AKT Flashcards

1
Q

Red flags in limping child

A
  • Pain waking the child at night — may indicate malignancy.
  • Redness, swelling, or stiffness of the joint or limb — may indicate infection or inflammatory joint disease.
  • Weight loss, anorexia, fever, night sweats, or fatigue — may indicate malignancy, infection, or inflammation.
  • Unexplained rash or bruising — may indicate haematological or inflammatory joint disease, or child maltreatment.
  • Limp and stiffness worse in the morning — may indicate inflammatory joint disease.
  • Unable to bear weight or painful limitation of range of motion — may indicate trauma or infection.
  • Severe pain, anxiety, and agitation after a traumatic injury — may indicate neurovascular compromise or impending compartment syndrome.
  • A palpable mass — may indicate malignancy or infection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Limping child
Referral for urgent specialist assessment should be arranged if the child

A
  • Has a fever and/or red flags suggesting serious pathology.
  • Is suspected of being maltreated.
  • Is younger than 3 years of age — transient synovitis is rare in this age group; septic arthritis is more common.
  • Is older than 9 years of age with painful or restricted hip movements (in particular internal rotation) — to exclude slipped upper femoral epiphysis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Driving ban for persistent alcohol misuse, misuse of cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy and psychoactive drugs

A

Stop driving and inform DVLA
until >6 months free

Group 2
1 year
Needs assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Driving ban for alcohol dependence, misuse of heroin, morphine, methadone, cocaine, methamphetamine and benzos

A

Stop driving and inform DVLA
Free for >1 year
Normalisation of blood parameters

Group 3
Abstinence for 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cease driving after coronary angioplasty for

A

> 1 week if successful
4 weeks if unsuccessful

Dont need to inform DVLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cease driving after PCI

A

> 1 week

Don’t need to inform DVLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cease driving after CABG

A

4 weeks

Don’t need to inform DVLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Driving and angina

A

Cease driving if symptoms occur at rest, with emotion or at the wheel

Dont need to inform DVLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Driving and heart failure

A

No restrictions unless:
- NYHA class IV (severe)
(Unable to carry out physical activity without discomfort, symptoms at rest)

Need to form DVLA if NYHA class IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Driving and hypertension

A

No restrictions for group 1

Group 2 stop if >180/100 until controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Driving and arrhythmias

A

Stop driving if likely to cause incapacity. Can resume driving when underlying cause controlled for >4 weeks

Cease driving for >2 days after successful catheter ablation

NO need to inform DVLA unless symptoms disabling/ distracting

Group 2
Must inform DVLA
Must not drive if causing / likely to cause incapacity.
May be considered if underling cause identified, symptoms controlled for >3 months, LFEV >40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Driving and pacemakers

A

Cannot drive for a week

Must inform DVLA

6 weeks for group 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Driving and stroke

A

Group 1
Must stop driving, no need to notify DVLA
Can restart driving after 1 month if good recovery
Need to inform DVLA if persistent neurological deficit after 1 month (will need assessing)

Group 2
Must stop driving and notify the DVLA
May re start after 1 year if full recovery - needs assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Driving and TIA

A

Group 1
Single TIA
no need to notify DVLA
must not drive for 1 month

Multiple TIAs
must not drive and must notify the DVLA
Multiple TIAs over a short period will require no driving for 3 months
Driving may resume after 3 months if there have been no further TIAs
-

Group 2
As per stroke
Must stop driving and notify the DVLA
May re start after 1 year if full recovery - needs assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

One week driving ban

A

Successful angioplasty
PCI
Pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 week driving ban

A

Unstable angina
NSTEMI
Unsuccessful Angioplasty
CABG
Heart Valve Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Driving and AAA

A

> 6cm inform DVLA
6-6.5 annual review
6.5cm disqualified

Group 2 >5.5cm disqualified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ICD and driving

For symptomatic VT and prophylaxis

A

symptomatic VT 6/12
prophylaxis 4/52

Permanent disqualification for group 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Driving and T2DM on diet, metformin and GLP1 analogues

A

No restriction no need to inform DVLA.

Group 2 on metformin must inform DVLA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

GLP 1 analogues

A

Semaglutide
aka Ozempic

BMI >35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Driving and T2DM on medications with risk of hypoglycemia

A

Group 1
No more than 1 hypo in last 1y
(and >3m)
Under regular review

Group 2
No hypoglycemic events in last year
Full hypo awareness
Monitor CBG 2x day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Driving in insulin dependent diabetes

A

Group 1

Must notify DVLA, can drive if:
- No more than 1 hypo in 12 months
- Full hypo awareness
- CBG monitoring 2 hours before driving and every 2 hours while driving

Continuous interstitial fluid glucose monitoring acceptable for group 1 only.

Group 2
Above plus:
- Annual review by diabetes consultant of last 3 months readings
- Need to complete D2 form / D4 medical examination form (vision)
- Must use glucose monitor that can store 3m readings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Driving and parkinson’s/MS

A

Can drive as long as medical assessment confirms driving not impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Driving and epilepsy / multiple unprovoked seizures

A

Must not drive, must notify DVLA

Must not drive for 1 year after date of last seizure

If seizing only asleep - 1 year

Should not drive for 6 months after stopping/ reducing medication

Group 2
Has to be seizure free off medication for 10 years before license considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

First unprovoked seizure and driving

A

Must not drive, must notify DVLA

Must not drive for 6 months after date of first seizure or 12 months if there is an underlying cause which could increase seizure risk.

Group 2 licence
Driving must cease 5 years from first seizure. May be restored if neurologist assess risk <2% and not on medication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Transient loss of consciousness / collapse and driving

A

Group 1
While standing - can drive dont need to inform DVLA

While sitting - can drive if there is an avoidable trigger that wont occur whilst driving. Otherwise must be assessed to have <20% annual risk.

Group 2
Must not drive and must notify DVLA. Assessment for treatable underlying cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cardiovascular syncope and driving

A

Must not drive and must notify DVLA

Group 1
Can resume after 4 weeks if cause identified and treated. If no cause identified revoked for 6 months.

Group 2
Can resume after 5 months if cause identified and treated. If no cause identified revoked for 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ACS (inc. MI) and driving

A

Group 1
Must not drive but need not notify DVLA. Can continue driving after 1 week if successful PCI and…
- No other revascularization planned
-LVEF >40%
- no other disqualifying condition
if not met then 4 weeks

Group 2
Must not drive and must notify the DVLA. May be considered for a licence after 6 weeks if exercise tolerance met and LVEF >40%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Flying in unstable angina, uncontrolled HF, severe valvular disease

A

Should not fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Flying in uncomplicated MI

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Flying in complicated MI

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Flying post CABG

A

7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Flying post PCI

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Flying post pneumonia

A

Once clinically improved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Flying post pneumothorax

A

2 weeks after drainage
1 week post CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Flying post open abdominal surgery

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Flying post laparoscopic procedure

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Flying post colonoscopy

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Flying post plaster cast

A

24 hours if flight <2 hours
48 hours if flight > 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Flying and pregnancy

A

NO travel >36/40 or >32/40 multiple pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Flying and anaemia

A

Hb >80 safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Number of deaths from asthma / year (2016)

A

1410

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Chi-squared test

A

utilised to compare observed results with those that are expected under a certain hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mann-Whitney U test

A

non-parametric test assesses differences between two independent groups when the dependent variable is ordinal or continuous but not normally distributed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Adrenaline dose
< 6 months

A

100 - 150 micrograms
(0.1 - 0.15 ml 1 in 1,000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Adrenaline dose

6 months - 6 years

A

150 micrograms (0.15 ml 1 in 1,000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Adrenaline dose
6-12 years

A

300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Adrenaline dose

Adult and child > 12 years

A

500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Reduction of non-HDL cholesterol after starting statin?

