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AIRLINK > AIRLINK AWOPS/OPERATIONAL/GENERAL > Flashcards

AIRLINK AWOPS/OPERATIONAL/GENERAL Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is an adequate aerodrome?
A

Adequate aerodrome is a licensed aerodrome or is found to be equivalent to the safety requirements prescribed. It also has the necessary ancillary services, such as ATS, sufficient lighting, communications, weather reporting, navaids and emergency services.

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2
Q
  1. What is a suitable aerodrome?
A

Suitable aerodrome is an adequate aerodrome weather reports/forecasts indicating conditions above operating minima. In other words: conditions exist that facilitate a safe landing.

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3
Q
  1. Define performance classification and in regard to Airlinks fleet?
A

Class A airplanes:
- Multi-engine turbo-propeller airplanes with maximum certified weight exceeding 5700 kg. The JS41.
- All multi-engine turbojet powered airplanes. The ERJ, E170 and E190

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4
Q
  1. Define aircraft approach category and in regard to Airlinks fleet?
A

Approach category: is grouping of which differentiates aircraft based on speed. The speed used is 1.3 x Vso in the landing configuration. This is used determine obstacle clearance and visibility requirements for instrument approaches.

JS41 = Category B
E170/E190 = Category C

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5
Q
  1. What speed is aircraft approach category based on?
A

1.3 x Vso [in the landing configuration]

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6
Q
  1. What are the speed ranges for approach category B, C and D aircraft?
A

Cat B: 91 – 120 kts
Cat C: 121 – 140 kts
Cat D: 141 – 165 kts

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7
Q
  1. Range of speeds for initial approach for Cat B, C and D aircraft?
A

Cat B: 120 - 180 kts
Cat C: 160 - 240 kts
Cat D: 185 – 250 kts

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8
Q
  1. Range of final approach speeds for Cat B, C and D aircraft?
A

Cat B: 85 - 130 kts
Cat C: 115 – 160 kts
Cat D: 130 – 185 kts

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9
Q
  1. Maximum speeds for circling for Cat B, C and D aircraft?
A

Cat B: 135 kts
Cat C: 180 kts
Cat D: 205 kts

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10
Q
  1. Maximum speeds for intermittent missed approach for Cat B, C and D aircraft?
A

Cat B: 130 kts
Cat C: 160 kts
Cat D: 185 kts

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11
Q
  1. Maximum speeds for final approach missed approach for Cat B, C and D aircraft?
A

Cat B: 150 kts
Cat C: 240 kts
Cat D: 265 kts

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12
Q
  1. How do we determine an airport facility?
A

The measurement of the approach lighting system facilities.

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13
Q
  1. How do we determine an aircraft fire fighting category?
A

ICAO Annex 14: determined by the aircraft’s width or wingspan.

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14
Q
  1. Requirements to further lower takeoff minima?
A
  • LVPs in force
  • HIAL centerline lights at 15m and Runway edge lights spaced 60 m apart
  • Flight deck crew have sufficient training
  • 90 m visual segment exists
  • Required rvr value has been met at all reporting points
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15
Q
  1. When are LVP’s in force?
A

600m visibility and 200 ft cloud base.

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16
Q
  1. What are the pilot responsibilities during LVP’s?
A
  • Use Cat II holding points
  • Taxi speed 10 kts
  • Use the been seen concepts
  • Checklists should be completed
  • Taxi Diagram and complex instructions taking into account
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17
Q
  1. When do we need a takeoff alternate?
A

When we cannot return to departure aerodrome due to weather being below minima. We do not need enhanced minima at our takeoff alternate.

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18
Q
  1. When do we need an enroute alternate?
A
  • Failure of a critical system necessitates a diversion enroute
  • Using a decision point fuel planning procedure.
  • Engaged in ETOPS.
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19
Q
  1. When are destination alternates required?
A

No destination alternates: when the weather is above minima for 2 hrs.’ VMC conditions at our ETA. The destination aerodrome is isolated, and the isolated fuel planning procedure has been followed.

One destination alternate: All flights require one.

Two destination alternate: When there is no weather report available for destination aerodrome and when weather is below minima at the destination aerodrome.

