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Gulfstream IV-SP > Alex's Study Guide > Flashcards

Alex's Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is VMO?
A

340 KCAS

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2
Q
  1. What is maximum MMO?
A

0.88 MT

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3
Q
  1. What is VA?
A

S/N 1000-1213 without ASC 190: 170 KCAS

S/N 1214 & subsequent, A/C with ASC190: 206 KCAS

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4
Q
  1. What is VMC?
A

VMCA – 104 KCAS, VMCG – 111 KCAS

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5
Q
  1. What is turbulence penetration speed?
A

270 KCAS/0.75 MT

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6
Q
  1. What is maximum ramp weight?
A

S/N 1000-1213 without ASC 190: 73,600 lbs.

S/N 1214 & subsequent, A/C with ASC190: 75,000 lbs.

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7
Q
  1. What is maximum takeoff weight?
A

S/N 1000-1213 without ASC 190: 73,200 lbs.

S/N 1214 & subsequent, A/C with ASC190: 74,600 lbs.

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8
Q
  1. What is maximum landing weight?
A

S/N 1000-1213 without ASC 190: 58,500 lbs.

S/N 1214 & subsequent, A/C with ASC190: 66,000 lbs.

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9
Q
  1. What is maximum zero fuel weight?
A

S/N 1000-1213 without ASC 190: 46,500 lbs.

S/N 1214 & subsequent, A/C with ASC190: 49,000 lbs.

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10
Q
  1. What is the maximum approved altitude for takeoff and landing?
A

15,000 feet

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11
Q
  1. What is the maximum approved slope for takeoff and landing?
A

+/- 2%

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12
Q
  1. What is the maximum approved tailwind (component) for takeoff and landing?
A

10 knots

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13
Q
  1. What is the maximum approved operating altitude?
A

45,000 feet

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14
Q
  1. What limitation is there on the use of landing lights?
A

Ground operation is limited to 5 minutes

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15
Q
  1. Other than the AFM, what 4 publications are required to be immediately available to the flight crew according to Section 1 of the AFM?
A

Honeywell SPZ-8000 (or SPZ-8400) DIFCS Manual, Honeywell FMS Manual, TCAS manual (if installed), (E)GPWS manual (if installed)

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16
Q
  1. What is the minimum altitude for autopilot engagement?
A

200’ AGL

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17
Q
  1. What is the minimum altitude for autopilot operation on approach?
A

50’ AGL (Unless VNAV is used then the minimum altitude for autopilot coupled IFR VNAV operations is 300’ AGL or 50’ below minimum descent altitude, whichever is higher.)

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18
Q
  1. What is the minimum altitude for autothrottle operation on approach?
A

50’ AGL

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19
Q
  1. When is the autothrottle not authorized for use during takeoff or go-around?
A

When wing anti-ice is used.

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20
Q
  1. What is the engine starter duty cycle?
A

30 secs. ON, 3 mins. OFF, 30 secs. ON, 3 mins. OFF, 30 secs. ON, 15 mins. OFF

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21
Q
  1. What is the duty cycle for airstart ignition?
A

S/N 1000-1249 without ASC 304: 30 secs. ON, 30 secs. OFF; or, 5 mins. ON, 30 mins. OFF
S/N 1250 & subsequent, A/C with ASC 304: Continuous operation

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22
Q
  1. What is the maximum engine fuel temperature?
A

90° C indefinitely, or 120° C for 15 minutes

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23
Q
  1. What is the minimum engine fuel temperature?
A

-40° C/F

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24
Q
  1. What is the maximum oil temperature?
A

105° C indefinitely, or 120° C for 15 minutes

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25
Q
  1. What is the minimum oil temperature for starting?
A

-40° C/F

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26
Q
  1. What is the minimum oil temperature for opening the power lever?
A

-30° C

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27
Q
  1. What is the limitation regarding the use of the engine synchronizer system?
A

The synch must be off for takeoff and landing.

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28
Q
  1. When do you need to cancel reverse thrust during landing?
A

Initiate cancellation of reverse thrust by 70 KCAS to achieve idle reverse thrust by normal taxi speed.

