Alcohol & Drug Counselor Exam Practice Problems: 450 Practice Questions For The IC&RC ADC Exam

Question 1

A fourteen year old male is being evaluated for cocaine abuse. He has no knowledge of any family hx of abuse & has indicated that he began only in the past 6 months. Which of the following addiction factors is most likely the most influential on his drug use?

Answer 1

Peer Influence

Question 2

Which of the following is not a model for the causation of addiction?

Answer 2

Familial model

Question 3

Holds humans accountable for their own actions and states that addiction can be controlled by choice of the individual. Addiction therefore is a weakness and is not caused by any genetic or outside influence.

Answer 3

Moral Model

Question 4

The belief that a person’s biological makeup is responsible for addiction tendencies.

Answer 4

Genetic model

Question 5

Models are an attempt to explain simply why people become addicted. _____________ is an approach that incorporates all potential factors: moral model, genetic model, disease and cultural model.

Answer 5

The blended model

Question 6

As an individual continues to use an addictive forming drug over a period of time, which of the following is a correct statement regarding the influence of outside factors (peers, family, stress) contributing to the habit of addiction?
(A) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors remains about the same
(B) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors increases
(C) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors decreases
(D) None of the above

Answer 6

(C) As drug use continues the influence of outside factors decreases

Question 7

Which of the following is the most commonly abused substance in America?
(A) Marijuana
(B) Alcohol
(C) Cocaine
(D) Prescription Drugs

Answer 7

(B) Alcohol

Question 8

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the abuse of alcohol?
(A) Women have a higher risk of developing problems from alcohol abuse than men
(B) Men are more likely to drink higher volumes of alcohol than women
(C) Organ damage due to alcohol abuse is more likely in women than men
(D) All of the above

Answer 8

(D) All of the above

There are gender differences in relation to the abuse of alcohol.
Men more likely to drink more in terms of volume and use in general.
Due to the fact that alcohol is absorbed differently in women than men, women have a greater risk of internal damage from alcohol consumption.

Question 9

Which of the following is a false statement about marijuana use?

(A) Marijuana is not an addictive substance
(B) Marijuana can contribute to depression and suicide
(C) Research shows marijuana users generally have a lower level of fulfillment in life
(D) Marijuana increases the risk of heart disease

Answer 9

(A) Marijuana is not an addictive substance

Question 10

Which of the following is not an example of prescription drug abuse?

(A) A friend providing OxyContin for a stiff neck
(B) Taking an additional Valium beyond the amount prescribed to ease tension before public speaking
(C) Using leftover Vicodin from a car accident that occurred a year prior to treat a new injury
(D) None of the above

Answer 10

(D) None of the above

Question 11

Which of the following is most commonly the main reason for a client deciding to begin the process of treatment?

(A) Internal motivation
(B) Family or Peer encouragement
(C) Diagnosed medical issues
(D) Financial Issues

Answer 11

(A) Internal motivation

Question 12

Which of the following is not an effective technique for establishing rapport with a client during the initial interview?

(A) Observing and noting the dress & appearance of the client
(B) Providing reassurance that things will be ok no matter how dire the individual’s situation
(C) Exhibit acceptance regardless of the client’s prior actions
(D) use of open-ended questions

Answer 12

(B) Providing reassurance that things will be ok no matter how dire the individual’s situation

Question 13

Which of the following is not an example of proper active listening?

(A) Restating specific words the client has used
(B) Refocusing the client’s attention on a specific topic of interest
(C) Providing stories from your own experience that relate to the client’s struggle
(D) Summarizing key feelings that the client has shared

Answer 13

(C) Providing stories from your own experience that relate to the client’s struggle

Question 14

What are the four specific skills of active listening?

Answer 14

Reflecting, Clarifying, Focusing, and Summarizing

Question 15

Which of the following is not a part of the screening process?

(A) Identify the presence of a problem
(B) Identify the likely solution to a problem
(C) Measuring the severity of an identified problem
(D) Identify the need for further evaluation

Answer 15

(B) Identify the likely solution to a problem

The solution to an identified problem should be pushed to the assessment of the client

Question 16

Which of the following is not an example of an effective screening processes?

(A) Evaluating the subject in multiple locations
(B) Evaluating the subject by gathering information from multiple people
(C) In-depth initial screening questions to provide a thorough process
(D) Obtaining information from multiple sources

Answer 16

(C) In-depth initial screening questions to provide a thorough process

⚫️ Screenings should be done in multiple settings and by multiple people
⚫️ Information should be gathered from more than one source
⚫️ Initial screenings should be brief

Question 17

Which of the following is a screening instrument for co-occurring disorders?

