Alberta Red Seal Nov/Dec. 2019

Question 1

What direction should the teeth point when the blade is mounted in a hacksaw?

Answer 1

Teeth point pointing away from you/handle.

Question 2

The purpose of draw filing is to:

a) Remove Metal Rapidly
b) Produce a smooth and flat surface
c) Finish rough surfaces
d) Remove sharp corners and burrs

Answer 2

b) Produce a smooth and flat surface.

Question 3

The discrimination of most bevel protractors is:

Answer 3

• 1 Degree

Question 4

The discrimination of the universal bevel protractor is:

a) 5 Deg.
b) 1 Deg.
c) 5 Inches.
d) 5 Min.

Answer 4

d) 5 minutes

Question 5

The discrimination of the bevel protractor is:

a) 5 Deg.
b) 1 Deg.
c) 5 Inches.
d) 5 Mins

Answer 5

b) 1 Deg.

Question 6

What is the taper ratio of a taper having a length of 200mm, a small diameter of 12mm and a large diameter of 16mm?

a) 1:30
b) 1:40
c) 1:45
d) 1:50

Answer 6

d) 1:50

( 16 - 12 = 4 )

( 200 / 4 = 50 )

Question 7

A threading tool should have:

Answer 7

• No back or side rake so it cuts the correct thread form.

Question 8

The correct combination of speed and feed when roughing out a workpiece on the lathe is:

a) high speed, low feed
b) high speed, high feed
c) low speed, low feed
d) low speed, high feed

Answer 8

d) low speed, high feed.

Question 9

The capacity of a horizontal band saw is determined by the:

a) Total length of blade
b) Largest piece of square material that can be cut.
c) Weight capacity of the roller stock table
d) Largest piece of round material that can be cut.

Answer 9

b) Largest piece of square material that can be cut.

Question 10

The speed of a horizontal band saw is always expressed in:

a) Revolutions per minute ( Rpm )
b) Inches per minute ( Ipm )
c) Inches per revolution ( Ipr )
d) Surface feet per minute ( Sfpm )

Answer 10

d) Surface feet per minute ( Sfpm )

Question 11

Another name for a vertical band saw is:

a) Internal saw
b) Band filer
c) Cut-off saw
d) Contour saw

Answer 11

d) Contour saw

Question 12

The speed of a power hack-saw is always expressed in:

a) Surface feet per minute ( Sfpm )
b) Inches per revolution ( Ipr )
c) Strokes per minute ( Spm )
d) Inches per minute ( Ipm )

Answer 12

c) Strokes per minute ( Spm)

Question 13

A hand hacksaw blade for sawing thin-wall tubing should have a pitch of:

Answer 13

32 Teeth / Inch.

Question 14

On a pedestal grinder, the gap between the grinding wheel work-rest should not exceed:

a) 1/16” ( 1.6 mm )
b) 1/32” ( 0.8mm )
c) 1/8” ( 3mm )
d) 1/4” ( 6.3mm )

Answer 14

c) 1/8” ( 3mm)

Question 15

A direct index plate has 24 slots. What is the angular distance between the slots?

a) 5 Deg.
b) 9 Deg.
c) 15 Deg.
d) 30 Deg.

Answer 15

c) 15 Deg.

Question 16

When simple indexing, one complete turn of the crank rotates the spindle or the workpiece:

a) 5 Deg.
b) 9 Deg.
c) 15 Deg.
d) 30 Deg.

Answer 16

b) 9 Deg.

Question 17

When cutting an API thread on a lathe, the threading tool is set:

a) perpendicular to the taper
b) perpendicular to the machine axis
c) 29 Deg. to the taper
d) 14.5 Deg. to the machine axis

Answer 17

b) perpendicular to the machine axis

Question 18

A diamond penetrator for testing hardness is used on the Rockwell:

a) A,B and C scales.
b) A,B and 15N scales.
c) 15N, 15T and C scales.
d) 30N, 45N and B scales.

Answer 18

b) A,B and 15N scales.

Question 19

The major load applied to the penetrator when using the Rockwell C scale is:

a) 500 kg
b) 150 kg
c) 100 kg
d) 60 kg

Answer 19

b) 150 kg

Question 20

The minimum thickness of workpieces when using the Rockwell B scale is:

a) 0.016”
b) 0.022”
c) 0.024”
d) 0.030”

Answer 20

c) 0.024”

Question 21

The end relief ( Clearance ) angle for a general-purpose high-speed steel lathe tool bit should be:

a) 5 Deg. to 10 Deg.
b) 10 Deg. to 15 Deg.
c) 15 Deg. to 20 Deg.
d) 15 Deg. to 30 Deg.

Answer 21

a) 5 Deg. to 10 Deg.

Question 22

Before mounting a grinding wheel:

a) perform a ring test on the wheel.
b) balance the wheel
c) remove the blotters
d) roll it along the floor to see if it wobbles

Answer 22

a) perform a ring test on the wheel.

Question 23

A glazed wheel:

a) no longer cuts because the abrasive particles have become dull.
b) no longer cuts because the spaces between the abrasive particles are jammed.
c) is best used for finishing operations
d) looks and tastes just like a donut

Answer 23

a) no longer cuts because the abrasive particles have become dull.

Question 24

Truing a wheel:

a) restores its cutting qualities
b) damages the abrasive particles
c) tightens the wheel on the shaft
d) restores the shape of the face of the wheel

Answer 24

d) restores the shape of the face of the wheel

Question 25

Tempering, also called drawing, is the process of:

a) re-heating hardened steel to a temperature below it’s lower critical temperature, followed by a slow rate of cooling
b) re-heating hardened steel to a temperature below it’s lower critical temperature, followed by desired rate of cooling.
c) heating steel above it’s lower critical temperature and quenching in the proper medium
d) heating steel above it’s upper critical temperature, followed by slow cooking in furnace

Answer 25

b) re-heating hardened steel to a temperature below it’s lower critical temperature, followed by desired rate of cooling.

Question 26

After hardening, tempering should be done:

a) within 24 hours
b) immediately
c) whenever time permits
d) only if one feels it is necessary for the job

Answer 26

b) immediately

Question 27

When distortion from heat treatment must be kept to a minimum, which type of steel should be used?

a) air hardening
b) oil hardening
c) water hardening
d) low carbon

Answer 27

a) air hardening

Question 28

Cutting speed refers to:

a) peripheral speed
b) revolutions per minute ( rpm )
c) feed rate
d) inches per revolution

Answer 28

a) peripheral speed

Question 29

When using a sensitive drill press, what should you do as the drill breaks through the workpiece?

a) apply cutting fluid
b) increase the pressure
c) ease up on the pressure
d) switch off the machine

Answer 29

c) ease up on the pressure

Question 30

The lip relief ( clearance ) angle on a drill should be:

a) 5 to 7 Degrees
b) 8 to 12 Degrees
c) 3 to 5 Degrees
d) 2 to 3 Degrees

Answer 30

b) 8 to 12 Degrees

Question 31

The included point angle of a countersunk hole for most flathead screws is:

a) 60 Deg.
b) 79 Deg.
c) 82 Deg.
d) 100 Deg.

