Alcohol & Drug Counselor Exam Practice Problems: 450 Practice Questions For The IC&RC ADC Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A fourteen year old male is being evaluated for cocaine abuse. He has no knowledge of any family hx of abuse & has indicated that he began only in the past 6 months. Which of the following addiction factors is most likely the most influential on his drug use?

A

Peer Influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is not a model for the causation of addiction?

A

Familial model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Holds humans accountable for their own actions and states that addiction can be controlled by choice of the individual. Addiction therefore is a weakness and is not caused by any genetic or outside influence.

A

Moral Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The belief that a person’s biological makeup is responsible for addiction tendencies.

A

Genetic model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Models are an attempt to explain simply why people become addicted. _____________ is an approach that incorporates all potential factors: moral model, genetic model, disease and cultural model.

A

The blended model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

As an individual continues to use an addictive forming drug over a period of time, which of the following is a correct statement regarding the influence of outside factors (peers, family, stress) contributing to the habit of addiction?
(A) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors remains about the same
(B) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors increases
(C) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors decreases
(D) None of the above

A

(C) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly abused substance in America?
(A) Marijuana
(B) Alcohol
(C) Cocaine
(D) Prescription Drugs

A

(B) Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the abuse of alcohol?
(A) Women have a higher risk of developing problems from alcohol abuse than men
(B) Men are more likely to drink higher volumes of alcohol than women
(C) Organ damage due to alcohol abuse is more likely in women than men
(D) All of the above

A

(D) All of the above

There are gender differences in relation to the abuse of alcohol.
Men more likely to drink more in terms of volume and use in general.
Due to the fact that alcohol is absorbed differently in women than men, women have a greater risk of internal damage from alcohol consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is a false statement about marijuana use?

(A) Marijuana is not an addictive substance
(B) Marijuana can contribute to depression and suicide
(C) Research shows marijuana users generally have a lower level of fulfillment in life
(D) Marijuana increases the risk of heart disease

A

(A) Marijuana is not an addictive substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is not an example of prescription drug abuse?

(A) A friend providing OxyContin for a stiff neck
(B) Taking an additional Valium beyond the amount prescribed to ease tension before public speaking
(C) Using leftover Vicodin from a car accident that occurred a year prior to treat a new injury
(D) None of the above

A

(D) None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is most commonly the main reason for a client deciding to begin the process of treatment?

(A) Internal motivation
(B) Family or Peer encouragement
(C) Diagnosed medical issues
(D) Financial Issues

A

(A) Internal motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is not an effective technique for establishing rapport with a client during the initial interview?

(A) Observing and noting the dress & appearance of the client
(B) Providing reassurance that things will be ok no matter how dire the individual’s situation
(C) Exhibit acceptance regardless of the client’s prior actions
(D) use of open-ended questions

A

(B) Providing reassurance that things will be ok no matter how dire the individual’s situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is not an example of proper active listening?

(A) Restating specific words the client has used
(B) Refocusing the client’s attention on a specific topic of interest
(C) Providing stories from your own experience that relate to the client’s struggle
(D) Summarizing key feelings that the client has shared

A

(C) Providing stories from your own experience that relate to the client’s struggle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the four specific skills of active listening?

A

Reflecting, Clarifying, Focusing, and Summarizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the screening process?

(A) Identify the presence of a problem
(B) Identify the likely solution to a problem
(C) Measuring the severity of an identified problem
(D) Identify the need for further evaluation

A

(B) Identify the likely solution to a problem

The solution to an identified problem should be pushed to the assessment of the client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is not an example of an effective screening processes?

(A) Evaluating the subject in multiple locations
(B) Evaluating the subject by gathering information from multiple people
(C) In-depth initial screening questions to provide a thorough process
(D) Obtaining information from multiple sources

A

(C) In-depth initial screening questions to provide a thorough process

⚫️ Screenings should be done in multiple settings and by multiple people
⚫️ Information should be gathered from more than one source
⚫️ Initial screenings should be brief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is a screening instrument for co-occurring disorders?

(A) Modified Mini-Screen (MMS)
(B) Michigan Alcohol Screening Test (MAST)
(C) CAGE Questionnaire
(D) Global Appraisal of Individual Needs (GAIN)

A

(A) Modified Mini-Screen (MMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following withdrawal symptoms is common in nearly all types of drugs when use is stopped?

