Alimentary System Flashcards
(273 cards)
1
Q
What is the predominant disease of dogs and cats?
A
Neoplasia
2
Q
What is the predominant disease of horses?
A
Colic
3
Q
Normal oral or gastrointestinal mucosa should be?
A
Smooth and shiny
4
Q
T/F feces can be a window into the health of the alimentary tract?
A
True
5
Q
List four portals of Entry.
A
Ingestion, coughed up and swallowed, hematogenous, migration through the body.
6
Q
What is the most common portal of entry?
A
Ingestion
7
Q
What pathogen is commonly coughed up and swallowed?
A
Rhodococcus equi
8
Q
What is a common parasite that migrates through the body?
A
Spirocerca lupi
9
Q
What defense mechanisms does the alimentary tract have?
A
Saliva, flora, gastric pH, Igs, vomiting, enzymes, phagocytes, high epithelial turnover, increased peristalsis (diarrhea)
10
Q
What species commonly gets cleft palate?
A
Bovine (calves)
11
Q
What are the causes of cleft palate?
A
Genetics, toxins, teratogenic plants (lupines, poison hemlock), materinal exposure to drugs (mares and queens: griseofulvin, primates: steroids)
12
Q
What is cleft palate?
A
Defect in the midline fusion of the palatine shelves.
13
Q
What is the most common complication of cleft palate?
A
Aspiration pneumonia
14
Q
What is a common complication with malocclusions?
A
Difficulties with prehension and mastication
15
Q
What is this called?
A
Cheiloschisis or harelip
16
Q
What is cheiloschisis?
A
Harelip
17
Q
What is brachygnathia?
A
Shorter lower jaw (overbite).
18
Q
What is prognathia?
A
Protrustion of the lower jaw (underbite).
19
Q
Name the layers of the crown of the tooth.
A
Enamel, dentin, pulp.
20
Q
Name the layers of the root of the tooth.
A
Cementum, dentin, pulp.
21
Q
What is dental atrition?
A
Loss of tooth structure due to mastication/chewing.
22
Q
“Step mouth is most common in…?
A
Herbivores
23
Q
What is dental plague?
A
Bacterial film
24
Q
What is dental calculus?
A
Mineralized dental plaque.
25
T/F: Valvular endocarditis can be caused by periodontal disease?
True, bacteria follow hematogenous spread and can end up in the heart.
26
Primary diseases of the tongue are rare except for...?
Actinobacillosis (*Actinobacillus lignieresii*)
27
What causes "wooden tongue"?
*Actinobacillus lignieresii*
28
What do you often see clinically in "wooden tongue"?
Pyogranulomatous glossitis and sometimes involvement of the cheeks and other soft tissues of the mouth.
29
Gross signs of "wooden tongue" includes..?
Tongue sticking out, nodules (represent the pygranulomatous inflammation).
30
What is the etiologic agent of thrush?
Candida spp. (especially *C. albicans*)
31
What is a common cause of thrush?
Treatment with antibiotics for long periods of time.
32
What is a characteristic appearance of thrush?
A yellowish membrane and yeast and hyphae under the microscope.
33
What causes lingual lesions?
Systemic diseases (eg. renal disease, BVD, FMD)
34
What is shown here?
Ulcerative and necrotizing glossitis (due to uremia).
35
List 5 causes of stomatitis.
Infectious agents, trauma, chemical injury, auto-immune, idiopathic.
36
What type of stomatitis are cats most likely to develop?
Lymphoplasmacytic gingivitis.
37
What do cats that have lymphoplasmacytic gingivitis often also have?
FeLV or FIV
38
What does feline chronic gingico-stomatitis (FCGS) look like?
Oral pain, dysphagia, ptyalism (excessive salivation) and weight loss.
39
What causes feline cronic gingivo-stomatitis?
Etiology is unclear, dental plaque, FCV and immune-mediated appear to be involved. It's also commo in FIV cats.
40
Who most commonly gets chronic ulcerative (lympho-plasmacytic) paradental stomatitis?
Older dogs.
41
What is chronic ulcerative paradental stomatitis?
Gingival inflammatino (related to plaque) and ulceration of oral mucosa.
42
What is a vesicle?
Raised lesion up to 1cm, filled with serous fluid.
43
What is a bulla?
A raised lesion larger than 1 cm, filled with serous fluid.
44
What can be ruled out by seeing vesicles in the oral cavity of dogs and cats?