(A) Modified Mini-Screen (MMS)
(B) Michigan Alcohol Screening Test (MAST)
(C) CAGE Questionnaire
(D) Global Appraisal of Individual Needs (GAIN)

Answer 17

(A) Modified Mini-Screen (MMS)

Question 18

Which of the following withdrawal symptoms is common in nearly all types of drugs when use is stopped?

(A) Seizures
(B) Itchy feeling all over skin
(C) Dysphoria
(D) Delirium Tremens

Answer 18

(C) Dysphoria (Severe feelings of sadness and depression)

Question 19

Which of the following is not one of the eight stages of effect for alcohol?

(A) Euphoria
(B) Confusion
(C) Depression
(D) Coma

Answer 19

(C) Depression

Question 20

What are the 8 stages of effect for alcohol?

Answer 20

Sobriety, Euphoria, Excitement 1, Excitement 2, Confusion, Stupor, Coma, and Death

Question 21

A client in an initial screening indicates that she has not slept very well at all in weeks and seems to be suffering from a reduced appetite. You notice she has a noticeable bruise on her leg and when asked about it she recalls a physical altercation she had recently at a party. When consulting her mother, she mentions that her mood has been very unpredictable and that she would often storm out unexpectedly. Which of the following is the subject most likely suffering withdrawal symptoms from?

(A) Methamphetamine
(B) MDMA
(C) Cocaine
(D) Steroids

Answer 21

(D) Steroids—the defining symptoms are violent behavior and mood swings. They are often a result of steroid withdrawals

Question 22

Which of the following assessment instrument format is the most appropriate for a 45-year-old woman who has an addiction to alcohol and is recently divorced? The woman has a single child and will be entering into a custody battle with her previous husband.

(A) Standardized interview
(B) Structured interview
(C) Self-administered test
(D) None of the above

Answer 22

(A) Standardized interview

Question 23

Which of the following is not a characteristic of self-administered assessment test?

(A) They most often are written at a 4th or 5th grade reading level
(B) They provide a quantifiable metric
(C) They prevent interview bias
(D) They must be administered by highly skilled staff

Answer 23

(D) They must be administered by highly skilled staff

Question 24

Which of the following is an acceptable person for the use of a translator for an assessment involving a low English proficient client?

(A) Family member
(B) A community insider
(C) Independent translator
(D) All of the above

Answer 24

(C) Independent translator

Question 25

A client enters and shows visual signs of withdrawal. They appear to have significant nausea, agitation, and are indicating the intention for self-inflicted harm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial reaction?

(A) Attempt to calm the client and begin an initial assessment
(B) Alert the clients friends and family
(C) Seek medical attention for the client
(D) All of the above

Answer 25

(C) Seek medical attention for the client

Question 26

Which of the following is not a factor in the assessment for suicide risk?

(A) Abuse of alcohol
(B) Family hx of suicide
(C) Evidence of aggression towards others
(D) None of the above

Answer 26

(D) None of the above

Question 27

Which of the following drug test types is not appropriate for the use of monitoring compliance on a regular basis?

A.) Hair
B.) Urine
C.) Saliva
D.) Sweat

Answer 27

A.) Hair

Question 28

Which of the following ranges is the amount of time alcohol stays in the body after ingestion?

A.) A few hours
B.) 12-24 hours
C.) 1 to 3 days
D.) About a week

Answer 28

A.) A few hours

Question 29

Which of the following is not linked to causing false positive on drug tests?

A.) Doxylamine
B.) Poppy seeds
C.) Sesame seeds
D.) Sertraline

Answer 29

C.) Sesame seeds

Question 30

Which of the following is most often not a step for counselors in the assessment of co-occurring disorders?

A.) Screening of co-occurring disorder
B.) Determine the severity of the potential disorder
C.) Diagnose the mental disorder
D.) Determine the effect the disability has on the client in relation to substance abuse

Answer 30

C.) Diagnose the mental disorder

Question 31

Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the connection between mental health disorders and substance abuse?

A.) The effect of drug use is equal for those w/ or w/out MH disorders despite the increased risk
B.) An undiagnosed MH issue can lease to substance abuse
C.) Some drugs may cause diagnosable mental illness after extended use
D.) The risk of MH disorders can be increased w/ drug abuse

Answer 31

A.) The effect of drug use is equal for those with or without mental health disorders despite the increased risk.

Question 32

Which of the following is not consistent with the methodologies for the American Psychiatric Association DSM-5 criteria?

