) are synthesised and stored in zymogen granules

Zymogens= pro-enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

How is acinar cell enzyme secretion controlled (pancreas)?

A

Proteases are released as inactive pro-enzymes-> protects acini and ducts from auto-digestion

Pancreas also contains a trypsin inhibitor to prevent trypsin activation

Enzymes become activated ONLY in duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

How can auto-digestion result from pancreatic duct blockage?

A

Blockage of pancreatic duct may overload protection and result in auto-digestion (= acute pancreatitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

How does pancreatic enzyme secretion affect protein digestion?

A

Protein digestion is started in the stomach by pepsin, which acts in acid conditions

When the chyme enters the duodenum, the pepsin is soon inactivated by the alkaline conditions

The pancreas produces a cocktail of proteases, all released as precursors

The duodenal brush border produces enterokinases-> cleaves trypsinogen between a valine and an isoleucine-> active form of trypsin-> can activate other proteases

All the proteases are fairly short lived as they are digested themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What is the difference between lipase and proteolytic/ other lipolytic enzymes?

A

Lipase secreted in active form but requires colipase, which is secreted as precursor
(Lipases require presence of bile salts for effective action)

Trypsin converts all other proteolytic and some lipolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

How do pancreatic enzyme functions alter?

A

Pancreatic secretions adapt to diet e.g. high protein, low carbs, increases proportion of proteases, decreases proportion of amylases

Pancreatic enzymes (and bile) are essential for normal digestion of a meal

Lack of these can lead to malnutrition even if the dietary input is OK (unlike salivary, gastric enzymes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

How does Orlistat work?

A

Anti-obesity drug
Inhibits pancreatic lipases to limit intestinal fat absorption

-> Steatorrhoea (increased faecal fat) because pancreatic lipase secretion significantly reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

How is pancreas secretion controlled?

A

INITIAL CEPHALIC PHASE
Pancreatic secretion begins before food enter the duodenum via a vagal reflex in response to the sight/smell/taste
of food
Involving cholinergic synapses which result in enzyme-rich component only
Low volume- mobilises enzymes

GASTRIC PHASE
When food arrives in the stomach-> stimulates pancreatic secretion
Same mechanisms as the cephalic phase

INTESTINAL PHASE (70-80% of pancreatic secretion)
Hormonally mediated when acid chyme enters the duodenum from the stomach
Hormones= secretin and CCK: cholecystokinin, into the blood
Both components of pancreatic juice stimulated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

How are bicarbonate secretion and enzyme secretion controlled?

A

Bicarbonate secretin is controlled by secretin release (involves cAMP)

Enzyme secretion is controlled by vagal reflex and CCK (cholecystokinin)

  • In response to fats/proteins and stimulates enzyme secretion
  • Also stimulates bile secretion
  • Involves Ca2+ and PLC via vagus reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

When do the cephalic and intestinal phases end?

A

Cephalic phase ends when meal is eaten

Intestinal phase ends with absorption of fats and peptides (removes the local luminal stimulus for CCK release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

How do pancreatic stimuli interact?

A

Synergistic interaction between CCK and secretin i

CCK alone= no effect on bicarbonate secretion

CCK combined with secretin= shows marked increase in bicarbonate secretion compared to secretin alone

Vagus nerve has similar effect to CCK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What effect does secretin have on enzyme secretion?

A

No effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Outline the role of the pancreas during a meal?

A

Food mixed, digested in stomach, pH 2
-> Chyme squirted into duodenum

H+ ions in duodenum

  • > Stimulate release of secretin
  • > Stimulate release of pancreatic juice (plus bile and Brunner’s gland secretions) to raise pH to neutral/alkaline

Peptides and fat in duodenum

  • > Cause sharp rise in CCK and vagal nerve
  • > Stimulates pancreatic enzyme release (peaks by 30 mins, continues until stomach empty)

CCK potentiates effects of secretin on aqueous component (necessary because most of duodenum not at low pH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

What does the large intestine consist of?

A
Colon
Cecum
Appendix
Rectum
Anal canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

What is the cecum?

A

Blind pouch just distal to the ileocecal valve

Larger in herbivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

What is the appendix?

A

Thin, finger-like extension of the cecum

Not physiologically relevant in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Describe the function of the colon

A

Function= reabsorption of electrolytes and water, elimination of undigested food/waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What are the dimensions of the colon?

A

1.5m long

6cm diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What are the parts of the colon?

A

ASCENDING
On the R side of abdomen
Runs from cecum to hepatic flexure

TRANSVERSE
Hangs off the stomach (attached by mesocolon)
Running from hepatic flexure to splenic flexure

DESCENDING
On the L side of abdomen
Runs from splenic flexure to sigmoid colon

SIGMOID
S shaped colon running from descending colon to rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

What are the structural features of the colon?

A

Appendices epiploicae
Taeni coli
Haustra
Solitary nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

What are appendices epiploicae?

A

Fatty tags of the peritoneum surrounding colon

Structural/functional purpose unknown- possible protective against intra-abdominal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

What are taeni coli?

A

3 longitudinal bands running along length of colon

Important for large intestine motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What are haustra?

A

Pouchings of the colon wall

Taenia coli are shorter than the length of the colon -> forms pouched avoid segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What are the solitary nodules in the colon?

A

Nodules of lymphoid tissue in the wall of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

What is the blood supply to the proximal transverse colon?

A

Middle colic artery

Branch of the superior mesenteric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

What is the blood supply to the distal third of transverse colon?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What does the different blood supply between the proximal transverse colon and distal third of the transverse colon reflect?

A

Embryological division between the midgut and hindgut

NB. Region between the two is sensitive to ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

Nodules of lymphoid tissue
Common in the walls of the distal small intestines

(In large intestine= solitary nodules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

How does the colon have a role in (re)absorption?

A

Colon absorbs electrolytes and water
More in proximal colon
Na+ and Cl- absorbed by exchange mechanisms and ion channels
Water follows by osmosis
K+ moves passively into lumen
Large intestine can reabsorb approx 4.5 litres water (usually 1.5 litres)
Above this threshold = diarrhoea

Ions, vitamins and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

How much water can the large intestine reabsorb?

A

Approx 4.5 litres water (usually 1.5 litres)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

What is the rectum?

A

Dilated distal portion of the alimentary canal

Terminal portion= anal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

What is the histology of the rectum?

A

Similar to the colon

But distinguished by transverse rectal folds in its submucosa and the absence of taenia coli in its muscularis externa

266
Q

What is the anal canal surrounded by?

A

Anal sphincters:
Internal (circular) muscle
External (striated) muscle

267
Q

How is the large intestine similar to the small intestine?

A

Enterocytes and goblet cells are abundant
Abundant crypts
Stem cells found in the crypts

IMPORTANT DIFFERENCE IS THAT VILLI ARE ABSENT

268
Q

Describe the large intestine mucosal organisation

A

Mucosa appears smooth at the gross level because it has no villi (smaller SA than small intestine)

Enterocytes have short, irregular microvilli and primarily concerned with resorption of salts

(Water is absorbed as it passively follows the electrolytes, resulting in more solid gut contents)

Crypts are dominated by goblet cells

269
Q

Describe the goblet cells in the large intestine

A

Higher number of goblet cells than small intestine

More prevalent in the crypts than along the surface

Number increases distally toward the rectum

270
Q

What stimulates goblet cell secretion in the large intestine?

A

Acetylcholine (parasympathetic and enteric nervous system)

271
Q

What is the function of the mucus secreted by the large intestine’s goblet cells?

A

The mucus facilitates the passage of the increasingly solid colonic contents, and covers bacteria and particulate matter

272
Q

What cells are found in the large intestine?

A

Goblet cells (dominate crypts)

Microvilli (glycocalyx doesn’t contain digestive enzymes like it does in small intestine)
NB. No paneth cells

Enteroendocrine cells (rarer than in small intestine)

273
Q

What is the difference between microvilli in small and large intestines?

A

Glycocalyx in large intestine don’t contain digestive enzymes (does in SI)

274
Q

What are the muscular layers of the large intestine?

A

Like the small intestine, muscularis externa consists of an inner circular and outer longitudinal layer

CIRCULAR LAYER
Circular muscles segmentally thickened

LONGITUDINAL LAYER
Longitudinal layer concentrated in three bands- taenia coli
Between the taenia, longinitudinal layer is thin
Bundles of muscle from the teniae coli penetrate the circular layer at irregular intervals
Shorter than circular muscle layer (have haustra= ovoid segments)
Can contract individually

Movements of large intestine are more complicated than small intestine

275
Q

How does motility of the large intestine occur?

A

Colonic contractions- kneading process (minimally propulsive- 5-10cm/hr at most)

Promotes absorption of electrolytes and water

PROXIMAL COLON= ‘antipropulsive’ patterns dominate to retain chyme

TRANSVERSE AND DESCENDING COLON= localised segmental contractions of circular muscle (Haustral contractions) cause back and forth mixing

Short propulsive movements every 30 mins

Increase in frequency following a meal

276
Q

What does ‘mass movement’ mean regarding the large intestine?

A

1-3 times daily- mass movement- resembles peristaltic wave

Can propel contents 1/3-3/4 of length of large intestine in few seconds

Food that contains fibre (indigestible material) promotes rapid transport through colon)

277
Q

How is the large intestine controlled?

A

PARASYMPATHETIC
Vagus nerve= controls ascending colon and most of the transverse colon
Pelvic nerves= innervates more distal colon part

SYMPATHETIC
Lower thoracic and upper lumbar spinal cord
External anal sphincter controlled by somatic motor fibres in the pudendal nerves

ENTERIC

278
Q

Outline the enteric control of the large intestine

A

Enteric nervous system also important- Hirschsprung’s disease (no enteric intramural ganglia)

Myenteric plexus ganglia concentrated below taenia coli

Presence of food in stomach can stimulate mass movement- hormonal? Neural?

Hormonal/paracrine control e.g. aldosterone promotes sodium and water absorption (synthesis of Na+ ion channel, Na+/K+ pump)

279
Q

What is defecation?

A

Rectum filled with faeces by mass movement in the sigmoid colon

Stores stool until convenient to void

Defecation reflex controlled primarily by the sacral spinal cord- both reflex and voluntary actions

Reflex to sudden distension of walls of rectum

Pressure receptors send signals via myenteric plexus to initiate peristaltic waves in descending, sigmoid colon and rectum

Internal anal sphincter inhibited
(Weak intrinsic signal augmented by autonomic reflex)

External anal sphincter under voluntary control
Urge resisted, sensation subsides

280
Q

What is the difference between the control of the internal and external anal sphincter?

A

Internal anal sphincter inhibited (weak intrinsic signal augmented by autonomic reflex)

External anal sphincter under voluntary control

281
Q

What is the social part of the rectum?

A

Last few centimeters of the rectum known as the “social part”

Can distinguish between solid, liquid and gas

Perceptual ability is important in knowing what can be passed appropriately in what circumstance

282
Q

What are faeces?

A

150g/day adult
Two thirds water

Solids: cellulose, bacteria, cell debris, bile pigments, salts (K+)

Bile pigments give colour

Bacterial fermentation gives odour

283
Q

Describe the large intestine flora

A

All mammals have symbiotic relationships with their gut microbial community (microbiome)

Stomach and small intestine have few bacteria- protected

Large intestine contains many, essential to normal function

  • Diverse, highly metabolically active community
  • Approximately 1.5kg of live bacteria in average adult human (active biomass=major human organ)
284
Q

What is the role of intestinal flora?

A

Synthesize and excrete vitamins e.g. Vitamin K- germ-free animals can have clotting problems

Prevent colonization by pathogens by competing for attachment sites or for essential nutrients

Antagonize other bacteria through the production of substances which inhibit or kill non-indigenous species

Stimulate the production of cross-reactive antibodies

Antibodies produced against components of the normal flora can to cross react with certain related pathogens, and thereby prevent infection or invasion

Stimulate the development of certain tissues, including cecum and lymphatic tissues

Fibre (indigestible carbohydrate) can be broken down by colonic bacteria

Produces short chain fatty acids which can regulate gut hormone release, or be absorbed to be used as an energy source or to influence functions such as food intake or insulin sensitivity directly

285
Q

What are the most prevalent types of normal flora?

A

BACTEROIDES (most prevalent)
Gram-negative, anaerobic, non-sporeforming bacteria Implicated in the initiation colitis and colon cancer

BIFIDOBACTERIA
Gram-positive, non-sporeforming, lactic acid bacteria
Have been described as “friendly” bacteria
Thought to prevent colonization by potential pathogens

286
Q

Recent research has identified links between gut bacteria and….? (5)

A
Drug metabolism
Insulin resistance
Bile acid metabolism
Lipid metabolism
Obesity
287
Q

Define: diffusion

A

Process whereby atoms or molecules intermingle because of their random thermal motion

Rapid over microscopic distances, slowover macroscopic distances

288
Q

How is the cell membrane involved in diffusion?

A

The cell membrane acts as a diffusion barrier

Enables cells to maintain cytoplasmic concentrations of substances different from their extracellular concentrations

Lipid soluble (non-polar) molecules can cross more easily than water soluble (polar) molecules

289
Q

How do molecules cross the epithelium to enter the bloodstream?

A

Different protein populations in different places on cell

Apical plasma membrane
Lateral plasma membrane
Basal plasma membrane
Tight junction

290
Q

What is paracellular transport into the bloodstream?

A

Through tight junctions and lateral intercellular spaces

291
Q

What is transcellular transport into the bloodstream?

A

Through the epithelial cells

Into basal lamina

292
Q

How can solutes cross cell membranes?

A

Simple diffusion
Facilitates transport
Active transport

293
Q

What types of transport proteins are there?

A

Channel proteins form aqueous pores allowing specific solutes to pass across the membrane

Carrier proteins bind to the solute and undergo a conformational change to transport it across the membrane

Channel proteins allow much faster transport than carrier proteins

294
Q

How do ion channels work?

A

Ion-selective filter in aqueous pore

Hydrophilic surface lines pore
Hydrophobic surface in lipid bilayer

Can be ligand-gated (IC or EC) or mechanically gated

295
Q

What are the types of carrier-mediated transport?

A

Uniport= transported molecule in

Symport (coupled)= transported molecule in and co-transported ion in

Antiport (coupled)= transported molecule in and co-transported ion out

296
Q

What ions, minerals and vitamins are important in alimentary absorption?