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29
Q
  1. What is the maximum APU EGT?
A

Start 0-60%: 988° C; 60%-100%: 821° C – 732° C; With bleed air selected: 680° C

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30
Q
  1. What is the maximum APU RPM?
A

110.0%

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31
Q
  1. What are the APU starter duty limits if starting on the airplane batteries?
A

3 – 30 second attempts, followed by 20 minutes off, followed by 3 more 30 second attempts, followed by 1 hour off.

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32
Q
  1. What are the APU starter duty limits if starting on an external power unit?
A

2 – 15 second attempts, followed by 20 minutes off, followed by 2 more 15 second attempts, followed by 1 hour off.

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33
Q
  1. What is the APU starter duty cycle if the starts are successful?
A

Successful consecutive starts are limited to 6 starts with 10 minute intervals between starts, then 1 hour off.

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34
Q
  1. What is the APU starting envelope?
A

From sea level to 15,000’ at airspeeds below 250 KCAS, the start is guaranteed.
From 15,000’ to 20,000’, start is possible.

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35
Q
  1. What limitation must be considered if the APU is operated above 30,000 feet?
A

An inspection is required if the APU is operated above 30,000 feet for more than one hour or more than 5 times.

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36
Q
  1. What is the allowable electrical load on the APU airborne?
A

S/N 1000-1155 without ASC 96: APU alternator can deliver 100% power from sea level to 22,000’. From 22,000’ to 30,000’ the limit decreases linearly to 50% power.
S/N 1156 and subsequent, aircraft with ASC 96: The APU alternator can deliver 100% power from sea level to 30,000’. From 30,000’ to 41,000’ the load decreases in steps to 50%.
Note: Do not operate these APU’s above 35,000’

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37
Q
  1. What limitations apply to the standby electrical system (ABEX)?
A

Minimum HP RPM is 67.0%
Speedbrakes may be used; however, operation should be slow (approx. 5 seconds for full range movement.)
Landing is approved if auto ground spoilers and thrust reversers are not used for landing.

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38
Q
  1. What limitation must be observed before pulling the flight power shutoff handle?
A

Speedbrakes must be retracted.

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39
Q
  1. What is VLE?
A

250 KCAS / 0.70 MT

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40
Q
  1. What is VLO?
A

Normal – 225 KCAS / 0.70 MT

Alternate – 175 KCAS

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41
Q
  1. What is maximum tire speed?
A

S/N 1000-1213 without ASC 190: 182 knots

S/N 1214 & subsequent, A/C with ASC190: 195 knots

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42
Q
  1. What is the maximum altitude with the landing gear extended?
A

20,000 feet

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43
Q
  1. When are speedbrakes not authorized?
A

When the flaps are at 39° or landing gear is extended.

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44
Q
  1. If a takeoff is made with ground spoilers inoperative what configuration must be used?
A

The anti-skid must be operative and flaps 20° must be used.

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45
Q
  1. If a takeoff is made with anti-skid inoperative what configuration must be used?
A

Ground spoilers must be operational and flaps 20° must be used.

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46
Q
  1. What two (2) CAS messages must be cleared before takeoff?
A

BRAKE FAIL (and BRAKE PEDAL - BBW only)

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47
Q
  1. What are the VFE speeds?
A

Flaps 10° – 250 KCAS / 0.60MT
Flaps 20° – 220 KCAS / 0.60MT
Flaps 39° – 170 KCAS / 0.60MT (S/N 1000-1213 without ASC 190)
Flaps 39° – 180 KCAS / 0.60MT (S/N 1214 & subsequent, A/C with ASC190)

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48
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed with both mach trim compensators inoperative or electric trim inoperative?
A

0.75 MT

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49
Q
  1. What speed considerations must be observed if the yaw damper fails in flight?
A

Above FL180 – 220 KCAS minimum

Below FL180 – See chart in AFM (Speed vs. Fuel Load)

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50
Q
  1. What limitations apply if both mach trim compensators and the yaw damper are inoperative?
A

Maximum altitude is 41,000 feet; speed limits for both apply.

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51
Q
  1. Are the mach trim compensators required to be on during flight?
A

YES

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52
Q
  1. Are the stall barrier computers required to be on during flight?
A

YES

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53
Q
  1. What is the maximum altitude at which you can operate with flaps 39?
A

20,000 feet

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54
Q
  1. What limitation applies if a takeoff is made with the yaw damper inoperative?
A

Maximum fuel load is 9,000 lbs.