A.) All people are not automatically susceptible to developing SUD
B.) The brain’s reaction to drugs of creating a rewarding feeling is an essential part of the substance abuse process
C.) Substance induced disorders may be a result of a preexisting condition
D.) Not all people are equally susceptible to substance abuse

Answer 32

C.) Substance induced disorders may be a result of a preexisting condition

The induced disorders are mostly a direct result of taking the drugs and are not as a result of a preexisting condition such as a mental disorder.

Question 33

Which of the following is not an example of a substance use disorder?

A.) A person leaving work early due to the need for drug use
B.) Constantly saying they need to cut down on use but never managing to do so
C.) Entering into knowingly dangerous situations to obtain drugs
D.) Having feelings of severe depression

Answer 33

D.) Having feelings of severe depression

Question 34

In evaluating a client using the DSM-5 criteria, you note that they show symptoms of five of the eleven SUD criteria. Which of the following is the severity of the substance use disorder?

A.) No diagnostic of SUD
B.) Mild
C.) Moderate
D.) Severe

Answer 34

C.) Moderate

Question 35

Which of the following substances is most likely to be associated with withdrawal symptoms of increased physical activity such as elevated blood pressure, agitation, and anxiety?

A.) Cocaine
B.) Alcohol
C.) Ecstasy
D.) Steriods

Answer 35

B.) Alcohol

Question 36

After an assessment and medical examination, the client is diagnosed with having long-term damage to their ability to concentrate and memory. Which of the following is most likely the substance of abuse?

A.) Amphetamines
B.) Heroin
C.) Marijuana
D.) Steroids

Answer 36

A.) Amphetamines

Substances that can cause long-term damage: alcohol, some inhalants, and amphetamines

Question 37

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the intake process?

A.) It is the first phase of the treatment process
B.) It May involve any significant others of the client
C.) It mostly serves a more administrative than clinical function
D.) The intake process is standardized according to the institution of use

Answer 37

A.) It is the first phase of the treatment process

Question 38

Which of the following is not a basic function of the intake process?

A.) Determine if the client in fact needs services
B.) Collection of data
C.) Determine a plan for treatment
D.) All of the above

Answer 38

D.) All of the above

Question 39

Which of the following is not a reason for confidential information to be released as per client’s right to confidentiality?

A.) By authorization of a significant other
B.) To report child abuse
C.) For a medical emergency
D.) If the court determines a “good cause”

Answer 39

A.) By authorization of a significant other

Question 40

Which of the following is not a lawful right of the client?

A.) Right to Individual Dignity
B.) Right to Communication
C.) Right to Personal Effects
D.) Right to Minimum Level of Service

Answer 40

D.) Right to Minimum Level of Service

Question 41

Which of the following is not a proper characteristic of the development of a treatment plan?

A.) A treatment plan can be developed concurrently with the late stages of diagnosis
B.) The client’s needs should be prioritized according to the urgency of the concern
C.) Treatment plans are individualized to the client’s needs
D.) Treatment plans require regular review for adjustments

Answer 41

A.) A treatment plan can be developed concurrently with the late stages of diagnosis

A treatment plan is contingent on addressing the needs of the individual client. All of the screening process and information must be use to make determinations. Therefore, the treatment plan can only be developed after the screening process is complete.

Question 42

Which of the following is not a typical phase of the treatment process?

A.) Engagement
B.) Detoxification
C.) Stabilization
D.) Primary Treatment

Answer 42

B.) Detoxification

The phases of the treatment process are usually engagement, stabilization, primary treatment, and continuing care.

Question 43

Collaboration with the client is an important part of the treatment process. Which of the following is not an appropriate way to engage the client?

A.) Have the client determine their appropriate treatment or diagnosis
B.) Review identified strengths and concerns w/ the client
C.) Review proposed goals of the treatment process
D.) Have the client sign off on the treatment plan

Answer 43

A.) Have the client determine their appropriate treatment and diagnosis

Question 44

Which of the following occurrences typically warrants the development of a new treatment plan?

A.) Any time there is change in service
B.) When the client achieves a specified goal
C.) A client who is re-admitted to treatment
D.) Any time the client has had a setback

Answer 44

C.) A client who is re-admitted to treatment

Question 45

Which of the following is not a stage of change as recognized in DiClemente and Prochaska Model of Change?