A

Water and ions
Calcium
Iron
Vitamins (B12)

297
Q

How are water and electrolytes absorbed?

A

99% of the H2O presented to the GI tract is absorbed

The absorption of water is powered by the absorption of ions

Many ions slowly absorbed by passive diffusion

(Calcium and iron are incompletely absorbed, and this absorption is regulated)

298
Q

Where is most water absorbed?

A

In the small intestine (approx 8L a day)

Especially the jejunum

299
Q

How much water a day is absorbed in the large intestine?

A

1.4L

300
Q

Where does the 8L + 1.4L (reabsorbed in SI and LI) come from?

A
2L= ingest
1.2L= saliva
2L= gastric secretions
0.7L= bile
1.2L= pancreas
2.4L= intestinal

(8L absorbed in SI, 1.4L in LI)

301
Q

Explain the standing gradient osmosis

A

Driven by Na+

Transport of Na+ from lumen into enterocyte- complex and varies between species

(NB. Ions= Na, Cl, HCO3, K)

Osmotic flow of water from the gut lumen via adjacent cells, tight junctions into the intercellular space

Water distends the intercellular channels and causes increased hydrostatic pressure

Ions and water move across the basement membrane of the epithelium and are carried away by the capillaries

302
Q

What happens to the intracellular sodium in standing gradient osmosis?

A

Active transport of Na+ into the lateral intercellular spaces by Na+K+ATPase transport in the lateral plasma membrane

303
Q

How are other ions (not Na) absorbed?

A

SECONDARY ACTIVE TRANSPORT
Cl- co-transported with Na+ (ileum)
Cl- exchanged with HCO3- (colon) into enterocytes
[Electrical potential created by Na transport)

PASSIVE TRANSPORT
K+ diffuses in via paracellular pathways in small intestine, leaks out between cells in colon

304
Q

What effect on fluid would high concentrations of ions in the intercellular spaces cause?

A

Fluid there would be hypertonic

305
Q

How does transport of Na+ become more efficient from lumen into enterocyte (as it travels down the intestine)?

A

Becomes more efficient as travel down intestine:

  • Counter-transport in exchange for H+ (proximal bowel)
  • Co-transport with amino acids, monosaccharides (jejunum)
  • Co-transport with Cl- (ileum)
  • Restricted movement through ion channels (colon)
306
Q

How is calcium absorbed?

A

Duodenum and Ileum absorb Ca2+

Ca2+ deficient diet increases gut’s ability to absorb

Vit D and parathyroid hormone stimulate absorption

307
Q

How much calcium is from diet, secretions and absorption?

A

Diet 1-6g/day
Secretions 0.6g
Absorb 0.7g

308
Q

What are the IC and EC concentrations of calcium?

A

Low intracellular [Ca2+]= 100 nM (0.1µM)
But can increase 10– to 100-fold during
various cellular functions).

High extracellular fluid [Ca2+] = 1-3mM.

(Plasma [Ca2+] approx 2.2-2.6mM)
(Luminal [Ca2+] varies inmM range)

309
Q

How is calcium carried across the apical membrane?

A

Intestinal calcium-binding protein
(IMcal)- facilitated diffusion

Ion channel

310
Q

Why does calcium need to be transported while maintaining low IC concentrations? How is this maintained

A

Ca acts as an intracellular signalling molecule

Binds to calbindin in cytosol, preventing its action as an intracellular signal (facilitates transport of Ca through cytosol of the intestinal epithelial cell)

PLASMA MEMBRANE CA ATPASE
Ca2+ pumped across basolateral membrane by plasma membrane Ca2+ ATPase (PMCA) against concentration gradient

PMCA has a high affinity for Ca2+ (but low capacity)

Maintains the very low concentrations of calcium normally observed within a cell

PLASMA MEMBRANE NA/CA EXCHANGER
Ca2+ pumped across basolateral membrane by plasma membrane Na+/Ca2+ exchanger against concentration gradient.

The Na+/Ca2+ exchanger has a low affinity for Ca2+ but a high capacity

Requires larger concs of Ca2+ to be effective

311
Q

How is vitamin D related to calcium absorption?

A

Essential for normal Ca2+ absorption (by enhancing synthesis of calbindin and Ca-ATPase)

Deficiency causes rickets, osteoporosis

1, 25-dihydroxy D3 taken up by enterocytes:

  • Enhances the transport of Ca2+ through the cytosol
  • Increases the levels of calbindin
  • Increases rate of extrusion across basolateral membrane by increasing the level of Ca2+ ATPase in the membrane
312
Q

Why is it important to absorb ion?

A

Can act as electron donor and electron acceptor
- Oxygen transport (red blood cells)
- Oxidative phosphorylation
(mitochondrial transport chain)

Critical BUT poisonous if too much (body has no mechanism for actively excreting iron)

Need to absorb quickly as required but also limit that absorption

313
Q

How much iron is ingested and absorbed every day?

A

Adult
Ingests approx 15-20mg/day
Absorbs only 0.5-1.5mg/day

(5% inorganic iron ingested, absorbed by small intestine)

314
Q

How is iron present in the diet?

A

Inorganic iron (Fe3+ ferric, Fe2+ ferrous)

As part of haem group (haemoglobin, myoglobin and cytochromes)

315
Q

How does ferric vs ferrous iron affect absorption?

A

Cannot absorb Fe3+, only Fe2+

Fe3+ insoluble salts with: hydroxide, phosphate and HCO3-

Vit C reduces Fe3+ to Fe2+

Haem smaller part of diet, but more readily absorbed (20% of presented, rather than 5%)

316
Q

How is haem absorbed?

A

Dietary haem is highly bioavailable

Haem is absorbed intact into the enterocyte

Evidence that this occurs via heme carrier protein 1 (HCP-1), and via receptor-mediated endocystosis

Fe2+ liberated by Heme oxygenase

317
Q

Describe iron uptake

A

Duodenal cytochrome B (Dcytb) catalyzes the reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+ in the process of iron absorption in the duodenum of mammals

Fe2+ transported via divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT-1), a H+-coupled co-transporter

Fe2+ binds to unknown factors, carried to basolateral membrane, moves via ferroportin ion channel into blood

318
Q

How do Fe2+ and Fe3+ travel?

A

Fe2+ moves across baslolateral membrane via ferroportin

Fe3+ binds to apotransferrin, travels in blood as transferrin

(Hepcidin, the major iron regulating protein, suppresses ferroportin function to decreases iron absorption)

OR FERRITIN

319
Q

What is Hephaestin and what does it do?

A

Hephaestin is a transmembrane copper-dependent ferroxidase

Converts Fe2+ to Fe3+

320
Q

How does ferritin store iron ions?

A

Binds to apoferritin in cytosol to form ferritin micelle

Ferritin is globular protein complex

Fe2+ is oxidised to Fe3+ which crystallises within protein shell

A single ferritin molecule can store up to 4,000 iron ions

In excess dietary iron absorption or increased iron concentration in the cytosol-> produce more ferritin

Prevents absorption of too much iron

  • Irreversible binding of iron to ferritin in the epithelial cells
  • Iron/Ferritin is not available for transport into plasma.
  • Iron/Ferritin is lost in the intestinal lumen and excreted in the faeces.
  • Increase in iron concentration in the cytosol increases ferritin synthesis
321
Q

What are vitamins?

A

Organic compounds that cannot be manufactured by the body but vital to metabolism

322
Q

How are vitamins absorbed?

A

Passive diffusion predominant mechanism

Fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) transported to brush border in micelles

K taken up by active transport

Specific transport mechanisms for vitamin C (ascorbic acid), folic acid, vitamin B1 (thiamine), vitamin B12

323
Q

How is vitamin B12 absorbed?

A

Liver contains a large store (2-5mg)

Impaired absorption of vit B12 retards the maturation of red blood cells- pernicious anaemia

Most Vit B12 in food is bound to proteins

324
Q

What is R protein?

A

To avoid denaturation of B12

HOW DOES IT WORK?
In the stomach, low pH and the digestion of proteins by pepsin releases free vit B12

But B12 is easily denatured by HCl

Binds to R (haptocorrin) released in saliva nad from parietal cells

R proteins digested in duodenum

325
Q

What is intrinsic factor?

A

Vit B12 binding glycoprotein secreted by parietal cells

Vit B12/IF is resistant to digestion

No IF then no absorption of vit B12

Vit B12/IF complex binds to cubilin receptor, taken up in distal ileum (mechanism unknown, but thought to involve receptor-mediated endocytosis)

Can then enter cell

326
Q

What happens when VitB12/IF complex is in the cell?

A

Once in cell, Vit B12/IF complex broken- possibly in mitchondria

B12 binds to protein transcobalamin II (TCII), crosses basolateral membrane by unknown mechanism

Travels to liver bound to TCII

TCII receptors on cells allow them to uptake complex

Proteolysis then breaks down TCII inside the cell

327
Q

What are the 8 important features describing abdominal pain? (‘The Imperial Way’)

A

SOCRATES

Site
Onset
Character
Radiation
Associated symptoms
Timing
Exacerbating/relieving factors
Severity
328
Q

What are characteristics of GI pain?

A

Initially poorly located

Onset usually over hours (can be very quick)

Usually more of a dull ache

May have associated GI symptoms

329
Q
The .... is associated with pain where?
Foregut
Midgut
Hindgut
Retroperitoneal organs
Diaphragm
A
FOREGUT
Oesophagus
Stomach
Pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder
Duodenum 

MIDGUT
Duodenum-> mid transverse colon

HINDGUT
Transverse colon-> anal canal

RETROPERITONEAL ORGANS
Kidney
Pancreas

DIAPHRAGM
Liver
Gallbladder
Duodenum

330
Q

Describe what is meant by embryological sites of pain

A

The site of abdominal pain depends on whether the visceral or parietal peritoneum is stimulated (the innervation of which depends on its embryological origin)

331
Q
Where is pain in the .... felt?
Foregut
Midgut
Hindgut
Retroperitoneal organs
Diaphragm
A
Foregut= epigastrium
Midgut= umbilical region
Hindgut= suprapubic
Retroperitoneal organs= back pain (or epigastric that radiates to back)
Diaphragm= shoulder tip pain
332
Q
In which of the 9 'quadrants' would you be likely to feel pain if you had problems with ...?
Oesophagus
Stomach
Small Bowel
Large Bowel
Appendix
Hepatic pain
Biliary Pain
Pancreatitis
A

(Imagine 9 quadrants labelled in rows- top 123, middle 456, bottom 789)

Oesophagus= 2
Stomach= 2 (towards 3)
Small Bowel= 5 (non-specific in centre of abdomen)
Large Bowel= 5 or 8
Appendix= 7 (starts in 5)
Hepatic pain= 1
Biliary Pain= 1
Pancreatitis= 2 (epigastric radiates to back)
333
Q

Describe the symptoms of periotonitis

A

Sharp
Very severe
Well-located initially but becomes more generalised
Worse on movement

Guarding= involuntary, abdominal muscles tense up when someone touches abdomen

Rebound tenderness= push hand onto stomach is ok, but take away-> rebound (very painful)

334
Q

What is colicky pain?

A

Starts and stops abruptly e.g. renal stones

Muscular contractions of a hollow tube in an attempt to relieve an obstruction by forcing content out

It may be accompanied by vomiting and sweating

335
Q

What hollow tubes are there (that may lead to colicky pain)?

A
Renal 
Ureter
Urethra
Colon
Bile ducts
Pancreatic ducts
336
Q

What kind of pain does kidney stones cause?

A

Gradual onset with left flank pain
Comes and goes
Radiates from flank to groin
Worst ever pain (no relief from pain killers, can’t stand still)

337
Q

What are common non-GI causes of abdominal pain?

A
Renal pain= flank to groin
Bladder= suprapubic
Pneumonia= upper quadrant
Heart attack= epigastric
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease= lower abdomen 
Musculo skeletal= anywhere
338
Q

What are the 9 quadrants called?

A
  1. RUQ/right hypochondriac region
  2. Epigastrium region
  3. LUQ/left hypochondriac region
  4. Right lumbar region
  5. Umbilical region
  6. Left lumbar region
  7. Right ileac region
  8. Suprapubic region
  9. Left ileac region
339
Q

What pain is associated with pancreatitis?

A

Severe epigastric and RUQ pain going through to the back
Onset after drinking alcohol
Intermittent similar pain in past
Usually fit and well
(Significant smoking and alcohol history)

340
Q

How does pancreatitis present?

A

Jaundiced/cholangitis
Unwell and in shock

Tachycardic (body trying to maintain perfusion to organs by making heart beat faster in response to dropped blood pressure)
Hypotensive

Severe epigastric and RUQ pain on palpation (radiating to back)
Nausea and vomiting common
May have organ failure (chest/kidney)

341
Q

How can acute pancreatitis be diagnosed?

A

HISTORY

EXAMINATION

TESTS: SIMPLE
Blood pressure
Pulse
Urine dipstick

TESTS: BLOOD TESTS
Full Blood Count
Urea and Electrolytes (show kidney function)
Inflammation markers (CRP, ESR)(raised indicates ongoing inflammation, relevant to liver)
Liver Function Tests
Clotting (clotting worse with severe inflamation)
Calcium
Glucose (increases in pancreas not working well, enough insulin not being produced)

TESTS: COMPLEX BLOOD TEST
Amylase
(Lipase)
Triglycerides

TESTS: SIMPLE IMAGING
Chest Xray
Abdominal Xray

TESTS: CROSS SECTIONAL IMAGING
Ultrasound
CT scan
MRCP (Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography)

TESTS: INVASIVE TEST
ERCP
ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio-Pancreatography)

342
Q

What blood results would you except from a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A

SIMPLE
Hb 132
WCC 17.8 (high, normal

343
Q

What are the causes of pancreatitis?

A

GET SMASHED

Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom (only in Trinidad and Tobago)
Hyperlipidaemia/Hypercalcaemia
ERCP
Drugs (azathioprine, NSAID, furosemide, sulphonamides)
344
Q

What are the complications of pancreatitis?

A
SYSTEMIC 
Hypovolaemia
Hypoxia
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia
DIC
Multiple organ failure
LOCALISED
Pancreatic necrosis
Fluid collections- mature into pseudocysts
Splenic vein thrombosis/pseudoaneurysm
Chronic pancreatitis
345
Q

What systems can present with abdominal pain?