A

40% after 3 months

Consider increasing from 20 to 80mg if not achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When should q risk not be used ?

A
  • type 1 diabetics
  • patients with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min and/or albuminuria
  • patients with a history of familial hyperlipidaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When to consider familial hypercholesterolaemia ?

A
  • total cholesterol >7.5
  • family history of premature coronary artery disease (event before 60 in first degree relative)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI)

A

1 = normal

<0.5 suggests severe arterial disease.
Compression treatment is contraindicated.

> 0.5 - < 0.8 suggests the presence of arterial disease or mixed arterial/venous disease.

0.8 to 1.3 suggests no evidence of significant arterial disease.
Compression may be safely applied in most people.

> 1.3 may suggest the presence of arterial calcification, such as in some people with diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, atherosclerotic disease, and advanced chronic renal failure.

For values above 1.5, the vessels are likely to be incompressible, and the result cannot be relied on to guide clinical decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Moderate asthma attack in adults

A

Increasing symptoms;
Peak flow > 50-75% best or predicted;
No features of acute severe asthma.
Normal speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Severe asthma attack in adults

A

Any one of the following:

Peak flow 33-50% best or predicted;
Respiratory rate ≥ 25/min;
Heart rate ≥ 110/min;
Inability to complete sentences in one breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Life threatening asthma attack in adults

A

Any one of the following in a patient with severe asthma:

Peak flow < 33% best or predicted;
Arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) < 92%;
Partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) < 8 kPa;
Normal partial arterial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) (4.6–6.0 kPa);
Silent chest;
Cyanosis;
Poor respiratory effort;
Arrhythmia;
Exhaustion;
Altered conscious level;
Hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Moderate acute asthma in children

A

Able to talk in sentences;
Arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) ≥ 92%;
Peak flow ≥ 50% best or predicted;
Heart rate ≤ 140/minute in children aged 1–5 years; heart rate ≤ 125/minute in children aged over 5 years;
Respiratory rate ≤ 40/minute in children aged 1–5 years; respiratory rate ≤ 30/minute in children aged over 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Severe acute asthma in children

A

Can’t complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed;
SpO2 < 92%;
Peak flow 33–50% best or predicted;
Heart rate > 140/minute in children aged 1–5 years; heart rate > 125/minute in children aged over 5 years;
Respiratory rate > 40/minute in children aged 1–5 years; respiratory rate > 30/minute in children aged over 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Life-threatening acute asthma in children

A

Any one of:

SpO2 < 92%;
Peak flow < 33% best or predicted;
Silent chest;
Cyanosis;
Poor respiratory effort;
Hypotension;
Exhaustion;
Confusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When to admit acute asthma

A
  • Patients with features of severe or life-threatening acute asthma should start treatment as soon as possible and be referred to hospital immediately following initial assessment
  • Patients with moderate acute asthma should be treated at home or in primary care and response to treatment assessed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Doses of nebulised salbutamol in acute asthma

A

5mg >5 years
2.5mg 2-5 years

Oxygen driven, flow rate 6 L /min

If nebs not available give inhaler via spacer.

Consider ipratropium bromide nebs if unresponsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Target oxygen sats in acute asthma

A

94–98%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

First dose of prednisolone for asthma in adults

A

40-50mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

First dose of prednisolone for asthma in children >5 years

A

30 - 40 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

First dose of prednisolone for asthma in children 2-5 years

A

20 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

First dose of prednisolone for asthma in children <2 years

A

10 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI)

A

1 = normal

<0.5 suggests severe arterial disease.
Compression treatment is contraindicated.

> 0.5 - < 0.8 suggests the presence of arterial disease or mixed arterial/venous disease.

0.8 to 1.3 suggests no evidence of significant arterial disease.
Compression may be safely applied in most people.

> 1.3 may suggest the presence of arterial calcification, such as in some people with diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, atherosclerotic disease, and advanced chronic renal failure.

For values above 1.5, the vessels are likely to be incompressible, and the result cannot be relied on to guide clinical decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Salbutamol large volume spacer to relieve asthma symptoms in adults

A

4 puffs initially followed by 2 puffs every 2 mins according to response up to 10 puffs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Salbutamol large volume spacer to relieve asthma symptoms in children

A

Puff every 30-60 seconds up to 10 puffs.

Repeat every 10-20 mins according to response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When to refer to respiratory with acute asthma

A

If had two asthma attacks in last 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How to calculate units alcohol

A

Volume in (mls x ABV) /1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Alcohol use disorder identification tool (AUDIT)

Low risk

A

Score < 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Alcohol use disorder identification tool (AUDIT)

Increasing risk (hazardous)

A

Score 8 - 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Alcohol use disorder identification tool (AUDIT)

Higher risk (harmful)

A

Score 16-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Alcohol use disorder identification tool (AUDIT)

Possible dependence

A

Score >20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

FRAMES ?

A

Tool for brief advice in alcohol XS

Feedback - compared to others
Responsibility - up to them
Advice - how to calculate units
Menu - support groups
Empathy
Self efficiency - encouragement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acamprosate

A

EtOH XS

Alters balance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmission, eases cravings, impacts enjoyment

Some GPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Naltrexone and disulfiram

A

EtOH XS

Reduces cravings by increasing side effects of drinking, headache, nausea etc

Specialists only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Nalmefene

A

EtOH XS

Opioid antagonist. Reduces craving for further drinks. Reduces overall consumption

> 85% in GP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Recommended drinking

A

<14 units spread over 3 days
No safe level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Cancers associated with EtOH

A

Breast
Oesophagus
Oral cavity and pharynx
Liver
Colorectal

‘BOCOL’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Illnesses associated with EtOH

A

Hypertension
Arrhythmias
Strokes (haemorragic)
Pneumonia / LRTI
Cirrhosis of liver
Epilepsy
Pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Facial features of foetal alcohol syndrome

A

Low nasal bridge
Flat midface
Ear abnormalities
Indistinct philtrum
Micrognathism
Thin upper lip
Epicanthal folds
Short palpebral fissures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Adrenaline in anaphylaxis

Adults / Child >12

A

500mcg / 0.5ml

1:1000 IM

If no response repeat after 5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Adrenaline in anaphylaxis

Child 6-12

A

300mcg / 0.3ml

1:1000 IM

If no response repeat after 5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Adrenaline in anaphylaxis

Child 6 months - 6 years

A

150 mcg / 0.15ml

1:1000 IM

If no response repeat after 5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Adrenaline in anaphylaxis

Child < 6 months

A

100-150mcg - 0.1-0.15ml

1:1000 IM

If no response repeat after 5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Indications of adrenaline in anaphylaxis:

A
  1. Horseness of voice
  2. Wheeze
  3. Shortness of breath
  4. Shock
  5. Stridor
  6. Swelling of the tongue and cheek
  7. Facial swelling

NOT florid hives on the trunk
NOT neck urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which type of reaction is Anaphylaxis defined as?