A.) Contemplation
B.) Acceptance
C.) Action
D.) Termination

Answer 45

B.) Acceptance

Six Stages of Change: Pre-contemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance, and Relapse

Question 46

If a client fails to improve or if the situation continues to deteriorate, which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

A.) Re-evaluate the treatment plan and make adjustments based on the individual
B.) Re-conduct the screening process
C.) Interview the client to determine what is not working
D.) None of the above

Answer 46

A.) Re-evaluate the treatment plan and make adjustments based on the individual

Question 47

Which of the following is not an ASAM criteria for the documentation of a treatment plan?

A.) Problems and priorities must be identified
B.) Specified time intervals for assessment of the treatment process
C.) Realistic goals identified
D.) The progress made must be measured

Answer 47

B.) Specified time intervals for assessment of the treatment process

Question 48

Which of the following is most often included in the individualized treatment plan but not the initial treatment plan?

A.) Problem identified
B.) Goals
C.) Objectives
D.) Diagnosis

Answer 48

D.) Diagnosis

Question 49

Which of the following is not a true statement regarding goals and objectives as defined in an individual treatment plan?

A.) Goals should be broad
B.) Objectives should be broad
C.) Goals should be measurable
D.) Objectives should be measurable

Answer 49

B.) Objectives should be broad

Question 50

After a relapse, what stage of change is the client most likely to return to?

A.) Preparation
B.) Contemplation
C.) Action
D.) Maintenance

Answer 50

B.) Contemplation

Question 51

What is not a true characteristic of the methodology behind the stages of change model?

A.) There are five distinct stages
B.) Clients may move back and forth between stages
C.) Clients move through the stages linearly
D.) Relapses are to be expected and are common

Answer 51

C.) Clients move through the stages linearly

Question 52

Which of the following defines the mental state of a client who is ready to enter into the preparation stage of change?

A.) The person recognizes there is a problem w/ how substances have affected their life
B.) The person has had adverse experiences directly related to substance abuse
C.) The person can recognize that the disadvantages of continuing substance abuse outweigh any perceived advantages
D.) The person is prepared to decide on how to change

Answer 52

C.) The person can recognize that the disadvantages of continuing substance abuse outweigh any perceived advantages

Question 53

During which stage of change do withdrawal symptoms most often occur?

A.) Contemplation
B.) Preparation
C.) Action
D.) Maintenance

Answer 53

C. ) Action

Question 54

Which of the following is most often the biggest source of disagreement during collaboration efforts amongst agencies?

A.) Use of differing assessment tools
B.) Agreement of treatment plan
C.) Timeline of events
D.) Which agency in primary

Answer 54

A.) Use of different assessment tools

Question 55

What is not a role of a primary agency during collaboration?

A.) Provide an all-inclusive assessment for use by all agencies
B.) Designate the primary contact
C.) Determine all final assessments
D.) None of the above

Answer 55

A.) Provide an all-inclusive assessment for use by all agencies

Question 56

Which of the following is not a main objective of case management systems?

A.) Accessibility
B.) Accountability
C.) Consistency of Care
D.) None of the above

Answer 56

D.) None of the above

Main objectives of case management systems: consistent and continuous, accessibility, accountability, and efficiency

Question 57

What is not a main element of establishing a case management system?

A.) Primary screener
B.) Case Manager
C.) Core Agency
D.) None of the above

Answer 57

A.) Primary screener

Question 58

Which of the following is not an established approach to case management for any aspect of the process?

A.) Intensive
B.) High intensity
C.) Brokerage
D.) Integrated

Answer 58

B.) High intensity

Question 59

What statement below would not be consistent w/ the established principles of case management?

A.) A client should lead in determining which resources presented are appropriate
B.) Case management should remain firm on prior established processes
C.) Case management will determine the appropriate action of intervening if problems arise
D.) Case management ensures that a client’s individual strengths are emphasized as part of the process

Answer 59

B.) Case management should remain firm on prior established processes

Question 60

Case management principals are:

Answer 60

*Be the single point of contact
*Ensure the process is client driven & strength based
*Advocate for the client
*Involve the community
*Case management must adapt to be practical
*Anticipate problems and have a plan for resolution
*Be aware of cultural sensitivities

Question 61

Case management involves the advocacy of the client as needed. What situation below is not an example of this?

A.) Educating other agencies about substance abuse
B.) Lobby to adjust agency procedures for the individual if appropriate
C.) Lobby to law enforcement against any sanctions on the client
D.) Informing family members of the process

Answer 61

C.) Lobby to law enforcement against any sanctions on the client

Question 62

Which of the following is not a key element in the development of cultural competency as per Cross et al., 1989?