(A) Seizures
(B) Itchy feeling all over skin
(C) Dysphoria
(D) Delirium Tremens

A

(C) Dysphoria (Severe feelings of sadness and depression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is not one of the eight stages of effect for alcohol?

(A) Euphoria
(B) Confusion
(C) Depression
(D) Coma

A

(C) Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 8 stages of effect for alcohol?

A

Sobriety, Euphoria, Excitement 1, Excitement 2, Confusion, Stupor, Coma, and Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A client in an initial screening indicates that she has not slept very well at all in weeks and seems to be suffering from a reduced appetite. You notice she has a noticeable bruise on her leg and when asked about it she recalls a physical altercation she had recently at a party. When consulting her mother, she mentions that her mood has been very unpredictable and that she would often storm out unexpectedly. Which of the following is the subject most likely suffering withdrawal symptoms from?

(A) Methamphetamine
(B) MDMA
(C) Cocaine
(D) Steroids

A

(D) Steroids—the defining symptoms are violent behavior and mood swings. They are often a result of steroid withdrawals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following assessment instrument format is the most appropriate for a 45-year-old woman who has an addiction to alcohol and is recently divorced? The woman has a single child and will be entering into a custody battle with her previous husband.

(A) Standardized interview
(B) Structured interview
(C) Self-administered test
(D) None of the above

A

(A) Standardized interview

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-administered assessment test?

(A) They most often are written at a 4th or 5th grade reading level
(B) They provide a quantifiable metric
(C) They prevent interview bias
(D) They must be administered by highly skilled staff

A

(D) They must be administered by highly skilled staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable person for the use of a translator for an assessment involving a low English proficient client?

(A) Family member
(B) A community insider
(C) Independent translator
(D) All of the above

A

(C) Independent translator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A client enters and shows visual signs of withdrawal. They appear to have significant nausea, agitation, and are indicating the intention for self-inflicted harm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial reaction?

(A) Attempt to calm the client and begin an initial assessment
(B) Alert the clients friends and family
(C) Seek medical attention for the client
(D) All of the above

A

(C) Seek medical attention for the client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is not a factor in the assessment for suicide risk?

(A) Abuse of alcohol
(B) Family hx of suicide
(C) Evidence of aggression towards others
(D) None of the above

A

(D) None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following drug test types is not appropriate for the use of monitoring compliance on a regular basis?

A.) Hair
B.) Urine
C.) Saliva
D.) Sweat

A

A.) Hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following ranges is the amount of time alcohol stays in the body after ingestion?

A.) A few hours
B.) 12-24 hours
C.) 1 to 3 days
D.) About a week

A

A.) A few hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is not linked to causing false positive on drug tests?

A.) Doxylamine
B.) Poppy seeds
C.) Sesame seeds
D.) Sertraline

A

C.) Sesame seeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following is most often not a step for counselors in the assessment of co-occurring disorders?

A.) Screening of co-occurring disorder
B.) Determine the severity of the potential disorder
C.) Diagnose the mental disorder
D.) Determine the effect the disability has on the client in relation to substance abuse

A

C.) Diagnose the mental disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the connection between mental health disorders and substance abuse?

A.) The effect of drug use is equal for those w/ or w/out MH disorders despite the increased risk
B.) An undiagnosed MH issue can lease to substance abuse
C.) Some drugs may cause diagnosable mental illness after extended use
D.) The risk of MH disorders can be increased w/ drug abuse

A

A.) The effect of drug use is equal for those with or without mental health disorders despite the increased risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is not consistent with the methodologies for the American Psychiatric Association DSM-5 criteria?

A.) All people are not automatically susceptible to developing SUD
B.) The brain’s reaction to drugs of creating a rewarding feeling is an essential part of the substance abuse process
C.) Substance induced disorders may be a result of a preexisting condition
D.) Not all people are equally susceptible to substance abuse

A

C.) Substance induced disorders may be a result of a preexisting condition

The induced disorders are mostly a direct result of taking the drugs and are not as a result of a preexisting condition such as a mental disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a substance use disorder?

