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Test Questions > Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank > Flashcards

Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is CATEGORY of aircraft? a) airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air b) single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea c) gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free baloon

A

A) airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

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2
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a CLASS of aircraft? a)single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea b) lighter than air, airship, hot air balloons, gas balloon c) airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air

A

A) single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

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3
Q

With respect to the certification of AIRCRAFT, which is a class of AIRCRAFT? a)transport, restricted, provisional b)normal, utility, acrobatic, limited c)airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon

A

C) Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Balloon

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4
Q

The definition of nighttime is: a) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hr before sunset b) sunset to sunrise c) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

A

A) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

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5
Q

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? a) VNE b) VLO c) VA

A

C) VA

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6
Q

Which V-Speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? a) VLO b) VLE c) VFE

A

B) VLE

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7
Q

Which V-Speed represendts maximum flap extended speed? a) VLOF b) VFE c) VFC

A

B) VFE

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8
Q

VNO is defined as the a) maximum structural cruising speed b) never-exceed speed c) normal operating range

A

A) Maximum Structural Speed

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9
Q

VSO is defined as the: a) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration b) stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed c) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specific configuration

A

A) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

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10
Q

What would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during a climb after takeoff?

A

VX

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11
Q

After takeoff, what airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

A

VY

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12
Q

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s)?

A

They are mandadory

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13
Q

Can a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive? (AD)?

A

Yes, if allowed by the AD

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14
Q

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

A

The Signature, Certificate Number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records

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15
Q

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

A

14 CFR Part 43.7 PERSONS AUTHORIZED TO APPROVE AIRCRAFT, AIRFRAMES, AIRCRAFT ENGINES, PROPELLERS, APPLIANCES, OR COMPONENT PARTS FOR RETURN TO SERVICE AFTER MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE, REBUILDING, OR ALTERATION.

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16
Q

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft?

A

Private or Commercial Pilot

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17
Q

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? a) Alteration of main seat support brackets b) engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used c) servicing landing gear wheel bearings

A

c) servicing landing gear wheel bearings

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18
Q

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? a) repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams b) repair of landing gear brace struts c) replenishing hydraulic fluid

A

c) replinishing hydraulic fluid

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19
Q

What documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in an aircraft while operating as a pilot in command of an aircraft?

A

Pilot Certificate Medical Certificate (if required)

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20
Q

When must a current pilots certificate be in the pilots personal possession or readily available in the aircraft?

A

When acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember

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21
Q

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession a current:

A

Medical Certificate (if required) Pilot Certificate

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22
Q

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) or any:

A

Federal, state or local law enforcement officer

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23
Q

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36 yr old pilot on August 10th of this year. To exercise priviledges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on:

A

August 31, 3 years later

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24
Q

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3 of this year. To exercise the privleges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on:

A

May 31, 2 years later

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25
Q

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year old pilot on July 15 of this year, will expire at midnight on:

A

July 31, 2 years later

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26
Q

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21 of this year, will expire on midnight on:

A

October 31, 3 years later

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27
Q

The pilot in command is required to hold a type of rating in which aircraft? a) aircraft having a gross weight over 12,500 lbs b) aircraft operated under an authorization issued by an Administrator c) aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights

A

a) aircraft with weight over 12,500

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28
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

A

an airplane with more than 200 horsepower

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29
Q

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a HIGH-PERFORMANCE airplane, the person must have:

A

received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses the persons logbook

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30
Q

In order to act as pilot in command of a HIGH PERFORMANCE airplane, a pilot must have:

A

received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower

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31
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding:

A

24 calendar months

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32
Q

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are NOT met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers can be carried is:

A

1929 - One hour after sunset

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33
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in an aircraft of the same category, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:

A

90 Days

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34
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made 3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same:

A

Category, Class and Type, if a type rating is required

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35
Q

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane must be:

A

To a full stop

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36
Q

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as a pilot in command at NIGHT, must be done during the time period from:

A

1 Hour AFTER sunset to 1 hour BEFORE sunset

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37
Q

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in:

A

The same category and class of aircraft to be used

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38
Q

If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only:

A

30 days after the date of the move

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39
Q

A certifcated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilots logbook a minimum of

A

10 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft CATEGORY, CLASS and TYPE, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

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40
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months, at least:

A

THREE actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

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41
Q

A RECREATIONAL pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft:

A

A current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 miles from the departure airport

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42
Q

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a __________ flight review

A

Biennial

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43
Q

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8th of this year when is the next flight review required?