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20
Q
  1. When is enhanced minima required?
A

Destination alternate.

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21
Q
  1. What are enhanced minima?
A

Enhanced minima:
Not supporting straight in ILS +400ft and +1500m
Supporting ILS both runways +200ft and +800m

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22
Q
  1. When are LVPs in force?
A

600m vis and 200 ft cloud base

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23
Q
  1. What is a low visibility takeoff?
A

A low visibility takeoff is a takeoff conducted in < 400m

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24
Q
  1. What is a reduced visibility takeoff?
A

Reduced visibility takeoff is a takeoff in RVR < 125 m for B, C and < 150m for cat D.

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25
Q
  1. What is ILS category I minima?
A

550 m and 200 ft cloud base. Not more then 800m

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26
Q
  1. What is ILS category II minima?
A

DA between 50 – 100 ft
350 m RVR

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27
Q
  1. What is ILS category III minima?
A

What is ILS category III a minima?
DA between 50 – 100 ft
RVR 200m

What is ILS category III b minima?
DA between 0 – 50 ft
RVR 75-200m

What is ILS category III c minima?
No RVR requirements and DA requirements

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28
Q
  1. What are some of the pilot’s responsibilities during LVPs?
A
  • 90m visual segment
  • 15 m centerline lighting and 60 m runway edge lighting.
  • Crew are adequately trained
  • LVP is force
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29
Q
  1. What is an approach ban?
A

The meaning and purpose of an approach ban is to prevent pilots from attempting an approach and landing, where otherwise would be unsuccessful. The approach bans states that no aircraft shall commence an approach beyond the FAF unless the required RVR is met to conduct the approach.

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30
Q
  1. What is the CARs reference for Approach ban?
A

CARS 91.07.5

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31
Q
  1. When may a pilot commence the approach regardless of the reported RVR/Vis?
A
  1. Varying RVR reported.
  2. Training flight where a landing is not intended.
  3. Once passing the FAF or 1000ft above airport aerodrome. The RVR falls below minima.
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32
Q
  1. What is visual reference’s?
A
  • Elements of the approach lighting system
  • Threshold
  • Threshold markings
  • Threshold lights
  • Threshold identification lights
  • Visual glideslope indicator
  • Touchdown zone or markings
  • Runway edge lights
  • Touchdown zone lights
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33
Q
  1. What is DA and MDA?
A

DA – decision altitude. Used for precision approaches
MDA – Minimum decision altitude. Used for non-precision approaches

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34
Q
  1. What is DDA?
A

DDA – Derived decision altitude. Used during CDFA approaches. CDFA approaches the aircraft must be fully configured before the FAF. DDA is used as aircraft carry momentum during the go-around. The momentum would carry the aircraft below the minima if a go-around is conducted at the MDA. +30 ft for prop and +50 ft for jet aircraft.

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35
Q
  1. What is a CDFA?
A

Constant Descent fixed angle – approach.

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36
Q
  1. What is the minimum obstacle clearance height: ILS, VOR, VOR/DME, NDB and LOC?
A

ILS: 200 ft
VOR: 300 ft
VOR/DME: 250 ft
NDB: 300 ft
LOC: 250 ft

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37
Q
  1. When may we convert visibility to RVR?
A

During the takeoff operation. Not allowed during landing operations.

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38
Q
  1. What is our reference for AIP and CARs?
A

AIP ENR 1.8
CARS and CATS 91

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39
Q
  1. What is a circling approach?
A

A circling approach is an approach in the visual phase, to bring an aircraft into position for landing which is not suitable for a straight in landing.

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40
Q
  1. What is AIP Supp?
A

AIP: Aeronautical information publication
AIP Supp: Supplementary to the AIP.

NOTAM: notice to all airman.

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41
Q
  1. How does legislation be passed in RSA?
A

NOTAM – AIP Supp – AIC – AIP – Voted on in parliament – CARS

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42
Q
  1. What airspaces are in RSA?
A

Class A, C, F and G

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43
Q
  1. Airspace classifications?
A

Class A: IFR flights only are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from each other. All flight above FL200 are in controlled airspace.

Class B: IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from each other.