A

Type I IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Percentage of antibiotics prescribed in primary care

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

FeverPAIN score

A

Fever (last 24 hours)
Purulence on tonsils
Attend rapidly (<3 days after onset)
Severely inflamed tonsils
No cough or coryza

1 point for each

0-1 13-18% - no abx
2-3 34-40% - delayed Rx
4-5 62-65% - abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Centor criteria

A

Tonsillar exudate
Cervical lymphadenopathy
No cough or coryza
Fever
<15 + 1
>44 - 1

0-2 3-17% no abx
3-4 32- 68% - delayed Rx
5-6 - abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Mental Capacity Act (2005)

A
  1. It must be assumed that an adult is able to make his/her own decisions, unless it has been shown otherwise.
  2. All reasonable help and support should be given to assist a person to make their own decisions and
    communicate those decisions, before it can be assumed that they have lost capacity.
  3. Every adult has the right to make decisions that may appear to be unwise or strange to others.
  4. If a person lacks capacity, any decisions taken on their behalf must be in their best interests.
  5. If a person lacks capacity, any decisions taken on their behalf must be the option least restrictive to their rights and freedoms.
  6. Capacity is decision-specific.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

2-stage test of capacity:

A
  1. Does the person have an impairment of their mind or brain, whether as a result of an illness, or external factors such as alcohol or drug use?
  2. Does the impairment mean the person is unable to make a specific decision when they need to?

People can lack capacity to make some decisions, but have capacity to make others. Mental capacity can also fluctuate with time –someone may lack capacity at one point in time, but may be able to make the
same decision at a later point in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Medical examiners seek to answer three questions:

A
  • What caused the death of the deceased?
  • Does the coroner need to be notified of the death?
  • Was the care before death appropriate?

Medical examiners answer these by providing independent
scrutiny, with three elements:

  • A proportionate review of relevant medical records
  • Interaction with the doctor completing the Medical Certificate of Cause of Death
  • Interaction with the bereaved, providing an opportunity to ask questions and to raise concerns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Notification of death to the coroner/procurator fiscal
The death was due to…

A
  • poisoning of any kind or contact with a toxic substance
  • the use of a medicinal product, the use of a controlled drug or psychoactive substance
  • violence, trauma, injury or self-harm, neglect, including self-neglect
  • a person undergoing any treatment or procedure of a medical nature
  • an injury or disease attributable to any employment held by the person during the person’s lifetime
  • The cause of death is unknown
  • The identity of the deceased in unknown
  • The registered medical practitioner suspects that the person died while in custody
  • The person’s death was unnatural but does not fall within any of the above circumstances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Practices can require a patient to register elsewhere if?

A

They have moved outside of the practice’s area

The relationship has broken down irretrievably

  • In cases of violence or abuse this can be immediate (police involvement generally required)
  • Other instances require evidence of consideration, which should include a written warning, which remains valid for 12 months
  • Practices should write to the PCO/NHSE with details of the affected
    patient
  • The removal takes effect on the 8th day hereafter, or 8 days after ongoing treatment ceases if relevant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Gillick competence

A

Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Who can issue a MED3 cert?

A

Doctor, nurse, physio, OT or pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

A Med3 may be issued on the day that you assessed your patient or later if you consider:

A
  • that it would have been reasonable to issue a Statement on the day of the assessment
  • after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered health care professional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How long can an MED3 be issued for?

A

During the first 6 months of sickness, the new Statement can be issued for no longer than 3 months

After six months: There is no limit on the duration of a fit note if the condition has lasted longer than six months and is clinically appropriate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Statutory Sick Pay

A
  • Up to £116.75/week if you’re too ill to work.
  • Paid by employer for up to 28 weeks.
  • Paid from the 4th day onwards – unless a repeat episode within eight weeks.
  • You can’t get less than the statutory amount but you can get more if your company has a sick pay scheme.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

To qualify for Statutory Sick Pay (SSP) you must:

A
  • be classed as an employee and have done some work for your employer
  • have been ill for at least 4 days in a row (including non-working days)
  • earn at least £123 (before tax) per week
  • tell your employer you’re sick before their deadline - or within 7 days if they don’t have one
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Employment and Support Allowance (ESA)

A

You can apply for Employment and Support Allowance (ESA) if you have a disability or health condition that affects how much you can work.

ESA gives you:
Money to help with living costs if you’re unable to work, support to get back into work if you’re able to.

You can apply if you’re employed, self-employed or unemployed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Personal Independence Payment (PIP)

A

Personal Independence Payment (PIP) can help with extra living costs if you have both:

  • a long-term physical or mental health condition or disability
  • difficulty doing certain everyday tasks or getting around because of your condition

You can get PIP even if you’re working, have savings or are getting most other benefits.

There are 2 parts to PIP:

a daily living part - if you need help with everyday tasks
a mobility part - if you need help with getting around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Carer’s Allowance

A

You could get £81.90 a week if you care for someone at least 35 hours a week and they get certain benefits.

You do not have to be related to, or live with, the person you care for.

You do not get paid extra if you care for more than one person.

If someone else also cares for the same person as you, only one of you can claim Carer’s Allowance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Bereavement Support Payment

A

You may be able to get Bereavement Support Payment if your partner has died.

When your partner died, you must have been:

  • under State Pension age
  • living in the UK or a country that pays bereavement benefits
  • married to your partner, in a civil partnership with them, or living with them as if you were married

Your partner must have either:

  • paid a certain amount of Class 1 or Class 2 National Insurance contributions in any one tax year since 6 April 1975
  • died because of an accident at work or a disease caused by work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Maternity Allowance

A

Maternity Allowance is a payment you can get when you take time off to have a baby.

You could get it if you:

  • are employed but cannot get Statutory Maternity Pay (SMP)
  • are self-employed
  • have recently stopped working
  • take part in unpaid work for the business of your spouse or civil partner

You can get Maternity Allowance for up to 39 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

SR1 – Special Rules

A

The Special Rules allow people nearing the end of life to:

  • get faster, easier access to certain benefits
  • get higher payments for certain benefits
  • avoid a medical assessment

An adult or child is nearing the end of life when they are likely to have less than 12 months to live.