A.) Valuing diversity
B.) Make a cultural self-assessment
C.) Understanding and awareness of cultural differences
D.) Incorporating cultural knowledge

Answer 62

C.) Understanding and awareness of cultural differences

Key elements in the development of cultural competency per Cross et al., 1989:
*Valuing diversity
*Making a cultural assessment
*Understanding cultural interaction dynamics
*Incorporating cultural knowledge
*Adapting practices to the diversity present in a setting

Question 63

Case management should be pragmatic to ensure the client’s needs are met so that there is a foundation of living for treatment. Which of the following is not consistent w/ the intention of this aspect of case management?

A.) Ensuring the client has suitable food and water
B.) Ensuring a stable living situation for an extended period of time before treatment
C.) Taking action for the health and safety of a client’s child
D.) Teach a client necessary daily skills

Answer 63

B.) Ensuring a stable living situation for an extended period of time before treatment

Question 64

A case manager should have all of the following essential characteristics to ensure an effective process except:

A.) Ability to recognize substance abuse
B.) Ability to establish rapport
C.) Awareness of appropriate boundaries
D.) A non-judgmental approach

Answer 64

A.) Ability to recognize substance abuse

Question 65

When referring a client, which of the following is not true about the process?

A.) The client should always initiate and follow-up on the referral themselves
B.) Rationale for the referral should be thoroughly explained
C.) Continue to evaluate the referral as the client progresses

Answer 65

A.) The client should always initiate and follow-up on the referral themselves

Question 66

Referrals by substance abuse agencies are typically made to all of the following except:

A.) Marriage counselors
B.) Physical therapy
C.) Religious support
D.) Financial counseling

Answer 66

B.) Physical therapy

Typically, physical therapy and legal assistance is not provided by a substance abuse agency and is outside of their scope.

Question 67

Which of the following is not an essential item in a comprehensive service plan?

A.) Long term goals
B.) Short term goals
C.) Write-up of current status
D.) Required services for the client

Answer 67

B.) Short term goals

Question 68

All of the following are common problems that may arise w/ referrals except:

A.) Client dropout
B.) Eligibility requirements
C.) Incomplete client information
D.) All of the above

Answer 68

D.) All of the above

Question 69

Which of the following does not fall under the specified responsibilities of a facilitator?

A.) Gather together the service implementation team
B.) Lead team meetings
C.) Ensure the client is making progress towards specified goals
D.) Guiding discussions in meetings

Answer 69

C.) Ensure the client is making progress towards specified goals

Question 70

Which of the following is not a common method for a case manager to help establish a successful working relationship between agencies?

A.) The use of quid pro quo arrangements
B.) Develop a memorandum of understanding
C.) Determine the points of contact for services in key agencies
D.) Capitalize on personal relationships the client may have

Answer 70

D.) Capitalize on personal relationships the client may have

Question 71

All of the answers below are a common method of evaluating the success or effectiveness of case management for a particular case except:

A.) Extended services survey
B.) Client satisfaction questionnaire
C.) Client outcome measurements
D.) System outcomes

Answer 71

A.) Extended services survey

Question 72

Which of these scenarios is it acceptable for there to be no client consent in which a third party can obtain client information?

A.) For the use of payment for health care operations
B.) A new counselor seeking continuity of care
C.) A co-worker asking for an example to compare to another client
D.) All of the above

Answer 72

A.) For the use of payment for health care operations

Question 73

The documentation of the treatment process is essential for all of the following reasons except:

A.) Continuity of care when a client moves
B.) Legal documentation for potential lawsuits
C.) Compliance with Federal Regulations
D.) Sharing of information w/ third parties external to the case to foster future relationships

Answer 73

D.) Sharing of information w/ third parties external to the case to foster future relationships

Question 74

A treatment facility has a policy of documentation retention to keep files for a minimum period of 7 years. Which of the following scenarios is a common reason for maintaining files for longer than the minimum timeframe?

A.) For minors
B.) For clients with records of violence
C.) For clients w/ a record of relapse
D.) For multiple substance abusers

Answer 74

A.) For minors

Question 75

As per 42 CFR Part 2, which of the following is not a requirement for content of the disclosure of client information as per a court order?

A.) Disclosure information shall be limited to that which is essential to the objective of the order.
B.) Disclosure information should only be provided to those specifically requesting the ordered information
C.) Provide any measures which are necessary to limit the disclosure for the protection of the patient
D.) Provide the information in a manner that is consistent with the public interest

Answer 75

D.) Provide the information in a manner that is consistent with the public interest

Question 76

Which of the following is not an entity that may hold record keeping and documentation to a specific standard?