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55
Q
  1. What bleed consideration must be observed above 41,000 feet?
A

Both engine bleeds must be on and each engine must be bled by either the air-conditioning system or engine cowl anti-ice.

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56
Q
  1. What is the maximum cabin differential?
A

9.8 PSID

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57
Q
  1. What is the maximum cabin differential permitted during taxi, takeoff and landing?
A

0.3 PSID

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58
Q
  1. What is the maximum windshield wiper speed?
A

200 KCAS

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59
Q
  1. When is cowl anti-ice required on the ground?
A

When the static air temp (SAT) is below 8° C and visible moisture, precipitation, or wet runway are present. Engine operation of 85% LP RPM for one minute is recommended just prior to takeoff and at intervals of not more than 60 minutes under these temperature and moisture conditions.

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60
Q
  1. When is wing anti-ice required?
A

When icing conditions are imminent or immediately upon detection of ice formation on wings, winglets, or windshield edges.

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61
Q
  1. What conditions must be met in order to turn off one boost pump while at cruise?
A

Fuel contains anti-icing additive, or, fuel tank temperature is above 0° C.

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62
Q
  1. What is the total usable fuel?
A

29,500 lbs.

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63
Q
  1. What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance?
A

It increases linearly from 400 lbs. at a gross weight of 60,500 lbs. to 2,000 lbs. at a gross weight of 55,000 lbs.

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64
Q
  1. If a thrust reverser deploys accidentally, what would happen to engine thrust?
A

Power on that engine is reduced to idle by a cable that automatically retards the respective power lever.

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65
Q
  1. What EVM indications are considered normal in icing conditions and otherwise?
A

In icing – 1.25; other times – 0.60

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66
Q
  1. When checking the engine oil, what precaution must be observed when reading the sight gage?
A

There are two tapes on either side of the sight gage, a red one for the left engine and a green one for the right engine.

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67
Q
  1. What 4 indications should be observed prior to opening the HP fuel cock during engine start?
A

Start Valve Open (SVO) light, ignition light (IGN), positive LP rotation, minimum of 15% HP RPM

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68
Q
  1. Which hydraulic systems power the thrust reversers?
A

Left – combined hydraulic system; Right – flight hydraulic system.

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69
Q
  1. During preflight what should you look for on the thrust reversers?
A

General condition, doors fully stowed, hydraulic leaks.

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70
Q
  1. If a flameout occurred and you are unable to close the HP fuel cock what would you suspect has happened?
A

Shaft separation

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71
Q
  1. Where do we tap customer bleed?
A

7th and 12th stages.

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72
Q
  1. Will the oil filter bypass?
A

YES

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73
Q
  1. Will the fuel filter bypass?
A

NO

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74
Q
  1. What is the minimum engine idle on the ground / airborne with flaps less than 22° / airborne with flaps at or greater than 22°? (Assuming no malfunctions.)
A

46.6% HP RPM / 46.6% HP RPM / 67.0 % HP RPM

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75
Q
  1. What do the colors on the engine instruments indicate?
A

Red – maximum and/or minimum; Amber – takeoff and caution; White – normal

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76
Q
  1. When do the standby engine instruments come on?
A

In auto, if a primary engine instrument fails; in manual, all the time.

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77
Q
  1. What engine parameters are displayed on the standby engine instruments?
A

All of the primary engine instruments. (Left side of DU3)

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78
Q
  1. What would you suspect if the APU master switch is turned on and the low oil pressure light did not come on?
A

The APU inlet door did not open.

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79
Q
  1. What is the APU used for on the ground? In the air?
A

Ground – electricity & air; Air – electricity only

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80
Q
  1. When shutting down the APU by using the overspeed/test switch, when should you turn off the APU master switch?
A

When the APU RPM is below 10%

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81
Q
  1. If an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs, where would you look to determine what caused the shutdown?
A

On the APU fault indicator panel in the tail compartment

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82
Q
  1. If a flag is in view on the APU fault panel what should be done before starting the APU?
A

Actuate the reset switch, and make a note of which flag was in view.

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83
Q
  1. From where does the APU receive it’s fuel?
A

From the left fuel ejector line.