The SR1 form has replaced the DS1500 form.

a fast tracked claim to the following benefits (for which they are eligible):
* Personal Independence Payment
* Universal Credit (UC)
* Employment and Support Allowance
* Disability Living Allowance (DLA) for children
* Attendance Allowance (AA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Classes of CDs

Schedule one

A

Requires license to possess, e.g. medicinal cannabis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Classes of CDs

Schedule two

A

Most opioids, amphetamines,
* Subject to safe custody requirements and CD register

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Classes of CDs

Schedule three

A

Gabapentinoids, Midazolam and Temazepam, Buprenorphine
* Safe custody requirements but no CD register (certain exceptions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Classes of CDs

Schedule four

A

All other Benzodiazepines, anabolic steroids
* Not subject to safe custody requirements, invoices kept for two years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Classes of CDs

Schedule five

A

Codeine/Dihydrocodeine available for OTC use
* Invoices kept for two years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Safe custody of controlled drugs

A
  • Locked metal cabinet, anchored to wall or floor by unexposed bolts, not
    labelled.
  • Access limited to authorised individuals.
  • Destruction from stock must be witnessed by an authorised individual.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Controlled drugs in doctor’s bag:

A
  • Must be locked, left in boot of a car if necessary but never overnight
  • Restocking from CD cupboard must be witnessed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Patient Group Directives

A
  • All medication being given must be prescribed
  • PGD (patient group directive)
  • Written instructions for the supply or administration of medicines to
    groups of patients who may not be individually identified before
    presentation for treatment.
  • Signed by doctor and pharmacist
  • PCO level, not individual practices
  • Administered by qualified professional e.g. nurse, paramedic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Patient-Specific Directives

A

If not a registered HCP (e.g. an HCA), a PSD (Patient-Specific Directive) is
required.
There is no set format for PSDs written into the legislation, however a PSD must: * state the name of the patient * state the name and dose of the prescription only medicine to be administered* show evidence to confirm that the patient has been considered as an individual * include frequency/duration/start and end dates of treatment * be signed by a prescriber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Vaccine storage

A
  • 2 – 8°c from manufacturer to administration
  • Never frozen
  • Protected from light
  • Direct from fridge where possible
  • Transported in a validated cool box with max-min thermometer if
    necessary
  • Can be returned if cold chain maintained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

A good report…

A
  • Has informed patient consent (with exceptions)
  • Stands alone
  • Is written for a lay person of reasonable intelligence
  • Is factual (unless an opinion is sough that falls within your sphere of
    competence)
  • Is thorough and complete to the best of your reasonable ability (with
    certain exceptions)
  • Is not misleading
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What to withhold in insurance reports

A
  • Adverse genetic test results
  • Negative tests for blood-borne viruses, e.g. HIV
  • STIs which are resolved and from which there is no long-term health
    implication
  • Information relating to family history not obtained from the patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Patient requests to amend reports…

A

Patients are entitled to see any medical report about them
* They can request modification
* If refused – the patient can attach a note disputing the views expressed
* They can withdraw consent for the report to be sent
* You can inform the person who commissioned the report

The GMC’s Good Medical Practice (2006) points out that you must be
honest when writing reports and that you must not deliberately leave out relevant information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

The Data Protection Act

A

Practices must:
* Have a data protection officer
* Provide patients with access to their notes when asked (within one
month) and without charge

  • Request does not have to be in writing
  • Assume the age of consent for access to be 13 years

GP practices hold
* Personal data (e.g. name, address)
* Sensitive personal data (e.g. medical information, religion, sexuality)
* This must be retained for ten years (or until the patient is 21 years old if
longer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Subject Access Requests

A
  • Can be made by the patient or a third party with consent
  • Can be for all or part of the record
  • Can be ‘reason blind’
  • Should be answered in 28 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Withholding data

A

Data may be withheld in the following circumstances
* Its release would reasonably be expected to cause significant harm to
the patient’s physical or mental health
* Any reference to a named third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Access to deceased records

A

GDPR regulations only apply to the living.
* Deceased records governed by Access to Health Records Act (1990)

Access to deceased records:
* Via NHS England or local equivalent (as data controller)
* Personal representative – e.g. executor of will
* Person with possible claim arising from the death
* Limited to relevant information
* Overridden by wishes documented in life

126
Q

Correcting data

A
  • If the patient and GP are in agreement that a record is factually incorrect, it should be amended.
  • This should be done in such a way that the correction is audit traceable.
  • If the patient believes the record to be incorrect but the GP does not, an
    addendum must be added to the record to this effect but the original notes should remain.
127
Q

NHS complaints

A
  • Initial response within 2 working days
  • Full response within reasonable period as defined in policy
  • Extended if exceptional circumstances
  • Records kept for 10y (longer in children)
  • Can be verbal or written
  • Investigated and responded to by an independent person
  • Procedure can be discontinued if informal resolution
  • Must identify patient’s right to escalate to Parliamentary and Health
    Service Ombudsman
  • Could also complain to GMC
  • Should be made within a year of the incident or finding out about the
    adverse outcome
128
Q

Responsibilities under the Health and Safety at Work Act (1974):

A
  • Provide a safe system of work
  • Provide a safe place of work
  • Provide safe equipment
  • Employ safe and competent people: employers are also liable for the actions of their staff and managers
  • To carry out risk assessments as set out in regulations, and taking steps to
    eliminate or control these risks;
  • To inform workers fully about all potential hazards associated with any work
    process, including providing instruction, training and supervision; * To appoint a ‘competent person’ responsible for health and safety
  • Provide adequate facilities for staff welfare at work.
129
Q

Contraceptives - time until effective (if not first day period):

A

instant: IUD
2 days: POP
7 days: COC, injection, implant, IUS

130
Q

Spurious

A

an association that has arisen by chance and is not real

131
Q

Spurious

A

an association that has arisen by chance and is not real

132
Q

Indirect association

A

the association is due to the presence of another factor (a confounding variable)

133
Q

Direct association

A

a true association not linked by a third (confounding) variable

134
Q

Diabetes ranges

A

If the patient is symptomatic:
- fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
- random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l

7/11

IF asymptomatic do test x 2

HbA1c of greater than or equal to 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus

135
Q

Switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another SSRI

A

direct switch is possible

136
Q

Switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI

A

withdraw then leave a gap of 4-7 days (as it has a long half-life) before starting a low dose of the alternative SSRI

137
Q

Switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)

A

cross-tapering is recommended

  • an exception is fluoxetine which should be withdrawn, the leave a gap of 4-7 days prior to TCAs being started at a low dose
138
Q

Switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine

A

direct switch is possible

139
Q

Switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine

A

withdraw and then start venlafaxine at a low dose 4–7 days later

140
Q

Meniere’s and driving

A

patients should inform the DVLA. The current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved

141
Q

DEXA Scan results
-0.6 ?

A

> 0 Reassure
0 to -1.5 Repeat bone density scan in 1-3 years
< -1.5 Offer bone protection

142
Q

Normal distribution of data
1 standard deviation?
2 standard deviations ?
3 standard deviations ?

A

68.3% within 1SD of the mean
95.4% within 2 SD of the mean
99.7% within 3 SD of the mean

143
Q

Side effects Procainamide

A

fatigue, dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, and a facial rash is suggestive of drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE)

144
Q

Side effects Digoxin

A

gastrointestinal disturbances, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias;

145
Q

Side effects sodium valproate

A

nausea and vomiting, as well as tremors, hair loss, and weight gain.