Answer 31

c) 82 Deg.

Question 32

A general purpose drill bit for drilling most metals has an included point angle of:

a) 150 Deg.
b) 130 Deg.
c) 118 Deg.
d) 59 Deg.

Answer 32

c) 118 Deg.

Question 33

Carbide drills may be operated at a cutting speed how many times faster than high speed drills?

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

Answer 33

b) three

Question 34

High speed steel cutters should not be used to cut steel harder than:

a) 25 RC
b) 35 RC
c) 45 RC
d) 55 RC

Answer 34

b) 35 RC

Question 35

Slitting saws are less likely to break if:

a) they are run as a lower cutting speed
b) they are run at a higher feedrate
c) the cutting edges are lightly honed
d) they are mounted on an arbor without a key

Answer 35

d) they are mounted on an arbor without a key

Question 36

When inaccuracies in the pitch of the micrometer thread takes place within one revolution of the thimble, this type of error is called:

a) progressive error
b) drunked error
c) pitch error
d) periodic error

Answer 36

d) periodic error

Question 37

On a universal dividng head ( 40:1 ), to index for 10 divisions, you would turn the crank:

a) 6 complete turns
b) 5 complete turns
c) 8 complete turns
d) 4 complete turns

Answer 37

d) 4 complete turns

Question 38

What element is used to control the overall height of an involute spline tooth?

a) Tooth Thickness
b) Stub Pitch
c) Major Diameter
d) Number of Teeth

Answer 38

b) Stub Pitch

Question 39

What indexing would be required to cut a 12/24, 18 tooth involute spline shaft with a 30 Deg. Pressure Angle? Assume a 40:1 ratio on the dividing head.

a) 2 turns and 16 holes on a 72 hole plate
b) 1 turn and 9 holes on a 26 hole plate
c) 1 turn 9 holes on a 56 hole plate
d) 2 turn and 14 holes on an 82 hole plate

Answer 39

a) 2 turns and 16 holes on a 72 hole plate

Question 40

The safest way to remove chips from a machine is to use:

a) a piece of cotton waste
b) your apron
c) a brush
d) a handcloth

Answer 40

c) a brush

Question 41

A hacksaw blade will bind and break when:

Answer 41

becomes dull

Question 42

If the edge of a cold chisel quickly becomes dull after each sharpening, it needs:

Answer 42

Hardening and Tempering

Question 43

The gauge used to check internal tapers is called:

Answer 43

Plug Gauge

Question 44

Checking the pitch of a thread can be done most accurately with the:

Answer 44

Pitch gauge

Question 45

A reamer is used to produce _______ and _____ holes.

Answer 45

Smooth and Accurate holes.

Question 46

A hand reamer has a taper on the end for the purpose of:

Answer 46

Starting.

Question 47

What is the purpose of Dowel Pins?

Answer 47

Retain parts line up stuff ( Alignment )

Question 48

Give three ( 3 ) reasons for lapping a component.

Answer 48

1) Improve Surface Flatness
2) Accurate Size/Finish
3) Sealing

Question 49

Laying out lines parallel to an edge can best be done with the:

Answer 49

Hermaphrodite Calipers

Question 50

The included point angle of a prick punch should be about:

Answer 50

30 - 60 Degrees

Question 51

List four methods of making angular layout in order of least to most accurate method:

Answer 51

a) Dividers
b) Bevel Protractors
c) Vernier Protractors
d) Sine Bar and Gauge Blocks

Question 52

Which of the following dimensions shows a bilateral tolerance?

a) .500 +.004/+.002
b) 1.500 +.000/-.003
c) 1.750 +.002/-.000
d) 2.000 +.003/-.001

Answer 52

d) 2.000 +.003/-.001

Question 53

The most convenient steel rule for setting inside calipers is the:

Answer 53

Hook rule

Question 54

If you machine a shaft to 1.500 +.000/-.004 and a sleeve to 1.502 +/-.001 then the resulting fit would be:

Answer 54

Clearance fit

Question 55

Adjustable parallels can be used to ____ and to _____.

Answer 55

Support work and to Make measurements.

Question 56

Angles and tapers are most accurately measured with a:

Answer 56

Sine Bar + Gauge Blocks

Question 57

Negative rake cutting:

a) reduces force on the workpiece
b) reduces chatter
c) used mainly on brazed tip tools
d) developed to overcome weakness of carbide material

Answer 57

c) used mainly on brazed tip tools

Question 58

Positive rake cutting:

a) allows chips to flow freely from the cutting edge
b) allows increased cutting speeds
c) requires high power input
d) protects the nose the weakest part of the tool

Answer 58

a) allows chips to flow freely from the cutting edge

Question 59

An American Standard toolholder supports the tool at an angle of ____ and this angle on the tool it is called ____.

Answer 59

15 - 20 Degrees / Back rake

Question 60

When grinding a turning tool the side relief angle must be greater than:

Answer 60

8 Degrees

Question 61

List four ( 4 ) important properties of cutting tools:

Answer 61

a) Hard
b) Wear resistant
c) Have a high red hardness
d) Withstand shock

Question 62

List four ( 4 ) possible causes of chatter:

Answer 62

a) Dull Tool
b) Too light a feed
c) Improper tool height
d) Loose tool in the tool post

Question 63

The term “ Tempering “ means:

a) heating above lower critical temperature and quenching in proper medium
b) re-heating hardened steel to desired temperature below lower critical temperature
c) heating metal to just above its upper critical point, followed by slow cooling in furnace
d) heating the steel to just above it’s upper critical point and cooling in still air

Answer 63

b) re-heating hardened steel to desired temperature below lower critical temperature

Question 64

The hardening colours for carbon tool steels are:

Answer 64

Cherry red

Question 65

List three quenching media used in heat treatment:

( Remember “ WOA “ )

Answer 65

a) Water
b) Oil
c) Air

Question 66

When using the tempering colors, a brown colour would indicate an approximate temperature of:

a) 450 Deg Fahrenheit
b) 490 Deg. Fahrenheit
c) 530 Deg. Fehrenheit
d) 590 Deg. Fehrenheit

Answer 66

b) 490 Deg. Fehrenheit

Question 67

A sensitive drill press has only ____ feed.

Answer 67

-Hand

Question 68

The quill or sleeve on a drilling machine:

a) supports the table
b) has a morse taper in one end
c) holds the cutting tool
d) does not revolve

Answer 68

d) does not revolve

Question 69

Drilling machines with more than one drilling head and a single table are called:

Answer 69

Gang drill

Question 70

The advantage of a radial drilling machine is that the _____ can be _____ over the ____.