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84
Q
  1. If the APU is started and for some reason it shuts down, and the decision is made to restart, what must be done with the APU cockpit controls prior to the restart?
A

The APU master switch must be turned off then back on.

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85
Q
  1. Once the APU is operating, how long should you wait before placing electrical loads on the APU? Pneumatic loads?
A

Electricity is available immediately; the APU should be operated for 1 minute before air is extracted.

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86
Q
  1. What is the correct configuration for APU shutdown?
A

Alternator – OFF, air – UNCHANGED, below 10% RPM – MASTER OFF

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87
Q
  1. When we shutdown the APU we press the overspeed/test switch. What does this actually do?
A

It simulates and overspeed of 114%,which causes the ECU to close the APU fuel valve.

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88
Q
  1. After the APU is operating, how would you turn on the alternator?
A

By selecting AUX PWR on.

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89
Q
  1. If the APU is operating and the AUX PWR switch is on, when both engine driven alternators are operating, will the APU OFF light be on?
A

NO

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90
Q
  1. What occurs automatically in the pneumatic system when you turn the APU air on?
A

The isolation valve opens

91
Q
  1. At what point do the fuel low level warning lights come on?
A

650 lbs. of fuel per hopper

92
Q
  1. If two boost pumps fail on the same side, how would you keep the fuel balanced?
A

By opening the intertank valve and using a sideslip

93
Q
  1. After start we check the fuel and oil temperatures. What are we checking and why?
A

We are checking to see that the two temperatures are similar to verify the fuel/oil heat exchanger is working.

94
Q
  1. How would you read the fuel tank temperature?
A

On the fuel page

95
Q
  1. Explain the fuel quantity test.
A

Place the toggle switch in ‘D’ and you will see all 8’s on the standby fuel quantity indicator; place the toggle switch to ‘T’ and the left and right fuel quantities will indicate 7,000 lbs. and the total will indicate 14,000 lbs.; EICAS displays will turn amber; low fuel level lights (amber) on the standby indicator will flash for 30 secs. then illuminate steadily.

96
Q
  1. What is the intertank valve used for?
A

To move fuel from one hopper to the other using a sideslip; pressure defueling.

97
Q
  1. What is the crossflow valve used for?
A

To move fuel from one hopper to the opposite engine by using a boost pump to pump it through the valve.

98
Q
  1. What is indicated if a L (or R) Main (or Alt) FUEL PRESS LOW (amber) is on the EICAS and the CB in the switch is illuminated?
A

The circuit breaker on the power distribution box has opened.

99
Q
  1. What two devices serve to keep the hoppers full?
A

Flapper valves and fuel ejectors

100
Q
  1. What items are powered from the battery tie bus?
A

APU starter and AUX hydraulic pump

101
Q
  1. How many alternators are installed on the aircraft?
A

4 (L/R engine driven alts, APU alt, ABEX)

102
Q
  1. From where do the battery chargers receive their power?
A

Left and Right Main AC buses

103
Q
  1. In normal operation, how many EPMP switches must be in AUTO?
104
Q
  1. What does the E-Inverter feed?
A

Essential AC bus (A)

105
Q
  1. What does the Standby Electrical Power system supply power to?
A

Essential DC & Essential AC busses

106
Q
  1. How should you turn on the Standby Electric Power system?
A

Standby Electric switch – ON; E-Inverter – ON; TRU – ON

107
Q
  1. If the Standby Electric Power system is in use and it comes off-line, how should you reinstate it?
A

Turn the Standby Electric switch off, then back on.

108
Q
  1. How would you read power on the Essential busses?
A

By selecting ESS on the volt/freq meter switch and read the outputs.

109
Q
  1. How would you read the left converter output?
A

By selecting LEFT on the volt/freq meter switch and read the outputs.