Class C: IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control services and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.

Class D: IFR and VFR flights are permitted, and all flights are provided with air traffic control service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in request of VFR flights, VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights.

Class E: IFR and VFR flights are permitted, IFR flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as practical. Class E shall not be used for control zones.

Class F: IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flight receive and air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested.

Class G: IFR and VFR flights permitted and receive flight information service if requested.

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44
Q
  1. What is a visual approach?
A

A visual approach is an approach conducted under IFR flight rules. Where the pilot proceeds by visual reference and clear of clouds to the airport. Must have a 1500m minimum visibility segment and within 25 nm of radius of the airport. Runway insight at all times and ground insight at all times.

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45
Q
  1. What is a VMC approach?
A

An approach conducted in visual meteorological conditions: 5 km visibility [8km visibility above 10000ft] and 1.5 km horizontally from cloud and 1000ft vertically from cloud.

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46
Q
  1. What is an onward clearance time?
A

OCT – or onward clearance time. Is the time given to aircraft after an enroute hold. Standard holds are right hand holds.

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47
Q
  1. What is an expected approach time?
A

EAT – expected approach time. Is the time an aircraft is given in the hold. The aircraft is expected to overhead the FAF ready to commence the approach.

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48
Q
  1. What is the wake turbulence separation?
A

48.1 Medium and Heavy? – 2 min
48.2 Medium and Super heavy? – 3 min
48.3 Light and Medium? – 2 min

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49
Q
  1. Weight ranges for light, medium, heavy and super aircraft?
A

Light < 7000 kgs
7000 kgs < Medium > 136000 kgs
136000 kgs < Heavy

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50
Q
  1. What is a cloud break procedure?
A

Cloud break procedure is IFR instrument procedure where the following exists:
1. Runway is not aligned with Final approach track.
2. No local QNH
3. Runway does not comply with ICAO requirements

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51
Q
  1. What is cloud ceiling?
A

The cloud ceiling, the lowest reported cloud ceiling reported below 20000ft.

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52
Q
  1. What is MSA and their clearance?
A

MSA – minimum safe altitude.
ICAO clearance: 1000 ft
RSA clearance: 1500 ft

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53
Q
  1. What is MORA and their clearance?
A

MORA – minimum off route altitude. Obstacles that are above 5000 feet will have a clearance of a minimum of 2000 feet. Obstacles that are below 5000 feet will have a clearance of 1000 feet. 10 nm separation from the airway.

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54
Q
  1. What is MOCA and their clearance?
A

MOCA – minimum obstacle clearance altitude. Obstacles that are above 5000 feet will have a clearance of a minimum of 2000 feet. Obstacles that are below 5000 feet will have a clearance of 1000 feet. 5 nm separation from the airway.

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55
Q
  1. What is TAA and their clearance?
A

TAA – terminal arrival altitude.
Clearance: 1000 feet.

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56
Q
  1. What is GRID MORA and their clearance?
A

Grid MORA – minimum off route altitude. Obstacles that are above 5000 feet will have a clearance of a minimum of 2000 feet. Obstacles that are below 5000 feet will have a clearance of 1000 feet. 5 nm separation from the airway.

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57
Q
  1. What is in OM-1?
A

OM – 1: Operations manual

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58
Q
  1. What is in OM-2?
A

OM – 2: SOPs’ for various aircraft. E170, E190 and JS41

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59
Q
  1. What is in OM-3?
A

OM – 3: Routes and Aerodromes

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60
Q
  1. What is in OM-4?
A

OM – 4: Training

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61
Q
  1. What is a stable approach?
A
  1. ILS approach in IMC: Full configured by 1000ft. Vref not higher than + 20 kts. But not higher than 140 kts. Approach must be stable by 500 ft.
  2. Visual approach: stable by 500ft and should be configured to at least F15 [F25 landing] by 1000 feet.
  3. Circling Approach: must be stable as per the initial approach procedure being flown, expect F15 will be selected until established on final approach for the landing runway. Wings level 300 feet.
  4. A mandatory go-around must be executed if the approach for landing runway.
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62
Q
  1. What is RVR?
A

Runway Visual Range

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63
Q
  1. What is RVR measured on?
A

Transmissometer

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64
Q
  1. When is RVR measured?
A

When visibility below 2000m

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65
Q
  1. What is LSA?
A

The localizer sensitive area

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66
Q
  1. How far does the localizer sensitive area extend?
A

Rectangular area that extends 150m either side of the runway centerline.