Answer 70

Drilling head / Moved / Workpiece

Question 71

The highest spindle speed on a sensitive drill press is achieved with the V-belt on the:

a) largest diameter groove of the motor pulley
b) largest diameter groove of the spindle pulley
c) smallest diameter groove of the motor pulley
d) largest diameter groove of motor and spindle pulley

Answer 71

a) largest diameter groove of the motor pulley

Question 72

Excessive feed rates on a drilling operation would most likely cause:

Answer 72

Breakage of the chisel point

Question 73

As the twist drill begins to break through the work:

Answer 73

Reduce feed

Question 74

The point angle on drills that are used for soft materials is:

Answer 74

60 - 90 Degrees

Question 75

The included angle of most common countersink drills is:

Answer 75

82 Degrees

Question 76

The feed rate for reaming as compared to drilling is usually:

Answer 76

2 - 3 times the feedrate for drilling

Question 77

In general, there are two ( 2 ) types of power saws:

Answer 77

Vertical and Horizontal

Question 78

A minimum of ____ teeth should be kept in contact with the workpiece at all times.

Answer 78

2 - 3 Teeth

Question 79

The most common types of set on a metal cutting bandsaw blade are the ____ set and the ____ set.

Answer 79

Straight / Raker

Question 80

Newly-welded band saw blades require:

a) annealing of the welded area
b) hardening of the welded area
c) Tempering of the welded area
d) normalizing of the welded area

Answer 80

a) annealing of the welded area

Question 81

In order to stop the blade on a vertical bandsaw from running off the upper wheel:

a) adjust the upper saw blade guide
b) adjust the lower saw blade guide
c) adjust the tilt hand wheel
d) adjust the blade tension

Answer 81

c) adjust the tilt hand wheel

Question 82

Band velocity on band saws is expressed in:

a) Inches/min
b) Surface feet/min
c) RPM
d) Inches/foot

Answer 82

b) Surface feet/min

Question 83

Setting a lathe tool above the center line of the lathe will reduce the effective:

Answer 83

End Clearance

Question 84

Left handed threads are cut by reversing the direction of rotation of the:

Answer 84

Lead screw

Question 85

The thread chasing dial is located on the:

Answer 85

Apron

Question 86

The side relief for a single point lathe tool for cutting brass should be:

Answer 86

8 - 10 Degrees

Question 87

A thread cutting tool is set 90 Deg. to the workpiece axis with the help of a:

Answer 87

Center gauge

Question 88

The best method to cut 45 Deg. or bevels on the lathe is the:

Answer 88

Compound

Question 89

The split or half-nut when cutting fractional half threads can be engaged:

Answer 89

1 - 3 or 2 - 4

Question 90

Name two types of taper turning attachments:

Answer 90

a) Plain
b) Telescoping

Question 91

To align lathe centers for accurate cylindrical turning:

a) mount a test bar between center’s, adjust tailstock with set over screws, and test with a dial indicator
b) adjust set over screws until lines on the tailstock are in alignment
c) bring tailstock up to headstock and adjust set over screws until centers are in alignment
d) use a micrometer to check the diameter of the work over its entire length

Answer 91

a) mount a test bar between centers, adjust tailstock with set over screws, and test with a dail indicator.

Question 92

When machining between centers and the work is reversed to machine the opposite end, if the two diameters are not concentric it indicates:

a) the tailstock is out of alignment adjusted away from the operator
b) the tailstock is out of alignment adjusted towards the operator
c) the headstock centre does not run true
d) the tool bit is not on centre height

Answer 92

c) the headstock centre does not run true

Question 93

Which of the following would give the tightest fitting bolt - nut combination?

a) 1A and 1B
b) 3A and 1B
c) 3A and 3B
d) 2A and 3B
e) 2A and 2B

Answer 93

c) 3A and 3B

Question 94

On which of the following do you normally find two thread angles?

a) Metric thread
b) American Pipe thread
c) Buttress thread
d) API thread
e) Multiple start thread

Answer 94

c) Buttress thread

Question 95

What milling cutter is required to produce a blind keyway in the center of a shaft?

Answer 95

Endmill

Question 96

When milling a spiral reamer which method of indexing is used?

a) direct indexing
b) simple indexing
c) differential indexing
d) any method of indexing

Answer 96

b) simple indexing.

Question 97

In order to revolve the spindle one complete revolution on most dividing or index heads, the index crank must be revolved:

a) 20 times
b) 40 times
c) 60 times
d) 80 times

Answer 97

b) 40 times

Question 98

The lead of helix is:

a) length of the workpiece
b) distance required to make one complete turn
c) number of teeth per inch
d) number of teeth per revolution

Answer 98

b) distance required to make one complete turn

Question 99

One complete revolution of the index crank revolves the work through an angle of:

a) 9 degrees
b) 10 degrees
c) 29 degrees
d) 40 degrees

Answer 99

a) 9 degrees

Question 100

The gears required for differential indexing are mounted between the ____ and the ____.

Answer 100

Spindle / Indexing plate

Question 101

The best cutter for fluting reamers is a:

a) radius cutter
b) Woodruff cutter
c) double angle cutter
d) concave cutter

Answer 101

c) double angle cutter

Question 102

The radial face of the tooth of a reamer is located:

a) 1/64 in. behind the centre
b) 1/64 in. before the centre
c) through the centre
d) at angle to the centre

Answer 102

b) 1/64 in. before the centre

Question 103

The side relief angle for a single point lathe tool for cutting brass should be:

Answer 103

8 - 10 degrees

Question 104

Three methods for fastening lathe chucks to the spindle nose are:

Answer 104

a) Threaded
b) Cam Lock
c) Tapered Key

Question 105

The safest way to file in a lathe is left-handed.