A
GI
Renal
Reproductive
Musculoskeletal
Neurological
346
Q

What is cancer?

A

Disease caused by an uncontrolled division of abnormal cells in a part of the body

347
Q

What is a primary cancer?

A

Cancer arising directly from cells in an organ

348
Q

What is a secondary cancer/metastasis?

A

Cancer spreads from another organ

Directly or by blood/lymph

349
Q

What cells in the GI tract can lead to cancer?

A

EPITHELIAL CELLS
Squamous= squamous cell carcinoma
Glandular= adenocarcinoma (most common)

NEUROENDOCRINE CELLS
Enterochromaffin= carcinoid tumours
Interstitial cells of Cajal= GI stromal tumours

CONNECTIVE TISSUE (mostly fairly benign)
Smooth muscle= leiomyoma/leiomyosarcomas
Adipose tissue= lipomas
350
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

Difficulty swallowing

351
Q

What needs to be known about a patient with dysphagia?

A
How long?
What can’t you swallow?
Vomiting?
Other symptoms e.g. weight loss
Risk factors (previous reflux, overweight, smoking, alcohol)
352
Q

What 3 sections are the oesophageal anatomy in?

A
  1. Cervical oesophagus- narrow
  2. Middle oesophagus (includes aorta, left main bronchus)
  3. Lower oesophagus (includes left atrium)

As you go down:
Increased smooth muscle
Reduced skeletal muscle

353
Q

What are the two main types of oesophageal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma

Should have squamous cells lining oesophagus
But common acid reflux-> cells to change to be more like stomach lining to get metaplastic columnar epithelium

354
Q

What causes oesophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

From metaplastic columnar epithelium
Lower 1/3 of oesophagus
Related to acid reflux
More common in developed world

NB. As you go down:
Increased smooth muscle
Reduced skeletal muscle

355
Q

What causes oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma?

A

From normal oesophageal squamous epithelium
Upper 2/3
Acetaldehyde pathway
More common in less developed world

NB. As you go down:
Increased smooth muscle
Reduced skeletal muscle

356
Q

What tests can be used to identify oesophageal cancer?

A

Endoscopy
OGD
Gastroscopy

357
Q

How does reflux progress to oesophageal cancer?

A

Chronic exposure to acid
Injury (ongoing inflammation, cytokine drive)

Oesophagitis (inflammation)-> Barrett’s (metaplasia)-> Dysplasia-> Carcinoma (neoplasia)

15% of population -> GORD
5-13% with GORD-> Barrett’s
5% with Barrett’s-> Dysplasia
0.5-30% with Dysplasia-> Carcinoma

358
Q

What is Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Replacement of the Squamous cell mucosa with columnar mucosa

Form of metaplasia

Body tries to prevent damage to oesophagus but becoming like stomach

359
Q

What is the individual risk of adenocarcinoma in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

0.12% per year

Real concern is…
Low grade dysplasia= 0.5% annual risk of cancer
High grade dysplasia= 5-30% annual risk of cancer

-> oesphageal adenocarcinoma

360
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Expansion in immature cell types replacing more mature cells

361
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Replacement of one differentiated cell type with another

362
Q

What can be given to a patient with low grade dysplasia (Barrett’s)?

A

Reassure her
Start her on anti-acid medication (proton pump inhibitor-> doesn’t affect reflux but not acid so less inflammation)
Start surveillane (ACG)
Think about aspirin

363
Q

What is the recommended surveillance (ACG) for Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

ACG (Seattle protocol)

4 biopsies every 1 cm along segment

Barrett’s Oesophagus (no dysplasia)
Every 3-5 years (NICE 2013)

Low grade dysplasia
Every 6 months until no dysplasia

High grade dysplasia
Flat – RFA (e.g. HALO)
Nodular – endoscopic mucosal resection then HALO

364
Q

What could cause new onset loose stool 4-5x daily over six months with some blood (and weight loss)? (M 65y)

A

10-20% risk of cancer

365
Q

What increases the risk of bowel cancer?

A

Family history

Specific inherited conditions- FAP, HNPCC, Lynch Syndrome

Uncontrolled ulcerative colitis (8-10y without treatment-> huge risk increase)

Age (biggest risk factor, >60)

Previous polyps

366
Q

What causes normal epithelium to develop into colon carcinoma?

A

Sequence of genetic errors (APC, K-ras, p53, 18q) so not simple Mendelian inheritance

  1. Normal epithelium

(APC mutation)

  1. Hyperpoliferative epithelium and aberrant cryptic foci

(COX-2 overexpression)

  1. Small adenoma

(K-ras mutation)

  1. Large adenoma

(p53 mutation, then loss of 18q)

  1. Colon carcinoma
367
Q

How can development of normal epithelium into colon carcinoma be stopped/slowed?

A

JUST STUDY ATM

  1. Normal epithelium

(Aspirin and other NSAIDs, folate, calcium)

  1. Hyperpoliferative epithelium and aberrant cryptic foci

(Aspirin and other NSAIDs)

  1. Small adenoma

(Oestrogen, aspirin and other NSAIDs,)

  1. Large adenoma
  2. Colon carcinoma
368
Q

What are common symptoms of colon carcinoma?

A

Asymptomatic (incidental anaemia)

Change in bowel habit (normally diarrhoea or occasionally/late constipation)

Blood in stool

Acute intestinal obstruction

369
Q

What GI/anal symptoms aren’t associated with colorectal cancer?

A

Rectal bleeding with anal symptoms

  • Itch
  • Soreness / discomfort
  • External lump
  • Prolapse

Change in bowel habit to harder or less frequent stool

Abdominal pain in the absence of obstruction

Positive findings at colonoscopy are as frequent as for completely asymptomatic age matched control

370
Q

How would a patient with possible colorectal cancer be investigated?

A

Colonoscopy
CT Virtual colonoscopy

Abdominal X-Ray (not much use) 
CT Scan (can't see small lesions)
Barium enema (not comfortable and time-consuming)
371
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of an abdominal Xray (for colorectal cancer)?

A

ADVANTAGES
Cheap
Easy
Quick

DISADVANTAGES
4x radiation than chest Xray
Sensitivity for obstruction 77%
Specificity for obstruction 50%

372
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of an abdominal plain CT (for colorectal cancer)?

A

ADVANTAGES
Easy
Quick
See large lesions

DISADVANTAGES
May miss smaller lesions
No tissue
No therapy

373
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a barium enema (for colorectal cancer)?

A

Barium liquid is instilled into the large intestine through the anus then pump up air behind it

ADVANTAGES
Reasonable sensitivity and specificity

DISADVANTAGES
Time Intensive
Technically demanding
Unacceptable to patients

374
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a colonoscopy (for colorectal cancer)?

A
ADVANTAGES
Safe
Relatively quick
High Sensitivity
Able to obtain tissue

DISADVANTAGES
Bowel prep: 2 days of iatrogenic diarrhoea
Small risk of perforation (

375
Q

What is CT virtual colonoscopy?

A

CT scan but with ‘labelled poo’

Modified (reduced) bowel prep
“Tag” stool using Bismuth
Computer aided subtraction to create images
Reconstruct bowel from images

376
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a virtual CT colonoscopy (for colorectal cancer)?

A
ADVANTAGES
Quick 
Easy
Reduced Bowel prep more tolerable
As good as colonoscopy for lesions >6mm

DISADVANTAGES
Unable to obtain tissue
Unable to remove lesions

377
Q

What are Virchow’s triad (in pancreatic cancer)?

A

Pain – 70%
Anorexia – 10%
Weight loss – 10%

Often non-specific unwell for a while
May present with diabetes
= adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

378
Q

What are the early and late symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

A

EARLY
Abdominal pain
Depression
Glucose intolerance

LATE
Weight loss
Jaundice
Ascites= fluid building up into peritoneum
Obstructed gall bladder
379
Q

What is the outcome of pancreatic cancer?

A

Outcome is poor:

  • Only 20% are suitable for a resection
  • Surgery is curative in 20-25% of cases

1 year survival 18%

5 year survival 2%

380
Q

What are the risk factors of pancreatic cancer?

A

Smoking
Drinking
Obesity
Family (especially rare conditions such as MEN)

381
Q

What evidence do animal models provide regarding gut flora and IBD?

A

Evidence that the gut flora drives the inflammation in IBD

382
Q

What is the antigenic load?

A

Pathogens
Dietary antigens
Everything that lives in it

383
Q

What is the immunology of the GI tract?

A

Surface area of GI tract 400m2

Massive antigen load

  • Resident microbiota 10^14 bacteria
  • Dietary antigens
  • Exposure to pathogens

State of restrained activation

Tolerance vs. active immune response

Immune homeostasis of gut requires presence of bacterial microbiota

384
Q

What is the gut microbiota?

A

Qualitative and quantitative information about different microbes present in a system

The ecological community of commensal, symbiotic and pathogenic microorganisms that share our body space

10^14 gut bacteria and 10^13 cells in body (genes in gut flora 100 times our own genome)

4 major phyla

Provide traits we have not had to evolve on our own

“Virtual” organ

Mostly anaerobic

Host-specific (more similar to family, change e.g. with antibiotic/surgery or becoming vegan)

385
Q

What are the 4 major phyla in the gut microbiota?

A

Bacteroidetes
Firmicutes
Actinobacteria
Proteobacteria)

386
Q

The genes switched on by a single commensal bacteria can affect….

A

A single commensal bacteria switches on genes involving:

Mucosal barrier function
Nutrient absorption/ dietary energy extraction
Enteric nervous system
Intestinal maturation
Immune system development
387
Q

What is metabonomics?

A

A catalogue of the metabolites in the same (e.g. in tissue or isolate)

Metabolic profiles
Biomarkes
Metabotypes

388
Q

What is microbiome?

A

The functions that microbiata have e.g. bile metabolism

389
Q

What is metagenomics?

A

Either ‘gain of function’ or DNA-based approach to create gene catalogues (to define microbiome)

390
Q

What is metataxonomics?

A

Creation of 16S rRNA gene inventories

Used to define microbiota

Population/community dynamics 
Diversity indices
Microbial biomarkers
DNA=diversity
RNA=metabolic activity
Robust, strong bioinformatic support – software and databases
£20-£50 per sample
391
Q

How can the gut microbiome be investigated?

A

BOTTOM-UP (info from DNA-> RNA-> metabolites)
Metagenomics (what are they doing) and metataxonomics (who’s there and is it changing)

TOP DOWN
Metabolomics/metabonomics

392
Q

What percentage of stool sample is microbial biomass?

A

50-55% (including mucus etc.)

50-250g

393
Q

How much microbial biomass is in the large intestine?

A

The large intestine contains 1-2 kg of microbial biomass

Have microbes all way through GI (even very acidic stomach because about pH5 between meals)

Thus it is one of the most densely populated microbial ecosystems on Earth

394
Q

Are babies born sterile?

A

Used to think so
Mucus plug in anus= contains bacteria
Some may be exposed to bacteria in utero

In first 18 months, established community

First, baby is colonised from exposure to mother (reflects C-section= skin bacteria and vaginal birth= vagina bacteria)

Metabolites tell if preterm birth

In the first year of life the process can be influenced by antibiotics

395
Q

What microoganisms colonise the gut?

A

Viruses:
1200 viral genotypes
Limited information

Eukaryotes:
Very few studies of the human gut, but murine (mouse) systems show large fungal diversity

Bacteria: MAJORITY
16S rDNA sequence inventory
>1000 bacterial species in total, but 160 species per person present and possibly >7000 strains
Immune system developed to not respond to certain bacteria in gut (so can see when bad bacteria are in)

So humans= superorganisms, with it’s own genome contributing to the various phenotypes with which we are familiar and an extended genome (predominantly bacterial)

396
Q

Why is it hard for studies to identify what microbiota are healthy?

A

Predictable to a phylum level but large degree of randomness (so much variability between people)

Don’t know consequences of where you are in the continuum of possible bacterial ratios

Community does show remarkable stability in large intestine

397
Q

Outline the benefits and problems of the microbiota

A
MICROBIOTA AS AN ASSET
Defence - bacterial antagonism 
Priming of mucosal immunity
Peristalsis (works musculature in gut)
Metabolism of dietary carcinogens (from cooking food e.g. carbon sauces)
Synthesis of B & K vitamins
Epithelial nutrients (e.g. short chain fatty acids like acetate, proprionate, butyrate)= made by bacteria breaking down plant material- colonocytes use as an energy source and controls gut hormones
Conversion of prodrugs
Utilisation of indigestible (CH2O)n 

MICROBIOTA AS A LIABILITY
Procarcinogens carcinogens
Overgrowth syndromes (e.g. of c.diff diarrhoea)
Opportunism - Translocation (after surgery/trauma, organisms leak out of gut-> sepsis)
Essential ingredient for IBD

MAYBE (LIABILITY)
Utilisation of indigestible (CH2O)n – obesity
Role in insulin resistance and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

398
Q

What diseases provide evidence for a role of the gut microbiota?

A
Asthma/eczema
IBD
Colon cancer
Heart disease
Depression
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Obesity
Diabetes

Also affect drug activation/inactivation

(Also non-GI affect breast cancer and metabolic syndrome)

399
Q

What parts of a host are affected by absence of microbiome?

A
Intestinal
Exocrine
Endocrine
Vascular 
Infection
Immunity
Epithelial
Morphology
Metabolism
Nutritional
Hepatic

I=3, E=3, M= 2, N/B/H= 1 each

NB. Without germs, animals do survive (so microbiota not essential for survival) but altered function and causes intolerance

  • Immune function (without germs-> oral tolerance)
  • Metabolic function (without germs-> altered enzymes)
  • Physiological function (without germs-> altered motility)
  • Trophic function (without germs-> altered cell turnover)
400
Q

What are the ecological interactions between members of different species?

A

+= win, -= loss, 0= neutral

Parasitism/predation
E.g. H. pylori or C. difficile
GOOD FOR HOST? -
GOOD FOR MICROBIATA? +

Amensalism 
Microbes which cause inadvertent damage to the host
GOOD FOR HOST? - - 0
GOOD FOR MICROBIATA? 0 - - 
(I.e. 3 options= 0-, --, -0)
Commensalism 
Probiotic microbes which don't reproduce in host 
E.g. L. lactis
GOOD FOR HOST? +
GOOD FOR MICROBIATA? 0

Mutualism
E.g. FMT for CDAD
GOOD FOR HOST? +
GOOD FOR MICROBIATA?+

401
Q

What is amensalism?