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67
Q
  1. What is the movement limitation in the LSA area?
A

No person, vehicle or aircraft is to be permitted to infringe the LSA from the time when:

Arrival aircraft
- 10 nm from landing until it has vacated the LSA

Departure aircraft
- A departing aircraft has commenced its takeoff run until its airborne and has passed the LOC antenna

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68
Q
  1. What is EDTO / ETOPS?
A

EDTO / ETOPS
Extended diversion time operation or Extended time operations

Modern airliners with twin engines must be certified further long-haul operations. This certification is called EDTO / ETOPS certification. Aircraft can be certified for 60 / 180 and up to 240 min. ETOPS/EDTO time.

E190 are ETOPS certified for 60 min inland and 120 min over water.

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69
Q
  1. What is the reference for CARs rules of the air?
A

CARS 91.07.

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70
Q
  1. What is a standard holding pattern?
A

Right hand turn

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71
Q
  1. What is a procedure approach turn?
A

A maneuver in which a turn is made away from the designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the airplane to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track.

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72
Q
  1. What is RVSM?
A

Reduced vertical separation minima – clearances is reduced from 2000 ft to 1000 ft.

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73
Q
  1. At what level is RVSM start?
A

FL 290

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74
Q
  1. What is flight visibility?
A

The horizontal distance from the cockpit which an unlight object may be identified during the day.

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75
Q
  1. What is ground visibility?
A

The horizontal distance from which an unlight object may be identified during the day.

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76
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed after a discontinued approach an aircraft Cat B, C and D can fly until entering the hold?
A

Cat B: 150 kts
Cat C: 240 kts
Cat D: 265 kts

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77
Q
  1. What is the lost communication procedure at FL210 routing from JNB to RCB?
A
  • Maintain last assigned routing and FL for 7min
  • Squawk 7600
  • Timing starts at failure to report at a compulsory reporting point
  • Continue as per flight plan speed and routing
  • Route to IAF. Hold
  • Plane to commence the approach and land 30 min from eta.
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78
Q
  1. What is the lost communication procedure outside controlled airspace?
A
  • Maintain last assigned routing and FL for 7min
  • Squawk 7600
  • Timing starts at failure to report at a compulsory reporting point
  • Continue as per flight plan speed and routing
  • Route to IAF. Hold
  • Plane to commence the approach and land 30 min from eta.
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79
Q
  1. In regard to MEL, what does Category A, B, C and D?
A

A – fix the day of within 24 hours
B – 3 days to fix
C – 10 days to fix
D – 120 days to fix

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80
Q
  1. What is an MELP?
A

MELP – minimum equipment list procedure. This details the actions to be taken from the MEL.

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81
Q
  1. What is a lightweight aircraft, medium weight aircraft, heavy weight aircraft and super heavy weight aircraft? [in regard to weight restrictions]
A

Light < 7000 kgs
7000 kgs < Medium > 136000 kgs
136000 kgs < Heavy

82
Q
  1. What is a contaminated runway?
A

When more then 25% of the runway is filled with more than 3mm of standing water, ice or slush.

83
Q
  1. What is a wet runway?
A

A runway is considered wet when more then 25% of the runway is covered by visible dampness or water that is 3mm or less.

84
Q
  1. What is a damp runway?
A

A runway is damp when the surface of the runway is considered reflective.

85
Q
  1. How far must a takeoff alternate be, for JS41, E170 and E190?
A

1 hours’ flight time at single engine flight speed calculate calculated at maximum all up weight in still air conditions.

86
Q
  1. How far must a takeoff alternate be for single engine aircraft?
A

20 minutes

87
Q
  1. Who can institute LVPs?
A

Only ATC

88
Q
  1. What is the obstacle accountability area?
A

Extends 90 m from either side of the runway centerline. Extends 0.125m away from the runway. 300m / 600m and 900m

89
Q
  1. Where does the first segment of the takeoff flight path end?
A

Gear up or at 35 ft clearance.