True / False

Answer 105

True

Question 106

If, when turning work held between centres, the job tapers smaller on the headstock end:

a) adjust the tailstock away from you
b) adjust the tailstock towards you
c) take a smaller cut
d) re-grind the cutting tool

Answer 106

b) adjust the tailstock towards you

Question 107

What is snagging?

a) precision grinding with hand-held grinders
b) grinding cylindrical pieces held between centers
c) grinding down welds and flash from castings
d) sharpening saws

Answer 107

c) grinding down welds and flash from castings

Question 108

How is the depth of cut set on a surface grinder?

a) by moving the knee up
b) by raising the saddle
c) by lowering the wheelhead
d) by lowering the column

Answer 108

c) by lowering the wheelhead

Question 109

What must be done to a magnetic chuck from time to time to keep it true?

a) grind it
b) hone it
c) dial it in
d) scrape the ways

Answer 109

b) hone it

Question 110

What is the most likely cause of chatter marks?

a) an unbalanced wheel
b) a glazed wheel
c) a loaded wheel
d) a wheel that is too small

Answer 110

a) an unbalanced wheel

Question 111

Surface grinders are typically accurate to within:

a) 0.005 inch
b) 0.001 inch
c) 0.0005 inch
d) 0.0001 inch

Answer 111

d) 0.0001 inch

Question 112

What parts of a universal cylindrical grinder can be swivelled?

a) lower table, upper table, and foot-stock
b) upper table, headstock, and foot-stock
c) upper table, wheel-head, and foot-stock
d) upper table, wheel-head, and headstock

Answer 112

d) upper table, wheel-head, and head-stock

Question 113

Where should you mount the diamond dresser when dressing the grinding wheel?

a) lower table
b) upper table
c) work-head
d) wheel-head

Answer 113

b) upper table

Question 114

How far should a wheel traverse per revolution when rough grinding?

a) 1/2 to 2/3 it’s width
b) 1/8 to 1/3 it’s width
c) 1/3 to 2/3 it’s width
d) 1.8 to 1/2 it’s width

Answer 114

a) 1/2 to 2/3 it’s width

Question 115

What part of a cylindrical grinder can be swivelled to grind a short, steep taper?

a) work-head
b) foot-stock
c) lower table
d) upper table

Answer 115

a) work-head

Question 116

What precautions should you take when grinding up to a shoulder?

a) do not change the speed of the grinding wheel
b) do not change the speed of the workpiece
c) do not change the traverse speed
d) do not change the amount of infeed

Answer 116

c) do not change the traverse speed

Question 117

How far should the wheel feed past the end of the work when parallel grinding?

a) not at all
b) 1/3 the width of the wheel
c) 2/3 the width of the wheel
d) completely

Answer 117

b) 1/3 the width of the wheel

Question 118

What part of a cylindrical grinder supports the middle of a long, thin work-piece?

a) foot-stock
b) collet
c) center rest
d) back rest

Answer 118

c) center rest

Question 119

What is the drag angle when dressing a wheel on a cylindrical grinder?

a) 0 degrees
b) 1 to 3 degrees
c) 3 to 5 degrees
d) 10 to 15 degrees

Answer 119

d) 10 to 15 degrees

Question 120

What combination of materials provides the longest life?

a) hardened steel worm and bronze worm gear
b) bronze worm and hardened steel worm gear
c) hardened steel worm and hardened steel worm gear
d) cast iron worm and cast iron worm gear

Answer 120

a) hardened steel worm and bronze worm gear

Question 121

How are most Course Pitch worm threads mass-produced?

a) turning
b) short-lead helical milling set-up on a universal milling machine
c) rolling
d) milling

Answer 121

d) milling

Question 122

To what angle do you set the dividing head when milling a straight bevel gear?

a) face angle
b) addendum angle
c) dedendum angle
d) root ( cutting ) angle

Answer 122

d) root ( cutting ) angle

Question 123

A fixture must constrain how degrees of freedom?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 12

Answer 123

c) 6

Question 124

What type of locator is often used for castings?

a) sighting plate
b) conical locators
c) C-washers
d) buttons

Answer 124

d) buttons

Question 125

Because the measurement of the pitch diameter is least affected by an error in the thread angle, the best size wire is one that contacts the thread at the:

a) base
b) root
c) pitch line
d) crest

Answer 125

c) pitch line

Question 126

When using the compound-rest method of cutting multiple threads, the machinist moves the compound, for each thread, a distance that is:

a) equal to the depth of the tread
b) equal to the pitch of the thread
c) equal to the lead of the thread
d) three-forths the pitch of the thread

Answer 126

b) equal to the pitch of the thread

Question 127

A disadvantage of feeding a threading tool with the cross-slide is that:

a) the cutting pressure is on the point of the tool
b) the cutting pressure is on both side of the tool
c) the depth cannot be calculated
d) the form of the thread is not accurate

Answer 127

b) the cutting pressure is on both side of the tool

Question 128

Which of the following is not a method or tool for measuring thread for size?

a) three-wire method
b) thread snap gauge
c) screw thread micrometer
d) screw thread comparator micrometer

Answer 128

b) thread snap gauge

Question 129

Multiple threads are used to give:

a) strength
b) power
c) speed
d) self-locking ability

Answer 129

c) speed

Question 130

The minimum depth of an undercut for a unified thread should be equal to:

Answer 130

Root diamter

Question 131

The arbor key should:

a) be sufficiently long to extend into the bushings
b) be a drive fit in the cutter
c) be the same length as the cutter
d) be fitted to the spindle nose

Answer 131

a) be sufficiently long to extend into the bushings

Question 132

The cutter should be mounted:

a) so that it holds the job down on the table
b) so that it tends to loosen the arbor nut
c) so that it removes the pressure from the cutter
d) as close to the column as is practical

Answer 132

d) as close to the column as is practical

Question 133

When using a helical tooth cutter place it on the arbor so that the work pressure tends to force the cutter toward the machine column.

True or False

Answer 133

True

Question 134

Which of the following operations would be most difficult to perform on a horizontal boring mill?

a) external threading
b) internal threading
c) external taper turning
d) internal taper boring

Answer 134

a) external threading

Question 135

The size of a vertical boring mill is determined by the:

a) distance from the table to the turret head
b) size from the rail to the table
c) size from the vertical head to the table
d) size of the table

Answer 135

d) size of the table

Question 136

The pedestal grinding wheel vibrates excessively, it is an indication that the wheel is:

a) turning too slowly
b) out of balance
c) turning too fast
d) loaded

Answer 136

b) out of balance

Question 137

To ensure the safe operation of a grinding machine:

a) the wheel should be sharpened or dressed as often as is needed
b) a large amount of coolant should be used
c) the wheel should be operated when dry
d) a resinoid-bonded wheel should be used

Answer 137

a) the wheel should be sharpened or dressed as often as is needed

Question 138

Which cylindrical grinding machine is best-suited for mass production?

Answer 138

Centerless Grinding

Question 139

When grinding wheel leaves chatter marks on the work, the only possible reason is that the wheel is out of round.

True or False

Answer 139

False

Question 140

Which of the following terms does not apply to internal grinding?

a) blind hole grinding
b) through-feed grinding
c) form grinding
d) taper grinding

Answer 140

b) through-feed grinding

Question 141

Unbalanced wheels cause:

a) chatter
b) very little vibration
c) enough damage to warrant they’re being discarded
d) clogging

Answer 141

a) chatter

Question 142

A metric taper ratio is:

a) the difference between a taper’s major or minor diameters
b) the length of a taper divided by it’s major diameter
c) expressed in degrees, minutes and seconds
d) the length of the taper for every 1mm increase in diameter

Answer 142

d) the length of the taper for every 1mm increase in diameter

Question 143

The end relief ( clearance ) angle for a general-purpose high-speed steel lathe tool bit should be:

a) 5 Deg. to 10 Deg.
b) 10 Deg. to 15 Deg.
c) 15 Deg. to 20 Deg.
d) 15 Deg. to 30

Answer 143

a) 5 Deg. to 10 Deg.