A

Microbes which cause inadvertent damage to the host

I.e. organism grows and in doing so inadvertently damages another BUT unlike a pathogen not evolved to do so (collateral damage)
E.g. make phenol which can-> colorectal cancer

402
Q

Why might IBD result from amensalism?

A

No 1 causative agent (multifactorial)
Doesn’t develop in sterile rodents
Microbiota may be causing disease

403
Q

Why can’t Koch’s postulate be used for IBD?

A

Don’t have an organism

No way to verify pathogenic traits

404
Q

How are the host genome and gut microbiome related?

A

Co-evolved
Same number of bacterial cells as there are human cells, but 150x more genes than in the human karyome

Probably due to metabolites (communication between proteomes and metabonomes)

405
Q

Why is the proteome described as the ‘missing link’ in understanding the microbiome?

A

Link between host genome and gut microbiome probably because of communication between proteomes and metabonomes

Bacterial proteases are a potential virulence factor in colorectal cancer and IBD

Also compromise tight junction integrity

406
Q

What is a microbiome niche?

A

Places colonized by microbes

All niches are colonized from mouth-rectum

But there are different species in each niche

407
Q

Why do bodies produce bile?

A

Cholesterol homeostasis

Dietary lipid / vitamin (fat soluble ADEK) absorption

Removal of xenobiotics/ drugs/ endogenous waste products
E.g. 
- Cholesterol metabolites
- Adrenocortical hormones
- Other steroid hormones

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP also excreted into bile)

408
Q

What is the composition of human bile?

A
PERCENTAGES OF COMPOSITION
Water= 97
Bile salts= 0.7
Inorganic salts= 0.7
Bile pigments (BR= bilirubin, bilivirden)= 0.2
Fatty acids= 0.15
Lecithin= 0.1
Fat= 0.1
Cholesterol= 0.06

Alkaline phosphatase
Drug metabolites (higher mw>urine)
Trace metals e.g. Fe, Zn, Mn, Pb, Cu

IN AN ALKALINE ELECTROLYTE SOLUTION

409
Q

How much bile is produced per day?

A

500ml per day

410
Q

What produces bile?

A

60% hepatocytes (liver cells)
Up to 40% by cholangiocytes (biliary epithelium)

Bile drains from liver, through bile ducts into duodenum and duodenal papilla

411
Q

Why is bile green/yellow?

A

Glucoronides of bile pigment

412
Q

What happens in the hepatocytes and the biliary tree in bile production/modification?

A

HEPATOCYTES (60% bile)
Lipids, bile acids and organic ions added

CHOLANGIOCYTES (40% bile)
Alters pH, fluidity and modifies bile as it flows through

H20 drawn INTO bile (osmosis through paracellular junctions)

Luminal glucose and some organic acids also reabsorbed

HCO3- and Cl- actively secreted INTO bile by CFTR mechanism (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator)

Cholangiocytes contribute IgA by exocytosis

(SUMMARY= H2O in , Cl- in for Cl- out/HCO3- out)

413
Q

Outline bile flow

A

Bile flow closely related to concentration of bile acids and salts in blood

TRANSPORTERS
Biliary excretion of bile salts and toxins performed by transporters on apical surface of hepatocytes and cholangiocytes

These biliary transporters also govern rate of bile flow

Dysfunction of the transporters -> cholestasis (slow bile flow)

Main transporters include the:

  • Bile Salt Excretory Pump (BSEP)
  • MDR related proteins (MRP1 & MRP3)
  • Products of the familial intrahepatic cholestasis gene (FIC1) and multidrug resistance genes (MDR1 & MDR3)
414
Q

How does BSEP (the bile transporter) work?

A

ABCB11 gene

Active transport of bile acids across hepatocyte canalicular membranes into bile

Secretion of bile acids is a major determinant of bile flow

415
Q

How does MDR1 (the bile transporter) work?

A

Mediates canalicular excretion of xenobiotics, cytotoxins

416
Q

How does MDR3 (the bile transporter) work?

A

Encodes a phospholipid transporter protein that translocates phosphatidylcholine from inner to outer leaflet of canalicular membrane

417
Q

What are the 4 bile acids in humans?

A

PRIMARY (formed in liver)
Cholic acid
Chenodeoxycholic acid

SECONDARY
Deoxycholic acid
Lithocholic acid

Converted by colonic bacteria

418
Q

What do bile salts do?

A

Reduce surface tension of fats

Emulsify fat preparatory to its digestion/absorption

419
Q

Why are bile salts potentially cytotoxic in high concentrations?

A

Detergent-like actions

Irritates gut lining

420
Q

What is the BLOOD anatomy of the biliary system?

A

Central veins-> coalesce-> hepatic veins-> inferior vena cava

421
Q

What is the transit time from blood in portal vein to central hepatic vein?

A

8.4 seconds from:

Blood in portal vein-> liver lobule-> central hepatic vein

422
Q

What regulates bile flow and secretion?

A

Ampulla of bile duct
Controlled by Sphincter of Oddi

Closed between meals
Gall bladder stores bile in this time

CCK (cholecystikinin) released when food enters stomach-> sphincter opens and gall bladder contracts and pumps bile into duodenum

Why gallstones-> worse after eat (gall bladder squeezes against stones)

423
Q

Outline enterohepatic circulation

A

BETWEEN LIVER AND GUT

Liver makes bile and liver cells transfer various substances, including drugs, from plasma to bile (into duodenum and intestine)

Some bile acids and some drug toxic metabolites are reabsorbed from blood and go back into the liver
(Reabsorbed particularly in terminal ileum-> transported out of enterocytes-> uptake by hepatocytes-> bile-> repeat)

Can also return to liver by portal blood

424
Q

How does enterohepatic circulation affect drug accumulation?

A

Many hydrophilic drug conjugates (esp. glucoronide) are concentrated in bile

GUT-> glucoronide hydrolysed-> active drug re-released-> reabsorbed-> cycle repeated

‘Reservoir’ of re-circulating drug

Can prolong the action e.g. morphine

Affects dose especially in patients with liver acids

425
Q

Explain the enterophepatic circulation of bile salts

A

95% bile salts absorbed from small (terminal) ileum
- By Na+/bile salt co-transport Na+-K+ ATPase system

5% converted to 2o bile acids in colon:

  • Deoxycholate absorbed
  • Lithocholate 99% excreted in stool

Absorbed bile salts -> back to liver via portal vein then re-excreted in bile

3g bile salt pool re-cycles repeatedly in enterohepatic circulation (2x/meal; 6 – 8x/day)

426
Q

How many times does the bile salt pool re-cyle in enterohepatic circulation?

A

2x per meal

427
Q

What is terminal ileal resection/disease?

A

Decreased bile salt reabsorption
Increased stool [fat]

Because enterohepatic circulation interrupted and liver can’t increase rate of bile salt production enough to make it up

428
Q

What would happen if bile couldn’t enter the gut?

A

50% ingested fat in faeces

Malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins (ADEK)

429
Q

What proportion of solids are in the bile in the hepatic duct and gallbladder?

A

Hepatic duct bile= 2-4%

Gallbladder bile= 10-12%

430
Q

What mM/L of bile salts are in the bile in the hepatic duct and gallbladder?

A

Hepatic duct bile= 10-20

Gallbladder bile= 50-200

431
Q

What pH is the bile in the hepatic duct and gallbladder?

A

Hepatic duct bile= 7.8-8.6

Gallbladder bile= 7.0-7.4

432
Q

What are the effects of a cholecystectomy?

A

Cholecystectomy= removal of gallbladder

Periodic discharge of bile from GB aids digestion BUT is NOT ESSENTIAL (so get regular drip of bile not released when possible)

Normal health and nutrition exist with continuously slow bile discharge into duodenum

Avoid foods with high fat content (bile isn’t concentrated enough to efficiently digest bile)

433
Q

How is bilirubin (BR) excreted?

A

BR = H2O-INSOLUBLE, yellow pigment

BR bound to albumin from spleen (haemoglobin broken down)-> unconjugated bilirubin mostly dissociated in liver

Free BR enters hepatocyte and binds cytoplasmic proteins-> conjugated to glucoronic acid (UDPGT from smooth ER)-> diglucoronide-BR

Diglucoronide-BR is more soluble than free BR
-> Transported across concentration gradient into bile canaliculi- (bile is mostly water)> GI tracts

434
Q

What is the total BR made up of?

A

Free unconjugated BR (from spleen before liver)

Conjugated BR (conjugated in hepatocytes and is in bile ducts and gut)

435
Q

Where does bilirubin come from?

A

75% BR from Hb breakdown
22% from catabolism of other haem proteins
3% from ineffective bone marrow erythropoiesis

436
Q

What are urobilinogens?

A

H2O-SOLUBLE, colourless derivatives of BR formed by action of GIT bacteria

Formed mainly in intestines

437
Q

What happens from old RBCs-> stercobilinogen? (Bilirubin metabolism and excretion pathway)

A

SPLEEN
RBCs broken down in spleen (release haem)

Unconjugated bilirubin bound to albumin
Travels in blood to liver

LIVER
Unconjugated bilirubin splits from albumin
Becomes conjugated by UDPGT (enzyme)

Bilirubin can be made soluble and travel in bile
Enters duodenum (and kidneys)

KIDNEYS
Small amount goes to kidneys and is excreted as urobilinogen

COLON
Remaining bilirubin (conjugated) enters colon
Reduced by gut bacteria to stercobilinogen (comes out in faeces)

438
Q

What is the GI tract permeable to (regarding BR)?

A

Permeable to unconjugated BR and urobilinogens

439
Q

Why is faeces brown?

A

Oxidation of stercobilinogen to stercobilin

440
Q

What causes cholestasis?

A

Pale faeces
Cessation of bile flow

-> Usually results in jaundice (but jaundice doesn’t mean there is cholestasis)

441
Q

What causes jaundice?

A

Excess bilirubin in blood (>34-50 microM/L)

-> Yellow tinge to skin, sclerae, mucous membranes)

442
Q

How does the spleen convert RBCs to bilirubin?

A

Haemoglobin-> globin and haem

Haem-> bilirubin and iron

443
Q

What can causes jaundice?

A

Pre-hepatic
Hepatic/hepatocellular
Post-hepatic/obstructive

444
Q

What are the pre-hepatic causes of jaundice?

A

Increased quantity of BR:

  • Haemolysis
  • Massive Transfusion
  • Haematoma resorption
  • Ineffective erythropoiesis

Look for: Hb drop without overt bleeding; better than liver function test

445
Q

What are the hepatic causes of jaundice?

A
  1. Defective uptake
    - Drugs (contrast, rapamycin)
    - CCF
  2. Defective conjugation (with glucoronate)

(2A) LOW CONJUGATION

  • Hypothyroidism
  • Gilbert’s
  • Crigler-Najjar

(2B) HIGH CONJUGATION

  • Congen: HH, Wilson’s, α1ATD
  • Infection: Hep A/B/C, CMV, EBV
  • Toxin: EtOH, drugs
  • AI: Auto-immune hepatitis
  • Neoplasia: HCC, mets
  • Vasc: Budd-Chiari
  1. Defective BR excretion
    Too low
    - Dubin-Johnson
    - Rotor’s

Liver Failure:

  • Acute/Fulminant
  • Acute on Chronic
  • Viral hep, EtOH, AID, PBC, PSC etc.

Intrahepatic cholestasis:
- Sepsis, TPN, Drugs

446
Q

What are the post-hepatic causes of jaundice?

A

Defective Transport of BR by biliary duct system

E.g. common bile duct stones, HepPancBil malignancy, local LNpathy

Look out for sepsis (cholangitis)

447
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

Commonest hereditary cause of increased bilirubin

  • Up to 5% of the population
  • Autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Elevated unconjugated bilirubin in bloodstream

CAUSE
70%-80% reduction in glucuronidation activity of the enzyme UDPGT-1A1

SYMPTOMS
No serious consequences
Mild jaundice may appear under: exertion, stress, fasting, infections
Usually asymptomatic

448
Q

What causes acute liver failure?

A

Imbalanced hepatocyte destruction and hepatocyte regeneration

CAUSES
Toxins= paracetamol, amanita phalloides, bacillus cereus
Pregnancy diseases
Idiosyncratic drug reactions
Vascular diseases 
Metabolic causes

AETIOLOGY
Apoptosis (e.g. Acetaminophen= Paracetamol):
- Follows activation of caspases (cystein proteases) after oxidative mitochondrial damage
- Nuclear shrinkage but no cell membrane rupture
- Therefore no release of intracellular content, no secondary inflammation

Necrosis (Ischaemia):

  • Caused by same insults as apoptosis
  • Associated with ATP exhaustion (depleted stores) resulting in swollen cell
  • Eventually lyses-> release of intracellular content-> seconddary inflammation

Other factors (that regulate pathways of hepatocyte death)

  • Cellular nitric oxide (NO)
  • Antioxidants
  • Various pro- and anti-inflammatory cytokines e.g. IFN, IL-10, IL-12, natural killer cell-derived IL-5

SYMPTOMS
Initially non-specific (malaise, nausea, lethargy)
Jaundice
Catastrophic illness
Can rapidly lead to coma/death due to multi-organ failure

449
Q

What types of acute liver failure are there?

A
FULMINANT HEPATIC FAILURE
Rapid development (
450
Q

How common is ALF?

A

Relatively uncommon (

451
Q

Outline the causes of ALF

A

TOXINS
Over past 30y, paracetamol (Acetaminophen, ACM) is commonest cause= up to 70% ALF cases

DISEASES OF PREGNANCY
AFLOP, HELLP, hepatic infarction, HEV, Budd-Chiari

IDIOSYNCRATIC DRUG REACTIONS
Single Agent: Isoniazid, NSAID’s, valproate
Drug combinations: Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, trimethoprim/sulphamethoxazole, rifampicin/isoniazid

VASCULAR DISEASES
Ischaemic hepatitis, post-OLT hepatic artery thrombosis, post-arrest, VOD

METABOLIC CAUSES
Wilson’s disease, Reye’s syndrome

452
Q

At what dose can paracetamol cause serious damage?