Immune-mediated diseases. In cats, often result of calicivirus.
45
What can be ruled out with vesicles in the oral cavity of large animals?
Major viral diseases that cause economic loss.
46
What is the pathogenesis of vesicular stomatitides?
Viral induced epithelial damage \> intracellular edema (balooning degeneration) \> vesicles \> bullae \> rupture \> erosion and ulceration.
47
What is this?
Vasicular glossitis.
48
What does FMD (Picronavirus) affect?
Cloven-hoofed animals (ruminants and pigs). NO HORSES
49
What does vesicular stomatitis (VS, Rhabdovirus) affect?
Ruminants, pigs and horses.
Note: Not as bad as FMD, but still have to notify authorities.
50
What does vesicular exanthema of swin (VES, Calicivirus) affect?
Only pigs.
51
What does swine vesicular disease (SVD, Enterovirus) affect?
Only pigs.
52
Is FMD an exotic disease?
Yes.
53
T/F: FMD is highly contagious with high morbidity and high mortality.
False, FMD is highly contagious with high morbidity and LOW mortality.
54
How is FMD acquired?
Ingesting/inhalation.
55
Where do FMD lesions develop?
In areas subjected to mchanical injury.
56
What are the clinical signs of FMD?
Excessive drooling (ptyalism) and lameness.
57
What are these pictures of?
FMD
58
What is a common finding (and NAVLE question) in young animals with FMD?
"Tiger heart"/myocardial necrosis
59
What are the two erosive-ulcerative stomatitides?
BVD in cattle and malignant catarrhal fever.
60
What are papular stomatities?
Proliferative lesions with coin-shaped papules and ulcers.
61
What causes papular stomatitis?
Parapoxvirus (closely related to pseudocowpox).
62
What does contagious ecthyma (orf) cause?
Loss of conditino becasue animals neither suckle nor graze (sore mouth). High morbidity, low mortality.
63
What is contagious ecthyma most common in?
Lambs and goats 3-6 months of age.
64
Where do you see contagious ecthyma lesions?
Lesions develop in sites of trauma.
65
T/F: Contagious ecthyma is not zoonotic?
False.
66
What causes oral necrobacillosis?
Fusobacterium necrophorum.
67
What clinical signs do you see with necrotizing stomatitis?
Characteristic grey-ish caseous necrosis. Nothing else causes this much necrosis.
68
What is this?
Necrotizing stomatitis.
69
What is another name for oral necrobacillosis in the calf?
Calf diptheria.
70
What is a common sequelae of oral necrobacillosis?
Animals can aspirate necrotic tissue.
71
What is a feline eosinophilic granuloma?
An ulcerative and granulomatous lesion anywhere in the oral cavity.
72
What does feline eosinophilic granuloma complex include?
Eosinophilic granulomas, labial and rodent ulcers.
73
What is this?
Eosinophilic granuloma.
74
What causes eosinophilic ulcers?
Most likely immune mediated exposure.
75
What is this?
Eosinophilic ulcer.
76
What is an eosinophilic granuloma?
A proliferative lesion, with granulomatous inflammation with a high number of eosinophils.
77
T/F: Eosinophilic granulomas respond to glucocorticoid therapy.
True.
78
Who is most likely to get gingival hyperplasia?
Mostly dogs, especially brachycephailc breeds. Major in boxers.
79
What is an epulis?
Tumors of periodontal ligament-type stroma.
NOTE: Still controversial if true neoplasm or not.
80
What are fibromatous and ossifying epulis?
Benign tumors. The two look similar, but ossifying may have osseous metaplasia.
81
What is an acanthomatous ameloblastoma?
Locally agressive apulis, can often recur.
82
Describe canine oral papillomatosis?
A transmissible papovavirus-induced papilliform or caulliflower-type lesions. They regress spontaneously and immunity is long lasting.
83
Who is most often affected by canine oral papillomatosis?
Animals younger than 1 year-old.
84
Describe an oral papilloma.
Thick keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a pedunculate connective tissue core.
85
In what species is an oral melanoma most common?
Dogs
86
Approximately what percentage of oral melanomas in dogs are malignant?
90%
87
What are predisposing factors to oral melanoma?
Smaller breeds and oral pigmentation.
88
What is the most common location for an oral squamous cell carcinoma?
The tongue, can also arise from tonsils.
89
What route would a squamouscell carcinoma metastasize?
Lymph.
Remember: Sarcomas tend to go hematogenous first, carcinomas go lymph.