110
Q
  1. How would you read the load on the left converter?
A

By reading the % of load on the AC & DC loadmeters

111
Q
  1. What is the priority of the Main busses?
A

Left, Aux, Right

112
Q
  1. What is the priority of the Essential busses?
A

Left, Right, Battery/E-Inverter

113
Q
  1. What is the source of power for the Standby Electric system (ABEX)?
A

Combined hydraulic system

114
Q
  1. What type of fluid is used in the hydraulic system?
A

Approved Type-IV fluids (Skydrol)

115
Q
  1. What is normal hydraulic system pressure?
116
Q
  1. What is the proper pre-charge pressure on the hydraulic accumulators?
117
Q
  1. What components can the Auxiliary hydraulic system operate during landing?
A

Flaps, brakes (with anti-skid) and the ground spoiler servo signal

118
Q
  1. From where does the Utility system receive its fluid?
A

Combined system reservoir

119
Q
  1. What drives the Utility system pump?
A

Flight hydraulic system pressure

120
Q
  1. From where does the Auxiliary hydraulic system receive its fluid?
A

From a dedicated chamber within the Combined system reservoir

121
Q
  1. What drives the Auxiliary hydraulic pump?
A

An electric motor

122
Q
  1. How many hydraulic filters are equipped with differential pressure indicators (DPI)?
A

10 (Combined manifold (5), Flight manifold (3), Utility Hydraulic (right main wheel well) (1), Auxiliary Hydraulic (left main wheel well) (1))

123
Q
  1. How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?
A

A heat exchanger in each hopper; left – combined, right – flight.

124
Q
  1. What is the normal Flight system hydraulic quantity?
125
Q
  1. What is the normal Combined system hydraulic quantity?
A

FULL if the gear is down; about ½ way between FULL and ADD if the gear is up.

126
Q
  1. If the Utility pump is armed, when will it come on?
A

If Flight system pressure is normal (3000 PSI), Flight system fluid is not overheated (<220° F / 104° C) and Combined system pressure is less than 800 PSI.

127
Q
  1. When will the Auxiliary pump come on?
A

AUX pump ON/OFF switch, Inside door switch, brake application assuming the pump is armed and there is an absence of Combined/Utility pressure, Outside door switch, Ground Service Valve

128
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the nutcracker system?
A

To provide an air/ground signal to various systems within the aircraft.

129
Q
  1. If the nutcrackers fail their test while airborne, what precaution should be observed?
A

Do not arm the ground spoilers.

130
Q
  1. If we press the nutcracker test switch and both lights come on, what does this indicate?
A

Both main gear nutcrackers are in the airborne (or flight) mode.

131
Q
  1. If one main gear nutcracker is in flight and the other is in ground, where do the systems that rely on this information think that they are?
132
Q
  1. What does pulling the emergency gear handle (T-handle) do?
A

It positions the dump valves (to port fluid to return, if there is any) and supplies a Nitrogen charge to the landing gear to extend.

133
Q
  1. What does pulling the handle (D-ring) adjacent to the co-pilot’s right leg do?
A

Resets the dump valves in the landing gear system so that it can operate normally.

134
Q
  1. What does the red light in the landing gear handle indicate?
A

Handle up – one or more landing gear doors are not closed

Handle down – one or more landing gear is not down and locked

135
Q
  1. If we do an emergency extension and all three landing gear come down and lock what will be the indication in the cockpit?
A

Three green lights on and the red handle light out.

136
Q
  1. With respect to the landing gear, what precaution should be taken before towing the aircraft?
A

The nose scissors should be disconnected.

137
Q
  1. What two methods can we use to steer the nosewheel?
A

The handwheel (tiller) and the rudder pedals.

138
Q
  1. There is a guarded toggle switch in front of the handwheel. What does it do?
A

Turns off steering at the rudders and the handwheel.

139
Q
  1. On some airplanes, there is a switch aft of the handwheel labeled “Normal” and “Handwheel Only”. If it is in the “Handwheel Only” position, what has been done?
A

The rudder pedal steering has been turned off.

140
Q
  1. If you move the landing gear control handle you reposition the landing gear control valve. Is this done electrically or mechanically?
A

Mechanically

141
Q
  1. What is the proper brake accumulator pre-charge pressure?
142
Q
  1. If we land with the airplane at 1200 PSI on the brake system pressure gauge and normal brakes fail, will the emergency brakes (through the parking brake) be available?
A

NO. The accumulator has to be charged with hydraulic fluid.

143
Q
  1. How do we set the parking brake?
A

Pull the parking brake handle fully up and turn ¼ turn clockwise.
Pressurize the system to 3000 PSI using the Auxiliary hydraulic pump.