Question 144

Each tooth on a broach is higher than the one before by an amount called the:

a) chip breaker
b) rake angle
c) depth of cut
d) land

Answer 144

c) depth of cut

Question 145

Broaching is capable of producing a surface finish of:

a) 16 micrometers
b) 32 micrometers
c) 64 micrometers
d) 125 micrometers

Answer 145

b) 32 micrometers

Question 146

The non-destructive inspection method that can be used to measure the wall thickness of closed vessels is the:

a) radiographic method
b) ultrasonic method
c) fluorescent method
d) magnetic particle method

Answer 146

b) ultrasonic method

Question 147

How far is the centerline of the spindle from the edge of the work-piece when using a 0.200in diameter edge finder?

a) 0.300
b) 0.100
c) 0.200
d) 0.050

Answer 147

b) 0.100

Question 148

When turning a taper on a lathe, where is the point of the cutting edge of the tool set?

a) perpendicular to the taper
b) on the centre height
c) 0.020 in above centre
d) 0.020 in below centre

Answer 148

b) on the centre height

Question 149

In CNC machining, what is the term used for a set of instructions or blocks that can be inserted into a program and repeated when required?

a) miscellaneous function
b) diagnostics
c) sub-program
d) programmable increment

Answer 149

c) sub-program

Question 150

Which type of hole requires a spiral fluted hand reamer?

a) oversized
b) oval-shaped
c) keyed or slotted
d) bell-mouthed

Answer 150

c) keyed or slotted

Question 151

What product is used to check the final fit of mating tapers?

a) penetrating dye
b) lapping compound
c) Prussian blue
d) layout dye

Answer 151

c) Prussian blue

Question 152

Which part of a lathe threading mechanism determines how fast the carriage travels?

a) lead screw
b) feed rod
c) feed clutch
d) crossfeed screw

Answer 152

a) lead screw

Question 153

Which component is adjusted on a vertical band saw to cut an angular surface?

a) work table
b) saw guidepost
c) tension crank
d) carrier wheel

Answer 153

a) work table

Question 154

How are feed rates expressed for milling operations?

a) meters per millimeter
b) feed per minute
c) inches per revolution
d) inches per minute

Answer 154

d) inches per minute

Question 155

How do you accurately align a vise mounted on a milling machine table perpendicular to the column, and the vise should be aligned with?

a) dowel pins
b) square
c) dial indicator against the moveable jaw
d) dial indicator against the fixed jaw

Answer 155

d) dial indicator against the fixed jaw

Question 156

Which of the following is the thread angle of an imperial thread?

a) 60 Deg.
b) 118 Deg.
c) 29 Deg.
d) 120 Deg.

Answer 156

a) 60 Deg.

Question 157

Which of the following does a bolt that is tightened by turning counter-clockwise is said to have what?

a) left-hand thread
b) right-hand thread
c) pan-head
d) hardened shaft

Answer 157

a) left-hand thread

Question 158

Which of the following types of threads is ideal for load support in one direction?

a) NC
b) Buttress
c) Square
d) NPT

Answer 158

b) Buttress

Question 159

Which of the following would you use for accurate angle measurement?

a) tape measure
b) bevel protractor
c) gauge block and sine bar
d) vernier caliper

Answer 159

c) gauge block and sine bar

Question 160

The Acme threading tool forms an include angle of how many degrees?

a) 30
b) 55
c) 29
d) 60

Answer 160

c) 29 deg.

Question 161

In what position is the compound normally set for cutting right hand external Acme threads?

a) set a 90 degrees
b) 29 degrees to the right
c) 14 ½ degrees to the right
d) 14 ½ degrees to the left

Answer 161

c) 14 ½ to the right

Question 162

Hand reamers can be readily identified by the?

a) length of the flutes
b) length of the body
c) markings on the neck
d) square on the shank

Answer 162

d) square on the shank

Question 163

The cutting speed used to do a job depends on?

a) the work material
b) the condition of the machine
c) the tool material
d) all the above

Answer 163

d) all the above

Question 164

A feed rate that is too low will..?

a) leave a very dull finish
b) speed up the job
c) dull the cutter quickly
d) burn the cutting edge

Answer 164

c) dull the cutter quickly

Question 165

Direct indexing is performed?

a) with the worm engaged
b) on the spindle nose
c) through a gear train
d) on the side index plate

Answer 165

d) on the side index plate

Question 166

A direct index plate with 24-holes is available. Which of the divisions can not be performed?

a) 3
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9

Answer 166

d) 9

Question 167

The sector arms are used?

a) when direct indexing
b) on the side index plate
c) to divide a circle plate
d) none of the above

Answer 167

a) when direct indexing

Question 168

Contoured surfaces are machined with?

a) contour saw
b) stagger tooth cutters
c) form relieved cutters
d) helical plain milling cutters

Answer 168

d) helical plain milling cutters

Question 169

Helical milling cutters?

a) have a smooth cutting action
b) chatter easily
c) leave rough surfaces
d) cannot be re-sharpened

Answer 169

a) have a smooth cutting action

Question 170

An adjustable boring head is needed to make?

a) holes in specific locations
b) true cylindrical holes
c) non-standard size holes
d) none of the above

Answer 170

b) true cylindrical holes

Question 171

Vibration in a boring operation can be?

a) caused by an unbalanced cutting
b) caused by a long boring tool
c) stopped by increasing the feed rate
d) all of the above

Answer 171

d) all of the above

Question 172

An advantage of turning between centers is that?

a) it produces less chatter than by other methods
b) A more positive drive is possible
c) A shaft can be removed or turned end to end without loss of concentricity
d) Long work can be supported in a steady rest so facing drilling or boring can be carried out

Answer 172

c) A shaft can be removed or turned end to end without loss of cencentricity

Question 173

Driving force is transmitted to the workpiece when turning between centers by means of a?

a) three or four jaw chuck
b) drive plate and a lathe dog
c) trip dog that automatically stops rotation at a predetermined point
d) collet and drawbar

Answer 173

b) drive plate and a lathe dog

Question 174

Which of the following, in reference to fasteners, does TPI stands for?

a) teeth per inch
b) taper per inch
c) tooling per inch
d) threads per inch

Answer 174

d) threads per inch

Question 175

Which of the following are NPT threads are used for?

a) finer threads than UNEF are required
b) acme threads are required for the female thread
c) threading/pipe fitting
d) mating parts are subject to vibration