A

Toxicity possible > 10g

Severe toxicity certain > 25g

Lower doses potentially hepatotoxic in:
Chronic alcoholics
Malnutrition or fasting
Tegretol, Phenobarbital, Rifampacin

Of all cases of paracetamol self-poisoning:

453
Q

How does hepatocyte failure affect normal liver function?

A

(1. Normal, 2. Consequence of hepatic failure)

Detoxification
Encephalopthay and cerebral oedema

Glycogen storage
Hypoglycaemia

Production of clotting factors
Coagulopathy and bleeding

Immunological function and globulin production
Increased susceptibility to infection

Maintenance of homeostasis
Circulatory collapse, renal failure

454
Q

How does diminished protein synthesis in liver failure cause ALF symptoms?

A

Decreased albumin -> ascites and oedema
Decreased clotting factors-> bruising and bleeding
Decreased complement -> infection and sepsis

455
Q

How does defective metabolism in liver failure cause ALF symptoms?

A

Carbohydrate -> hypoglycaemia
Protein catabolism -> low urea
Ammonia Clearance -> encephalopathy and coma

456
Q

What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Accumulated neurotoxic substances in brain.?

Affecting astrocyte function?

E.g. 
Short-chain fatty acids
False neurotransmitters e.g. tyramine, octopamine, and beta-phenylethanolamines
Manganese
Ammonia
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
457
Q

Why is acute liver failure so prevalent in the far east?

A

ALF accounts for 15% of liver transplants/yr in UK,
BUT 70% of transplants in Far East

Differences in aetiology

  • Usually drug-induced in West
  • Viral hepatitis in developing world and Far East (endemic)

Exacerbations of chronic hep B (Hong Kong), Hepatitis E (India)

458
Q

What causes death in ALF?

A
Bacterial and fungal infections
Circulatory instability
Cerebral Oedema
Renal failure
Respiratory failure
Acid-base and electrolyte disturbance
Coagulopathy
459
Q

What is the only therapeutic intervention proven to benefit ALF patients?

A

Emergency liver transplant

Timing/selection of patients is crucial
Unnecessary transplant:
- Carries

460
Q

What is the survival rate of a liver transplant?

A

5 year survival rate with OLT ranges between 60-80%

No recurrence of disease BUT patient will require life-long immunosuppression

NB. 5% of all transplants in the UK

461
Q

Describe the human microbiome project

A

5 year project launched by NIH published in Nature

242 healthy men/women - samples from different body sites

10,000 different types of organism found

Is there a core set of microbes that all humans share?

462
Q

What are common infections of the GI tract?

A

Oral candidiasis
Helicobacter pylori
Infective diarrhoea (bacterial, viral, amoebic)
Clostridium difficile

463
Q

What is oral candidiasis?

A

Caused by candida albicans
Carried in 50% individuals

WHAT DOES IT CAUSE
Yeast/ fungal infection

In immunocompromised states e.g. HIV; chemotherapy; or treatment with corticosteroids

TREATMENT
Treat with oral anti-fungals e.g. nystatin; or IV antifungals if immunocompromised

464
Q

What is helicobacter pylori?

A

Gram negative microaerophilic rod

WHAT DOES IT CAUSE
Leads to Gastritis/ gastric or duodenal ulcers/ gastric carcinoma
BUT 80% infected individuals are asymptomatic

INVESTIGATION
Blood antibody, stool antigen, urea breath test, biopsy ureases test

TREATMENT
1 week eradication therapy with proton pump inhibitor and clarithromycin / amoxicillin

465
Q

What are the main causes of traveller’s diarrhoea?

A
Escherichia coli (E coli)
Shigella
Salmonella
Cholera
Rotavirus 
Norovirus
Giardia
466
Q

What is norovirus?

A

Acute gastroenteritis

467
Q

What are the types of e.coli?

A

E. coli is the type species of the genus (Escherichia)
Escherichia is the type genus of the family Enterobacteriaceae

ENTEROTOXIGENIC
Cholera like toxin
Watery diarrhoea

ENTEROHAEMORRHAGIC
EO157/H7
Verotoxin/shigatoxin
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

ENTEROPATHOGENIC: EPEC
Common in kids nurseries

ENTEROINVASIVE
Shigella like illness
Bloody diarrhoea
Megacolon

468
Q

What is c. difficiile and how is it enhanaced by antibiotics?

A

Clostridium difficile

Causes large intestine infection

Antibiotics kill many commensal gut bacteria so c. diff gains a foothold and produces toxins-> mucosal injury

Neutrophils and RBCs leak into gut between injured epithelial cells

LEADS TO 
Overgrowth of c. diff-> pseudomembranous colitis (antibiotic associated colitis)
Bloody diarrhoea
Mucous
Abdominal pain

TREATMENT
Isolation
Stop current antibiotics
Metronidazole and vancomycin

469
Q

What is cholera?

A

Gram negative extracellular bacillus

Targets Cl- channels -> huge water and salt loss in ricewater like diarrhoea

LEADS TO
Causes extreme dehydration and possible hypovolaemic shock

TREATMENT
Supportive (fluid replacement, salt, water, sugar and IV fluids)

470
Q

What symptoms does food intolerance usually cause?

A

Diarrhoea

Other common GI disease symptoms

471
Q

Outline faecal transplantation in c. diff

A

Multi-centre long-term follow-up colonoscopic FMT for recurrent c. diff infection

  • > Cure rate of 98%
  • > Symptoms for ~ 1 year before FMT and 74% better in 3 days

Stool resembles donor stool in 2 weeks

Persistence for over 30 days post FMT

(Compared to other treatments: FMT 1/16 recurrence
Vanc only 8/13 recurrence
Vanc and lavage 7/13 recurrence)

472
Q

What contributes to the innate GI defence against infection?

A
Gastric acid
Commensal oral flora
Peristalsis
Mucus secretion from goblet cells
Proteases- intraluminal enzymes
Protective shield of the enterocyte membrane and brush border
473
Q

What are the 2 main immunological defences of the GI tract?

A

MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)

GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)

474
Q

What are the main physical defences of the GI tract?

A

Anatomical (epithelial barrier, peristalsis)

Chemical (enzymes, pH gastric acid)

475
Q

What is in the epithelial barrier of the GI tract?

A

MUCUS LAYER
Goblet cells

EPITHELIAL MONOLAYER
Tight junctions
Antimicrobial peptides
Transports IgA

PANETH CELLS
Bases of crypts
Defensins
Lysozyme

476
Q

Where in the GI tract is rich in MALT?

A

The oral cavity

E.g. tongue, palatine, lingual and pharyngeal tonsils

477
Q

What are the primary and secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Thymus and bone marrow – primary lymphoid organs

Spleen and lymph nodes – secondary lymphoid tissues

478
Q

Describe not-organised and organised GALT?

A

NOT-ORGANISED
Intra-epithelial lymphocytes (mainly CD8)
Lamina propria lymphocytes (antigen presenting cells)

ORGANISED
Cryptopatches (tiny lymphoid aggregates in colon)
Peyer’s patches (in small intestine, distal ileum)
Isolated lymphoid follicles
Mesenteric lymph nodes

479
Q

What does GALT do?

A

Generates lymphoid cells and antibodies

IgA secretory and interstitial
IgG
IgM
Cell mediated immunity (adaptive and innate)

480
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

In small intestine (mainly distal ileum)

Development requires exposure to bacterial microbiota

  • 50 in last trimester foetus
  • 250 by teens

Organised collection of naïve T and B-cells

Covered by follicle associated epithelium (FAE)

Antigen uptake (antigen sampling) via M (microfold) cells within FAE

Similar isolated lymphoid follicles elsewhere in GI tract (30,000 in total)

481
Q

Describe the structure of a Payer’s patch and the FAE

A

Under follicle associated epithelium (FAE) there is a sub-epithelial dome (dendritic cells) with M cells

This is connected to a follicle (with B cells) that is:

  • Surrounded by T cell areas (naive T cells)
  • Connected to lymph nodes

FAE

  • No goblet cells
  • No secretory IgA
  • Lack microvilli
  • Infiltrated by T-cells, B-cells, macrophages, dendritic cells
482
Q

How are M cells involved in antigen sampling?

A

Form portal of entry for antigens (instead of mucosal epithelium)

Antigen sampling/uptake controlled by M-cells

Transport to antigen-presenting cells in sub-epithelial dome

DCs take up antigen and process

Present to naïve B or T-cells in Peyer’s patch or transport antigen to lymph nodes
Results in development of gut homing markers

Transfer to mesenteric lymph node to proliferate

483
Q

What is the B cell adaptive response following antigen uptake by M cells?

A

B-cells

  • Mature naïve B-cells expressing IgM in PPs
  • Upon antigen presentation class switch to IgA
  • Influenced by presence of T-cells and epithelium via cytokines

Further maturation to become IgA secreting plasma cells

Populate lamina propria

484
Q

What does IgA do in the immunological response of the GI tract?

A

IgA= specialised immunoglobulin of the gut

IgA secreting cell numbers reflects bacterial load
Up to 90% of gut B-cells secrete IgA

STRUCTURE
Dimeric structure secreted by plasma cells in submucosa

TRANSPORT

  • Dimeric Ig binds to poly-Ig receptor on epithelial cell membrane
  • Receptor and IgA endocytosed to form vesicle (then undergo enzymatic cleavage-> form secretory IgA-> secreted into lumen from epithelial cells by transcytosis)
EFFECTS
Binds luminal antigen
Prevents invasion
Prevents adherence
Does not activate complement or cytotoxic lymphocytes
485
Q

What do intra-epithelial lymphocytes do in the immunological response of the GI tract?

A

Make up one fifth of the intestinal epithelium

Conventional T cells (also lamina propria)
- Migrated from other tissues

Unconventional T cells (Innate)

  • Resident
  • Express unusual combinations of CD4, CD8 or γδ T cell receptor

Other innate immune cells
-Resident NK cells (e.g. NKp44+ NK cells)

486
Q

What is the T cell adaptive response in GI immunology determined by?

A

Determined by 3 signals:

  1. Presentation of antigen (by DC) within MHC
  2. Co-stimulatory signals on DC
  3. Secretion of cytokines by DC
487
Q

What is the cytokine millieu?

A

The pool of cytokines

Affects development of the unconventional
resident T cells of the gut

The plastic response of T-cells to this milieu can lead to a proinflammatory environment

Leading to an increase in Th1, ThIL17 with a decreased Treg cell count

488
Q

What is gut homing?

A

Mechanism by which activated T cells and antibody-secreting cells (ASCs) are targeted to both inflamed and non-inflamed regions of the gut in order to provide an effective immune response

Lymphocytes proliferate in MLNs

  • > Enter lymphatics to thoracic duct
  • > Enter circulation
  • > Selectively home to sites similar to initial priming

Antigen presentation in GALT favours ‘gut homing’ characteristics
(Integrins and chemokine receptors)

Partly regulated by the adhesive interactions between lymphocytes and specialised post-capillary microvascular endothelial cells, such as high endothelial venules (HEVs) of lymphoid tissue

489
Q

Lymphocyte activation: How is tracking of lymphocytes into areas of gut inflammation mediated?

A

Lymphocytes track into areas of gut inflammation

Mediated by expression of tissue-specific adhesion molecules on vasculature walls

490
Q

What is the mechanism of gut inflammation?

A

α4β7 integrin/MAdCAM-1 adhesion facilitates local gut inflammation

Likely that these interactions mediate selective lymphocyte trafficking to GI mucosa and
gut-associated tissues

α4β7 integrin is a critical component of lymphocyte tracking to sites of local inflammation in IBD

491
Q

What are the 2 main immunological roles of the gut?

A

Tolerance= food antigens, commensal bacteria

Immunoreactivity= pathogens

492
Q

What is immune tolerance?

A

Suppression of immune responses towards antigens

493
Q

What leads to immune tolerance and what happens if this fails?

A

MECHANISMS OF IMMUNE TOLERANCE
Deletion of responding lymphocytes
Anergy
TReg cells

LOSS OF TOLERANCE (maybe->)
Inflammatory bowel disease
Coeliac disease
Food allergy

494
Q

What is the difference between intolerance and allergy to food

A
Food allergy= IgE and histamine response
Nuts
Hen egg white
Cows milk
Wheat
Sesame seeds
Soya
Shell fish

Food intolerance= not mediated by immune system

495
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition

NOT an allergy or an intolerance to gluten

In cases of coeliac disease, the immune system mistakes substances found inside gluten as a threat to the body and attacks them

This damages the surface of the small bowel (intestines), disrupting the body’s ability to absorb nutrients from food

Inflammatory reaction (dendritic cells of submucosa mature in a proinflammatory environment)-> subtotal villous atrophy

Can’t absorb B12, folate…. So often present as anaemic

496
Q

What is the genetic pathogenesis of coeliac disease?

A

Majority DQ8 HLA, some DQ2 (also need another HIIT)

497
Q

Outline the epidemiology for IBD

A

Around 300,000 people in the UK have IBD

Overall incidence of UC is higher than Crohn’s, but Crohn’s is increasing more

Increasing incidence, especially in young and non-western societies

Highest incidence rates in North America and northern/western Europe

498
Q

What causes inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A

Combo of:
Genetic background (>160 susceptibility genes, 2/3 genes shared between UC/CD)
Immune system
Environmental factor

Inappropriate chronic immune response against resident gut microbes
- May be on account of distinct changes in the gut microbiota termed as dysbiosis

Smoking-> in crohns is very bad (more likely to need operations and stronger drugs)
In ulcerative colitis (removal of smoking= trigger factor)

499
Q

What role does NOD-2 possibly have in IBD?

A

Creates protein relating to how body reacts to bacteria

500
Q

What effects do reanastomosis and faecal stream diversion have on Chrohn’s

A

Faecal stream diversion alleviates Crohn’s

Reanastomosis triggers recurrence

501
Q

What are the specific changes in microbiota function in Crohn’s disease?

A

Overall CD is not caused by diminished diversity alone – but requires a susceptible genotype – as confirmed by research in mice with human relevant susceptibility mutations

Shift-> increases in virulence and secretion pathways

Fusobacteriaceae= biomarker, progression of colon cancer

Pastueurellacaea, veillonellaceae,
pathogenic E. coli= link with ulcer formation

502
Q

What are the specific changes in microbiata function in Ulcerative colitis?

