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Waldo CJ2+ Study Materials > AirSprint US CJ2+ Limitations > Flashcards

AirSprint US CJ2+ Limitations Flashcards

Memorize Aircraft Limitations for the CJ2+

1
Q

Maximum Design Ramp Weight

A

12,625 Pounds

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2
Q

Maximum Design Takeoff Weight

A

12,500 Pounds

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3
Q

Maximum Design Landing Weight

A

11,525 Pounds

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4
Q

Maximum Design Zero Fuel Weight

A

9,700 Pounds

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5
Q

Takeoff Weight is Limited by the Most Restrictive of the Following Requirements:

A
  1. Maximum Certified Takeoff Weight
  2. Maximum Takeoff Weight Permitted by Climb Requirements
  3. Takeoff Field Length
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6
Q

Landing Weight is Limited by the Most Restrictive of the Following Requirements:

A
  1. Maximum Certified Landing Weight
  2. Maximum Landing Weight Permitted by Climb Requirements or Brake Energy Limits
  3. Landing Distance
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7
Q

Maximum Time Above 840 degrees C ITT

A

30 Seconds

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8
Q

Maximum Time Above 900 degrees C to 1000 degrees C ITT

A

15 Seconds

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9
Q

ENG CTRL SYS FAULT L/R Annunciators

A

Extinguished

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10
Q

Maximum Tailwind Component

A

10 KNOTS

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11
Q

Maximum Crosswind Component

A

10 KNOTS

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12
Q

Maximum Time to Light-Off

A

10 Seconds

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13
Q

Minimum Engine Oil Temperature

A

-40 degrees C

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14
Q

Maximum Airport Elevation for Ground Battery Start

A

14,000 Feet

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15
Q

Maximum Airport Elevation for Ground External Power Start

A

14,000 Feet

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16
Q

Minimum Battery Voltage for Battery Start

A

24 VDC

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17
Q

Minimum/Maximum External Power Current Capacity for Start

A

800/1100 AMPS

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18
Q

Starter Cycle Limitations

A

Three engine starts per 30 minutes. Three cycles of operation with a 60 - Second rest period between cycles is permitted.

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19
Q

Battery Limitations

A
  1. The battery temperature warning system must be operational for all ground and flight operations
  2. The battery temperature warning system preflight test in section III, normal procedures, must be satisfactorily completed
  3. if the BATT O’TEMP or BATT FAULT light illuminates during ground operation, do not take off until the proper maintenance procedures have been accomplished.
  4. Battery Cycle Limitations: Three engine starts per hour
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20
Q

Battery Limitations - Cycles

A
  1. Three generator assisted cross starts are equal to one battery start
  2. If an external power unit is used for start, no battery cycle is counted
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21
Q

Ground Operations

Maximum Generator Current per generator

A

200 AMPS

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22
Q

Ground Operations

Limit pitot-static heat to____

A

2 minutes

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23
Q

Ground Operation

with N2 at 75% RPM or greater limit engine, wing, and/or windshield anti-ice to_______

A

2 minutes

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24
Q

Ground Operations

Do not operate with the wing anti-ice for more than _______ after the WING ANTI-ICE L/R annunciators have extinguished.

A

1 minute

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25
Q

Ground Operations
Ambient surface temperature must be obtained from the RAT display at the bottom of each PFD, with either or both engines operating, or from an appropriate ground station. The _____ display is unreliable on the ground.

A

SAT

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26
Q

Use _______ isopropyl alcohol for windshield anti-ice

A

TT-I-735

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27
Q

Use ________________ type hydraulic Fluids only

A

MIL-PRF-83282

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28
Q

Fuel Boost Pumps - ON; when L and/or R FUEL LOW LEVEL caution lights illuminate or at ___________ pounds or less indicated fuel

A

220 + or - 40 Pounds

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29
Q

Approved Fuels

A 
JET A 
Jet A1
Jet 3
JP-8
RT
TS-1
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30
Q

Approved Oils

Can they be mixed?

A

Mobil Jet II
Mobile 254

Yes

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31
Q

Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

  1. Mmo (Above 29,123 Feet)
  2. Vmo (Between 8,000 and 29,123 Feet
  3. Vmo ( Below 8,000 Feet)
A
  1. 0.737 Mach
  2. 278 KIAS
  3. 260 KIAS
32
Q

Maximum Flap Extnded Speed - Vfe

  1. Takeoff and Approach (15)
  2. Land position (35)
  3. Maximum Speed With Flaps Failed to Ground Flaps (60)
A
  1. 200 KIAS
  2. 161 KIAS
  3. 140 KIAS
33
Q

Full application of rudder and aileron controls, as well as maneuvers that involve angle-of-attack near the stall should be confined to speeds below _____________ speed. Refer to LOAD FACTOR limitations for pitch maneuvering limitations.

A

Maximum Maneuvering

34
Q

Maximum Landing Gar:

  1. Extended Speed - Vle
  2. Operating Speed - Vlo (Extending)
  3. Operating Speed - Vlo (Retracting)
A
  1. 200 KIAS
  2. 200 KIAS
  3. 200 KIAS
35
Q

Maximum Speed Brake Operation Speed Vsb

A

No Limit

36
Q

Maximum Autopilot Operation Speed

A

278 KIAS or Mach 0.737

37
Q

Maximum Tire Ground Speed

A

165 Knots

38
Q

Intentional selection of ground flaps in flight is ______

A

Prohibited

39
Q

The ground flaps position is _____ locked out in flight. Selection of ground flaps will significantly increase drag and sink rate.