Answer 175

c) threading/pipe fitting

Question 176

The gear ratio of a single reduction worm gear is determined by the number of teeth on the gear and from which of the following?

a) Diameter of the gear
b) Helix angle
c) Worm pitch
d) The number of thread on the worm

Answer 176

d) The number of thread on the worm

Question 177

Which of the following is what you would call on the portion of tooth above the centerline?

a) Addendum
b) Dedendum
c) Pitch
d) Root

Answer 177

a) Addendum

Question 178

A standard micrometer has a discrimination of what part of an inch?

a) .0001
b) .001
c) .010
d) .100

Answer 178

a) .0001

Question 179

Live centers are?

a) hardened and serrated
b) soft metal
c) made with carbide inserts
d) hardened

Answer 179

d) hardened

Question 180

The half nuts should be engaged when threading odd-numbered threads when the threading dial is positioned at?

a) any line
b) only one line
c) any numbered line
d) opposite lines only

Answer 180

d) opposite lines only

Question 181

For threading, the spindle should be turning?

a) at about one-fourth normal turning speeds
b) the rpm given in standard charts for the type of metal you are working on
c) at the slowest speed the lathe can be set
d) none of the above

Answer 181

b) the rpm given in standard charts for the type of metal you are working on

Question 182

Which of the following is referred to on a drawing has a dimension followed by two numbers such as +.002, -.002?

a) Tolerance
b) Allowance
c) Clearance
d) Tightness

Answer 182

a) Tolerance

Question 183

When making one complete revolution, the distance a worm moves forward is called, which of the following?

a) Helix angle
b) Pitch
c) Lead
d) Tooth form

Answer 183

c) Lead

Question 184

Herringbone gears are best described to have, which of the following?

a) helix
b) formed point at the gear center
c) straight teeth cut parallel to the shaft
d) minimal teeth in contact

Answer 184

b) formed point at the gear center

Question 185

Which of the following is called the pitch circle of a gear?

a) Outside diameter
b) Pitch diameter
c) Diametric pitch
d) Circular pitch

Answer 185

b) Pitch diameter

Question 186

Which of the following liquids cools the tool the quickest when tempering a hand tool?

a) oil
b) lime
c) coolant
d) water

Answer 186

d) water

Question 187

A drive gear with 50 teeth turns at 300 RPM. The driven gear has 20 teeth. How many RPM is the driven gear turning at?

a) 750 RPM
b) 675 RPM
c) 800 RPM
d) 120 RPM

Answer 187

a) 750 RPM

( 50 x 300 / 20 )

Question 188

Hypoid gears are best described as which of the following?

a) Operate at non-parallel, non-intersecting axis
b) Operate at parallel, intersecting axis
c) Operate at non-parallel, intersecting axis
d) Operate at parallel, non-intersecting axis

Answer 188

a) Operate at non-parallel, non-intersecting axis

Question 189

If work is not flat, the first place to check is?

a) length of grinding stroke
b) wheel grade or hardness
c) wheel bearings
d) chuck alignment

Answer 189

d) chuck alignment

Question 190

How can tapers be turned in a lathe?

a) With the compound taper attachment offset tailstock and tool methods
b) By the off-hand method the taper slide method
c) By the angular slide attachment the offset center and the single tool
d) None of the above

Answer 190

a) With the compound taper attachment offset tailstock and tool methods

Question 191

If the compound swivel base is set on 60 degrees at the lathe centerline index, how many degrees will the reading be at the cross slide index?

a) 180
b) 30
c) 90
d) 45

Answer 191

b) 30

Question 192

The formula for calculating the offset of the tailstock is?

Offset= Lx (D-d)
2xL1
Where L is the total length of the piece and L1 is the length of taper,
D is large dia and d is small dia.
If the shaft to be tapered on one end is eight inches long and taper is to be
three inches in length, the shaft dia is 1 ¼ inches and the small end of the
taper 1 inch, how many inches should the offset be?
a) 1/3 or .333
b) 2/3 or .666 8x(1.25-1)
c) 0.100 2x3
d) 0.250

Answer 192

a) 1/3 or .333

Offset= Lx(D-d)

2xL1

Offset = 8 x ( 1.25-1 )

= 2

2/3 = .666666

.666 / 2 = .3333

Question 193

If a vertical mill table is loose and has side play, the best solution to alleviate side play is which of the following?

a) loosen the taper gib adjustment
b) tighten the taper gib adjustment
c) use a parallel clamp and angle plate to eliminate any movement
d) tighten the clamps that lock the table

Answer 193

b) tighten the taper gib adjustment

Question 194

Tough material causes accelerated tool wear. What may a machinist do to reduce tool wear and possible tool breakage?

a) increase the spindle speed and feed
b) decrease the spindle speed
c) increase the spindle speed
d) switch tooling to non-coated high-speed steel end mills

Answer 194

b) decrease the spindle speed

Question 195

The most accurate method for aligning a vise mounted on a vertical mill table is by using which of the following?

a) scale and measure distances
b) dial indicator mounted on the quill or in a collet
c) calipers, perform triangulation and apply roll pins
d) keys mounted on the bottom of the vise fitting the slots

Answer 195

b) dial indicator mounted on the quill or in a collet

Question 196

Which of the following is the gauge block height for an angle of 9 degrees on a 10-inch sine plate?

a) 0.5673 inches
b) 0.9822 inches
c) 1.5643 inches
d) 2.1486 inches

Answer 196

c) 1.5643

Question 197

The amount of stock removed by cylindrical from the diameter of a shaft in relation to the wheel in-feed is?

a) twice the in-feed
b) equal to the in-feed
c) half the in-feed
d) one quarter the in-feed

Answer 197

c) half the in-feed

Question 198

To support two tons using a vertical lift, what diameter rope is needed?

a) 1/2 “
b) 1/4 “
c) 1 “
d) 3/4 “

Answer 198

a) 1/2 “

Question 199

If using the same rope, what type of lifting technique has the least lifting capacity?

a) Basket hitch
b) 2 [art Bridle
c) Vertical hitch
d) Choker sling

Answer 199

d) Choker sling

Question 200

Which of the following is a tag line used for?

a) secure the snatch block
b) prevent swinging of the load
c) assist the main-line in lifting
d) prevent the whip line from coming unraveled

Answer 200

b) prevent swinging of the load

Question 201

Which of the following is the correct drilling operation for cutting a recess for a socket head cap screw?

a) spot-facing
b) counter-sinking
c) counter-boring
d) recessing

Answer 201

c) counter-boring

Question 202

To thread to the bottom of a blind hole, which tap should you use?

a) pointed
b) plug
c) bottoming
d) taper

Answer 202

c) bottoming

Question 203

The length of a tapped hole should be how many times the diameter of the screw?