A

Decrease in Faecalibacterium prausnitzii and Roseburia hominus in UC (decrease in butyrate production)

503
Q

Why is it challenging to study IBD?

A
Clinical
Phenotype
Confounders
Age, gender, smoking 
Ethnicity, diet, surgery
Medications
“Healthy” controls

SAMPLING
Faeces v mucosa
- Axial and longitudinal variation

Replication

  • Multiple samples from same region
  • Longitudinal sampling
COMMUNICATION
Clinicians
Microbial ecologists
Bioinformatics
Statisticians
TECHNICAL
16S sequence 
Metagenomics
Metatranscriptomics
Metabonomics
Economics
504
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Inflammatory condition of the biliary tree associated with IBD

May cause cholangiocarcinoma

Cause is T-cell misdirection to the liver whether they contribute to inflammation and biliary destruction

505
Q

What are paracrine hormones?

A

Hormones released by cells in the vicinity of the target cell and reach target cell by diffusion

506
Q

How is GI function (overall) controlled?

A

Nervous system (intrisic/enteric and extrinsic/autonomic)

Paracrine

Endocrine

507
Q

What is the enteric (intrinsic) nervous system?

A

Integrates motor and secretory activities
(Independently of CNS)

Regulates:
Motility
Blood flow
Water and electrolyte transport
Secretion 
Absorption

GI tract wall= concentration of neurons 2nd only to CNS

Rich plexus (network) of ganglia (nerve cells and glial cells) interconnected by tracts of fine, unmyelinated nerve fibres

508
Q

What happens if there is enteric neural dysfunction/degeneration?

A

Inflammation (UC or CD)
Post-operative injury
Irritable bowel syndrome
Ageing (constipation)

509
Q

What are the main plexuses in the gut?

A

Myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s plexus)

Minor plexuses (including deep muscular plexus (inside circular muscle)

Submucosal plexus (Meissner’s)

510
Q

Where is the myenteric plexus and what does it do?

A

Located between the circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers

Controls activity of muscularis externa

Controls gut motor function

511
Q

What do the minor plexuses include?

A

Deep muscular plexus (inside circular muscle)

Ganglia supplying biliary system and pancreas

512
Q

Where is the submucosal plexus and what does it do?

A

Sensing environment within lumen

Blood flow, epithelial and endocrine cell funpaction

513
Q

How is the ANS involved in regulating GI function?

A

Regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands

Not accessible to voluntary control

Two branches:

  • Sympathetic
  • Parasympathetic
514
Q

What does sympathetic control do to regulate GI function?

A

Activation of the sympathetic nerves usually inhibit the activities of the GI system (by inhibiting blood flow)

Neurotransmitter= norepinerphrine (NA)

515
Q

What is the main sympathetic innervation of the gut?

A

Thoracic splanchnic nerves carry innervation to fore and midgut

Lumbar splanchnic nerves carry sympathetic innervation to the remainder of the gut

516
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, where are cell bodies of the pre and postganglionic neurons?

A

Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons in the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord

Cell bodies of postganglionic neurons in the pre- and para- vertebral ganglia

517
Q

What does parasympathetic control do to regulate GI function?

A

Excitation usually stimulates the activities of the GI tract

Neurotransmitter= Acetylcholine (ACh)

518
Q

What is the main parasympathetic innervation of the gut?

A

Most of the GI tract via branches of the vagus nerve (down to the level of the transverse colon)

Remainder of the colon, the rectum and the anus receive parasympathetic fibers from the pelvic nerves

519
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system, where are cell bodies of the pre and postganglionic neurons?

A

Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons in the brainstem and sacral spinal cord (cranio-sacral)

520
Q

How are smooth muscle, secretory cells, endocrine cells and blood vessels of the GI tract innervated by the ANS?

A

SEE DIAGRAM

ANS
-> Parasympathetic- vagal nuclei (vagus nerve) and sacral spinal cord (pelvi) nerves)-> enteric nervous system

or

ANS
-> Sympathetic- thoracic and lumbar SC-> sympathetic ganglia-> blood vessels and enteric nervous system

Enteric nervous system (myenteric plexus submucosal plexus)

  • > Smooth muscle
  • > Secretory cells
  • > Endocrine cells
  • > Blood vessels
521
Q

Where do most sympathetic fibres terminate?

A

Terminate on neurones in the intramural plexuses

Majority sympathetic fibres do not directly innervate structures in the GI tract

BUT: Vasoconstrictor sympathetic fibres do directly innervate the blood vessels of the GI tract- coeliac, superior and inferior mesenteric

522
Q

How are smooth muscle, secretory cells, endocrine cells and blood vessels of the GI tract innervated by the CNS?

A

SEE DIAGRAM

CNS
-> Sympathetic and parasympathetic efferents

-> Enteric nervous system
or
-> Directly-> ABCD

Chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors in wall of GI tract

-> Splanchnic and vagal afferents -> CNS
or
-> Local afferents-> enteric nervous system

---
Enteric nervous system (myenteric plexus  submucosal plexus)
-> Smooth muscle (A)
-> Secretory cells (B)
-> Endocrine cells (C)
-> Blood vessels (D)
523
Q

How is the GI tract innervated?

A

INTRINSIC INNERVATION
Neurons of the enteric nervous system

EXTRINSIC INNERVATION
Afferents (pain, nausea, fullness)
Afferents (coordination - sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems)

Complexity allows fine control of the GI tract

524
Q

What is the anatomical difference between the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system in terms of GI control?

A

PARASYMPATHETIC
Innervates the gut via long preganglionic neurones (mostly via the vagus nerve) and short postganglionic neurones
-> Promotes gut motility, secretion and digestion

SYMPATHETIC
Innervates the gut via short preganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres
-> Inhibits gut motility and secretion
-> Causes constriction of blood vessels and contraction of sphincters

525
Q

What is the function of the GI endocrine system?

A

Produced by endocrine cells in the mucosa or submucosa of the stomach, intestine and pancreas

Can act as paracrine or neurocrine factors

REGULATES MECH PROCESS OF DIGESTION
E.g. smooth muscle of GI tract and sphincters, gall bladder

REGULATES CHEM PROCESS OF DIGESTION
E.g. secretory cells located in the wall of the GI tract, pancreas and liver

CONTROLS POST ABSORPTIVE PROCESSES
(Post absorptive processes involved in the assimilation of digested food and CNS feedback regulating intake)
E.g. GIP stimulates insulin release from pancreatic beta cells, PYY3-36 acts on the CNS to suppress appetite

EFFECTS ON GROWTH/DEVELOPMENT OF GIT
E.g. GLP-2 promotes small intestinal growth

526
Q

What are the major gut hormones acting on the GI system?

A
STOMACH
Gastrin
Ghrelin
Somatostatin
Histamine
PANCREAS
Insulin
Glucagon
Somatostatin
Pancreatic Polypeptide

UPPER DUODENUM/JEJUNUM
Secretin
CCK
Somatostatin

ILEUM
PYY
GIP
GLP-1
GLP-2
Oxyntomodulin
Neurotensin
Somatostatin
COLON
PYY
GLP-1
Oxyntomodulin
Neurotensin
Somatostatin
527
Q

How do histamine and somatostatin have paracrine actions on gastric parietal cells in the GI system?

A

Histamine release from the stomach wall cells is key to HCl secretion from the gastric parietal cells

Somatostatin from the stomach can inhibit this secretion

528
Q

Gastrin (synthesis, release, action)

A

SYNTHESIS
In gastric antrum and upper small intestine

RELEASE STIMULATED BY:

  • AAs and peptides in the lumen of the stomach
  • Gastric distension
  • Vagus nerve directly

ACTION
Gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion

Release inhibited when pH of stomach falls below pH 3

529
Q

Somatostatin (synthesis, release, action)

A

SYNTHESIS
In endocrine D cells of the gastric and duodenal mucosa, pancreas (also hypothalamus)

RELEASE
In response to a mixed meal

ACTION
Somatostatin is a universal inhibitor
(Endocrine Cyanide)

Inhibits:
Gastric secretion, motility, intestinal and pancreatic secretions, release of gut hormones, intestinal nutrient and electrolyte transport, growth and proliferation

Analogues used to treat neuroendocrine tumours

530
Q

Secretin (synthesis, release, action)

A

SYNTHESIS
S cells in upper duodenum and jejunum

RELEASE STIMULATED BY:
Presence of acid in duodenum (pH below 4.5)

ACTION
Stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion (effect potentiated by CCK)

531
Q

Cholecystokinin CCK (synthesis, release, action)

A

SYNTHESIS
Secreted by cells most densely located in the small intestine

RELEASE
Stimulated by fat and peptides in the upper small intestine
Independent of the vagus

ACTION

  • Stimulates pancreatic enzyme release
  • Delays gastric emptying
  • Stimulates gallbladder contraction.
  • Decreases food intake and meal size
532
Q

Gastric inhibitory peptide OR glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP) (synthesis, release, action)

A

SYNTHESIS
Secreted by mucosal K cells (predominant in the duodenum and jejunum)

RELEASE
Following ingestion of a mixed meal

ACTION
Stimulates insulin secretion.

GIP receptor antagonists reduce postprandial insulin release

533
Q

Peptide YY (PYY) (synthesis, release, action)

A

SYNTHESIS
Cells found throughout the mucosa of the terminal ileum, colon and rectum

RELEASE
From L cells post prandially (particularly protein) from intestines

ACTION

  • PYY reduces intestinal motility, gallbladder contraction and pancreatic exocrine secretion
  • Inhibitor of intestinal fluid and electrolyte secretion
  • PYY3-36 inhibits food intake
534
Q

Why was octreotide developed?

A

Developed because longer half life than somatostatin

Wouldn’t need to constantly infuse them-> so octreotide can chronically manipulate it but taken practically

535
Q

When does an individual perceive thirst?

A

Body fluid osmolality is increased
Blood volume is reduced
Blood pressure is reduced

Plasma osmolality increased is the more potent stimulus – change of 2-3% induces strong desire to drink

Decrease of 10-15% in blood volume or arterial pressure required to produce the same response

536
Q

What does ADH/VP do?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin

Acts on kidneys to regulate the volume and osmolality of urine

Low plasma ADH -> large volume of urine is excreted (water diuresis)

High plasma ADH -> small volume of urine is excreted (anti diuresis)

537
Q

Where are osmoreceptors?

A

Hypothalamus, organum vasculosum (OVLT)and subfornical organ (SFO)

Circumventricular organs (characterized by their extensive vasculature and lack of a normal BBB)

538
Q

How do osmoreceptors affect ADH release?

A

Found in the hypothalamus, OVLT, and SFO

Sense changes in body fluid osmolality

Cells shrink or swell in response (expand when plasma more dilute, and vice versa)

Send signals to the ADH producing cells in the hypothalamus to alter ADH release

Same regions seem to regulate thirst

539
Q

To maintain water balance. how is plasma osmolality increased and decreased?

A

INCREASED PLASMA OSMOLALITY
Invokes drinking and ADH release

Increased ADH stimulates kidney to conserve water

DECREASED PLASMA OSMOLALITY
Thirst is suppressed and ADH release decreased

Absence of ADH the kidney excretes more water

540
Q

What causes the sensation of thirst?

A

Don’t know as much as about food intake

Receptors in mouth, pharynx, oesophagus seem to be involved

Relief of thirst sensation via these receptors is short lived

Thirst is only completely satisfied once plasma osmolality is decreased or blood volume or arterial pressure corrected

Circuits may be involved

541
Q

How is RAAS involved in thirst?

A

Angiotensinogen from liver (with renin from juxtaglomerular cells) -> angiotensin I

Angiotensin I (with ACE)-> angiotensin II-> thirst and other effects of vasonconstriction

ANGIOTENSIN II-> SENSATION OF THIRST

542
Q

How does angiotensin II evoke the sensation of thirst?

A

AII (angiotensin II) is increased when blood volume and pressure are reduced

Activates SFO neurones

AII contributes to the homeostatic response to restore and maintain the body fluids at their normal level

Other factors? Neurotransmitters?

543
Q

How is body weight controlled?

A

INTO HYPOTHALAMUS
Ghrelin, PPY and other hormones
Neural input from periphery and other brain regions
Leptin

HYPOTHALAMUS
Responding to many inputs
Integrated system

OUT OF HYPOTHALAMUS
Food intake
Energy expenditure

544
Q

What is in the hypothalamus?

A
Lateral hypothalamus
Paraventricular nucleus
Ventromedial hypothalamus
Arcuate nucleus
around 3rd ventricle
545
Q

What is the arcuate nucleus?

A

Key brain area involved in the regulation of food intake

Incomplete blood brain barrier, allows access to peripheral hormones

Integrates peripheral and central feeding signals

Two neuronal populations:

  • Stimulatory (NPY/Agrp neuron)
  • Inhibitory (POMC neuron)
546
Q

Why is the arcuate nucleus at the bottom?

A
Sensing what goes on outside brain
Incomplete BBB (peripheral factors gain access)
547
Q

How does the arcuate nucleus link to the paraventricular nucleus?

A

Circulating factors in blood

  • > Arcuate nucleus
  • > Through 3rd ventricle

SIGNALS TO PVN
Increases feeding or decreases feeding

PVN= controls appetite and energy expenditure

548
Q

Describe the melanocortin system

A

POMC (in arcuate nucleus)-> alpha-MSH -> stimulates MC4R (in paraventricular nucleus)

Agrp (in arcuate nucleus)-> Agrp -> inhibits MC4R (in paraventricular nucleus)

549
Q

What mutations in the CNS affect appetite by altering the arcuate nucleus or PVN function?

A

No NPY or Agrp mutations associated with appetite discovered in humans (very dramatic and not common)

POMC deficiency and MC4-R mutations cause morbid obesity

Mutations not responsible for the prevalence of obesity- but useful to explain signalling

550
Q

Other than the hypothalamus, where do signals come from to affect appetite regulation?

A

Higher centres

Amygdala- emotion, memory

Other parts of the hypothalamus, e.g. lateral hypothalamus

Vagus to brain stem to hypothalamus

551
Q

What are the peripheral signals of body homeostasis?

A

Long term- Leptin

Short term- Ghrelin, PYY

552
Q

What is the adipostat mechanism and how does it increase/decrease food intake?