A.) Single State Authority
B.) Accreditation bodies
C.) Medical services
D.) Insurance companies

Answer 76

C.) Medical services

Question 77

The statements below are recorded in the screening documentation for a new client. Determine which statement is an example of an A/P progress note.

A.) The client entered showing signs of withdrawal such as excessive sweating and shaking
B.) The client is potentially showing signs of a co-occurring disorder
C.) The client mentioned having alcohol w/in the last 3 days on 6 different occasions
D.) The client began to become angry when asked about their spouse

Answer 77

B.) The client is potentially showing signs of a co-occurring disorder

When gathering progress notes, a common method is the SO/AP or Subjective-Objective/Assessment-Plan. SO observations are facts about what happened. AP is an assessment of the facts during the session. In this case, trying to diagnose the client as having a co-occurring disorder would be an assessment and not just a statement of fact. Therefore, this is an AP progress note.

Question 78

What is not an essential element when forming a discharge plan?

A.) Referral source
B.) Outcomes of treatment
C.) Condition of client
D.) Exit interview w/ client

Answer 78

D.) Exit interview w/ client

Question 79

All of the following are statements documented from observations during a session w/ a client. Which statement is most consistent w/ effective documentation recommendations?

A.) The client was saying very few words whenever asked a question
B.) The client appeared to be shady during time w/ groups
C.) The client does not appare to have a strong marriage
D.) The client does not appear to have what it takes to succeed at this point.

Answer 79

A.) The client was saying very few words whenever asked a question

Question 80

Which of the following is not an element of good clinical documentation?

A.) Include the clients name clearly
B.) All entries need to be signed
C.) All entries should be clearly dated
D.) Errors should be removed entirely

Answer 80

D.) Errors should be removed entirely

Question 81

Of the goals shown below, which is not a part of an effective recovery management?

A.) Stabilize the client’s substance abuse
B.) Avoidance of tempting situations
C.) Improved internal health
D.) Re-establishment as part of the community

Answer 81

A.) Stabilize the client’s substance abuse

Recovery management refers to the plan to avoid a relapse and reimplement the client into a healthy lifestyle w/in the community. Stabilizing the client’s symptoms and drug use is a part of primary care that must occur so that treatment can proceed. It is not a part of recovery management.

Question 82

What action related to recovery management would be a poor decision to maintain sobriety?

A.) Making amends w/ anyone who was wronged by the client
B.) Establish a better relationship w/ peers who also use substances
C.) Healthy eating habits and exercise
D.) Avoid social interactions where substances are present

Answer 82

B.) Establish a better relationship w/ peers who also use substances

Question 83

According to the Gorski Development Model, what is the first step in the stage of stabilization?

A.) Determine the impetus of abuse
B.) The client needs to recognize the issue
C.) The client needs to recover from withdrawal symptoms
D.) The client needs to commit to a path of recovery

Answer 83

C.) The client needs to recover from withdrawal symptoms

Question 84

What stage of Gorski’s Developmental Model is associated with the task of repairing any addiction caused social damage?

A.) Early Recovery
B.) Middle Recovery
C.) Late Recovery
D.) Maintenance

Answer 84

B.) Middle Recovery

Middle recovery’s main goal is repairing one’s lifestyle and social structure

Question 85

What are the early signs of a potential relapse that need to be documented if identified?

A.) Changes in daily structures or attitudes
B.) A new found defensive demeanor
C.) Change in social behavior
D.) Exhibiting lack of judgement

Answer 85

A.) Changes in daily structures or attitudes

Question 86

A client who suffered from alcohol abuse has shown signs of relapse and you fear the condition may be deteriorating. What is mostly not an effective technique for interrupting the process of the relapse?

A.) Have the client ignore any thoughts of having a drink
B.) Have the client tell someone immediately when they feel in danger of relapse
C.) Encourage socializing in a safe and sober environment
D.) Have the client recall the negative feelings and actions associated with drinking

Answer 86

A.) Have the client ignore any thoughts of having a drink

Question 87

The approach to the recovery process can best be described as:

A.) Primarily reaching abstinence as the goal
B.) A crisis management process
C.) A professionally directed process
D.) A long-term self-growth process

Answer 87

D.) A long-term self-growth process

Question 88

Which of the following is not an example of the harm reduction model of recovery?

A.) Designated driver
B.) Drug substitution
C.) Behavior modification
D.) Prolonged periods of abstinence

Answer 88

D.) Prolonged periods of abstinence

Question 89

Four clients can be classified by some defining characteristics as determined in their assessment. Which is the least likely to benefit from a traditional 12-step program recovery?