90
What causese congenital megaesophagus?
Persistent right aortic arch
91
What breed is predisposed to persistent right arotic arch?
German shepherds
92
What age group will you see persistent right aortic arch in?
Young dogs (remember, PRAA causes CONGENITAL megaesophagus).
93
What clinical signs will you see with congenital megaesophagus?
Weight loss, regurgitation and retching.
94
What is a common cause of death for animals with congenital megaesophagus?
Aspiration pneumonia.
95
What is this?
Congenital megaesophaguse due to persisten right aortic arch.
96
What can acquired megaesophagus be a manifestation of?
Myasthenia gravis.
97
What is a common cause of death with acquired megaesophagus?
Aspiration pneumonia.
98
What is choke?
Foreign material completely obstructs the lumen of the esophagus, compression necrosis can be seen.
99
What are two common locations for choke to occur?
Dorsal to the larynx and in the thoracic inlet.
100
What will you see with an animal that has choke?
Can't eat, drink or eructate (bloat!!), see retching, hypersalivation (ptyalism), and regurgitation (if the blockage is in the thoracic inlet and ingesta can get that far)
101
What do you see on necropsy in cases with acid reflux?
Linear ulceration of the esophageal mucous membrane.
102
What is a common cause of ulcerative erosions in the esophagus?
BVD
103
What do you see on necropsy with ulcerative erosion of the esophagus?
Small, oval-shaped ulcers.
104
What is parasitic esophagitis?
Chronic, granulomatous esophagitis caused by *Spirocerca lupi*.
105
What else can you see with parasitic esophagitis?
Tumour development (osteous and fibrous).
106
What clinical signs will you see with parasitic esophagitis?
Dysphagia, painful swallowing, etc.
107
What is rumenal tympany?
Bloat
108
What is the cause of primary rumenal tympany?
New diets (usually high in CHO) that promote formation of stable foam.
109
What causes secondary rumenal tympany?
Physical or functinoal obstruction of the esophagus resulting in failure to eructate.
110
How does bloat cause fatality?
Rumen compresses the diaphragm causing cardiovascular collapse and death.
111
How can you tell in necropsy if the bloat was pre- or post-mortem?
Check rumenal contents for bubbles, and check rumen pH (too much CHO will decrease the pH).
112
What is the most reliable post-morten indicator of ante-mortem bloat?
Bloat line in the esophagus at the thoracic inlet.
113
What is this?
A bloat line
114
What is a common name for traumatic reticulitis?
"Hardware disease"
115
What is common to see as a complication of hardware disease?
Chronic pericarditis.
116
What causes chemical rumenitis?
Feed with high grain or CHO which causes lactic acidosis.
117
What are "stellate ulcers"?
Rumenal scars, likely from a bout of chemical rumenitis that has healed.
118
What is a common sequel to chemical rumenitis?
Mycotic rumenitis.
119
What species do you see GDV in?
Dogs and swine?
120
What organ is also often involved in a GDV?
The spleen
121
When are you most likely to see GDV in swine?
After excessive feed and water intake, followed by physical activity in a competitive group situation.
122
What clinical signs will you see with a dog that had a GDV?
Abdominal distension, non-rpoductive retching, hypersalivation, restlessness.
123
What is this?
GDV
124
What cattle are most susceptible to DA?
Post-parturient dairy cows and calves
125
What side is the most common displacement for an abomasum?
Left side.
126
T/F: LDA is fatal.
False, LDA is generally non-fatal.
127
What do 20% of RDA result in?
Abomasal volvulus.
128
What clinical signs will you see with a displaced abomasum?
adbominal pain, elevated heart rate, anorexia, dehydration, depressed peristalsis with lack of feces and abomasal tympany.
129
What can be done to prevent a displaced abomasum in prone animals?
Gastropexy
130
What species is most likely to have gastric impaction/rupture?
Horses
131
What causes gastric impaction/rupture?
Intestinal obstructions (ileus) leading to an adynamic (paralytic) or mechanical ileus.
132
How can you tell if a gastric rupture is post-mortem?
You won't see evidence of hemorrhage if it's post-mortem.
133
What is seen in pigs that are fed finely ground rations?
Gastric ulceration.
134
What is this?
Gastric ulcers.
135
What can cause gastric ulcers in a horse?
NSAIDs, because they decrease prostaglandin production which is important for the perfusion and protection of the gastric mucosa.