A.) A person leaving work early due to the need for drug use
B.) Constantly saying they need to cut down on use but never managing to do so
C.) Entering into knowingly dangerous situations to obtain drugs
D.) Having feelings of severe depression

A

D.) Having feelings of severe depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In evaluating a client using the DSM-5 criteria, you note that they show symptoms of five of the eleven SUD criteria. Which of the following is the severity of the substance use disorder?

A.) No diagnostic of SUD
B.) Mild
C.) Moderate
D.) Severe

A

C.) Moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following substances is most likely to be associated with withdrawal symptoms of increased physical activity such as elevated blood pressure, agitation, and anxiety?

A.) Cocaine
B.) Alcohol
C.) Ecstasy
D.) Steriods

A

B.) Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

After an assessment and medical examination, the client is diagnosed with having long-term damage to their ability to concentrate and memory. Which of the following is most likely the substance of abuse?

A.) Amphetamines
B.) Heroin
C.) Marijuana
D.) Steroids

A

A.) Amphetamines

Substances that can cause long-term damage: alcohol, some inhalants, and amphetamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the intake process?

A.) It is the first phase of the treatment process
B.) It May involve any significant others of the client
C.) It mostly serves a more administrative than clinical function
D.) The intake process is standardized according to the institution of use

A

A.) It is the first phase of the treatment process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is not a basic function of the intake process?

A.) Determine if the client in fact needs services
B.) Collection of data
C.) Determine a plan for treatment
D.) All of the above

A

D.) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is not a reason for confidential information to be released as per client’s right to confidentiality?

A.) By authorization of a significant other
B.) To report child abuse
C.) For a medical emergency
D.) If the court determines a “good cause”

A

A.) By authorization of a significant other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is not a lawful right of the client?

A.) Right to Individual Dignity
B.) Right to Communication
C.) Right to Personal Effects
D.) Right to Minimum Level of Service

A

D.) Right to Minimum Level of Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is not a proper characteristic of the development of a treatment plan?

A.) A treatment plan can be developed concurrently with the late stages of diagnosis
B.) The client’s needs should be prioritized according to the urgency of the concern
C.) Treatment plans are individualized to the client’s needs
D.) Treatment plans require regular review for adjustments

A

A.) A treatment plan can be developed concurrently with the late stages of diagnosis

A treatment plan is contingent on addressing the needs of the individual client. All of the screening process and information must be use to make determinations. Therefore, the treatment plan can only be developed after the screening process is complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following is not a typical phase of the treatment process?

A.) Engagement
B.) Detoxification
C.) Stabilization
D.) Primary Treatment

A

B.) Detoxification

The phases of the treatment process are usually engagement, stabilization, primary treatment, and continuing care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Collaboration with the client is an important part of the treatment process. Which of the following is not an appropriate way to engage the client?

A.) Have the client determine their appropriate treatment or diagnosis
B.) Review identified strengths and concerns w/ the client
C.) Review proposed goals of the treatment process
D.) Have the client sign off on the treatment plan

A

A.) Have the client determine their appropriate treatment and diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following occurrences typically warrants the development of a new treatment plan?

A.) Any time there is change in service
B.) When the client achieves a specified goal
C.) A client who is re-admitted to treatment
D.) Any time the client has had a setback

A

C.) A client who is re-admitted to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following is not a stage of change as recognized in DiClemente and Prochaska Model of Change?

A.) Contemplation
B.) Acceptance
C.) Action
D.) Termination

A

B.) Acceptance

Six Stages of Change: Pre-contemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance, and Relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If a client fails to improve or if the situation continues to deteriorate, which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

A.) Re-evaluate the treatment plan and make adjustments based on the individual
B.) Re-conduct the screening process
C.) Interview the client to determine what is not working
D.) None of the above

A

A.) Re-evaluate the treatment plan and make adjustments based on the individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following is not an ASAM criteria for the documentation of a treatment plan?

A.) Problems and priorities must be identified
B.) Specified time intervals for assessment of the treatment process
C.) Realistic goals identified
D.) The progress made must be measured

A

B.) Specified time intervals for assessment of the treatment process

48
Q

Which of the following is most often included in the individualized treatment plan but not the initial treatment plan?