A.) Alcohol abuser with severe social anxiety
B.) Alcohol abuser w/ co-occurring mental disorder
C.) Cocaine abuser w/ a hx of religious involvement
D.) Meth abuser w/ a fear of isolation

Answer 89

A.) Alcohol abuser with severe social anxiety

Question 90

Which of the following is not considered a trigger for a potential relapse?

A.) Negative emotions such as sadness or loneliness
B.) Having a reason to celebrate such as a new job
C.) Sensory stimulants familiar during times of drug use
D.) None of the above.

Answer 90

D.) None of the above.

Question 91

What statement below is not consistent w/ the SAMHSA principles of recovery?

A.) Cultural differences impact recovery
B.) Recovery requires the direction of professional help
C.) Recovery is self-directed
D.) Recovery can be achieved in many ways

Answer 91

B.) Recovery requires the direction of professional help

Question 92

What is the most accurate estimate of individuals in recovery who sought out or used professional help?

A.) 5%
B.) 25%
C.) 75%
D.) 90%

Answer 92

B.) 25%

Question 93

What is not a characteristic of an effective and successful therapeutic alliance?

A.) A strong bond between client & counselor
B.) Collaboration between counselor & third-party entities
C.) Agreement on treatment techniques
D.) Agreement on treatment goals

Answer 93

B.) Collaboration between counselor & third-party entities

Question 94

What is an ineffective method for a counselor to develop a strong relationship w/ a client?

A.) Exhibit a thorough knowledge of expertise in addiction treatment
B.) Use facts to support recommendations
C.) Make connections between the client’s experiences and the counselor’s clinical knowledge
D.) Explain to the client what to expect from experiences the counselor is familiar with from other clients

Answer 94

D.) Explain to the client what to expect from experiences the counselor is familiar with from other clients

Question 95

What action as described below is not consistent with the technique of motivational interviewing?

A.) Summarizing what the client says to show good listening
B.) Ensure an argument is dealt w/ quickly and sternly
C.) Continue to reinforce agreed upon goals
D.) Make the client aware of actions inconsistent w/ their goals

Answer 95

B.) Ensure an argument is dealt w/ quickly and sternly

Question 96

What are the 5 principles of motivational interviewing?

Answer 96

1.) Show empathy
2.) Evaluate how a client’s behavior is affecting their goals
3.) Avoid confrontation
4.) Adjust to client resistance
5.) Provide optimism

Question 97

When counseling a client w/ a co-occurring d/o, what specific technique is most appropriate to be emphasized?

A.) Using repetition to ensure an understanding of expectations
B.) Identify high risk situations the client may not be aware of
C.) Help the client find a sponsor
D.) Use positive reinforcement such as privileges to reward progress

Answer 97

A.) Using repetition to ensure an understanding of expectations

Clients with co-occurring disorders will often have difficulty concentrating or retaining information. Therefore, repetition in an appropriate way is very important to ensure the intention is understood.

Question 98

During counseling, a client who has now been abstinent for some significant amount of time and has adjusted to a new lifestyle, has indicated boredom w/ their current situation. He says his old life was certainly much more exciting. What is not an appropriate technique to avoid a relapse?

A.). Remind the client of the pain from substance abuse
B.) Challenge the client appropriately on the reality of what he remembers as enjoyable times
C.) Suggest new activities that may fill the void
D.) None of the above

Answer 98

D.) None of the above

Question 99

What is not an effective technique for helping a client utilize a mutual self-help group?

A.) Prescribe the best group for the client
B.) Have exit surveys to evaluate the client’s reactions
C.) Provide a briefing on the dynamics of the group
D.) Help to overcome logistical issues

Answer 99

A.) Prescribe the best group for the client

Question 100

What is not consistent w/ the philosophies of motivational interviewing?

A.) Collaboration
B.) Acceptance
C.) Compassion
D.) Intervene

Answer 100

D.) Intervene

Question 101

What is mostly not a realistic expectation that should be set from a counselor to prepare the client for sessions?

A.) Confidentiality will be kept
B.) Start times will be enforced
C.) Sessions where the client arrives under the influence will be analyzed for further insight
D.) There may not be any contact outside of the predetermined times

Answer 101

C.) Sessions where the client arrives under the influence will be analyzed for further insight

Question 102

What model of substance abuse treatment is consistent w/ having a philosophy related to the cause of abuse as being a “defect of character”?