146
Q

Drugs causing drug induced lupus

A

Most common causes
procainamide
hydralazine

Less common causes
isoniazid
minocycline
phenytoin

147
Q

Cancer risk with COCP

A

increased risk of breast cancer and cervical cancer

148
Q

Side effects of ACE I

A

cough
thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels
angioedema: may occur up to a year after starting treatment
hyperkalaemia
first-dose hypotension: more common in patients taking diuretics

149
Q

Cautions and CI ACE I

A

pregnancy and breastfeeding - avoid
renovascular disease - may result in renal impairment
aortic stenosis - may result in hypotension
hereditary of idiopathic angioedema
specialist advice should be sought before starting ACE inhibitors in patients with a potassium >= 5.0 mmol/L

150
Q

Type 1 error

A

False positive

Falsely rejecting null hypothesis

151
Q

Type 2 error

A

False negative
Falsely accepting null hypothesis

152
Q

P value

A

The probability of getting these results by chance. The further away from 1 the stronger the data.

statistically significant if P-value <0.05

P = 0.0001 very unlikely (1 in 10,000 chance)
* P = 0.01 unlikely (1% or 1 in 100 chance)
* P = 0.05 fairly unlikely (5% or 1 in 20 chance)
* P = 0.1 not unlikely (10% or 1 in 10 chance)
* P = 0.8 very likely (80% chance)

153
Q

Risk ratio

A

risk of an event in one group /
risk of an event in another group

154
Q

Risk

A

1 boy is born for every 2 births, so the probability (risk) of giving birth to a boy is:
1/2 = 0.5

155
Q

Odds

A

The number of times an event happens divided by the number of times it does not:
* 1 boy is born for every 2 births, so the odds of giving birth to a boy are:
1:1 (or 50:50) = 1/1 = 1

156
Q

Odds ratio (OR)

A

odds of an event in one group/
odds of an event in another group

e.g. risk of pneumonia in patients taking statins:
* Statins odds 2231/1775 = 0.126;
no statins odds 8759/80484 = 0.109
Therefore OR for pneumonia with statins versus no statins
= 0.126/ 0.109 = 1.15

157
Q

Hierarchy of evidence

A
  1. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses
  2. Randomised controlled trials with definitive results
  3. Cohort studies
  4. Case control studies
  5. Cross-sectional studies
  6. Case reports
158
Q

Hazard ratio

A

HR = treatment hazard rate/placebo hazard rate

e.g.
Infection rate in ‘new Rx’ group = 10%
Infection rate in amoxicillin group = 40%
HR = 10/40 = 0.25

159
Q

Absolute Risk Reduction

A

ARR = [Infection rate in ‘new Rx’ group] - [Infection rate in amoxi group]

e.g.
Infection rate in ‘new Rx’ group = 10%
Infection rate in amoxicillin group = 40%
40%-10% = 30%

160
Q

Relative Risk Reduction

A

RRR = How much the risk is reduced in the new Rx group compared to the
control group

e.g.
Infection rate in ‘new Rx’ group = 10%
Infection rate in amoxicillin group = 40%

ARR/ control = 30/40 = 75%

161
Q

Number Needed to Treat

A

NNT How many people need new Rx for one person to benefit.

NNT = 100/ ARR
Round up to the nearest whole number

NNT = 1 / (adverse outcome rate with placebo - adverse outcome rate with treatment)

162
Q

Kaplan-Maier approach

A

a technique for using “censored” observations: where not all patients have been followed up for the full duration of the study

163
Q

“triangulation”

A

Using more than one qualitative research method to gather data

164
Q

Likelihood ratio

A

The “positive likelihood ratio” (LR+) tells us how much the probability of disease increases if the test
is positive:

LR+
= probability of an individual with the condition having a positive test/ probability of an individual without the condition having a positive test

= sensitivity/
(1 - specificity)

The “negative likelihood ratio” (LR-) tells us how much it decreases if the test is negative

LR- =
probability of an individual with the condition having a negative test / probability of an individual without the condition having a negative test

= (1-sensitivity)
specificity

165
Q

Likelihood ratio interpretation

A
  • > 10: large increase in the likelihood of disease
  • 2 – 5: small increase in the likelihood
  • 1: no change in the likelihood
  • 0.2 - 0.5: small decrease in the likelihood
  • < 0.1 large decrease in the likelihood
166
Q

Bayesian statistics

A
  • Starts with current belief (a “prior”) in whether a treatment works; updates this belief with the data;
    this new belief is called the “posterior”.
  • Reflects the way that we actually think.
167
Q

Sampling bias

A

not covering all of the population of interest (also called omission bias) or only covering some parts because it’s more convenient (also called inclusion bias).

168
Q

Procedural bias:

A

exists when participants are put under some kind of pressure to provide information.

169
Q

Respondent bias

A

survey participants unable or unwilling to provide accurate or honest answers.

170
Q

Measurement bias:

A

measurement methods (instrument, or observer of instrument) are consistently different between the study groups.

171
Q

Attrition bias

A

patients may drop out because the treatment made them worse - or,
patients may drop out when the treatment works.

172
Q

Publication bias

A

study results less likely to be published when they are not
statistically significant or less “interesting”.

173
Q

Chi-squared test

A

It is a measure of the difference between actual and expected frequencies (the frequency we would
see if the null hypothesis were true).

If the observed and the expected frequencies are the same, the C2 (=chi squared) value is zero

174
Q

DALY (disability-adjusted life year)

A

A measure of health loss: the impact of a disease or injury in terms of healthy years lost.

175
Q

Categorical data

A

a variable whose values represent different categories of the same feature; examples
include different blood groups, different eye colours, and different ethnic groups;

175
Q

Continuous data

A

variables which can take any value within a given range, for instance blood pressure.

176
Q

Ordinal data

A

data that can be allocated to categories that can be “ordered”, e.g. from least to strongest;
an example is the staging of malignancy;

176
Q

Delphi study

A

A survey of experts in two or more ‘rounds’, in which, in the second and later rounds of the survey, the results of the previous round are given as feedback. Therefore, the experts answer from the second round on under the influence of their colleagues’ opinions. So, respondents can learn from the views of others, without being unduly influenced by the people who talk loudest at meetings, or who have most prestige etc.

177
Q

Standardised mortality rate

A

How many people, per thousand of the population, died in a given year.

178
Q

Standardised mortality ratio (SMR)

A

The ratio of observed deaths in the study group to expected deaths in the general population; it can
be given as a percentage.

If the SMR is quoted as a ratio:
o < 1 indicates fewer than expected deaths in the study group (compared with the expected deaths in the general population)
o = 1 indicates observed deaths equals expected deaths
o >1 indicates there were excess deaths

Sometimes the SMR is expressed as a percentage, after multiplying by 100. In this case:
o < 100 indicates fewer than expected deaths (compared with the expected deaths in the
general population)

179
Q

Statistical process control (SPC) charts

A

Where something is being measured regularly (e.g. number of complaints a month in an
organisation), these help to distinguish between normal abnormal variation.
* Points outside the ‘control limits’ (the acceptable variation range) need investigation.

180
Q

Case-control studies

A

Retrospective, they start with the event of interest and then look back for associated events.

Cases: The group of people who have the condition or disease being studied
Controls: A similar group of people who do not have the condition or disease.

risk of ‘selection bias’: cases or controls may not be representative; risk of ‘recall bias’; can’t
establish ‘cause & effect’

181
Q

Study for uncommon outcomes/diseases; illnesses with a long delay between exposure and disease, e.g. asbestos and mesothelioma

A

Case-control

182
Q

Cohort studies

A

Prospective; they start with a well-defined group of people and observe for future events

Can be costly and time-consuming; loss to follow-up (‘attrition’) may lead to bias

183
Q

Study for uncommon exposures; some ability to establish causation

Can study a range of outcomes/diseases caused by one exposure

e.g. heart disease, lung cancer, stroke caused by smoking

A

Cohort studies

184
Q

Methotrexate

A

The most widely used DMARD.

Monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis.

Other important side-effects include pneumonitis

185
Q

Chi-squared test

A

used to compare proportions or percentages e.g. compares the percentage of patients who improved following two different interventions

186
Q

Mann-Whitney U

A

This statistical test is used to measure ordinal, interval or ratio scales of unpaired data. An example of an ordinal variable is Likert items e.g. a 5 point scale. This is not the correct test to compare percentages.

187
Q

Students t test paired / unpaired

A

for when data is normally distributed

188
Q

Antibiotic choice for acne vulgaris

A

Clindamycin
Doxycycline / lymecycline

189
Q

Antibiotic choice for cough if indicated

A

Doxycycline - adults
Amoxicillin - children

Also clarithromycin, erythromycin

190
Q

Antibiotic choice for otitis media

A

Amoxicillin

Clarithromycin if pen allergic

191
Q

Otitis externa + cellulitis abx?

A

Flucloxacillin

192
Q

Antibiotic for bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

193
Q

Antibiotic for sinusitis

A

pen v

doxy if pen allergic

194
Q

Oral candidiasis

A

Azoles > nystatin

Miconazole = azole

195
Q

Vaginal candidiasis

A

Topical azoles (pessary)

If recurrent (>3 year) then oral fluconazole course 6 months

196
Q

Antibiotics for Impetigo

A

Fusidic acid topically
Mupirocin if MRSA

More severe then oral flucloxacillin

197
Q

Antibiotics for leg ulcers

A

Always colonized, abx only needed if infection.

Flucloxacillin

Cipro + clind

Oxygen gel non healing ulcers.

198
Q

Abx for bites

A

Cats always give

Dogs if hand foot tendon immunocompromised

Co amoxiclav
Metro and clarith (human), metro and doxy (animal) if pen allergic

199
Q

Fungal skin infections

A

Topical terbinafine
Or Imidazole if ?candida

Can go to orals if not clearing

200
Q

Fungal nail infections

A

Oral terbinafine
Must confirm with scrapings

Check LFTs
Apply weekly antifungal cream to prevent recurrence

201
Q

Treatment for chickenpox

A

Seek specialist advice in pregnancy, neonate and immunocompromised

Consider acyclovir if <24 hours from onset AND one of : <14, severe pain, dense/ oral rash, smoker, on steroids

Otherwise conservative

202
Q

Treatment for shingles

A

Acyclovir if >50 years old and within 72 hours of rash
Or ophthalmic / ramsay hunt / eczema / non truncal involvement / pain / mod severe rash

If ongoing >1week consider acyclovir

800mg 5x day 7 days

203
Q

Diagnosis of asthma in 5-16

A

1) spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility
2) FeNO with uncertainty then peak flow

204
Q

Diagnosis of asthma >17

A

1) FeNO
2) spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility
3) peak flow variability

205
Q

What is FeNO

A

Marker of inflammation in the airways

NO produced by body to vasodilate

<25 ppb: Normal, and usually indicates asthma is unlikely
25–50 ppb: Intermediate, and suggests some airway inflammation and asthma may be a possibility
>50 ppb: High, and strongly indicative of asthma

206
Q

Spirometry and asthma

A

FEV1 <80% predicted
FEV1 /FVC <0.7

207
Q

Written asthma management plan to include :

A
  • Describe how to recognise and respond to worsening asthma
  • Individualize the plan for the patient based on understanding
  • Provide advice about change in ICS and how/when to add OCS
  • If using peak flow use personal best rather than predicted. Step up on 25% reduction
  • Quadruple dose ICS as long as within range (consider stepping down after 3 months if stable)
208
Q

AF increases stoke risk by …

A

5 x
1 in 5 strokes caused by AF

209
Q

Rate control for AF (4)

A
  • beta blockers eg bisoprolol
  • rate limiting calcium channel blocker eg diltiazem
  • digoxin (if sedentary lifestyle or failure of above)
  • combination of any of the above

NB do no offer amiodarone for long term rate control

210
Q

Rhythm control for AF (5)

A
  • DC cardioversion acute or planned
  • Left atrial catheter ablation
  • Left atrial surgical ablation
  • Class 1c antiarrhythmics - flecainide
  • Pill in the pocket for PAF

NB flecainide or dronedarone first line unless structural disease / HF. -use amiodarone instead

211
Q

Monitoring for amiodarone

A

Liver function tests required before treatment and then every 6 months.

Serum potassium concentration should be measured before treatment.

Chest x-ray required before treatment

Thyroid function tests should be performed before treatment, then at 6-monthly intervals, and for several months after stopping treatment

Regular eye checks - corneal deposits possible

212
Q

Antidote for dabigatran

A

Idarucizmab

213
Q

Novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs)

A

Dabigatran: A direct thrombin inhibitor
Rivaroxaban: A factor Xa inhibitor
Apixaban: A factor Xa inhibitor
Edoxaban: A factor Xa inhibitor

214
Q

Post ablation for AF how long should antiarrhythmics be used ?

215
Q

5 year survival of breast ca

216
Q

Cases of breast ca a year

217
Q

BRCA facts

A
  • Tumour suppressor genes
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Can be inherited from either parent
  • Mutations greatly increase risk of breast and ovarian ca
  • Frequency ~1/400
    (1/50 in ashkenazi jews)
  • Screening offered from age 30
218
Q

TP53 gene

A

Risk of sarcoma, adrenal, brain and breast

Cancer risk 100% in women, 73% in men

219
Q

Referral criteria to secondary care for genealogy - family history of breast cancer

A

ONE first-degree female relative diagnosed with breast cancer <40

ONE first-degree male relative diagnosed with breast cancer at any age

ONE first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer where the first primary was diagnosed <50

TWO first-degree relatives, or 1 first-degree and 1 second-degree relative, diagnosed with breast cancer at any age

1 first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer at any age AND 1 first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age (1 of these should be a first-degree relative) or

THREE first-degree or second-degree relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at any age.

220
Q

Monitoring requirements for sodium valproate

A

Monitor liver function before therapy and during first 6 months especially in patients most at risk.

Measure full blood count and ensure no undue potential for bleeding before starting and before surgery.

221
Q

Down’s syndrome risk

A

1/1,000 at 30 years then divide by 3 for every 5 years
1/50 at 45 years

222
Q

Medical management for ladies with genetic risk breast ca

A

Pre menopause - Tamoxifen
Poset monopasue - Anastrazole/ tamoxifen/ raloxifene

All increase risk of VTE

223
Q

People who need statins . No need to calculate risk (7)

A
  • Age >84
  • Established cardiovascular disease
  • eGFR <60 / albuminuria
  • Peripheral vascular disease
  • Familial hypercholesterolemia
  • T1DM
  • Polycythemia vera
224
Q

Modifiable risk factors for CVD (7)

A
  • T2DM
  • Smoking
  • Blood lipids
  • Level of physical activity
  • Diet
  • Salt intake
  • Blood pressure
225
Q

Non modifiable risk factors for CVD

A
  • Age
  • Sex
  • Ethnicity
  • Socioeconomic status
  • Familial hypercholesterolemia
226
Q

QRISK calculator

A

Age
Sex
Ethnicity
Postcode
Smoking
Diabetes
Angina / MI in relative <60
CKD
AF
On blood pressure treatment
Rheumatoid arthritis
Cholesterol
BP

New for Qrisk 3
SLE
Severe mental illness
Erectile dysfunction
Migraines
On steroids
Antipsychotics

Estimates risk of a stroke or myocardial infarction in the next 10 years. >10% start statin.
Atorvastatin 20mg first line.