136
T/F: Most gastric ulcers in dogs and cats are idiopathic?
True.
137
What lesion in small animals can lead to gastric ulcers?
Mast Cell tumors. Histamine binds the receptors on parietal cells increasing HCL.
138
What stain is used for mast cells?
Toluene blue.
139
What are two major causes of gastric inflammation?
E. coli and Salmonella.
140
What is another major cause of gastric inflammation?
Urea (uremic gastritis, will feel gritty upon sectioning).
141
What is characteristic of uremic gastritis, and renal disease?
White-ish discolouration and mineralization of the lamina propria.
142
What is a common name for abomasal gastritis?
Braxy or Bradsot
143
What causes Braxy?
C. septicum
144
When does Braxy commonly happen?
In the winter, it's associated with feeding frozen feed.
145
How does the abomasum appear with Braxy?
Red, swollen tissue with mucus and some fibrin. Also will notice gasses in the tissue due to the Clostriddium (feels like crepitus).
146
What is this?
Abomasitis, Bacterial Gastritis, Braxy or Bradsot
147
What is a cause of mycotic abomasitus?
A sequel of long-term Ab use.
Causes death of resident flora and allows angio-invasive fungi to grow.
148
What do you commonly see causing mycotic abomasitis?
Aspergillus, Absidia, Rhizopus, Mucor spp.
149
What is this?
Mycotic abomasitis.
150
What can result from mycotic abomasitis?
Mycotic vasculitis/perivasculitis. Fungi invade the tissues and enther the blood vessels. Can result in vasculitis and thrombosis.
151
What is this?
Mycotic vasculitis.
152
What is a common cause of parasitic gastritis?
Gasteropilus nasalis and intestinalis.
153
What do bots do to the lining of the stomach?
Create erosion and ulceration.
154
What is this?
Erosive-ulcerative lesions caused by G. intestinalis.
155
What will you see with gastritis due to Ostertagia spp.?
Proliferative abomasitis with a moroccan leather appearance of affected mucosa.
156
What do you see in cases of Draschia megastoma infestations in horses?
Brood poud cloes to margo plicatus and a granulomatous gastritis.
157
What is a common sign of Haemonchus contortus in sheep?
Bottle jaw, anemia nad hypoproteinemia due to the parasitic abomasitis.
158
What is a common gastric neoplasia of horses?
Gastric carcinomas.
159
Where do gastric carcinomas in horses usually occur?
In the esophageal portion of the stomach.
160
What else can a gastric carcinoma in a horse cause?
Can cause peritoneal carcinomatosis.
161
What is this?
Peritoneal carcinomatosis.
162
What do you see in cases of gastric lymphoma in a horse?
Nodules in the stomach, not confined to the margo plicatus (tells you that it's not megastoma, plus no parasites present).
163
What will you see in a case of lymphosarcoma in a cow?
Thickened, nodular abomasal folds, and also ulceration. Cows may also have diarrhea with some melena present.
164
What is the most common segmental anomaly of the intesting of domestic animals?
Atresia coli
165
What is atresia coli?
Complete occlusion/obliteration of the intestinal luman.
166
What is atresia ani?
Lack of a perforation in the anus.
167
What is lethal white syndrome in foals?
Congenital colonic agangliosis.
168
What do you most commonly see lethal white syndrome in?
Completely white foals with blue eyes.
169
What breed is lethal white syndrome in foals most associated with?
American paint horses.
170
What is lethal white syndrome?
It's a lack of parasympathetic ganglie in the colon and cecum giving GI immotility. Foals start to develop colic because of the meconium in the cecum.
171
What do you see pathologically with lethal white foal syndrome?
Absence of myenteric and submucosal parasympathetic ganglia in the wall of the ileum, cecum and colon leading to intestinal immotility and colic.
172
What is an enterolith and what does it cause?
Mineral deposits around a nucleus that can cause a complete gastric obstruction.
173
What are the most common minerals that make up an enterolith?
Magnesium, ammonium phosphate (struvite).
174
What is the nucleus for enterolith formation?
A foreign body.
175
What is a trichobezoar?
A hair ball.
176
What large animal species most commonly get trichobezoars?
Cattle.
177
Where are trichobezoars usually found?
Forestomach and abomasum.
178
What is a phytobezoar/phytotrichobezoar?
Composed mostly of plant material impregnated with some phosphate salts. Can be found in horses.
179
What is this?
Ascarid impaction.
180
What is an acquired stenosis?