a) 1/2
b) one and one-half
c) two times the diameter
d) three and a half

Answer 203

b) one and one-half

Question 204

When tapping a blind hole you will require the use of?

a) flat end tap
b) spiral tap
c) bottoming tap
d) plug tap

Answer 204

c) bottoming tap

Question 205

The pitch circle of a gear can be called?

a) pitch diameter
b) outside pitch
c) circular pitch
d) diametral pitch

Answer 205

a) pitch diameter

Question 206

The type of gear that reduces the end thrust in a parallel gearbox is?

a) worm gear set
b) hypoid gears
c) herringbone gears
d) bevel gears

Answer 206

c) herringbone gears

Question 207

The type of coupling does NOT require a key and/or key seat?

a) roller chain
b) compression
c) jaw
d) flanged

Answer 207

d) flanged

Question 208

What is a dowel pin used for?

a) act as a location device
b) eliminate the need for bolts
c) used for screws
d) used as guides

Answer 208

a) act as a location device

Question 209

How are external threads cut?

a) vice grips
b) die tap
c) T-handle tap wrench
d) bottom tap

Answer 209

b) die tap

Question 210

Name the most accurate way used to measure axial movement in a shaft play?

a) vernier caliper
b) micrometer
c) dial indicator
d) depth gauge

Answer 210

c) dial indicator

Question 211

Which of the following is the included angle of an acme thread?

a) 40 degrees
b) 60 degrees
c) 118 degrees
d) 29 degrees

Answer 211

d) 29 degrees

Question 212

An electromagnetic chuck is used on a surface grinder because it?

a) holds work-pieces more firmly than hold down clamps
b) will hold any work-piece
c) makes every surface of a work-piece available for grinding
d) is the fastest way to set up most work

Answer 212

d) is the fastest way to set up most work

Question 213

Which of the following is the most precise hand wheel control on the grinder?

a) chuck
b) traverse
c) cross-feed
d) down-feed

Answer 213

d) down-feed

Question 214

For grinding most steels, the preferred abrasive is?

a) diamond
b) silicon carbide
c) aluminum oxide
d) cubic boron nitride

Answer 214

c) aluminum oxide

Question 215

Grade in a grinding wheels specification refers to the?

a) strength with which the bond hold the grain
b) relative hardness of the abrasive grain in the wheel
c) dollar value of the abrasive grain
d) relative hardness of the bond in the wheel

Answer 215

a) strength with which the bond hold the grain

Question 216

How do you know if a bearing is tight enough on the sleeve?

a) Sleeve is loose
b) Slight drag on the bearing
c) Bottoms out
d) Pre-load condition

Answer 216

b) slight drag on the bearing

Question 217

Which of the following is the recommended amount of material to leave prior to hand reaming an 11/16” hole?

a) .003” to .005”
b) .006” to .010”
c) .001” to .005”
d) .015” to .025”

Answer 217

c) .001” to .005”

Question 218

Which of the following types of blades should be used when cutting carbon steel with a bandsaw?

a) Alternating angled teeth 28 TPI
b) Regular tooth 10 - 16 TPI
c) Regular straight tooth 6 - 10 TPI
d) Wavy tooth, 36 TPI

Answer 218

c) Regular straight tooth 6 - 10 TPI

Question 219

In accordance with rigging and common safety practices, what is the primary use of a double latched hook?

a) when shock load may free the load from the hook
b) when load hook angle is offset
c) on a snatch block
d) on personal safety harness

Answer 219

d) on personal safety harness

Question 220

What is used to locate holes for punching?

a) cold chisel
b) scriber
c) centre punch
d) alignment punch

Answer 220

c) centre punch

Question 221

The inertia of an object is?

a) it’s velocity
b) it’s density
c) resistance to movement
d) specific gravity

Answer 221

c) resistance to movement

Question 222

The first thing to check for if you see chatter marks is?

a) abrasive grit size
b) wheel dressing
c) wheel grade or hardness
d) vibration

Answer 222

d) vibration

Question 223

Which of the following combinations of gauge blocks from an 81-block set can be used to gauge a length of 0.9528 inches?

a) 0.152, 0.1002, 0.400
b) .1008, 0.452, 0.500
c) .1008, 0.102, 0.750
d) 0.1006, 0.862

Answer 223

c) .1008, 0.102, 0.750

Question 224

Which of the following is the best technique for milling on a vertical mill that is not equipped with an automatic table?

a) conventional mill
b) spot-face
c) peck mill
d) climb mill

Answer 224

a) conventional mill

Question 225

Which of the following is the main cause of warping when grinding long slender pieces?

a) structure of the wheel is too open
b) vibration of the work-piece during the grinding operation
c) heat checking due to a hard wheel
d) loose of cracked diamond used for wheel dressing

Answer 225

c) heat checking due to a hard wheel

Question 226

How many degrees is the included angle of General Purpose Acme threads?

a) 60
b) 30
c) 14 ½
d) 29

Answer 226

d) 29

Question 227

Bores of machine parts such as gears and pulleys are not made by drilling in a lathe without further machining because drills..?

a) tend to produce undersize holes that run eccentric to the work axis
b) are not made in standard shaft sizes
c) make bell mouthed holes that must be corrected by reaming or boring
d) tend to produce oversize holes that run eccentric to the work axis

Answer 227

d) tend to produce oversize holes that run eccentric to the work axis

Question 228

On a reciprocating table surface grinder, the electromagnetic chuck is made of..?

a) cast iron
b) solid steel
c) alternating strips of steel and non-magnetic metal
d) alternating rings of steel and non-magnetic metal

Answer 228

c) alternating strips of steel and non-magnetic metal

Question 229

The principal precaution in checking the work is to use?

a) double faced tape
b) at least half the available power
c) the least amount of power that will hold the work safely
d) on third to one half of the power available

Answer 229

c) the least amount of power that will hold the work safely

Question 230

The table of a universal milling machine should be?

a) aligned before the vise is square
b) is longer than that of the plain milling machine
c) should be aligned after vise is squared
d) cannot be accurately aligned

Answer 230

a) aligned before the vise is square

Question 231

The main advantage of boring over reaming in the lathe is?

a) boring corrects any eccentricity in the bore and reaming does not
b) boring corrects axial misalignment and reaming does not
c) better finishes are obtainable
d) finishing the bore to a precision diameter can be done more quickly

Answer 231

b) boring corrects axial misalignment and reaming does not

Question 232

Under normal cutting conditions, the depth of cut for an end mill should be no more than?

a) ½ the cutting diameter
b) ¼ the cutting diameter
c) 2 times the cutter diameter
d) The diameter of the cutter

Answer 232

d) The diameter of the cutter

Question 233

End mills capable of making their own starting holes are termed?

a) plunge cut
b) starting hole
c) center drilled
d) center cutting teeth

Answer 233

a) plunge cut

Question 234

Carbide tipped end mills should be used to machine?