227
Q

Strongest to weakest statins

A

rosuvastatin 5mg , atorvastatin 20mg, simvastatin 50mg , lovastatin, pravastatin, and fluvastatin.

Amount needed to achieve 40% reduction

228
Q

Marburg score

A

Risk of ACS

Age F>65 M >55 1
Vascular disease 1
Patient thinks its cardiac 1
Worse on exercise 1
Not reproducible by palpation 1

<2 low risk
3 medium
>4 high

229
Q

Assessing chronic stable chest pain
Typical / atypical

A
  • Crushing retro sternal chest pain, radiating to jaw, arms, neck
  • Precipitated by exertion
  • Relieved by GTN spray after 5 mins

3 = typical chest pain
2 = atypical chest pain
1/0 = non cardiac chest pain

230
Q

Angina management

A

1) Beta blocker
2) Calcium channel blocker (non rate limiting eg nifedipine , amlodipine, felodipine)
Diltiazem - use caution
Verapamil - contraindicated
3) Long acting nitrate
4) Nicorandil, ivabradine, ranolazine

Only offer >2 if awaiting revascularization or unable to have it

231
Q

Secondary prevention for Angina

A
  • Aspirin 75mg
  • ACE inhibitor
  • Statin (atorvastatin 80mg)
  • Well controlled BP
  • Screen for depression
232
Q

CGA description ?

A

Describes CKD

C - Aause
G - GFR
A - Albuminuria

233
Q

Alport syndrome

A

Alport syndrome is a genetic disease causing kidney damage, hearing loss, and eye problems. Learn about its symptoms, diagnosis, and treatments for kidney health.

234
Q

Blood pressure target in CKD

A

CKD alone <140/90
CKD + diabetes/ pcr >70 = <130/80

235
Q

Diabetes and CKD drugs

A

ACE I / ARB
SGLT-2 inhibitor

236
Q

When to refer CKD to renal team

A
  • All patients with eGFR <30
  • None diabetics with ACR >70
  • Haematuria with ACR >30
  • 3 readings over 90 days showing deterioration in eGFR >25%
  • Treatment resistant hypertension (4 agents)
  • Genetic cause
    -?Renal artery stenosis
  • Heavy proteinuria
237
Q

CKD G3A1 confirm diagnosis ? If uncertain

A

Cystatin c blood test

238
Q

CKD grading system

239
Q

What contains gluten ?

A

BROW

Barley
Rye
Oats
Wheat

240
Q

Highest incidence of coeliac

241
Q

Bleeding on OCP

A

No need for 7 day break
If you have breakthrough bleeding then stop taking for 4 days

242
Q

UK MEC 3 COCP (7)

A
  • more than 35 years old and smoking less than 15 cigarettes/day
  • BMI > 35 kg/m^2*
  • family history of thromboembolic disease in first degree relatives < 45 years
  • controlled hypertension (on antihypertensives)
  • immobility e.g. wheel chair use
  • carrier of known gene mutations associated with breast cancer (e.g. BRCA1/BRCA2)
  • current gallbladder disease
243
Q

UK MEC 4 COCP (9)

A
  • more than 35 years old and smoking more than 15 cigarettes/day
  • migraine with aura
  • history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation
  • history of stroke or ischaemic heart disease
  • breast feeding < 6 weeks post-partum
  • uncontrolled hypertension
  • current breast cancer
  • major surgery with prolonged immobilisation
  • positive antiphospholipid antibodies (e.g. in SLE)
244
Q

Gestational diabetes oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) levels

A

Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed by either a:
fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L, or
2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/L
‘5678’

245
Q

When should Q Risk not be used?

A

> 84
T1DM
CKD 3 (eGFR <60) / proteinuria
Familial hyperlipidaemia

QRISK2 may underestimate CVD risk in:
- HIV
- serious mental health problems
- medicines that can cause dyslipidaemia such as antipsychotics, corticosteroids or immunosuppressant drugs
- autoimmune disorders/systemic inflammatory disorders such as systemic lupus erythematosus

246
Q

When to investigate familial hypercholesterolaemia

A
  • total cholesterol level > 7.5 mmol/L
  • there is a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease (an event before 60 years in an index person or first-degree relative [parents, siblings, children])
247
Q

Statins in T1DM

A

Atorvastatin 20 mg should be offered if type 1 diabetics who are:
older than 40 years, or
have had diabetes for more than 10 years or
have established nephropathy or
have other CVD risk factors

248
Q

Statins in CKD

A

atorvastatin 20mg should be offered to patients with CKD
increase the dose if a greater than 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol is not achieved and the eGFR > 30 ml/min. If the eGFR is < 30 ml/min a renal specialist should be consulted before increasing the dose

250
Q

Treatment for croup

A

0.15mg/kg dexamethasone single dose

251
Q

Incubation of gastroenteritis

A

Incubation period
1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus*
12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli
48-72 hrs: Shigella, Campylobacter
> 7 days: Giardiasis, Amoebiasis

252
Q

After starting ACE I for HTN + DM , acceptable change in creatinine and eGFR

A

NICE suggest that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, although any rise should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes (e.g. NSAIDs). A rise greater than this may indicate underlying renovascular disease

253
Q

How long after MI can you have sex ?

254
Q

How long after MI can you have sex ?

255
Q

Drugs after an MI ?

A

dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent)
ACE inhibitor
beta-blocker
statin

256
Q

Drugs after an MI ?

A

dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent)
ACE inhibitor
beta-blocker
statin

257
Q

Drugs after an MI ?

A

dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent)
ACE inhibitor
beta-blocker
statin

258
Q

How long after MI can heavy workers go back?

259
Q

How long post partum can you have a smear ?

260
Q

Contraindications for phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors.

A

nitrate prescription; patients for whom sexual activity is not advisable; history of non-arthritic optic neuropathy; retinal degeneration; use of indinavir/ketoconazole/itraconazole in patients over age 75 years (vardenafil only); heart failure and uncontrolled arrhythmia/hypertension (tadalafil only).

261
Q

How long is licencing for Mirena LNG-IUS, for contraception

A

8 years

However, women who are aged 45 years or over at the time of LNG-IUS insertion may retain the device until the age of 55 if used for contraception

262
Q

How long can you keep the copper coil in?

A

ranges from 5–10 years, depending on the device. Women who are aged 40 years or more at the time of IUD insertion may retain the device until they no longer need contraception, even if this is beyond the duration of the UK marketing authorisation.

263
Q

How often do doctors need to revalidate ?

A

All licensed doctors in the UK working in the NHS and the private sector and all branches of practice need to complete a revalidation cycle once every five years via GMC

264
Q

Core symptoms of ADHD

A

hyperactivity, impulsivity and inattention.

Motor planning and co-ordination difficulties may be found in up to 50% of children with ADHD.

