aktself test Flashcards

1
Q

What is sialolithiasis?

A

Sialolithiasis is a condition characterized by unilateral swelling of the gland due to blockage of the duct with a stone, leading to immediate pain and swelling on eating or even with the sight of food.

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2
Q

What causes enteric fever?

A

Enteric fever is caused by ingestion of food or water contaminated with Salmonella typhi or paratyphi via faecal–oral transmission. In the UK, it is most commonly seen in travellers returning from South Asia.

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3
Q

What are the benefits of breastfeeding for the mother?

A

Benefits of breastfeeding for the mother include:
- Reduces the risk of breast and ovarian cancer
- Helps bonding between mother and child
- Lowers long-term risk of type 2 diabetes
- Saves money in milk formula costs (up to £600 per year)

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4
Q

What are the benefits of breastfeeding for the baby?

A

Benefits of breastfeeding for the baby include:
- Reduced incidence of infections – gastroenteritis, pneumonia and otitis media
- Reduced incidence of obesity and diabetes in later life
- Increased intelligence quotient (IQ) score
- Reduced risk of developing asthma and eczema
- Reduced risk of sudden infant death syndrome

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5
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A

Kawasaki disease is an idiopathic self-limiting systemic vasculitis characterized by a history of fever of at least five days’ duration and at least four of the following five clinical features:
- Inflammation and irritation of the lips, mouth and/or tongue
- Erythema, oedema and/or desquamation of the extremities
- Bilateral dry conjunctivitis
- Widespread non-vesicular rash
- Cervical lymphadenopathy > 1.5 cm in size

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6
Q

What factors increase the risk of NSAID sensitivity in asthmatics?

A

Increased risk of sensitivity to NSAIDs in asthmatics include: female sex, middle age, severe asthma accompanied by chronic nasal congestion and profuse rhinorrhoea, and a history of nasal polyps.

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7
Q

What is the positive predictive value (PPV) of the FIT?

A

The positive predictive value (PPV) of the FIT is estimated at 7% for cancer.

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8
Q

What percentage of pregnancies are affected by gestational diabetes?

A

Gestational diabetes affects 5% of pregnancies.

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9
Q

What are the side effects of indapamide?

A

Side effects of indapamide include: hypomagnesaemia, hyponatraemia, hypochloraemic alkalosis, hyperuricaemia, gout, hyperglycaemia, and hypokalaemia.

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10
Q

Which opioids are least likely to cause harm in severe renal impairment?

A

Opioids least likely to cause harm to patients with severe renal impairment are fentanyl and buprenorphine.

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11
Q

When should malaria prophylaxis with mefloquine be started?

A

Malaria prophylaxis with mefloquine should be started two–three weeks before travel and continued for four weeks after leaving.

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12
Q

What characterizes Charles Bonnet syndrome?

A

Charles Bonnet syndrome is characterized by the occurrence of well-formed, vivid, elaborate, and often stereotyped visual hallucinations in a partially sighted person who has insight into the unreality of what he or she is seeing.

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13
Q

What anti-emetic is used for nausea in cancer patients?

A

For nausea in cancer patients, anti-emetics such as haloperidol or metoclopramide are used.

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14
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening adverse reaction to anti-dopaminergic drugs, characterized by fever, rigidity, and mental status changes.

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15
Q

How long should medication be continued after a depressive episode?

A

Medication should be continued for six months after the resolution of a depressive episode to reduce the risk of relapse.

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16
Q

What is the treatment for non-gonococcal urethritis in men?

A

The treatment for non-gonococcal urethritis in men includes oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for seven days, or alternatively, oral azithromycin 1 gram as a single dose followed by 500mg twice daily for two days, or oral ofloxacin 200mg twice daily (or 400mg once daily) for seven days.

17
Q

What is the treatment for gonococcal infection?

A

The treatment for gonococcal infection is ceftriaxone (im cef).

18
Q

When should HIV be retested?

A

HIV should be retested after 45 days.

19
Q

What medications are licensed for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are licensed for use in patients with mild-to-moderate dementia with Alzheimer’s disease.

20
Q

What is memantine used for?

A

Memantine is recommended as an option for people with moderate-to-severe dementia in Alzheimer’s disease.

21
Q

What are organic causes of secondary enuresis?

A

Organic causes of secondary enuresis include urinary tract infection, diabetes mellitus, constipation, bladder overactivity, neurological disorders, some congenital abnormalities, and sleep apnoea.

22
Q

What is myopia?

A

Myopia is a condition where far away objects appear blurred and near objects appear clearly due to an elongated eyeball.

23
Q

What does astigmatism cause?

A

Astigmatism causes difficulties in seeing fine detail, and in some cases, vertical lines may appear tilted to the patient.

24
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

Amblyopia is caused by poor transmission of visual stimulation through the optic nerve to the brain, resulting in poor or dim vision, typically affecting one eye.

25
Q

What is hypermetropia?

A

Hypermetropia is a defect of vision caused by an imperfection where the eyeball is too short, or the lens cannot become round enough, causing difficulty focusing on near objects.

26
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Presbyopia is a condition where the eye exhibits a progressively diminished ability to focus on near objects with age, usually first noticed between the ages of 40–50.

27
Q

Who is eligible for the HPV vaccine?

A

All children aged 12-13 years are eligible for the HPV vaccine; immunocompromised individuals should receive a 3-dose schedule.

28
Q

When should progesterone be measured in women investigating fertility issues?

A

A mid-luteal phase progesterone should be measured in all women being investigated for fertility issues to confirm ovulation, even days before her next period is due.

29
Q

What are the signs of keratitis?

A

Keratitis presents with pericorneal redness of the eye, normal pupil reaction to light, and an irregular green patch on the cornea revealed by fluorescein.

30
Q

What characterizes acute closed-angle glaucoma?

A

Acute closed-angle glaucoma is characterized by a red eye while the other eye is normal, with redness around the cornea and an unreactive pupil to light.

31
Q

What is age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?

A

AMD is characterized by drusen, loss of central vision, and sometimes image distortion, with reduced visual acuity and normal visual fields. Risk factors include hypertension and smoking.

32
Q

What is uveitis?

A

Uveitis is an inflammation of the iris, ciliary body, and/or choroid, often presenting with a sore, red eye and can cause visual loss.

33
Q

What is the driving restriction after an atonic seizure?

A

Driving must cease for 12 months after the most recent atonic seizure.

34
Q

What cancers are associated with Epstein–Barr virus?

A

Epstein–Barr virus is associated with lymphoma and nasopharyngeal cancer.

35
Q

What is the treatment for hirsutism in polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

Topical eflornithine cream is used for hirsutism in polycystic ovarian syndrome.

36
Q

What is congenital cholesteatoma?

A

A 3-year-old boy with an upper respiratory tract infection and a pearly white mass in the ear is indicative of congenital cholesteatoma.

37
Q

What is a ‘Marcus Gunn’ pupil?

A

‘Marcus Gunn’ pupil or a relative afferent pupil defect (RAPD) is characterized by unequal constriction of both eyes when light is shone in either eye.

38
Q

What should a person suspected of having OSA do regarding driving?

A

A person suspected of having OSA with excessive sleepiness must immediately stop driving and notify the DVLA if their symptoms are not controlled within three months.