A.) Problem identified
B.) Goals
C.) Objectives
D.) Diagnosis

A

D.) Diagnosis

49
Q

Which of the following is not a true statement regarding goals and objectives as defined in an individual treatment plan?

A.) Goals should be broad
B.) Objectives should be broad
C.) Goals should be measurable
D.) Objectives should be measurable

A

B.) Objectives should be broad

50
Q

After a relapse, what stage of change is the client most likely to return to?

A.) Preparation
B.) Contemplation
C.) Action
D.) Maintenance

A

B.) Contemplation

51
Q

What is not a true characteristic of the methodology behind the stages of change model?

A.) There are five distinct stages
B.) Clients may move back and forth between stages
C.) Clients move through the stages linearly
D.) Relapses are to be expected and are common

A

C.) Clients move through the stages linearly

52
Q

Which of the following defines the mental state of a client who is ready to enter into the preparation stage of change?

A.) The person recognizes there is a problem w/ how substances have affected their life
B.) The person has had adverse experiences directly related to substance abuse
C.) The person can recognize that the disadvantages of continuing substance abuse outweigh any perceived advantages
D.) The person is prepared to decide on how to change

A

C.) The person can recognize that the disadvantages of continuing substance abuse outweigh any perceived advantages

53
Q

During which stage of change do withdrawal symptoms most often occur?

A.) Contemplation
B.) Preparation
C.) Action
D.) Maintenance

A

C. ) Action

54
Q

Which of the following is most often the biggest source of disagreement during collaboration efforts amongst agencies?

A.) Use of differing assessment tools
B.) Agreement of treatment plan
C.) Timeline of events
D.) Which agency in primary

A

A.) Use of different assessment tools

55
Q

What is not a role of a primary agency during collaboration?

A.) Provide an all-inclusive assessment for use by all agencies
B.) Designate the primary contact
C.) Determine all final assessments
D.) None of the above

A

A.) Provide an all-inclusive assessment for use by all agencies

56
Q

Which of the following is not a main objective of case management systems?

A.) Accessibility
B.) Accountability
C.) Consistency of Care
D.) None of the above

A

D.) None of the above

Main objectives of case management systems: consistent and continuous, accessibility, accountability, and efficiency

57
Q

What is not a main element of establishing a case management system?

A.) Primary screener
B.) Case Manager
C.) Core Agency
D.) None of the above

A

A.) Primary screener

58
Q

Which of the following is not an established approach to case management for any aspect of the process?

A.) Intensive
B.) High intensity
C.) Brokerage
D.) Integrated

A

B.) High intensity

59
Q

What statement below would not be consistent w/ the established principles of case management?

A.) A client should lead in determining which resources presented are appropriate
B.) Case management should remain firm on prior established processes
C.) Case management will determine the appropriate action of intervening if problems arise
D.) Case management ensures that a client’s individual strengths are emphasized as part of the process

A

B.) Case management should remain firm on prior established processes

60
Q

Case management principals are:

A

*Be the single point of contact
*Ensure the process is client driven & strength based
*Advocate for the client
*Involve the community
*Case management must adapt to be practical
*Anticipate problems and have a plan for resolution
*Be aware of cultural sensitivities

61
Q

Case management involves the advocacy of the client as needed. What situation below is not an example of this?

A.) Educating other agencies about substance abuse
B.) Lobby to adjust agency procedures for the individual if appropriate
C.) Lobby to law enforcement against any sanctions on the client
D.) Informing family members of the process

A

C.) Lobby to law enforcement against any sanctions on the client

62
Q

Which of the following is not a key element in the development of cultural competency as per Cross et al., 1989?

A.) Valuing diversity
B.) Make a cultural self-assessment
C.) Understanding and awareness of cultural differences
D.) Incorporating cultural knowledge

A

C.) Understanding and awareness of cultural differences

Key elements in the development of cultural competency per Cross et al., 1989:
*Valuing diversity
*Making a cultural assessment
*Understanding cultural interaction dynamics
*Incorporating cultural knowledge
*Adapting practices to the diversity present in a setting

63
Q

Case management should be pragmatic to ensure the client’s needs are met so that there is a foundation of living for treatment. Which of the following is not consistent w/ the intention of this aspect of case management?

