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ALC Mod E Flashcards

1
Q

• How is ACMAF numbered?

A
  • Alpha numerical (12A, 12B, etc.)
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2
Q

• STO Definition

A
  • Surface to Air Missile Tactical Order
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3
Q

• STO Preamble contents

A
  • Issuer
  • For
  • STO #
  • Operation
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4
Q

• STO Line 1?

A
  • Effective DTG
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5
Q

• STO Line 2?

A
  • Location
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6
Q

• STO Line 3A?

A
  • IDA: Identification Authority
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7
Q

• STO Line 3B?

A
  • EA: Engagement Authority
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8
Q

• STO Line 3C?

A
  • IDX: Identification Matrix Execution Authority
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9
Q

• STO Line 3D?

A
  • EMCON: Emissions Control
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10
Q

• STO Line 4A?

A
  • ADW: Air Defense Warning
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11
Q

• What are ADW’s?

A
  • Red: Attack Imminent or in progress
  • Yellow: Attack probable
  • White: Attack improbable
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12
Q

• STO Line 4B?

A
  • WCS: Weapon Control Status
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13
Q

• Define all WCS

A
  • Hold (Most Restrictive): Engage only if directed
  • Tight (Less Restrictive): Engage only positively ID hostiles
  • Free (No restriction)
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14
Q

• STO Line 5A?

A
  • ADW for ABT Threats (FW, CM, RW, UAS)
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15
Q

• All Alert States?

A
  • AS1: ABT Mission
  • AS2: TBM Mission
  • AS3: Passive Search
  • AS4: Radiate Disable
  • AS5: Commanders Discretion
  • AS6: Maintenance
  • AS7: Destroyed/NMC
  • AS0: Moving/Transition
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16
Q

• Line 6?

A
  • Alert States
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17
Q

• All Search Modes

A
  • SM1: ABT
  • SM2: TBM/ABT
  • SM3: CM/ABT
  • SM4: CM/ABT/TBM Self Defense
  • SM5: TBM Only
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18
Q

• When is STO issued?

A
  • 0001Z or any changes
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19
Q

• How is STO numbered?

A
  • 001, 002, etc.
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20
Q

• What is covered in STO remarks?

A
  • Special Instructions or anything not covered in the Preamble
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21
Q

• When is SAMSTATREP sent?

A
  • 0001Z anytime there is a change in reportable information
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22
Q

• How is SAMSTATREP sent?

A
  • Day of report + Alphabetic Designation (EX: 12B for second report)
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23
Q

• What is ETRO and what is it for?

A
  • Estimated Return to Operation

- For NMC equipment reported in DTG

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24
Q

• Equipment Codes?

A
  • A: AMG
  • B: ECS
  • C: CRG
  • D: BCP
  • E: EPP
  • F: Forklift
  • G: GMT
  • I: ICC
  • J: LSTS
  • K: IFF
  • L: LS
  • M: Missile
  • R: RS
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25
Q

• How long does the BCP have to send TBM Engagement Report?

A
  • 30 mins
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26
Q

• What verbal report is sent immediately after Engagement?

A
  • SPLASH report
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27
Q

• What is MIJI report?

A
  • Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming & Interference Report
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28
Q

• HIMEZ?

A
  • High Altitude Missile Engagement Zone
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29
Q

• JEZ?

A
  • Joint Engagement Zone
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30
Q

• LOMEZ

A
  • Low Altitude Missile Engagement Zone
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31
Q

• SHORADEZ

A
  • Short Range Air Defense System Engagement Zone
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32
Q

• WEZ

A
  • Weapons Engagement Zone
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33
Q

• Air Corridors?

34
Q

• BDZ?

A
  • Base Defense Zone
35
Q

• LLTR

A
  • Low Level Transit Route
36
Q

• MRR

A
  • Minimum Risk Route
37
Q

• SAAFR?

A
  • Standard Use Army Aircraft Flight Route
38
Q

• SUA?

A
  • Special Use Airspace
39
Q

• HIDACZ?

A
  • High Density Airspace Control Zone
40
Q

• ROA?

A
  • Restricted Operations Area
41
Q

• Coordinating Altitude?

A
  • Height Difference for FW and RW Line O.
42
Q

• IFFON/IFFOF, IFPID, PIDON, FSCL

A
  • IFFON/IFFOFF: Lines Aircraft turn on responders correspondingly
  • PIDON- Passive ID On Line
  • IFPID: Used as IFFON and PIDON
43
Q

• Types of Volumes?

A
  • Air Corridors
  • Origin Volumes
  • Prohibited Volumes
  • Restricted Volumes
44
Q

• Which ACM is a temporary corridor used by high-speed, fixed wing aircraft when transiting to and from combat zone?

45
Q

• True or False: A JEZ Airspace Control Measure (ACM) is a volume of airspace established to control engagements of low-to-medium altitude surface-to-air missiles.

A
  • False, LOMEZ Low Altitude Missile Engagement Zone
46
Q

• Which ACM is an air defense zone established around an air base and limited to engagement envelope of short-range air defense weapon systems defending that base?

47
Q

• A ________ is an Airspace Control Measure (ACM) within which the responsibility for engagement normally rests with a particular weapon system.

48
Q

• What’s SAMSTATREP?

A
  • Surface-to-air Missile Status Report
49
Q

• The launchers section on the SAMSTATREP requires information for what two fields?