It's a stricture as a result of a penetrating wound. Lumen heals with scar tissue which decreases the lumen diameter.
181
What is rectal stricture in pigs most commonly associated with?
Salmonellosis.
182
What is a hernia?
Protrusion of an organ or part of an organ/tissue through an abnormal opening.
183
What are the 2 types of hernia?
Internal and external.
184
What is an internal hernia?
Displacement of intestine through a normal or abnormal foramina within the abdominal cavity (rare).
185
What is an external hernia?
Displacement of loops of intestinge, omentum and occasionally other viscera (hernial contents) outside the abdomenal cavity.
186
What is an eventration?
When the dispalced abdominal contents are not covered by parietal peritoneum or skin.
187
What is this?
An eventration.
188
What are two causes for the formation of a diaphragmatic hernia?
Trauma (eg. HBC) congenital.
189
What is this?
Scrotal hernia.
190
What can incarceration of a piece of small intesting lead to?
Venous infarction, sepsis and death.
191
What is this?
Torsion of the left colon.
192
What can happen to a colonic torsion during necropsy?
The torsion can come undone! Look for a line that indicates congestion.
193
How can you tell that a horse died from a colonic torsion, even if no torsion can be seen on necropsy?
Line of congestion.
194
What is this?
Line of congestion indicating colonic torsion.
195
What is this?
Intestinal volvulus.
196
What happened here?
Herniation of small intestine through the epiploic foramen (internal hernia).
197
T/F: A penduculated lipoma can cause intestinal strangulation.
True, the peduncle can wrap around the intestines because the peduncle can be very long.
198
What can happen with LARGE pedunculated lipomas?
You can see them twist around themselves and become necrotic mineraize.
199
What is an intussusception?
One piece of gut telescopes into another piece.
200
What is the most common direction of an intussusception?
Normally more cranial will telescope into the more caudal portion.
201
Which is the intussusceptum and which is the intussuscipiens?
A: intussuscipiens
B: intussusceptum
202
What is this?
Intussusception.
203
What are the 3 major causes for intestinal inflammatory diseases?
Viral, bacterial and parasitic.
204
What do you commonly see clinically in intestinal inflammation?
Diarrhea causing dehydration, acidosis, malabsorption, hypoproteinemia, and electrolyte imbalances.
205
What is the most diagnostic (and most sever form) of BVD?
Peyer's patch necrosis.
206
What lesions do you see associated with BVD?
Erosive ulcerative lesions anywhere in the oral cavity and intestinal tract plus Peyer's patch necrosis.
207
What is the most common age group to be affected by BVD?
6 months to two years of age.
208
What causes malignant catarrhal fever?
Gamma herpesvirus.
209
What type of lesions do you see in cases of malignant catarrhal fever?
Fibrino-necrotizing vasculitis.
210
What type of malignant catarrhal fever is present in the US?
tHe, "Shee-associated MCF"
211
What is a common cause of neonatal diarrhea in calves?
Coronavirus infections. Can be combines with Rotavirus or Cryptosporidium.
212
What other viruses can combine with coronavirus to cause neonatal diarrhea in calves?
Rotavirus or Cryptosporidium.
213
What sort of gut morphology do you see microscopically with transmissible-gastro-enteritis?
Severe villous atrophy and fusion.
214
What does rotavirus cause in young animals?
Diarrhea.
215
How does rotavirus cause diarrhea in young animals?
Damages the surface enterocytes causing variable degrees of villous atrophy.
216
What species often has subclinical infections of rotavirus?
Swine (piglets).
217
What can be seen in parvovirus enteritis?
Some cases have Peyer's patch necrosis like BVD cases.
218
In cats, what causes parvovirus enteritis?
Feline panleukopenia.
219
How can you get a firm diagnosis of parvovirus?
TEM with a fecal sample.
220
How does FIP often present?
In young cats with abdominal distention due to exudate into peritoneal space.
221
What can you see in the peritoneal space of a cat that has the wet form of FIP?
Commonly will see fibrin plaques all over the surface of the intestines.
222
What can you see on the kidney of a FIP cat that usually is a good sign that the cat actually has dry FIP?
Nodules that follow the blood vessels.
223
What is an important cause of enteritis in neonatal animals?
E. coli
224
What is enterotoxemic colibacillosis?
Edema disease in pigs.
225
What causes edema disease?
A bacterial enterotoxin that causes endothelial cell injury in arterioles resulting in fluid loss and edema.