90
Q
  1. Minimum climb gradient for a two-engine aircraft to achieve in the second segment?
A

2.4%

91
Q
  1. Minimum climb gradient for a two-engine aircraft to achieve in the final takeoff segment?
A

1.2%

92
Q
  1. What is the third segment called?
A

Acceleration Altitude.

93
Q
  1. What is the minimum power requirement for an aircraft to achieve in the 4th segment?
A

Maximum continuous power

94
Q
  1. What is ASDA?
A

Accelerate Stop distance available

95
Q
  1. What is TODA?
A

Takeoff distance available

96
Q
  1. What is TORA?
A

Takeoff run available

97
Q
  1. What is a balanced field?
A

When ASDA = TODA.

98
Q
  1. Why is a balanced field important?
A

Used to optimize V2 climb out performance

99
Q
  1. What is the minimum climb gradient on a missed approach gradient?
A

2.5%

100
Q
  1. What is the minimum gradient for a precision design gradient?
A

3.3%

101
Q
  1. What is RAIM?
A

Receive Autonomous Integrity monitoring: requires 5 satellites. Or 4 satellites and baro-aiding

102
Q
  1. What is baro-aiding and why is it important?
A

Baro-aiding uses Pressure altitude and QNH to determine accurate altitude information.

103
Q
  1. How many satellites are required for operation?
A

4 satellites are required for GPS signal

104
Q
  1. What is the most important factor in GPS?
A

Integrity of the incoming signal.

105
Q
  1. What must taxi fuel consist of? To cover what operations?
A

Start APU, Start engine fuel, taxi to runway

106
Q
  1. What must trip fuel consist of?
A

Take-off and climb to cruising altitude, trip to top of descend, descend and approach and landing.

107
Q
  1. What are the contingency fuel requirements?
A

5% contingency fuel of the total trip fuel.

108
Q
  1. Alternate fuel requirements?
A

Missed approach from DA/MDH complete missed approach point, the climb to cruise altitude, to descendent and approach to land at alternate.

109
Q
  1. What is the limiting factor in alternate fuel planning, when two destination alternates are required? Take the fuel requirement for the alternate that is the furthest away. i.e. the highest fuel figures.
A

If no destination alternate is required, how much additional alternate fuel is required? 15 minutes holding speed at 1500ft above the aerodrome elevation.

110
Q
  1. When can we use discretionary fuel?
A

Discretionary of PIC

111
Q
  1. What are the final reserve fuel requirements?
A

45 minutes for reciprocating engines and 30 minutes for turboprop aircraft holding speed at 1500ft.

112
Q
  1. Standard fuel procedure consists of?
A

Taxi, Trip, Contingency, Alternate, Additional, Discretionary and Final Reserve

113
Q
  1. Is final reserve fuel needed for isolated aerodrome fuel planning?
A

No, requirements are 2 hours’ additional fuel. Plus, the 15 min holding fuel

114
Q
  1. What are the two types of decision point fuel planning procedure, and what are their requirements?
A

First, one is flying to destination and Second is flying to the decision point first. Flying to decision point allows the contingency of 3% as to contingency of 5% of when flying direct to the destination.

115
Q
  1. How is the FAF denoted on Jepp?
A

Maltese cross

116
Q
  1. If there is no FAF, where is the FAF?
A

1000ft above airport elevation.

117
Q
  1. What is the relationship between Vmcg and V1?
A

Vmcg > V1

118
Q
  1. What is the relationship between Vmca and V2?
A

Vmca < V2

119
Q
  1. What happens if V1 is greater than Vmbe?
A

Reduce aircraft weight

120
Q
  1. How does weight affect V1?
A

Reduces the V1 speed. More weight carries more momentum.

121
Q
  1. What is the difference between dry and wet v1?
A

Dry v1 is a normal v1 and a wet v1 is reduced as the ASD reduces.

122
Q
  1. How does screen height change with a wet v1?
A

It may be reduced from 35ft to 15ft for a jet.