A
  • Operational/In-Operational
50
Q

• True or False: Within the Missile Section the OP field requires the total number of missiles the FP currently is in possession of.

51
Q

• What does the acronym ACMAF represent?

A
  • Airspace Control Measures Activation Form
52
Q

• What Mission Variable involves consideration of dispositions (including organization, strength, location, and tactical mobility), doctrine, equipment, capabilities, and vulnerabilities, and probable courses of action?

53
Q

• Which Operational Variable encompasses individual and group behaviors related to producing, distributing, and consuming resources?

54
Q

• Commanders assess this variable for planning, preparing, and executing tasks and operations. This includes the period required to assemble, deploy, and maneuver units in relationship to the enemy and conditions. Which variable does this excerpt address?

55
Q

• The list of ______ includes major events from the unit’s current position through mission accomplishment. It includes reactions by civilians that might affect operations or that will require allocation of significant assets to account for essential stability tasks.

A
  • Critical events
56
Q

• _______ is a point in space in time when the commander or staff anticipates making key decision concerning a specific course of actions.

A
  • Decision Points
57
Q

• _______ are the influence of manmade infrastructure, civilian institutions, and activities of the civilian leaders, populations, and organizations within an area of operations on the conduct of military operations. They comprise six characteristics, expressed in the memory aid ASCOPE: areas, structures, capabilities, organizations, people, and events.

A
  • Civil Considerations
58
Q

• _______ describers the cultural, religious, and ethnic makeup within an operational environment and the beliefs, values, customs, and behaviors of the public.

59
Q

• What Operational Variable describes the distribution of responsibility and power at all levels of governance—formally constituted authorities, as well as informal or covert political powers?

60
Q

• The following sub-variables: Human rights, Education Level, Population Movement, and Common Languages might require consideration within which Operational Variable?

A
  • Social Variable
61
Q

• _______ variables describe characteristics of the area of operations, focusing on how they might affect a mission.

62
Q

• True or False: Landforms, Vegetation, Key terrain, Mobility classification, and Obstacles are all sub-variables of the Infrastructure Operational Variable?

A
  • False, Physical Environment
63
Q

• _______ variable includes the number, type, capabilities, and condition of available friendly units. These include supplies, services, and provisions available from joint, host nation and unified action partners. They also include backing from civilians and contractors employed by military organizations, such as the Defense Logistics Agency and the Army Materiel Command.

A
  • Troops and Support
64
Q

• When developing COA’s each COA should be examined utilizing all of the following screening criteria EXCEPT?

A
  • Flexibility
65
Q

• _______ is composed of the basic facilities, services, and installations needed for the functioning of a community or society.

A
  • Infrastructure
66
Q

• _______ describes the nature, scope, characteristics, and effects of individuals, organizations, and systems that collect, process, disseminate, or act on data.

A
  • Information
67
Q

• Commander’s and staffs view all of the variables in terms of their impact on mission accomplishment. The mission is the task, together with the purpose, that clearly indicates the action to be taken and the reason therefor. It is always the first variable commander’s consider during decision-making. Which Mission Variable does this excerpt address?

68
Q

• True or False: Terrain and Weather are Operational Variables that include the geography and manmade structures, as well as the climate and weather in the area of operations.

A
  • False, it is a mission variable
69
Q

• What Mission Variable involves consideration of dispositions (including organization, strength, location, and tactical mobility), doctrine, equipment, capabilities, vulnerabilities, and probable courses of action?

70
Q

• Commanders assess this variable for planning, preparing, and executing tasks and operations. This includes the period required to assemble, deploy, and maneuver units in relationship to the enemy and conditions. Which variable does this excerpt address?

A
  • Time Available
71
Q

• Commanders analyze terrain using the five military aspects of terrain expressed in the memory aid OAKOC: observation and fields of fire, avenues of approach, key and decisive terrain, obstacles, cover and concealment. Which Variable is this statement addressing?

A
  • Terrain & Weather
72
Q

• What are mission variables?

73
Q

• What are operational variables?

A
  • PEMSII-PT Political Military economic social information infrastructure physical environment and time
74
Q

• Which step of MDMP requires the following key inputs: Mission statement, initial commanders’ intent, planning guidance, and assumptions?

75
Q

• Which Step of MDMP produces Potential Decision Points, Updated Assumptions, and Initial Assessment Measures as key outputs?

76
Q

• In which step of Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield does the staff determine the threat course of action?

77
Q

• The Military Decision-Making Process (MDMP) is comprised of how many steps?

78
Q

• What is the first step in performing an initial Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield?

A
  • Define the Battlefield/OE
79
Q

• The ___________ is an iterative planning methodology to understand the situation and mission, develop a course of action, and produce an operation plan or order.

80
Q

• Steps of MDMP.

A
  • Receipt of Mission
  • Mission analysis
  • COA development
  • COA analysis
  • COA comparison
  • COA approval
  • Orders production
81
Q

• IPB steps.

A
  • Define the battlefield or operational environment
  • Describe the battlefield effects
  • Evaluate the threat
  • Determine the threat possible COA
82
Q

• COA Screening Criteria used in Step 4 IPB

A
  • Suitability
  • Feasibility
  • Acceptability
  • Distinguishability
  • Complete

ALC Mod E (1 decks)

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