A

Circulating hormone produced by fat

Hypothalamus senses the concentration of hormone

Hypothalamus then alters neuropeptides to increase or decrease food intake

Perhaps a problem with the regulation of the adipostat mechanism leads to obesity?

553
Q

Describe what the ob/ob mouse shows

A

Big mouse= missing gene for leptin (hormone)

554
Q

What is leptin?

A

167 AA protein hormone (leptin) coded for but missing in ob/ob mouse

Made by adipocytes in white adipose tissue

Circulates in plasma

Acts upon the hypothalamus regulating appetite (intake) and thermogenesis (expenditure)

When you get fatter-> release more leptin-> regulation
But doesn’t happen in ob/ob mouse

Ob/ob mouse can be normalised when given leptin

555
Q

When is leptin low/high?

A

Low when low body fat

High when high body fat

556
Q

What 3 ways did people think the leptin regulatory loop could lead to obesity?

A

ABSENT LEPTIN
Thought obese people had adipose tissue lacking leptin

REGULATORY DEFECT
Obese people had normal leptin levels but that more fat over a point meant no more leptin

LEPTIN RESISTANCE (this was the case)
High leptin levels but hypothalamus doesn't lead to food intake, energy expenditure or fat/glucose metabolism
557
Q

Describe leptin resistance

A

Leptin circulates in plasma in concentrations proportional to fat mass

Fat humans have high leptin

Obesity due to leptin resistance- hormone is present but doesn’t signal effectively

Leptin is ineffective as a weight control drug

558
Q

What is congenital leptin deficiency?

A

Small number of cases identified

Mutation in ob gene- homologous to ob/ob mouse

Severely hyperphagic and obese

559
Q

How can congenital leptin deficiency be treated?

A

Leptin replacement

Reduces body weight

560
Q

Why do you feel less hungry after a meal?

A

Not bulk in stomach or nutrients in circulation

Hormonal signal from the gut (Grehlin in stomach and PYY in descending colon/rectum)

561
Q

How does what you’re eating affect PYY secretion and what does it modulate?

A

Post-prandial secretion of PYY
Released in proportion to calories you’re eating

Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus

  • Inhibits NPY release
  • Stimulates POMC neurones
  • Decreases appetite
562
Q

What is Ghrelin and what does it modulate?

A

“Hunger hormone”= opposite of PYY release

Peptide hormone produced by ghrelinergic cells in the gastrointestinal tract

Fatty acid chain at Ser3 (to access brain and bind to R)

Released before a meal, drops after

Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus

  • Stimulates NPY/Agrp neurons
  • Inhibits POMC neurons
  • Increases appetite
563
Q

What is the relationship between PYY and Ghrelin?

A

PYY (from intestines)

  • 36 AA chain, truncated version in food intake
  • Increases after meal

Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus

  • Inhibits NPY release
  • Stimulates POMC neurones
  • Decreases appetite

GHRELIN(from stomach)

  • Opposite of PYY release
  • Increases before meal

Directly modulates neurones in the arcuate nucleus

  • Stimulates NPY/Agrp neurons
  • Inhibits POMC neurons
  • Increases appetite
564
Q

What happens to rats with PYY and ghrelin?

A

PYY
Rat= wants to eat (hungry)
Increasing doses of PYY-> suppresses food intake

GHRELIN
In rats that aren’t hungry
Increasing doses of ghrelin-> think they are hungry-> eat more
(Ghrelin suppresses hunger in humans)

565
Q

How might obesity be treated in the future?

A

Gut hormones may represent a novel treatment for obesity

Target only relevant circuits.
Released daily without ‘side effects’

Exert effects throughout life without escape

566
Q

Why does body weight need to be regulated?

A

Obesity is associated with comorbidities

E.g. depression, sleep apnoea, stroke, MI, hypertension, diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, gout, osteoarthritis. bowel cancer, liver disease, lung disease, abnormal periods/infertility in women

567
Q

What is the thrift gene hypothesis?

A

James Neel 1962

Specific genes selected for to increase metabolic efficiency and fat storage

In the context of plentiful food and little exercise these genes predispose their carriers to obesity and diabetes

Evolutionarily sensible to put on weight (thin humans didn’t survive famines, so didn’t pass their genes on to modern humans)

Populations historically prone to starvation become most obese when exposed to Western diet and sedentary life-style (e.g. Pima Indians, Pacific Islanders)

568
Q

What is adaptive drift hypothesis?

A

Normal distribution of body weight: the fat are eaten, the thin starve

10-20K yrs ago, humans learned to defend against predators

Thus obesity not selected against

Putting on body fat then a neutral change (genetic drift). (though unlikely to put on much weight)

In current context, the inheritors of these genes become obese

569
Q

Explain the biochemistry of ethanol

A
Ethyl group (methyl group and methylene group)
Hydroxy group

Structural formula= CH3CH2OH (C2H6O)

Ethanol is practically insoluble in fats and oils

The concentration of ethanol depends on the relative water content of the tissue (reaches equilibrium quickly with the concentration of ethanol in the plasma)

Ethanol is not bound to plasma proteins

570
Q

Outline the metabolism of ethanol

A

Ethanol-> ADH (NAD+->NADH) -> Acetaldehyde -> ALDH (NAD+->NADH) -> Acetate

Ethanol-> Catalase (H202->H20) -> Acetaldehyde

Ethanol-> CYP2E1 (NADPH-> NADP+ and H2O) -> Acetaldehyde

ADH – alcohol dehydrogenase
ALDH - Aldehyde dehydrogenase

571
Q

What happens when too much alcohol is drunk to the metabolism of ethanol?

A

ADH-> Hypoxia (displaced ratio-> cell death)

CYP2E1 and acetaldehyde-> ROS (-> free radical formation)

Acetaldehyde (toxic) binds to certain AAs-> protein adduct formation (recognised as foreign-> inflammatory response)

572
Q

What is AUDIT used for in alcohol use and what do scores mean?

A

Alcohol-use disorders identification test (IDs 92% hazardous and harmful drinkers, excludes 93% who aren’t)

Staging risk
1–7: low-risk drinking
8–15: hazardous drinking
16–19: harmful drinking
20+: possible dependence
573
Q

Who does liver disease kill?

A

Liver disease is the third biggest cause of premature mortality (in working life)

Alcohol kills at a young age
Productivity, taxes, working-> useful to state

75% of deaths from liver disease are result of excess alcohol consumption

574
Q

How are hepatocytes damages due to ethanol toxicity?

A

Cellular and molecular mechanisms involved remain poorly understood

Liver damage might be the result of direct toxic actions of ethanol or its metabolites within hepatocytes-> CELL DEATH

575
Q

In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), what is involved?

A

NADH
Introduction of xenobiotic metabolism
Free radical generation
Protein adduct formation

->
Myocardial and pancreatic injury
Fatty liver
Hypoxic liver damage
Allergic reactions
Cell damage
Carcinogenesis
Enhanced toxicity
576
Q

In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is NADH involved?

A

Decreased FA oxidation

  • > FA ethyl esters-> myocardial and pancreatic injury
  • > increased triglyceride production-> fatty liver

Increased glyceraldehyde reduction
-> increased triglyceride production-> fatty liver

Decreased galactose tolerance

Increased oxygen consumption
-> increased oxygen consumption-> hypoxic liver damage

577
Q

In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is ALDH involved?

A

ALDH-> adenosine-> vasodilation-> hypoxic liver damage

578
Q

In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is protein adduct formation involved?

A

Decreased microtubule function-> abnormal diagnostic tests

Antibody formation-> allergic reaction and cell damage

Directly to cell damage

579
Q

In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is free radical generation involved?

A

Lipid peroxidation-> fatty liver

Directly to carcinogenesis

580
Q

In pathogenesis of alcoholic liver disease (ALD), how is the introduction of xenobiotic metabolism involved?

A
  • > carcinogenesis

- > enhanced toxicity (e.g. halogenated hydrocarbons)

581
Q

How does chronic alcohol misuse lead to cirrhosis?

A

NB. Not everyone who drinks same amount will develop cirrhosis

90-95% -> steatosis (fatty liver) or steatohepatitis (inflammation)

10-20% from steatosis-> fibrosis
40-50% from steatohepatitis-> fibrosis

8-20%-> cirrhosis

In some people steatohepatitis-> cirrhosis directly

3-10% cirrhosis-> HCC (hepatocellular carcinoma)

582
Q

What factors contribute to developing cirrhosis?

A

GENETIC
Female
SNPs
Hemochromatosis

ENVIRONMENTAL
Binge drinking
Viral hepatitis
HIV
Obesity and insulin resistance
Cigarette smoking
583
Q

What is steatosis?

A
Fatty liver
Fat droplets deposited in the liver
Occurs in up to 50-90% of heavy drinkers
Leads to steatohepatitis and abnormal LFT’s
Reversible if alcohol reduced
584
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

Irreversible scarring of liver with fibrous bands and regenerative nodules (as hepatic cells begin to die)

Eventually develops in 20% after 15 years

Impaired function

Development of portal hypertension (back up of blood diverted to other veins and causes problems)

Morbidity common, associated with jaundice, ascites, bleeding, cachexia, infections, and encephalopathy

3-5% per annum risk of developing liver cancer

Death in most within 10 years

585
Q

What is the macroscopic difference between a fatty liver and cirrhotic liver?

A
Fatty= smooth, fat
Cirrhotic= pinker, rougher, nodules
586
Q

What kind of cirrhosis is there? (Spectrum)

A

Compensated vs decompensated
OR
Asymptomatic vs symptomatic

587
Q

What are the symptoms commonly associated with cirrhosis?

A

Jaundice (from bilirubin retention)

Ascites (retention of water in abdominal cavity, pressure gradient issue as high portal hypertension and low pressure within abdominal cavity)

Bleeding varices

Encephalopathy

588
Q

How is liver disease classified?

A

Child-Pugh is a way of classifying liver disease

A= least severe, C= worst

589
Q

Does abstinence alter survival in liver disease?

A

Stop drinking-> liver can regenerate in early stages

In cirrhosis-> can’t reverse, can have transplant, abstinence still useful to improve 5yr survival rate (if Child-Pugh A)

590
Q

What conditions are associated with chronic alcohol consumption?

A
Cirrhosis
Chronic pancreatitis
Alcoholic cardiomyopathy
Stroke
Neurological 
Fetal alcohol syndrome
591
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis?

A

Up to 45% due to alcohol

Exocrine insufficiency
-> Steatorrhoea, vitamin deficiencies, hypocalcaemia

Endocrine insufficiency
-> Diabetes

Chronic Pain
Weight Loss

592
Q

What is alcoholic cardiomyopathy?

A

Chronic long-term abuse of alcohol (i.e. ethanol) leads to heart failure

Toxicity-> heart unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to heart failure

Heart much bigger (3x), become dilated and baggy (radius of ventricles has increased so have to contract under higher pressure to -> SV)

Higher BP in people who consume more alcohol

Hypertension appears to reverse within 2 to 3 weeks of cessation of alcohol intake

593
Q

How does alcohol affect stroke risk?

A

High alcohol intake is associated with the risk of stroke

The effect is dose dependent – findings suggest a J-shaped curve (consuming small amounts of alcohol may be beneficial or just maybe better health/lifestyle)

Increased risk of haemorrhagic stroke

594
Q

How does alcohol affect brain function?

A

Ability to perform tasks, recall info and coordinate/balance are reduced

HEAVY ALCOHOL CONSUMPTION (often together, malnutrition, deficiency in thiamine)
Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Korsakoff’s psychosis

Optic toxicity

Autonomic dysfunction
Peripheral neuropathy

595
Q

What is fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Specific pattern of facial features
Pre- and/or postnatal growth deficiency
Evidence of central nervous system dysfunction

Microencephaly (small brain) and migration anomalies (neural and glia cells don’t migrate properly, just go to top of cortex)

Agenesis of corpus callosum and ventricles are dilated

Cerebellar anomalies

Some babies are born with obvious FAS, many other babies will appear normal, but never reach their full potential as a result of the effects of alcohol in utero

596
Q

What are the negative impacts of alcohol on society?

A

In 2014, there were 8,697 alcohol-related deaths registered in the UK

In 2013/14, there were an estimated 1,059,210 admissions in England related to alcohol consumption

The overall number of people in treatment for alcohol dependency during 2013-14 in England was 114,920

The total annual cost to society of alcohol-related harm is estimated to be £21bn

The NHS incurs £3.5bn a year in costs related to alcohol

Alcohol-related crime in the UK is estimated to cost between £8bn and £13bn per year

597
Q

What is the alcohol harm paradox?

A

Deprived populations that apparently consume the same or less alcohol than less deprived populations suffer greater levels of harm

May be due to:
Under reporting
Drinking patterns
Compounding / social and health resilience
Health services 
Poverty gradient
598
Q

How many grams in a unit of alcohol?

A

8g

599
Q

How many units a week are recommended?

A

14 units a week for women and men max recommended

Should be spread evenly over 3+ days

600
Q

How are units of alcohol calculated?

A

Percentage (ABV%) x volume (ml)

Divided by 1000

601
Q

How many units are in beer, red wine and white cider?

A

Beer

  1. 5%, 568ml
  2. 6 units

Red wine

  1. 0%, 250ml
  2. 3 units

White cider

  1. 5%, 3L
  2. 5 units
602
Q

How does food-> acetyl CoA in energy metabolism?

A

CARBS
Glycogen-> (glycogenolysis)-> glucose -> (glycolysis)-> pyruvate-> acetyl CoA

FATS
Triglycerides-> (lipolysis)-> free fatty acids -> (B oxidation)-> acetyl CoA

PROTEIN
Protein-> (proteinolysis)-> amino acids -> (deamination and oxidation)-> acetyl CoA

603
Q

What is undernutrition?

A

Inadequate consumption
Poor absorption
Excessive loss of nutrients

(NB. Malnutrition includes overnutrition)

604
Q

What is the global burden of undernutrition?

A
A third of the global population live below recommended nutritional needs
 Most T2D
-> 30-40% CVD
-> Many cancers (risk factors)
-> Many chronic diseases
605
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

If human potential is to be fulfilled there are a number of basic needs that have to be met

(From bottom to top)
Biological/physiological
Security/safety
Social needs
Ego
Self fulfilment

Building blocks to perform at best level (need bottom the most)

Basic needs are oxygen, food, water and shelter

606
Q

What is BMI?