A.) Ensuring the client has suitable food and water
B.) Ensuring a stable living situation for an extended period of time before treatment
C.) Taking action for the health and safety of a client’s child
D.) Teach a client necessary daily skills

A

B.) Ensuring a stable living situation for an extended period of time before treatment

64
Q

A case manager should have all of the following essential characteristics to ensure an effective process except:

A.) Ability to recognize substance abuse
B.) Ability to establish rapport
C.) Awareness of appropriate boundaries
D.) A non-judgmental approach

A

A.) Ability to recognize substance abuse

65
Q

When referring a client, which of the following is not true about the process?

A.) The client should always initiate and follow-up on the referral themselves
B.) Rationale for the referral should be thoroughly explained
C.) Continue to evaluate the referral as the client progresses

A

A.) The client should always initiate and follow-up on the referral themselves

66
Q

Referrals by substance abuse agencies are typically made to all of the following except:

A.) Marriage counselors
B.) Physical therapy
C.) Religious support
D.) Financial counseling

A

B.) Physical therapy

Typically, physical therapy and legal assistance is not provided by a substance abuse agency and is outside of their scope.

67
Q

Which of the following is not an essential item in a comprehensive service plan?

A.) Long term goals
B.) Short term goals
C.) Write-up of current status
D.) Required services for the client

A

B.) Short term goals

68
Q

All of the following are common problems that may arise w/ referrals except:

A.) Client dropout
B.) Eligibility requirements
C.) Incomplete client information
D.) All of the above

A

D.) All of the above

69
Q

Which of the following does not fall under the specified responsibilities of a facilitator?

A.) Gather together the service implementation team
B.) Lead team meetings
C.) Ensure the client is making progress towards specified goals
D.) Guiding discussions in meetings

A

C.) Ensure the client is making progress towards specified goals

70
Q

Which of the following is not a common method for a case manager to help establish a successful working relationship between agencies?

A.) The use of quid pro quo arrangements
B.) Develop a memorandum of understanding
C.) Determine the points of contact for services in key agencies
D.) Capitalize on personal relationships the client may have

A

D.) Capitalize on personal relationships the client may have

71
Q

All of the answers below are a common method of evaluating the success or effectiveness of case management for a particular case except:

A.) Extended services survey
B.) Client satisfaction questionnaire
C.) Client outcome measurements
D.) System outcomes

A

A.) Extended services survey

72
Q

Which of these scenarios is it acceptable for there to be no client consent in which a third party can obtain client information?

A.) For the use of payment for health care operations
B.) A new counselor seeking continuity of care
C.) A co-worker asking for an example to compare to another client
D.) All of the above

A

A.) For the use of payment for health care operations

73
Q

The documentation of the treatment process is essential for all of the following reasons except:

A.) Continuity of care when a client moves
B.) Legal documentation for potential lawsuits
C.) Compliance with Federal Regulations
D.) Sharing of information w/ third parties external to the case to foster future relationships

A

D.) Sharing of information w/ third parties external to the case to foster future relationships

74
Q

A treatment facility has a policy of documentation retention to keep files for a minimum period of 7 years. Which of the following scenarios is a common reason for maintaining files for longer than the minimum timeframe?

A.) For minors
B.) For clients with records of violence
C.) For clients w/ a record of relapse
D.) For multiple substance abusers

A

A.) For minors

75
Q

As per 42 CFR Part 2, which of the following is not a requirement for content of the disclosure of client information as per a court order?

A.) Disclosure information shall be limited to that which is essential to the objective of the order.
B.) Disclosure information should only be provided to those specifically requesting the ordered information
C.) Provide any measures which are necessary to limit the disclosure for the protection of the patient
D.) Provide the information in a manner that is consistent with the public interest

A

D.) Provide the information in a manner that is consistent with the public interest

76
Q

Which of the following is not an entity that may hold record keeping and documentation to a specific standard?

A.) Single State Authority
B.) Accreditation bodies
C.) Medical services
D.) Insurance companies

A

C.) Medical services

77
Q

The statements below are recorded in the screening documentation for a new client. Determine which statement is an example of an A/P progress note.