A

August 31, 2 years later

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44
Q

How many passengers is a RECREATIONAL pilot allowed to carry on board?

A

One

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45
Q

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a RECREATIONAL pilot may:

A

Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger

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46
Q

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport?

A

After receiving ground and flight instruction on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement

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47
Q

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certified for a maximum of how many occupants?

A

Four Occupants

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48
Q

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of:

A

180 Horsepower

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49
Q

What exception permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?

A

There is no exception.

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50
Q

May a recreational pilot act as a pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?

A

No, it is not allowed.

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51
Q

With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?

A

At sunrise

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52
Q

If sunset is 2021 and the end of the evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?

A

2021

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53
Q

When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?

A

For the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor.

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54
Q

Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?

A

Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1000 ft, and the visibility is at least 3 miles

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55
Q

When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?

A

When 2,000 feet AGL or below

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56
Q

During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for the recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles

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57
Q

Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?

A

None

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58
Q

When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?

A

It is not allowed

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59
Q

When must a recreational pilot have a pilot-in-command flight check?

A

If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days.

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60
Q

A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least _______ miles.

A

5 Miles

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61
Q

Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a GLIDER rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what type of medical?

A

A medical certificate is not required for a glider.

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62
Q

Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a BALLOON rating, the pilot must have in their possession what class of medical?

A

A medical certificate is not required for a balloon rating.

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63
Q

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may not:

A

pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees.

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64
Q

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

A

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight

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65
Q

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is:

A

4 nautical miles

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66
Q

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from:

A

1,200 ft above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL

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67
Q

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least:

A

1,000 feet and 3 miles

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68
Q

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

A

Pilot in Command

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69
Q

The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the:

A

Pilot in Command

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70
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may:

A

deviate from the FAR’s to the extent required to meet that emergency

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71
Q

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

A

Upon request

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72
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A

The pilot in command

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73
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

A

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof.

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74
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

A

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface

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75
Q

A person may NOT act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person with the preceding _______ hours?

A

8 Hours

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76
Q

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs be carried aboard an aircraft?

A

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care

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77
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

A

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

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78
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

79
Q

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:

A

An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

80
Q

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to:

A

Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircrafts takeoff and landing distance data

81
Q

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:

A

Takeoffs and landings

82
Q

Which best describes the flight conditions under which crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

A

Safety belts during takeoff and landing AND while en route, shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

83
Q

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

A

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

84
Q

What certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during:

A

Taxi, takeoffs and landings

85
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which person during an aircraft and when?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs and landings only.

86
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

87
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress

88
Q

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?

A

The aircraft on the left shall give way

89
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed? a) Glider b) Airship c) Aircraft refueling other aircraft

A

a) Glider

90
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplanes position, which aircraft has the right of way?

A

The airship

91
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? a) airship b) aircraft towing other aircraft c) gyroplane

A

b) aircraft towing other aircraft

92
Q

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

A

Both pilots should give way to the right

93
Q

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft:

A

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or overtake another

94
Q

A seaplane and a motorboat are crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

A

The seaplane

95
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person ma operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots

96
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of primary airport of Class C airspace is:

A

200 knots

97
Q

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is:

A

200 knots

98
Q

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum authorized is:

A

200 knots

99
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

100
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested area?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

101
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure

102
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft ma not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure?

A

500 Feet

103
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

104
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

A

The elevation of the departure area

105
Q

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

106
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL

107
Q

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is:

A

An emergency

108
Q

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC Clearance?

A

When requested by ATC

109
Q

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

A

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

110
Q

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot:

A

Is cleared to land

111
Q

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

A

Flashing Green

112
Q

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue to circling, the light will be:

A

Steady red

113
Q

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to

A

Return to the starting point on the airport

114
Q

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to:

A

Exercise extreme caution

115
Q

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red lgith followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should:

A

Exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

116
Q

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

A

Class D

117
Q

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only when:

A

When the associated control tower is in operation

118
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at:

A

all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

119
Q

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicatior (VASI) shall:

A

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

120
Q

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

A

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

121
Q

Which is appropriate for a helicopter approching an airport for landing?