123
Q
  1. What is Vmbe?
A

Velocity maximum brake energy.

124
Q
  1. What is runway stopway?
A

A length of unprepared surface at the departure end of the runway that can support an aircraft in the event of a aircraft overrun

125
Q
  1. Define a clearway and its width?
A

Length of obstacle free area at the end of the runway in the direction of takeoff: min 75m either side of the runway

126
Q
  1. Can a clearway be used in TODA requirements?
A

Yes. Value of 50%

127
Q
  1. What is a screen height?
A

Relates to the minimum height achieved over the runway before the end of the clearway.

128
Q
  1. Why is screen height important?
A

Marks the end of the takeoff distance.

129
Q
  1. Who must have GPWS?
A

All aircraft above 5700kg

130
Q
  1. What is EGPWS?
A

Enhanced Ground proximity warning system

131
Q
  1. What are the inputs to GPWS?
A

Mode 1: Barometric altitude Mode 2: Radio Altimeter Mode 3: Flap position Mode 4: Gear Position Mode 5: ILS glideslope Mode 6: Approach minima Mode 7: Throttle position

132
Q
  1. What are the different modes of GPWS?
A

6 modes. Mode1: Rate of descent Mode 2: Terrain Closure Mode 3: Sink rate Mode 4: Gear and Flap Mode 5: ILS glide slope Mode 6: Approach Minima.

133
Q
  1. What is tire creep?
A

The rotation of tire in comparison to the wheel hub.

134
Q
  1. How is tire creep detected?
A

A mark on the tire and a mark on the wheel hub. These marks need to match up, if they do not tire creep is most likely.

135
Q
  1. What are chimed tires?
A

Tires that are used to disperse contamination away from engines.

136
Q
  1. What is the purpose of anti-skid system?
A

Determine which wheel is rotating and which is skidding. Then release the brake of which wheel is not turning, release that brake.

137
Q
  1. What are the oxygen requirements for crew?
A

10 minutes

138
Q
  1. What are the oxygen requirements for passengers?
A

Sufficient masks must be provided for at least 10% more passengers than there are seats in the passenger compartment. This excess requirement provides masks for small children who may not be assigned a seat and for anyone (such as Flight Attendants) who might not be in their assigned seat at the moment emergency oxygen is required.

139
Q
  1. What is Mach number?
A

The mach number is the speed of the aircraft expressed as ratio between the speed of the aircraft and the Local speed of sound.

140
Q
  1. What is LSS?
A

Local Speed of sound

141
Q
  1. How do we calculate LSS?
A

LSS=38.94 √(( “c + 273))

142
Q
  1. How does Temp affect LSS?
A

As temp decreases the local speed of sound decrease.

143
Q
  1. What happens to Mn in LRC as weight decreases?
A

It decreases

144
Q
  1. What happens to IAS when descending at constant TAS?
A

The IAS increases.

145
Q
  1. What happened to TAS if you climb at constant IAS?
A

TAS Increases

146
Q
  1. What will happen to Mn when you climb at constant IAS
A

MN increases

147
Q
  1. What happened to your IAS and TAS if you fly into warmer area?
A

IAS constant and TAS increase because of the decrease in air density.

148
Q
  1. What aircraft has a higher TAS/IAS when flying at different altitude and at the same Mn number and why?
A

Aircraft lower has a higher IAS/TAS.

149
Q
  1. What happened to Mn and IAS when climbing through an isothermal layer?
A

MN remains constant and IAS decreases.

150
Q
  1. What happens to IAS when descending through an isothermal layer?
A

IAS increases.

151
Q
  1. What happens to IAS an Mn when climbing through an inversion layer?
A

IAS decreases.

152
Q
  1. What are INS/IRS and what is the differences between the two?
A

Inertial Navigation System and Inertial reference system: these are self-contained navigational systems. Using a series of gyroscopes, accelerometers and FMS. IRS is a newer INS, IRS has greater integration to flight computer.

153
Q
  1. How does an IRS/INS work?
A

Using a series of accelerometers, gyroscopes and flight computers.

154
Q
  1. How does it find true N?
A

aligned by gyroscopes

155
Q
  1. How does it find magnetic N?
A

by applying a stored magnetic variation to true north.