144
Q
  1. If we use the parking brake to stop the airplane during landing, will we have anti-skid?
145
Q
  1. Are brakes automatically applied during retraction?
146
Q
  1. On SPZ-8000 airplanes that are equipped with BTMS, if we move the brake temperature monitor system selector switch to the ‘ALL’ position, what temperature is being displayed?
A

The hottest brake.

147
Q
  1. How do we determine the hottest brake on the SPZ-8400 system?
A

Pull up the brake page and the hottest brake is displayed at the bottom of the page.

148
Q
  1. When we do a brake BITE check, we generate 4 messages (BBW) or 3 messages (HMAB), then the brake ECU does the BITE check. What is an indication of a successful check?
A

All of the messages go away.

149
Q
  1. Which of the flight controls have trim tabs?
A

Both elevators and the left aileron.

150
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed for operation of the speedbrakes?
151
Q
  1. What does the RUDDER LIMIT message mean?
A

Further displacement of the rudder pedal will not displaced the rudder.

152
Q
  1. What does the Emergency Flap Handle do?
A

It mechanically repositions the flap selector valve, which will move the flaps if hydraulic pressure is available to the valve.

153
Q
  1. What feature of the airplane reduces control forces during flap movement?
A

Automatic repositioning of the horizontal stabilizer.

154
Q
  1. What precaution should be observed prior to engaging the gust lock?
A

Make sure all hydraulic pressure has been bled from the system.

155
Q
  1. How is the rudder trimmed?
A

By repositioning the rudder itself (through the use of the rudder trim wheel).

156
Q
  1. If we are in flight with speedbrakes retracted and apply left aileron, which spoilers will come up?
A

The outboard two on the left wing.

157
Q
  1. Assuming both computers are working normally, how many stall barrier computers are required to give us a stick shaker? Pusher?
A

Shaker – one; pusher – two.

158
Q
  1. What is the rudder limiter for?
A

To limit the amount of rudder deflection based on airspeed.

159
Q
  1. What does the “No Ground Spoilers” light on the windshield post mean?
A

It means that all of the conditions for deployment have been met and the ground spoilers did not deploy.

160
Q
  1. What does the red GROUND SPOILER EICAS message mean?
A

The primary control valve has opened and the ground spoilers may or may not have deployed.

161
Q
  1. What is bleed air used for?
A

Engine start, wing anti-ice, cowl anti-ice, air conditioning, pressurization, door seals and TAT probe.

162
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
A

To separate the left and right sides of the bleed manifold.

163
Q
  1. Name the 4 ways to open the isolation valve.
A

By pressing the isolation valve switchlight, turning on APU bleed air, pressing the Start Master switch and pressing the Crank Master switch.

164
Q
  1. How are the outflow valves controlled?
A

The normal outflow valve is normally operated by an AC motor, although a DC motor will reposition the valve if manual pressurization is selected.
The safety outflow valve is normally closed; however, it will begin to open if pressure differential reaches 9.8 PSID.

165
Q
  1. What function does the FLIGHT/LANDING switch serve?
A

In the FLIGHT position it gives control to the Flight tape on the pressurization controller (unless the landing field elevation is higher). In the LANDING position it gives control to the Landing tape on the pressurization controller.

166
Q
  1. What prevents us from using the APU to pressurize the aircraft while airborne?
A

The nutcracker system closes the APU bleed valve while airborne.

167
Q
  1. What is the minimum pressure that cowl anti-ice is effective?
A

S/N 1000-1059 with ASC 51A; S/N 1060-1189: 8 to 10 PSI

S/N 1190 and subsequent: 3 to 5 PSI

168
Q
  1. What does a wing warm light mean?
A

That the wing is warm enough to prevent ice from forming.

169
Q
  1. What does a WING HOT message mean?
A

The wing is too hot.

170
Q
  1. What would happen if one wing anti-ice valve failed closed when we selected wing anti-ice on?
A

Both wings would be heated by the other valve and the crossover duct.

171
Q
  1. Where is the cowl anti-ice exhausted?
A

Into the engine air inlet

172
Q
  1. With respect to ice and rain protection, what precaution should be observed if a MAIN AC bus momentarily loses power?
A

The windshield heat switches should be cycled off, wait 2 seconds, then back on to prevent a windshield heat controller from running away.