A.) Medical Model
B.) Spiritual Model
C.) Sociocultural Model
D.) Pyschological Model

Answer 102

B.) Spiritual Model

Question 103

What is most likely a poor example of self-disclosure during a counseling session?

A.) Telling the client that you observe a certain emotion in today’s session
B.) Providing detailed stories to try to connect with the client
C.) Acknowledging a similar interest to build rapport
D.) None of the above

Answer 103

B.) Providing detailed stories to try to connect with the client

Question 104

What is not an effective example of empathy towards a client?

A.) Express your sincere remorse when the client explains a difficult time
B.) Provide an example of experience w/ a similar feeling
C.) State the feelings you believe the client is going through
D.) Use active listening to ensure the client knows you understand the story

Answer 104

A.) Express your sincere remorse when the client explains a difficult time

Question 105

What is not an example of evidence-based therapy?

A.) Pharmcotherapy
B.) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
C.) Solution Focused Brief Therapy
D.) None of the above

Answer 105

D.) None of the above

Pharmcotherapy, CBT, and Solution Focused Brief Therapy are all evidenced based therapy examples.

Question 106

Of the following examples of treatment programs, which is considered a long-term method?

A.) Residential treatment
B.) Medication assisted treatment
C.) Residential therapeutic community treatment
D.) Outpatient counseling

Answer 106

C.) Residential therapeutic community treatment

Question 107

When implementing withdrawal management or detoxification, what is not an appropriate expectation of the process?

A.) It will typically less than ten days
B.) This is an opportunity to evaluate the client’s mental state while intoxicated
C.) There is a potential for medical issues and a professional should be present
D.) All of the above

Answer 107

B.) This is an opportunity to evaluate the client’s mental state while intoxicated

Question 108

A client who is still employed is addicted to opioids and requires treatment. He is also physically disabled which makes it difficult for him to leave the home. His family life while impacted is still supporting and intact. Which of the following treatment options is most likely appropriate?

A.) Outpatient treatment
B.) Halfway house
C.) Therapeutic community
D.) None of the above

Answer 108

A.) Outpatient treatment

Question 109

What is a medication that may have benefits for the treatment of someone with an opioid addiction?

A.) Methadone
B.) Disulfiram
C.) Acamprosate
D.) None of the above

Answer 109

A.) Methadone

Question 110

What type of group counseling is effective in providing information to the client about substance abuse?

A.) Psychoeducational
B.) Skills development
C.) Support
D.) Interpersonal process

Answer 110

A.) Psychoeducational

Question 111

Which of the following substances is there no conclusive evidence to support an effectiveness of any medication for abuse treatment?

A.) Alcohol
B.) Tobacco
C.) Methamphetamine
D.) Heroin

Answer 111

C.) Methamphetamine

Question 112

When determining the presence of a crisis, what statement is true?

A.) A crisis occurs if there is a perceived traumatic event regardless of the mental state of the client
B.) If a traumatic event occurs but the client has a stable mental state there is no crisis
C.) A crisis involves only a short-term consequences
D.) A crisis may not include a catalyst

Answer 112

B.) If a traumatic event occurs but the client has a stable mental state there is no crisis

Question 113

What is not generally an identified step in the process of crisis intervention?

A.). Assess the extent of the crisis
B.) Identify the problem at hand
C.) Determine potential solutions
D.) Establish a relapse strategy

Answer 113

D.) Establish a relapse strategy

Question 114

What is not an effective strategy for deescalating a crisis situation?

A.) Ask questions about the client’s past that may identify the root of the problem
B.) Use verbal de-escalation
C.) Take steps to establish a rapport w/ the client
D.) Whenever possible, meet w/ a client in person to deal w/ a crisis

Answer 114

A.) Ask questions about the client’s past that may identify the root of the problem

Question 115

As per general AA teachings, what is not a part of the HALT acronym related to relapse prevention?

A.) Hunger
B.) Anger
C.) Loneliness
D.) Temptation

Answer 115

D.) Temptation

H-Hungry
A-Angry
L-Lonely
T-Tired

Preventing & managing these fourt natural human conditions will help you go a long way in keeping your addictive behavior at bay.

Question 116

What in contemporary terms is the most prevalent way to describe the goal of relapse prevention?

A.) Have the proper tools necessary to intervene when warning signs arise
B.) Promote healthy & positive changes in one’s life to prevent relapse
C.) Prepare the client for the inevitable by having an appropriate plan in place
D.) None of the above

Answer 116

B.) Promote healthy & positive changes in one’s life to prevent relapse