a) deep grooves
b) very soft material
c) highly abrasive materials
d) none of the above

Answer 234

c) highly abrasive materials

Question 235

Milling cutters with carbide inserts are used to?

a) remove material efficiently
b) avoid re-sharpening
c) machine most materials
d) all of the above

Answer 235

d) all of the above

Question 236

When milling a keyway into a shaft?

a) the cutter should be sharp
b) the cutter has to be the correct size
c) the cutter needs to be centered with that shaft
d) all of the above

Answer 236

d) all of the above

Question 237

Chucks and face-plates are mounted on the spindle by means of?

a) Interchangeable spindle noses
b) any one of several types of spindle noses
c) circle of socket head cap screws
d) permanent assembly

Answer 237

c) circle of socket head cap screws

Question 238

The independent chuck has?

a) Four jaws, each one can move without affecting the position of the other
b) Two, three or six jaws that all move in or out an equal distance
c) Three jaws that move independently of each other
d) special adjusting system that makes the jaws center round work more accurately

Answer 238

a) Four jaws, each one can move without affecting the position of the other

Question 239

A steady rest should be used to?

a) hold the tool steady so it won’t chatter
b) support long shafts that are being threaded
c) support work-pieces that extend three diameters from the chuck
d) support long shafts

Answer 239

d) support long shafts

Question 240

The follower rest is used for?

a) turning work-pieces without a center
b) Resting the tool so it will not cause the work to chatter
c) Support long springy work
d) Supporting long springy work by following the tool

Answer 240

d) Support long springy work by following the tool

Question 241

You can set up a steady rest when the shaft has no center by?

a) Setting up a different diameter shaft that has a center and adjusts the jaws to it
b) Using a dial indicator to show run out which can be adjusted out by moving the jaws
c) Placing a center punch mark in the center of the shaft and measuring to the steady rest frame with a steel rule
d) Placing a punch mark in the center of the shaft and adjusting the steady rest jaws to align the punch mark to the dead center

Answer 241

b) Using a dial indicator to show run out which can be adjusted out by moving the jaws

Question 242

Which of the following type of milling is used for non-ferrous milling?

a) Non-ferrous milling
b) Climb milling
c) Conventional milling
d) Fast speed

Answer 242

b) Climb milling

Question 243

Which of the following is the visual difference between hot and cold rolled steel?

a) Hot rolled steel has better dimensional control
b) Hot rolled steel has a scaly surface
c) Hot rolled steel is painted for identification
d) Hot rolled steel has a bring finish

Answer 243

b) Hot rolled steel has a scaly surface

Question 244

Which of the following best describes a zero mechanical state?

a) when machinery breaks down
b) a state where you lock out the machine’s electrical power supply
c) a safe condition where equipment has no stored energy, and all energy sources are made inoperative
d) when a power failure occurs

Answer 244

c) a safe condition where equipment has no stored energy. and all energy sources are made inoperative

Question 245

Which of the following are four good electrical insulators?

a) Glass, air, plastic, porcelain
b) Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon
c) Paper, glass, air aluminum
d) Glass, wood copper, porcelain

Answer 245

a) Glass, air, plastic, porcelain

Question 246

When taking a facing cut on a work-piece held in a chuck, the point of the tool should be?

a) on center
b) sharp with no radius
c) slightly below the center
d) slightly above center

Answer 246

c) slightly below the center

Question 247

With relation to CNC repetitive cycle programming, which of the following does the D stand for in the code G71 P_Q_U_W_D_S_F_ ( rough turning and boring repetitive cycle )?

a) depth of cut for the roughing pass
b) tells the CPU how the X value must be adjusted
c) ratio of cut from the far to near surface
d) block number immediately following the G71

Answer 247

a) depth of cut for the roughing pass

Question 248

When programming a multiple-start threading operation for a CNC machine, the shift amount is always equal to which of the following amount of the thread?

a) lag
b) lead
c) depth
d) pitch

Answer 248

d) pitch

Question 249

In relation to CNC repetitive cycle programming and boundaries which of the following describes park location D?

a) XZ position of the tool before the repetitive cycle G71 is activated
b) first location chew off the work-piece before defining the part profile to be machined
c) last location on the work-piece defining the profile to be machined
d) position of the tool clear of the work-piece after the profile is machined

Answer 249

d) position of the tool clear of the work-piece after the profile is machined

Question 250

Which CNC G-code cancels the mirror image coordinates for double turret turning centers?

a) G69
b) G70
c) G76
d) G90

Answer 250

a) G69

Question 251

With relation to CNC linear interpolation programming what does the U refer to in G01 U_W_F_: ( incremental feed motion )?

a) program feed code
b) linear interpolation code
c) coordinate along the Z-axis
d) coordinate along the X-axis

Answer 251

d) coordinate along the X-axis

Question 252

What does the W refer to in G01 U_W_F_: ( incremental feed motion ) with relation to CNC linear interpolation programming?

a) linear interpolation code
b) program feed code
c) coordinate along the X-axis
d) coordinate along the Z-axis

Answer 252

d) coordinate along the Z-axis

Question 253

A common comparison measuring system for holes ranging from approximately ½ to 6 inches would be a?

a) binocular gauge and scale
b) telescoping gauge and micrometer
c) small hole gauge
d) dial bore gauge

Answer 253

b) telescoping gauge and micrometer

Question 254

Which of the following does an M03 represent in relation to CNC turning machines and Miscellaneous M codes?

a) Spindle on in counter-clockwise rotation
b) Program stop and ends program execution
c) Optional stop used when occasional part inspection may be required
d) Spindle in clockwise rotation

Answer 254

d) Spindle in clockwise rotation

Question 255

Correctly calculate the feed per minute on an 8 tooth CNC cutter that is rotating at 700 rpm and the chip load is 0.008 inch. The feed per minute will be how many inches?

a) 44.8
b) 22.9
c) 6.8
d) 38.2

Answer 255

a) 44.8

( 700 x 8 x .008 )

Question 256

Which of the following does the acronym FN represent?

a) Fundamental fit
b) Force fit
c) Frontal fit
d) Fast fit

Answer 256

b) Force fit

Question 257

What drives the work when it is held between centres on a lathe?

a) A drive mandrel
b) A drive dog
c) A centre
d) A 3-jaw chuck

Answer 257

b) A drive dog

Question 258

What material is easily contaminated during the polishing process?

Answer 258

Sintered bronze

Question 259

The distance a nut advances on a screw in one revolution is the:

Answer 259

• Lead

Question 260

In order to drill a hole in a workpiece using a vertical milling machine that has a moveable spindle, you would need to include a command with a:

a) Negative Y-value
b) Positive X-value
c) Positive D-value
d) Negative Z-value

Answer 260

d) Negative Z-value