A.) The client entered showing signs of withdrawal such as excessive sweating and shaking
B.) The client is potentially showing signs of a co-occurring disorder
C.) The client mentioned having alcohol w/in the last 3 days on 6 different occasions
D.) The client began to become angry when asked about their spouse

A

B.) The client is potentially showing signs of a co-occurring disorder

When gathering progress notes, a common method is the SO/AP or Subjective-Objective/Assessment-Plan. SO observations are facts about what happened. AP is an assessment of the facts during the session. In this case, trying to diagnose the client as having a co-occurring disorder would be an assessment and not just a statement of fact. Therefore, this is an AP progress note.

78
Q

What is not an essential element when forming a discharge plan?

A.) Referral source
B.) Outcomes of treatment
C.) Condition of client
D.) Exit interview w/ client

A

D.) Exit interview w/ client

79
Q

All of the following are statements documented from observations during a session w/ a client. Which statement is most consistent w/ effective documentation recommendations?

A.) The client was saying very few words whenever asked a question
B.) The client appeared to be shady during time w/ groups
C.) The client does not appare to have a strong marriage
D.) The client does not appear to have what it takes to succeed at this point.

A

A.) The client was saying very few words whenever asked a question

80
Q

Which of the following is not an element of good clinical documentation?

A.) Include the clients name clearly
B.) All entries need to be signed
C.) All entries should be clearly dated
D.) Errors should be removed entirely

A

D.) Errors should be removed entirely

81
Q

Of the goals shown below, which is not a part of an effective recovery management?

A.) Stabilize the client’s substance abuse
B.) Avoidance of tempting situations
C.) Improved internal health
D.) Re-establishment as part of the community

A

A.) Stabilize the client’s substance abuse

Recovery management refers to the plan to avoid a relapse and reimplement the client into a healthy lifestyle w/in the community. Stabilizing the client’s symptoms and drug use is a part of primary care that must occur so that treatment can proceed. It is not a part of recovery management.

82
Q

What action related to recovery management would be a poor decision to maintain sobriety?

A.) Making amends w/ anyone who was wronged by the client
B.) Establish a better relationship w/ peers who also use substances
C.) Healthy eating habits and exercise
D.) Avoid social interactions where substances are present

A

B.) Establish a better relationship w/ peers who also use substances

83
Q

According to the Gorski Development Model, what is the first step in the stage of stabilization?

A.) Determine the impetus of abuse
B.) The client needs to recognize the issue
C.) The client needs to recover from withdrawal symptoms
D.) The client needs to commit to a path of recovery

A

C.) The client needs to recover from withdrawal symptoms

84
Q

What stage of Gorski’s Developmental Model is associated with the task of repairing any addiction caused social damage?

A.) Early Recovery
B.) Middle Recovery
C.) Late Recovery
D.) Maintenance

A

B.) Middle Recovery

Middle recovery’s main goal is repairing one’s lifestyle and social structure

85
Q

What are the early signs of a potential relapse that need to be documented if identified?

A.) Changes in daily structures or attitudes
B.) A new found defensive demeanor
C.) Change in social behavior
D.) Exhibiting lack of judgement

A

A.) Changes in daily structures or attitudes

86
Q

A client who suffered from alcohol abuse has shown signs of relapse and you fear the condition may be deteriorating. What is mostly not an effective technique for interrupting the process of the relapse?

A.) Have the client ignore any thoughts of having a drink
B.) Have the client tell someone immediately when they feel in danger of relapse
C.) Encourage socializing in a safe and sober environment
D.) Have the client recall the negative feelings and actions associated with drinking

A

A.) Have the client ignore any thoughts of having a drink

87
Q

The approach to the recovery process can best be described as:

A.) Primarily reaching abstinence as the goal
B.) A crisis management process
C.) A professionally directed process
D.) A long-term self-growth process

A

D.) A long-term self-growth process

88
Q

Which of the following is not an example of the harm reduction model of recovery?

A.) Designated driver
B.) Drug substitution
C.) Behavior modification
D.) Prolonged periods of abstinence

A

D.) Prolonged periods of abstinence

89
Q

Four clients can be classified by some defining characteristics as determined in their assessment. Which is the least likely to benefit from a traditional 12-step program recovery?

A.) Alcohol abuser with severe social anxiety
B.) Alcohol abuser w/ co-occurring mental disorder
C.) Cocaine abuser w/ a hx of religious involvement
D.) Meth abuser w/ a fear of isolation

A

A.) Alcohol abuser with severe social anxiety

90
Q

Which of the following is not considered a trigger for a potential relapse?