A

not

40
Q

Takeoff and landing Operational Limits

Maximum Altitude Limit

A

14,000 feet

41
Q

Takeoff and landing Operational Limits

Maximum Tailwind Component

A

10 Knots

42
Q

Takeoff and landing Operational Limits

Minimum Ambient Temperature

A

-54 degrees C

43
Q

Takeoff and landing Operational Limits

The maximum asymmetric fuel differential is _____ pounds, however controllability for safe return and landing has been demonstrated with an emergency asymmetrical difference of ______ pounds.

A

200 Pounds

600 Pounds

44
Q

Cabin temperature must be held at or above _________ for a minimum of 20 minutes prior to takeoff, after a prolonged ground soak period (two hours or longer) at ambient temperatures of ________ or colder.

What is this limitation effect?

A

0 degrees C (+32 degrees F)

-10 degrees C (+14 degrees F)

Passenger oxygen masks deployment and operation.

45
Q

Prior to takeoff, Channels A and B of the L and R FADECs must be _________

A

Operational

46
Q

Takeoff is _________ with and ENG CTRL SYS FAULT L/R light illuminated prior to takeoff.

A

Prohibited

47
Q

The Autopilot and yaw damper must be ______ for takeoff and landing.

A

OFF

48
Q

The following systems must be operational and must have satisfactorily completed the preflight checks in Section III, Normal Procedures:

A
  1. Rudder Bias
  2. Angle of Attack
  3. Electric Elevator Trim
  4. Flaps
  5. Flight Controls
  6. Stall Warning System
49
Q

Engine synchronizer must be _____ for takeoff and landing.

A

Off

50
Q

Takeoff is prohibited when antiskid is inoperative and flaps are in the _____ position

A

Up

51
Q

Takeoffs and landings are limited to _______ runway surfaces.

A

Paved

52
Q

___________ must be retracted prior to 50 feet AGL before landing

A

Speedbrakes

53
Q

Cabin must be _______ for takeoff and landing

A

depresurized

54
Q

Extending Ground Flaps during touch and go landings is _____________.

A

Prohibited

55
Q

The GND IDLE switch must be in the _________ position when conducting touch and go landings. For normal takeoff operations, the GND IDLE switch must be in the _____ position.

A

HIGH

NORMAL

56
Q

Takeoff is limited to the Flaps ________ position when Type II, Type III, or Type IV anti-ice fluid is on the airplane.

A

UP (0degrees)

57
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with the following forms of contamination:
With frost adhering to the following critical areas:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Wing leading edge
  2. Upper Wing Surface
  3. Windshield
58
Q 
Takeoff is prohibited with the following forms of contamination:
With ice, snow or slush adhering to the following critical areas:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
A
  1. Wing Leading Edge and Upper Wing Surface, Flight Control Surfaces including all hinge gaps.
  2. Horizontal Stabilizer
  3. Vertical Stabilizer
  4. Engine Inlets
  5. Top of Engine Pylons
  6. Top of Fuselage
  7. Windshield
  8. All Pitot Probes and Static Ports
  9. Angle of Attack Vanes
  10. Upper surface of nose forward of the windshield
59
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with the following forms of contamination:
A visual and tactile check of the wing leading edge and wing upper surface must be performed to ensure the wing is free from frost, ice, snow, or slush when the outside air temperature is less than _______ or if it cannot be determined wing fuel temperature is above _____ and :
a. There is ____________ present (rain, drizzle, sleet, snow, fog, etc.)
b. Water is ____ on the wing upper surface.
c. The difference between the ______ and the outside temperature is 3 degrees C (5 degrees F) or less.
d. The atmospheric conditions have been conducive to ____ formation.

A

10 degrees C (50 degrees F)

0 degrees C (32 degrees F)

a. Visible Moisture
b. present
c. dew point
d. frost

60
Q

Minimum airspeed for sustained flight in icing conditions (except approach and landing) is _________

A

160 KIAS

61
Q

In icing conditions, operating the airplane at other than flaps 0 degrees for an extended period of time (except approach and landing is ________.

A

prohibited

62
Q

Minimum engine N2 speed for effective wing anti-icing is ____________

A

80% N2

63
Q

Minimum temperature for operation of tail deicing boots (indicated RAT)

A

-35 degrees C (-31 degrees F)

64
Q

After an icing encounter with inoperative tail deice boots, maximum flap deflection is _________.

A

15 degrees

65
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude.

A

45,000 Feet

66
Q

Maximum Generator Current (per Generator) Airborne

A

300 Amperes up to 41,000 Feet

250 Amperes above 41,000 Feet

67
Q

Maximum altitude for extension of flaps and/or landing gear

A

18,000 Feet

68
Q

The Williams FJ44-3A-24 engines each produce _____ pounds of static takeoff thrust at sea level, flat-rated to 22 degrees C (72 degrees F)

A

2416

69
Q

During in-flight windmilling, the engine will vent oil overboard. Typical consumption is approximately _____ gallons per hour.

A

0.02

70
Q

Fuel anti-icing additive ______ required.

A

is not

71
Q

Flight through severe turbulence should be avoided if possible. The following procedures are recommended for flight in severe turbulence.

  1. airspeed ________
  2. Maintain a constant ________ without chasing the altitude. Avoid sudden large control movements.
  3. Operation of ______ is recommended in basic modes only (ROL and PIT only)
A
  1. approximately 180 KIAS
  2. attitude
  3. autopilot
72
Q

Takeoff performance is degraded when Type II, Type III, or Type IV anti-ice fluid is on the airplane. The fluid that remains on the airplane during takeoff causes the _____ forces at rotation to be increased and the takeoff distance to be increased.

A

elevator

72
Q

Maximum allowable luggage forward compartment is__________

A

400 pounds

73
Q

Maximum allowable luggage aft storage compartment is____________

A

600 pounds.

73
Q

Maximum allowable luggage aft storage compartment is____________

A

600 pounds.

Waldo CJ2+ Study Materials (2 decks)

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