A

Lot of ways assessing body composition

BMI clinically relevant method of estimating adiposity

Weight kg/height

Much more useful to use with waist measurement

607
Q

What do values of BMI mean?

A

> 20 underweight
20-25 desirable weight
26 - 30 overweight
31-40 obese

608
Q

How can undernutrition be checked?

A

BMI not as good for undernutrition as obesity/overweight

Monitoring body weight
-> Can be complicated by fluid balance

Arm circumference (or measure triceps skinfold)

NB. Hard in children because growing (but use growth charts0

609
Q

What is body weight a reflection of?

A

Total cell mass

In some case of malnutrition body weight is not reflective of nutritional status because of complications of oedema (oedema confounds body weight)

610
Q

What do dietary reference values do?

A

Reflect the nutritional needs of a population
A way of assessing nutritional adequacy

Needed because people need many different nutrients to maintain health and reduce the risk of diet-related diseases

These are different in requirements of nutrients at different stages of life e.g. women of childbearing age need more iron than men.

611
Q

What are the dietary reference values?

A

Fall in normal distribution

Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)= Mean requirement

Reference Nutrient intake (RNI)= 2.5 SD above EAR (97.5%)

Lower nutrient reference intake (LRNI)= 2.5 SD below EAR (population at risk below here e.g. of iron deficiencies, used for calories in UK)

Not set at EAR because below what 50% of population needs so normally set it at RNI (cover majority of population)

612
Q

Why is Vitamin C essential in man?

A

Ascorbic acid

Anti oxidant
Convert Fe3+ to Fe2+
Important in formation of collagen

Varied amount for different ages/sexes/pregnancy/lactation

Deficiency: Scurvy

NB. James Lind 1700s, 12 men from ship (discovered citrus fruit can cause scurvy)

613
Q

How do the Laws of Thermodynamic apply to humans?

A

WHEN WEIGHT IS STABLE
Energy in = energy out and energy stored

WEIGHT GAIN
Energy in > energy out
- Increase intake
- Decrease expenditure
- Decrease in metabolic rate
614
Q

What is included in total energy expenditure?

A

Total energy expenditure= heat produced and work on environment (when organism is at rest, all energy expenditure is equal to heat produced)

Adaptive thermogenesis
Physical activity (variable)
Obligatory energy expenditure (BMR)

615
Q

What is adaptive thermogenesis?

A

Extra energy when digest food or expended to keep warm

Variable, regulated by brain

Responds to temperature and diet

Occurs in brown adipocyte mitochondria, skeletal muscle and other sites

616
Q

What is obligatory energy expenditure?

A

Majority of energy expenditure

BMR

Required for performance of cellular and organ functions

617
Q

What makes up energy intake?

A

Fat 9
Cho 4
Protein 4
Alcohol 7

618
Q

What level are most nutritional recommendations set at?

A

RNI

2.5 SD above the EAR

619
Q

How does energy demand change during life?

A

Energy demand gets greater as you grow

Energy demand decreases as muscle mass is lost

620
Q

What are the fates of acetyl CoA?

A
Pyruvate
AA
FAs
Ketone bodies
TCA
621
Q

How is energy stored in the body?

A

Glycogen= stored in the liver and muscle
Adipose tissue= major store
Muscle= prolonged starvation

Alcohol can’t be stored-> changes other balances

622
Q

How are macronutrients balanced?

A

Intake (alcohol, CHO, protein, fat)
MINUS
Expenditure
(alcohol, CHO, protein, fat)

EQUALS
Stores (alcohol, CHO, protein, fat)

Autoregulation perfect of alcohol, excellent of protein and carbs but poor of fat

Burn alcohol first-> shift rest into storage
Changes oxidation hierarchy
- Alcohol, CHO, protein automatic adjustment of oxidation to intake, fat is not
- Oxidation hierarchy leads to fat sparing

623
Q

Outline human body growth in relation to body weight

A

Human body will increase in weight twenty fold from a baby to an adult

All material in weight gain enters the human body as food and drink

Grossly abnormal diets will cause changes in body weight, configuration and composition

NB. Height 100 years ago limit related to energy intake, now possibly reach our genetic maximum

624
Q

How does body composition change through life?

A
BODY WEIGHT- increases
Fetus (20-25w)= 0.3
Full term baby= 3.5
Infant (1y)= 20
Adult man= 70
Obese man= 100
WATER (%)- decreases
Fetus (20-25w)= 88
Full term baby= 69
Infant (1y)= 62
Adult man= 60
Obese man= 47
PROTEIN (%)- increases slightly (until obese)
Fetus (20-25w)= 9.5
Full term baby= 12
Infant (1y)= 14
Adult man= 17
Obese man= 13
FAT (%)- increases
Fetus (20-25w)= 0.5
Full term baby= 16
Infant (1y)= 20
Adult man= 17
Obese man= 35
REMAINDER (%)- increases
Fetus (20-25w)= 2
Full term baby= 3
Infant (1y)= 4
Adult man= 6
Obese man= 7

Fetus doesn’t need fat because energy from mother

625
Q

What peripheral signals regulate appetite?

A

Ghrelin
PYY
Leptin

626
Q

What happens when lead body mass (LBM) is lost?

A

10%= impaired immunity, increased infection (10% mortality)

20%= decreased healing, weakness, infection (30% mortality)

30%= too weak to sit, pressure sores, pneumonia, no healing (50% mortality)

40%= death, usually from pneumonia (100% mortality)

627
Q

What are the effects of severe childhood malnutrition?

A

Delays in chemical maturation

Can effect IQ

628
Q

What are the major causes of under nutrition in the developing world?

A
Politics
Climate
Poor water
Poor agricultural policy
Demand of the developed world
Food security will become the biggest public health issue in the coming years
629
Q

What are the major causes of under nutrition in the developed world?

A

Age

Change in social circumstances

  • Isolation
  • Death of a partner
  • Poor housing

Illness

10% of free living elderly people are under nourished to a degree where their function is effected

630
Q

What would happen after 44 days of no food?

A

David Blaine-> 30% body weight lost

Ketones begin to supply energy to brain, muscle supplies amino acids for glucose

Body begins energy conservation measures

Some brain cells are still dependent on glucose, so a little gluconeogenesis occurs from protein catabolism

631
Q

What are the signs of undernutrition?

A
Weight loss
Loss of subcutaneous fat (loose skin on extremities)
Muscle wasting
Peripheral oedema (no cardiac disease)
Glossitis, cracking edges of mouth
Hair loss
Chronic infections
Poor wound healing, chronic wounds, pressure sores
Listless, apathetic
Recurrent pulmonary infections
632
Q

What does energy restriction/starvation lead to?

A

Reduction in RMR

1.
Response to negative energy balance
- Hormonal events
- Decreased insulin
- Decreased T4-> T3= decreased T3
- Glucagon
- GH
  • >
  • Substrate mobilisation
  • FFA and AAs

-> PASSIVE (weight loss and change in body composition)

2.
Response to reduced energy flux
- Decreased SNS activity and catecholamines

  • >
  • Decreased metabolic flux
  • Decreased energy expenditure

-> ACTIVE (decrease in metabolic activity of FFM)

633
Q

During a short fast, how is fuel utilisation changed?

A

No change in brain

Gut and liver have 33% loss of weight

Some (5% ) loss in muscle and fat

634
Q

During a short fast, how is fuel utilisation changed?

A

No change in brain

Gut and liver still have 33% loss of weight

Large (50% ) loss in muscle and fat (to protect brain)

635
Q

What are two examples of undernutrition diseases?

A

Kwashiokor

Marasmus

636
Q

What is Marasmus?

A

Disease of under nutrition

General energy deficit
Growth failure
No oedema
Uncommon to be mental changes
Good appetite
637
Q

What is Kwashiokor?

A

Disease of under nutrition

Relative protein deficit
Growth failure
Oedema (looks pregnant)
Mental changes
Poor appetite
638
Q

What is thiamine?

A

Thiamine= vitamine B1

Thiamine occurs in the human body as free thiamine and as various phosphorylated forms

Thiamine monophosphate (TMP)
Thiamine triphosphate (TTP)
Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)

Critical for release and utilisation of energy from food and nerve function

Occurs naturally in unrefined cereals and fresh foods, particularly whole grain bread, fresh meat, legumes, green vegetables, fruit, and milk

639
Q

What happens in vitamin B1 deficiency?

A

Beriberi

Nervous system ailment caused by a deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) in the diet

Thiamine is involved in the breakdown of energy molecules such as glucose, and is also found on the membranes of neurones

SYMPTOMS
Include severe lethargy and fatigue
Complications affecting the cardiovascular, nervous, muscular, and gastrointestinal systems

640
Q

What does beriberi often result from?

A

Chronic alcoholics with an inadequate diet (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome)

Gastric bypass surgery

People with diets mainly consisting of polished white rice (low thiamine because thiamine-bearing husk removed)

641
Q

What is niacin?

A

Vitamin B3 (synthesised from troptophan)

Nicotinamide is the derivative of niacin and used by the body to form the coenzymes nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP)

200 enzymes require the niacin coenzymes

642
Q

What happens when there is a deficiency of Niacin?

A

Pellagra

Thought initially to be an infectious disease as it swept though Europe and the Far East

Noted it appeared as staple crop was replaced by maize

Not in Mexico because maize was softened with lime-> made niacin bio- available

643
Q

What are energy intake and expenditure made up of?

A

INTAKE
Protein
Fat
Carbohydrates

EXPENDITURE
Physical activity
Thermogenesis
REE= resting energy expenditure (>2/3 of expenditure)

644
Q

What is the difference between the typical western diet and ideal diet?

A

Too much fat, lower carbs

Protein roughly ok but slightly too low

645
Q

What is the relationship between lean body mass (FFM) and resting energy expenditure (REE)?

A

FFM is proportional to REE

646
Q

How is obesity defined?

A

Weight
Morbidity and mortality
BMI (varies by ethnicity)
Waist to hip ratio (central obesity)

647
Q

Where is the UK in the ranking of global obesity?

A

About 6th in world (1/4 of population are obese)

USA= most
Japan= least

Rising

648
Q

What value does the waist:hip ratio?

A
Central obesity (ratio taken of waist circumference and hip circumference)
High= at risk of metabolic syndrome of obesity
649
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

Combination of various conditions which-> more risk of CVD and increasing mortality

1 part is obesity (waist circumference M>102cm, F>88cm)

Also:
Hypertension (135/80)
HDL (M6mmol/l)

650
Q

What are the causes of obesity?

A
ENERGY INTAKE
Energy per person of food sold fairly constant
Increase in fast food outlets
Too much fat, not enough carbs
Diet composition and weight gain
Little ability to store protein and CHO
Autoregulation following fat ingestion difficult
Satiety complex endocrine regulation

ENERGY USAGE
Big reduction in energy expenditure over recent years.
Difficult to quantify
Amish community studies

GENES
Most obesity not monogenic
The amount and site of weight gain is in part genetic
Chronic overfeeding in identical twins is associated with better intra-twin than inter-twin correlation of amount and site of gain
NB. Obesity genes

BRAIN & ENDOCRINOLOGY
Important physiological role in postprandial satiety and represent therapeutic targets

BEHAVIOUR & CULTURE
Individual behaviour and societal changes have contributed to obesity

651
Q

How in energy (or fat) homeostasis maintained?

A

PPY, Ghrelin and Leptin into hypothalamus
(White adipose tissue-> leptin)

Hypothalamus

  • > Energy expenditure AND satienty and intake (insulin)
  • > White adipose tissue
652
Q

How can obesity be managed?

A

Lifestyle diet and exercise
Pharmacological
Bariatric surgery

653
Q

What are the benefits of weight loss?

A
Psychological benefit
PCOS and fertility better
Oesophagitis (imporved reflux)
CHD risk improved
Osteoarthritis (better mobility)
Liver function improved
DIABETES (10% weight loss)
Mortality 20% decrease
Glycaemic control better
Blood pressure
Cholesterol levels improve
654
Q

How can obesity be managed?

A

Lifestyle= diet and exercise (needs supervision to work long term)
Pharmacological
Bariatric surgery

Government should do more

655
Q

What are current and possible future medical therapies for obesity?

A

Orlistat= prevents absorption of fat (works on lipase enzyme)-> diarrhoea and fatty stool

FUTURE
Contrave (naltrexone/ buproprione)
Oral GLP-1

656
Q

What are possible bariatric surgery procedures?

A

Adjustable band
Sleeve gastrectomy
Gastric bypass (shouldn’t need diabetes meds anymore)

657
Q

What happens to glycaemic control after bariatric surgery?

A

Improved glycaemic control

Occurs immediately after the gastric bypass
Change in insulin resistance
Change in insulin secretion
Changes in gut microbiota

Changes in bile salt secretion

658
Q

How does bariatric surgery affect mortality and long-term cardiovascular events?

A

MORTALITY
Lower cumulative mortality 16 years of follow up than without surgery

CV EVENTS
Reduces number of total and fatal cardiovascular events

659
Q

What are the health benefits of bariatric surgery?

A

Resolution/improvement of T2DM
Resolution/improvement of hypertension
Improved lipid profile
Resulting in overall reduction in cardiac risk
Resolution of obstructive sleep apnoea
Resolution of PCOS and improved fertility
Reduced cancer related deaths
Regression of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Reduced mortality

660
Q

What are the criteria for bariatric surgery?

A

BMI >40 kg/m2 with no comorbidities

BMI > 35 kg/m2 with comorbidities

BMI 30-34.9kg/m2 with a short duration of type 2 diabetes

661
Q

What are the health benefits of bariatric surgery?

A

Sept 2010 report from the Office of Health Economics

Direct cost of obesity and related illnesses to the NHS is £4.3 billion a year

1.1 million patients are eligible according to NICE guidelines

If 25% had surgery the gain within 3 years would be £1.3 billion

662
Q

What is a duodenal-jejunal sleeve?

A

Endoscopically-delivered liner that creates a physical barrier between ingested food and the duodenum/ proximal jejunum

EndoBarrier liner prevents the interaction of food with enzymes and hormones in the proximal intestine. In effect, food bypasses the duodenum (without surgery)

Can be removed (bariatric surgery can’t be undone)

Weight loss and improved glycaemic control