A.) Negative emotions such as sadness or loneliness
B.) Having a reason to celebrate such as a new job
C.) Sensory stimulants familiar during times of drug use
D.) None of the above.

A

D.) None of the above.

91
Q

What statement below is not consistent w/ the SAMHSA principles of recovery?

A.) Cultural differences impact recovery
B.) Recovery requires the direction of professional help
C.) Recovery is self-directed
D.) Recovery can be achieved in many ways

A

B.) Recovery requires the direction of professional help

92
Q

What is the most accurate estimate of individuals in recovery who sought out or used professional help?

A.) 5%
B.) 25%
C.) 75%
D.) 90%

A

B.) 25%

93
Q

What is not a characteristic of an effective and successful therapeutic alliance?

A.) A strong bond between client & counselor
B.) Collaboration between counselor & third-party entities
C.) Agreement on treatment techniques
D.) Agreement on treatment goals

A

B.) Collaboration between counselor & third-party entities

94
Q

What is an ineffective method for a counselor to develop a strong relationship w/ a client?

A.) Exhibit a thorough knowledge of expertise in addiction treatment
B.) Use facts to support recommendations
C.) Make connections between the client’s experiences and the counselor’s clinical knowledge
D.) Explain to the client what to expect from experiences the counselor is familiar with from other clients

A

D.) Explain to the client what to expect from experiences the counselor is familiar with from other clients

95
Q

What action as described below is not consistent with the technique of motivational interviewing?

A.) Summarizing what the client says to show good listening
B.) Ensure an argument is dealt w/ quickly and sternly
C.) Continue to reinforce agreed upon goals
D.) Make the client aware of actions inconsistent w/ their goals

A

B.) Ensure an argument is dealt w/ quickly and sternly

96
Q

What are the 5 principles of motivational interviewing?

A

1.) Show empathy
2.) Evaluate how a client’s behavior is affecting their goals
3.) Avoid confrontation
4.) Adjust to client resistance
5.) Provide optimism

97
Q

When counseling a client w/ a co-occurring d/o, what specific technique is most appropriate to be emphasized?

A.) Using repetition to ensure an understanding of expectations
B.) Identify high risk situations the client may not be aware of
C.) Help the client find a sponsor
D.) Use positive reinforcement such as privileges to reward progress

A

A.) Using repetition to ensure an understanding of expectations

Clients with co-occurring disorders will often have difficulty concentrating or retaining information. Therefore, repetition in an appropriate way is very important to ensure the intention is understood.

98
Q

During counseling, a client who has now been abstinent for some significant amount of time and has adjusted to a new lifestyle, has indicated boredom w/ their current situation. He says his old life was certainly much more exciting. What is not an appropriate technique to avoid a relapse?

A.). Remind the client of the pain from substance abuse
B.) Challenge the client appropriately on the reality of what he remembers as enjoyable times
C.) Suggest new activities that may fill the void
D.) None of the above

A

D.) None of the above

99
Q

What is not an effective technique for helping a client utilize a mutual self-help group?

A.) Prescribe the best group for the client
B.) Have exit surveys to evaluate the client’s reactions
C.) Provide a briefing on the dynamics of the group
D.) Help to overcome logistical issues

A

A.) Prescribe the best group for the client

100
Q

What is not consistent w/ the philosophies of motivational interviewing?

A.) Collaboration
B.) Acceptance
C.) Compassion
D.) Intervene

A

D.) Intervene

101
Q

What is mostly not a realistic expectation that should be set from a counselor to prepare the client for sessions?

A.) Confidentiality will be kept
B.) Start times will be enforced
C.) Sessions where the client arrives under the influence will be analyzed for further insight
D.) There may not be any contact outside of the predetermined times

A

C.) Sessions where the client arrives under the influence will be analyzed for further insight

102
Q

What model of substance abuse treatment is consistent w/ having a philosophy related to the cause of abuse as being a “defect of character”?

A.) Medical Model
B.) Spiritual Model
C.) Sociocultural Model
D.) Pyschological Model

A

B.) Spiritual Model

103
Q

What is most likely a poor example of self-disclosure during a counseling session?