173
Q
  1. What protects the fan nose cone from icing?
A

The nose cone has a rubber tip on it. If ice forms it will tend to vibrate, thereby shedding ice.

174
Q
  1. What is the proper pre-charge pressure for a fire bottle?
A

600-625 PSI

175
Q
  1. Which bus powers the engine and APU fire extinguishing systems?
A

Essential DC

176
Q
  1. What takes place if a fire handle is pulled?
A 
Fuel shutoff valves close
Hydraulic shutoff valves close
Thrust reverser is disabled
Alternator is tripped
Both fire bottles are armed to discharge into the respective engine
177
Q
  1. Will a fire warning automatically bring up a checklist?
A

S/N 1000-1143 without ASC 178 – NO

S/N 1144 and subsequent, aircraft with ASC 178 – YES

178
Q
  1. How many fire bottles are installed?
179
Q
  1. How many engine fire bottles are installed?
180
Q
  1. Normally, how many fire loops are necessary to trigger an engine fire warning?
181
Q
  1. If a fire loop has a fault, can the engine it is installed on still have a fire warning?
A

Yes. When the fault occurs the ENG FLT LOOP ALERT message will appear. By pressing the lighted button, the fire warning for that engine is configured to produce if only one (1) loop registers the fire.

182
Q
  1. If there is no fire warning, what must be done in order to pull the fire handle?
A

Press the button below the handle.

183
Q
  1. If the oxygen mask flow selector is set to normal, what will be delivered to the mask?
A

Diluted oxygen in a decreasing ratio to about 35,000 feet. Above roughly 35,000 feet you will receive 100% oxygen.

184
Q
  1. If the passenger oxygen control is set to automatic, the passenger oxygen masks should deploy if the cabin altitude gets high enough. What should be done if this does not take place?
A

Place the passenger oxygen control to manual.

185
Q
  1. How do we shut off the oxygen flow to the crew oxygen masks after it is no longer needed?
A

Push the reset/test bar forward.

186
Q
  1. When using the crew oxygen mask, what two ways are there to receive oxygen under positive pressure?
A

By rotating the selector knob to Emergency, or automatically between 36,000’ and 45,000’.

187
Q
  1. There are two oxygen pressure gauges on the oxygen control panel. If both of those gauges indicate an adequate supply of oxygen, can we expect to receive oxygen if needed?
A

Not necessarily; the gauges will indicate bottle pressure even if the supply switches are off.

188
Q
  1. If the crew oxygen masks are needed how would we verify that we are receiving oxygen?
A

By observing the flow indicator in the forward right corner of the stowage box. (Yellow and black ‘+’ sign)

189
Q
  1. What communications equipment will be available if the Emergency batteries are the only source of power?
A

No. 1 VHF Comm. radio

190
Q
  1. What communications equipment will be available if the Standby Electrical system (ABEX) is used?
A

No. 1 VHF Comm. radio

191
Q
  1. On the audio panel, what does the MASK button do?
A

It enables the oxygen mask microphone

192
Q
  1. On the audio panel, what does the HMIKE button do?
A

If both crewmembers select HMIKE, they may communicate without using the interphone key.

193
Q
  1. On the audio panel, what does the PAGE button do?
A

It enables a cockpit crewmember to speak to all passengers in the cabin through the cabin speakers.

194
Q
  1. On the audio panel, what does the CALL button do?
A

It enables a cockpit crewmember to speak directly to a cabin crewmember at a specific location, usually in the galley.

195
Q
  1. What is the priority for messages of different color?
A

Red, amber, blue

196
Q
  1. If a red message is flashing, how can it be stopped?
A

By pressing either Master Warning light (‘W’)

197
Q
  1. If a blue message is flashing how can it be stopped?
A

It stops on its own after 5 seconds.

198
Q
  1. What does a red ‘X’ over the CAS display signify?
A

Failure of the fault warning computer

199
Q
  1. What is the difference between a Display Unit going blank and a Display Unit going blank with a red ‘X’ displayed?
A

If the Display unit is blank it has either failed, been selected OFF or been dimmed completely; if a red ‘X’ appears on a blank screen, the symbol generator supplying it has failed.