265
Q

Scale for thyroid toxicosis

A

Burch-Wartofsky Point Scale (BWPS)

Check temp, pulse, BP

266
Q

Contraindications for Alteplase

A

(Used for thrombolysis)

a stroke in the last three months or a convulsion-accompanying stroke.

267
Q

The ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) is…

A

the ratio of the highest recorded systolic pressure recorded in the affected leg over the highest recorded systolic pressure in either arm (whichever arm had the highest reading).

268
Q

IQ scores and LD

A

IQ score of 50–70 = mild learning disability.
IQ score of 35–49 =moderate learning IQ score of 20–34= severe learning IQ score of < 20 =profound learning disability.

269
Q

FIT criteria

A

Aged 50 and over with any of the following unexplained symptoms:

rectal bleeding
abdominal pain
weight loss

270
Q

Drugs that can lower seizure threshold

A

alcohol, cocaine, amphetamines
ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
aminophylline, theophylline
bupropion
methylphenidate (used in ADHD)
mefenamic acid

271
Q

Indications for higher dose folic acid in pregnancy ?

A

5mg needed for:
- BMI of more than 30 kg/m²
- diabetes
- sickle cell disease (SCD)
- thalassaemia trait
- coeliac disease
- on anti-epileptic medication
-personal or family history of NTD
?Multiples

Otherwise 400mcg
+ all pregnant patients take vitamin D 10mcg

272
Q

Significant statistical heterogeneity…

A

Using Higgins I2, a value of 0% indicates statistical homogeneity. Significant statistical heterogeneity is often considered to be present if I2 is 50% or more.

The heterogeneity is a measure of how different the studies included in the meta-analysis are. Ideally they would be similar.

273
Q

Postpartum levonorgestrel-intrauterine device (LNG-IUD) can be inserted…

A

within 48h of delivery, or after four weeks post-partum

274
Q

At what age do NICE recommend that we start to assess women regarding their risk suffering a fragility fracture?

A

all women aged >= 65 years and all men aged >= 75 years should be assessed.

Younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors, such as:
previous fragility fracture
current use or frequent recent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid
history of falls
family history of hip fracture
other causes of secondary osteoporosis, for example:
hypogonadism in either sex including low testosterone in men and premature menopause in women
endocrine conditions, including diabetes mellitus, Cushing’s disease, hyperthyroidism
conditions associated with malabsorption, including inflammatory bowel disease, coeliac disease, and chronic pancreatitis.
rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthropathies.
low body mass index (BMI) (less than 18.5 kg/m²)
smoking
alcohol intake of more than 14 units per week for women and more than 14 units per week for men.

275
Q

FEV1/FVC suggestive of asthma:

A

FEV1/FVC <0.7

276
Q

FeNO suggestive of asthma

A

40 ppb or more in adults, 35 ppb or more in children

277
Q

Bronchodilator reversibility suggestive of asthma

A

12% or more improvement in FEV1 and 200 ml or more volume increase

278
Q

Peak flow variability suggestive of asthma

279
Q

Direct bronchial challenge test with histamine or methacholine suggestive of asthma

A

PC20 of 8 mg/ml or less

280
Q

Drugs causing haemolysis in G6PD deficiency

A

anti-malarials: primaquine
ciprofloxacin
sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas

281
Q

First line treatment for vitiligo

A

potent or very potent topical steroid

eg Mometasone furoate 0.1% ointment

282
Q

Expected length of illness for common childhood conditions

A

Croup 2
Sore throat 2–7
Earache 7–8
Common cold 15
Non-specific RTI 16
Bronchiolitis 21
Acute cough 25

283
Q

School nursery exclusion for rubella

A

5 days from onset of rash

284
Q

School /nursery exclusion for measles

A

4 days from onset of rash

285
Q

School / nursery exclusion for whooping cough

A

2 days after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics )

286
Q

School / nursery exclusion for scarlet fever

A

24 hours after commencing antibiotics

287
Q

School / nursery exclusion for Conjunctivitis
Fifth disease (slapped cheek)
Roseola
Infectious mononucleosis
Head lice
Threadworms
Hand, foot and mouth

A

None needed

288
Q

School / nursery exclusion for chickenpox

A

Until all crusted over

289
Q

School / nursery exclusion for mumps

A

5 days from onset of swollen glands

290
Q

School / nursery exclusion for Diarrhoea & vomiting

A

Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours

291
Q

School / nursery exclusion for Impetigo

A

Until lesions are crusted and healed, or 48 hours
after commencing antibiotic treatment

292
Q

School / nursery exclusion for scabies

A

Until treated

293
Q

School / nursery exclusion for influenza

A

Until recovered

294
Q

Driving and sleep apnoea

A

Group 1 licences should have a review every 3 years
Group 2 licence holders should be reviewed annually.

To reapply for a driving licence, the driving and vehicle licensing agency (DVLA) needs medical confirmation of improvement in sleepiness, control of breathing and adherence to treatment.

295
Q

Standardised mortality ratio (SMR)

A

An SMR of 100 means that the number of deaths is the same as would be expected for the general population. A number higher than 100 implies an excess mortality rate and an SMR of 1000 is ten times that of the general population.

Sometimes the SMR is not multiplied by 100, in which case SMR <1.0 indicates fewer than expected deaths and SMR >1.0 indicates more than expected deaths.

296
Q

NUMBER NEEDED TO HARM (NNH)

A

The event rate in the exposed group is a/(a + b) = 3000/27000 = 0.111

The event rate in the unexposed group is c/(c + d) = 100/20100 = 0.005

Therefore, the absolute risk increase is 0.11-0.005 = 0.106

Number needed to harm = 1/0.105 = 9.4

This means that, for roughly every 9 men that smoke, one is likely to die from lung cancer.

297
Q

Driving after severe head injury

A

The DVLA states that driving should cease for a period of 6–12 months following a significant head injury.

298
Q

Severity of COPD (GOLD)

A
  1. Mild, with an FEV1 of > 80%
  2. Moderate, with an FEV1 of 50–79%
  3. Severe, with an FEV1 of 30–49%
  4. Very severe, with an FEV1 <30%
299
Q

Eligibility for LTOT in COPD

A

SpO2 <92%
FEV1 <30%

300
Q

Rx management of IE COPD

A

5 days:
30mg preg
Amox
Doxy
or clarithromycin

301
Q

Most common dementia types

A

Alzheimer’s 50%
Vascular 25%
Lewy bodies 15%
Frontotemporal <5%
Mixed
Autosomal dominant alzheimers
Treatable causes <5%

302
Q

Mini mental state exam

A

21 - 26 mild cognitive impairment
10-20 moderate
<10 severe

303
Q

First line medication for dementia

A

Anticholinesterase inhibitors
- Donepezil
- Rivastigmine
- Galantamine

304
Q

Antipsychotics in dementia

A

Risperidone (first choice)
Quetiapine and haloperidol
Never in lewy body
Cardiac risk assessment
Start low and titrate
Only when causing significant distress
Review and stop when indicated

305
Q

Breast screening ages

A

women aged 47-73 years 50-70??

Above this age, women can continue to have screening by self-referring themselves.

306
Q

What is measured in haemochromatosis

A

‘transferrin saturation should be kept below 50% and the serum ferritin concentration below 50 ug/l’

307
Q

Dexamthasone in croup

A

0.15mg / kg