226
What can you see in edema disease?
Focal, bilateral symmetric encephalomalacia and edema in the mesocolon (spiral colon).
227
Which type of Clostridium perfringens is the most common?
Type D
228
What animal group does Clostridium affect?
The best nourished animals.
229
What do you see in animals with C. perfringens.
Animals may be found dead, or may exhibit bloody diarrhea.
230
What does C. perfringens produce?
Angiotoxin.
231
What do you see in animals affected by C. perfringens?
Intestinal lesions and focal symmetrical encephalomalacia (FSE) in sheep.
232
What can you see microscopically with clostridial enteritis?
Necrotic villi lined by G+ bacilli, hypereosinophilia.
233
What diesase does Clostridium piliforme cause and what organs does it effect?
Tyzzer's disease, which targets the liver and causes lesions in the intestines (port of entry) and the heart.
234
What does Clostridium perfringens type A and Clostridium difficile cause?
Colitis X/Typhocolitis of horses.
235
What diseases can salmonellosis cause?
Enterocolitis to septicemia.
236
T/F: Salmonella is not a cause of zoonotic and nosocomial infection.
False, it IS a cause of zoonotic and nosocomial infection.
237
What are common findings with Salmonellosis?
Ulcerative and fibrino-necrotizing enterocolitis. Intestinal contents are malodorous and contain mucus, fibrin and occasionally blood. Feces has a "septic takn odor".
238
What is this?
Edema and hemorrhage due to Salmonellosis with fibrino-necrotizing entero-colitis.
239
What is a common sequel of Salmonellosis?
Embolic mycotic pneumonia.
240
What is this?
Embolic mycotic pneumonia.
241
What is this?
Embolic mycotic pneumonia.
242
What is this?
Button ulcers in a chronic salmonellosis case.
243
What disease is caused by Lawsonia intracellularis?
Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy (PPE)
244
What age group is most commonly associated with Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?
Weaner and grower pigs.
245
What can you see clinically with Lawsonia infections in pigs?
Proliferative ileitis, and necrotic enteritis.
246
What is this?
Proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy from L. intracellularis.
247
What stain can you use to confirm a diagnosis of Lawsonia intracellularis?
Silver stain.
248
What organism causes swine dysentery (spirochetal colitis)?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.
249
What age group does Brachyspira affect?
Pigs 8-14 weeks of age.
250
How is swine dysentry characterized?
Large bowel diarrhea with mucous and blood in the feces.
251
What does Rhodococcus equi cause in young horses?
Enterocolitis.
252
What type of lesions are seen with R. equi?
Suppurative pyogranulomatous pneumonia in foals and also enteric, ulcerative and pyogranulomatous lesions with prominent regional lymphadenitis.
253
What is this?
Pyogranulomatous colitis due to Rhodococcus equi.
254
What is this?
Pyogranulomatous colic lymphadenitis.
255
What is this?
Rhodococcus equi pneumonia.
256
What is Johne's disease?
Paratuberculosis.
BONUS POINT: Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis
257
What is Johne's disease?
A chronic disease of ruminants with diarrhea, emaciation and hypoproteinemia.
258
What age group does Johne's disease affect?
Animals older than 19 months.
259
What is this?
Granulomatous enteritis.
260
What is this?
Granulomatous lymphangitis with lymphangiectasia.
Note: the thickened lymphatic vessels which shows granulomatous lymphangitis, should be Johne's.
261
What dog breed can you commonly see granulomatous colitis in?
Boxers
262
T/F: You can commonly see lesions of granulomatous colitis on the serosal surface.
True.
263
What causes granulomatous colitis in Boxers?
Selective intramucosal colonization by specific strains of E. coli.
264
How can cryptosporisiosis be diagnosed?
By finding numerous protozoal organisms attached to the apical surface of enterocytes.
265
What is this?
Coccidial enteritis.
266
What is this?
Eimeria spp.
267
What blood sucking parasites cause anemia and hypoproteinemia?
Hookworm
268
What parasite causes "milk spotted livers"?
Ascaris suum.
269
What species are intestinal tumours most common in?
Dogs and cats.
270
What are most primary tumors?
Carcinomas.
271
Where do most lymphosarcomas arise from?
The intestines.
272
What are most cases of lymphosarcomas manifestations of?
Multicentric lymphosarcomas.
273
What is the most common neoplasm in cats?
Lymmphosarcoma, ailimentary form especially.