A.) Telling the client that you observe a certain emotion in today’s session
B.) Providing detailed stories to try to connect with the client
C.) Acknowledging a similar interest to build rapport
D.) None of the above

A

B.) Providing detailed stories to try to connect with the client

104
Q

What is not an effective example of empathy towards a client?

A.) Express your sincere remorse when the client explains a difficult time
B.) Provide an example of experience w/ a similar feeling
C.) State the feelings you believe the client is going through
D.) Use active listening to ensure the client knows you understand the story

A

A.) Express your sincere remorse when the client explains a difficult time

105
Q

What is not an example of evidence-based therapy?

A.) Pharmcotherapy
B.) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
C.) Solution Focused Brief Therapy
D.) None of the above

A

D.) None of the above

Pharmcotherapy, CBT, and Solution Focused Brief Therapy are all evidenced based therapy examples.

106
Q

Of the following examples of treatment programs, which is considered a long-term method?

A.) Residential treatment
B.) Medication assisted treatment
C.) Residential therapeutic community treatment
D.) Outpatient counseling

A

C.) Residential therapeutic community treatment

107
Q

When implementing withdrawal management or detoxification, what is not an appropriate expectation of the process?

A.) It will typically less than ten days
B.) This is an opportunity to evaluate the client’s mental state while intoxicated
C.) There is a potential for medical issues and a professional should be present
D.) All of the above

A

B.) This is an opportunity to evaluate the client’s mental state while intoxicated

108
Q

A client who is still employed is addicted to opioids and requires treatment. He is also physically disabled which makes it difficult for him to leave the home. His family life while impacted is still supporting and intact. Which of the following treatment options is most likely appropriate?

A.) Outpatient treatment
B.) Halfway house
C.) Therapeutic community
D.) None of the above

A

A.) Outpatient treatment

109
Q

What is a medication that may have benefits for the treatment of someone with an opioid addiction?

A.) Methadone
B.) Disulfiram
C.) Acamprosate
D.) None of the above

A

A.) Methadone

110
Q

What type of group counseling is effective in providing information to the client about substance abuse?

A.) Psychoeducational
B.) Skills development
C.) Support
D.) Interpersonal process

A

A.) Psychoeducational

111
Q

Which of the following substances is there no conclusive evidence to support an effectiveness of any medication for abuse treatment?

A.) Alcohol
B.) Tobacco
C.) Methamphetamine
D.) Heroin

A

C.) Methamphetamine

112
Q

When determining the presence of a crisis, what statement is true?

A.) A crisis occurs if there is a perceived traumatic event regardless of the mental state of the client
B.) If a traumatic event occurs but the client has a stable mental state there is no crisis
C.) A crisis involves only a short-term consequences
D.) A crisis may not include a catalyst

A

B.) If a traumatic event occurs but the client has a stable mental state there is no crisis

113
Q

What is not generally an identified step in the process of crisis intervention?

A.). Assess the extent of the crisis
B.) Identify the problem at hand
C.) Determine potential solutions
D.) Establish a relapse strategy

A

D.) Establish a relapse strategy

114
Q

What is not an effective strategy for deescalating a crisis situation?

A.) Ask questions about the client’s past that may identify the root of the problem
B.) Use verbal de-escalation
C.) Take steps to establish a rapport w/ the client
D.) Whenever possible, meet w/ a client in person to deal w/ a crisis

A

A.) Ask questions about the client’s past that may identify the root of the problem

115
Q

As per general AA teachings, what is not a part of the HALT acronym related to relapse prevention?

A.) Hunger
B.) Anger
C.) Loneliness
D.) Temptation

A

D.) Temptation

H-Hungry
A-Angry
L-Lonely
T-Tired

Preventing & managing these fourt natural human conditions will help you go a long way in keeping your addictive behavior at bay.

116
Q

What in contemporary terms is the most prevalent way to describe the goal of relapse prevention?

A.) Have the proper tools necessary to intervene when warning signs arise
B.) Promote healthy & positive changes in one’s life to prevent relapse
C.) Prepare the client for the inevitable by having an appropriate plan in place
D.) None of the above

A

B.) Promote healthy & positive changes in one’s life to prevent relapse