200
Q
  1. If all of the right engine instruments show amber dashes what would you suspect is the problem, and how would you correct it?
A

DAU No. 2, Channel B has failed; go to the sensor page and select DAU No. 2, Channel A

201
Q
  1. The DBDI’s have three (3) lights in the upper right-hand corner; one is green (AHDG), one is amber (STBY) and one is red (STBY). What do they mean?
A

If the green light comes on it indicates that the DBDI is using the alternate IRS for heading information. If the amber light comes on it indicates that the IRS input has failed, and that the DBDI is using information from the flux valve. If the rd light comes on the flux valve input has failed.

202
Q
  1. Why is it recommended that we not use the Runway Position feature?
A

An IRS position error is calculated by the FMS based on starting position and the time that the IRS entered the NAV mode. When IRS position is updated, the position error calculation would now be inaccurate.

203
Q
  1. How do you create a place/bearing/distance waypoint?
A

By line selecting a waypoint into the scratchpad, typing in the desired bearing and then typing in the distance. When this is done, line select this information into the flight plan wherever you want it.

204
Q
  1. What is the priority for navigation sensor use by the FMS?
A

GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, LRN blending

205
Q
  1. If an NDB approach is made we must identify the navaid prior to starting the approach; however, it is not necessary to continuously monitor the audio during the approach. Why?
A

If the signal from the NDB is lost, the bearing pointer will disappear.

206
Q
  1. In which axes does the autopilot have authority?
A

Roll and pitch

207
Q
  1. What does the ‘BC’ button do on the flight guidance panel?
A

It enables the flight director to track a back course.

208
Q
  1. If the yaw damper fails, will the autopilot work?
209
Q
  1. What takes place when TO/GA is selected in flight?
A

Autopilot disconnects
If autothrottles are engaged, they will move to Go Around power
Flight director issues a pitch up command of 12 degrees (or speed command in SPZ-8400)
Flight director issues a roll command of wings level
Missed approach procedure is displayed (if FMS is properly sequenced)

210
Q
  1. What practical conditions must be met to engage the autothrottles on the ground?
A

Takeoff mode must be on the flight director (TO/GA)
EPR must be at least 1.17
Isolation valve must be closed

211
Q
  1. How many autopilots are in the airplane?
212
Q
  1. Where are the shoulder harness locks?
A

On the inboard side of each pilot’s seat toward the bottom and aft

213
Q
  1. How do you open the overwing emergency exits?
A

Pull the handle up and pull the window inboard.

214
Q
  1. There is a ring on the upper surface of the wing approximately 10-12 feet from the fuselage at about mid-chord. What is it for?
A

It is for attaching a rope from the emergency exit to the ring. The rope may then be used as a hand rail.

215
Q
  1. Where are the crew life jackets stowed?
A

In a pouch at the back of the seat toward the bottom.

216
Q
  1. When doing the cabin preflight, what should we check for on the fire extinguishers?
A

Pressure gauge in the green arc and a current inspection.

217
Q
  1. Which exterior lights are powered from the Emergency batteries?
A

The lights below each emergency exit, one at the leading edge of the wing and one underwing light.

218
Q
  1. What is the power source for the cabin emergency lights?
A

A self-contained battery pack using batteries that are approximately the same as D-cell flashlight batteries.

219
Q
  1. How would you turn all the cockpit lights to full bright?
A

Turning on the floodlight override switch

220
Q
  1. If the passenger oxygen shutoff valve is opened what cabin sign will come on automatically?
A

NO SMOKING

221
Q
  1. The taxi lights are located on the nose strut. If the nosewheel steering is turned, will the taxi lights also turn?
222
Q
  1. If the taxi lights are on when the landing gear is retracted, will the lights go out?
A

S/N 1000-1155 without ASC 131 – NO

S/N 1156 and subsequent, aircraft with ASC 131 – YES

223
Q
  1. What are the pulselights?
A

Turning on the pulselights causes the landing lights to illuminate alternately, making the airplane easier to see.

224
Q
  1. The utility lights are contained in the tail compartment. Can these lights be turned on in flight?
A

Yes. There is a switch labeled tail compartment lights on the right-hand side of the baggage compartment that controls these lights.

Gulfstream IV-SP (13 decks)

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