A

Avoid the flow of a fixed-wing traffic

122
Q

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

123
Q

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

a) Class G
b) Class C
c) Class E

A

b) Class C

124
Q

What minimum radio equipment is rquired for operation within Class C airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

125
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

126
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

A

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certifcate with appropriate logbook endorsements

127
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within the Class B airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

128
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in:

A

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport

129
Q

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

A

Class A

130
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A

Enought to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

131
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

132
Q

No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least:

A

20 minutes

133
Q

What minimum visibility and clearnce from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A

3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

134
Q

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is:

A

3 miles

135
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

a) 2000 feet
b) 1,500 feet
c) 1,000 feet

A

a) 2000 feet

136
Q

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

137
Q

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles

138
Q

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is:

A

500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally

139
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VF flight is:

A

1000 feet

140
Q

VFR flight in controlled aispace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and verticle cloud clearnace of:

A

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above clouds in controlled airspace

141
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is:

A

3 miles

142
Q

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is:

A

1 mile

143
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at NIGHT is:

A

500 feet

144
Q

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is:

A

5 miles

145
Q

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is:

A

1 mile

146
Q

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

A

1,000 feet

147
Q

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the:

A

Ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles

148
Q

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are:

___________ ft ceiling and ______ mile(s) visibility

A

1000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility

149
Q

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is:

A

less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1000 feet

150
Q

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplances operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

A

1 mile flight visibility

151
Q

Under what conditions, if any, may a private pilot operate a helicopter under special VFR at night within Class D airspace?

A

There are no conditions, regulations permit this.

152
Q

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

A

The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

153
Q

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the:

A

Airplane is equipped for instrument flight

154
Q

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?

a) even thousandths
b) even thousandths plus 500 feet
c) odd thousandths plus 500 feet

A

c) Odd thousandths plus 500 feet

155
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.

a) 4,500 feet
b) 5,000 feet
c) 5,500 feet

A

c) 5,500 feet

156
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropiate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?

a) 5,000 feet
b) 4,000 feet
c) 4,500 feet

A

c) 4,500 feet

157
Q

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a :

a) magnetic heading of 0 deg through 179 deg
b) true corse of 0 deg through 179 deg
c) magnetic course of 0 deg through 179 deg

A

c) magnetic course of 0 deg through 179 deg

158
Q
A
159
Q

The definition of nighttime is:

A

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

160
Q

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the MOST ALTITUDE in a given period of time?

A

VX - which VX means speed for the BEST ANGLE of climb, this airspeed will yield the most altitude over a given distance

161
Q

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

A

Poor Surface Visibility - in stable air, flying is usally smooth. It can contain low ceilings and poor visibility.

162
Q

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

A

An abbreviated briefing.

An abbreviated briefing provides a supplement to disseminated data, an update to a previous briefing, or a briefing limited to specific information.

163
Q

What is Class D air space defined by visually?

A

A dashed blue line

164
Q

Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?

A
165
Q

Area Forecasts cover:

A

Many states, and large areas.

166
Q

The most effective method for scanning other aircraft for collision avoidance during DAYLIGHT hours is:

A

A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search a 10-degree sector.

167
Q

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

A
168
Q

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the:

A
169
Q

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as:

A
170
Q

Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to:

A
171
Q

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the:

A
172
Q

What is ABSOLUTE altitute?

A
173
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but LESS than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at NIGHT is:

A
174
Q

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when the carburetor heat is applied?

A
175
Q

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

A
176
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

A
177
Q

An abnormally high engine oil temp indication may be caused by:

A
178
Q

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

A
179
Q

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

A
180
Q

When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft’s:

A
181
Q

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:

A
182
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into the standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A
183
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is:

A
184
Q

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on:

A
185
Q

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type of clouds can be expected?

A
186
Q

If there is a thunderstorm actividy within the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

A
187
Q

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

A
188
Q

What does alternating GREEN and RED light from the control tower mean?

A
189
Q

What does FLASHING RED from the control tower mean?

A
190
Q

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A
191
Q

AIRMETS are for what pilots?

A
192
Q
A
193
Q

Are runways oriented to magnetic north or true north?

A
194
Q
A

Test Questions (2 decks)

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