156
Q
  1. What are the advantages of INS?
A

Internal system, very accurate and global system

157
Q
  1. What are the disadvantages of INS?
A

Bounded errors, unbounded errors, Inherit system errors

158
Q
  1. What are the system errors on gps?
A

Clock bias, Signal jamming, Instrument / receiver

159
Q
  1. Why is INS/IRS better the GPS?
A

No downgrading imposed and INS/IRS only true internal self-contained system

160
Q
  1. Which brakes are hottest during landing?
A

Downwind brakes

161
Q
  1. What part of the CARS does Airlink operate in?
A

91 141 67 121 141 111 121 61

162
Q
  1. What part of the law speaks to Flight operations, Aviation medical, carriage of more than 19 Pax, training and aviation security
A

91, 67, 121, 141, 111

163
Q
  1. What are the CATS?
A

Civil aviation technical standards – the CATS go into greater detail of the published CARS.

164
Q
  1. Standard weights for flight deck crew and cabin crew?
A

85 kg flight deck crew and cabin crew 75 kg

165
Q
  1. Standard ICAO weight for passengers?
A
166
Q
  1. Maximum flight duty period for 7, 30, 90 and 365 days?
A
167
Q
  1. Reference for FDP tables?
A
168
Q
  1. What is V4 speed?
A

All engine operating speed achieved at the end of the acceleration third segment.

169
Q
  1. What is the difference between maximum and derated takeoff, which uses more fuel?
A

Maximum takeoff – uses less fuel then a derated takeoff. A pro of derated takeoff may be less rare and tear on the engines.

170
Q
  1. What is a compressor stall?
A
171
Q
  1. What are the reasons for a compressor stall?
A
172
Q
  1. What is the recovery of a compressor stall?
A
173
Q
  1. What is the standard holding times, for holds below FL140 and above FL140?
A

Below: 1 min
Above: 1.5 min

174
Q
  1. What are the TMA speeds?
A

50nm – 250 kts
18nm – 210 kts for jet and 180 kts for prop.

Below FL100: 250 kts

175
Q
  1. Circling approach minima, for category B, C and D aircraft?
A
176
Q
  1. Primary use of spoilers?
A

Roll Augmentation also used to dump lift over the wing. Speed brake.

177
Q
  1. What is a possible danger between a high V1 and Vr split?
A

Hesitation of crew in case of an aborted takeoff. Could lead to runway overrun.

178
Q
  1. Maximum holding speeds?
A
179
Q
  1. What is the obstacle clearance height guaranteed in the hold below FL140 and above FL140?
A
180
Q
  1. What is hydroplaning?
A
181
Q
  1. What are the different types of hydroplaning?
A
182
Q
  1. How do you calculate the hydroplaning speed of an aircraft?
A
183
Q
  1. What part is personal licensing?
A
184
Q
  1. How many spare fuses must be carried onboard?
A

10% or 3 of the total number of fuses on board.

185
Q
  1. When must all aircraft be equipped with TCAS?
A

All aircraft with an operating mass of 5700 kg or more.

186
Q
  1. What is a catch point?
A
187
Q
  1. What is a rate of turn?
A

3 deg per second. 180 degree in one minute.

188
Q
  1. What is the formula to calculate a rate 1 turn?
A

Rate 1 turn = TAS/10 + 7

189
Q
  1. What is Vimd?
A

Velocity minimum drag speed – this speed correlates to the lowest point on the drag curve. Also knowing as best glide speed.

190
Q
  1. In case of static blockage in the climb, the airspeed indicator?
A

The ASI will under read.

191
Q
  1. Logging of flight time done both domestically and internationally?
A

7 days domestically and 14 days internationally

192
Q
  1. What is the formula for Mach Number?
A

Mn = TAS/LSS

193
Q
  1. On a dry runway, ASDA is increased by?
A

Upslope

194
Q
  1. What is washout?
A

It is the bending of the wing from root to tip. Causing the angle of incidence to remain constant.

195
Q
  1. What is chordline?
A

A line connecting the leading edge to the trailing edge of the aerofoil.

196
Q
  1. What is induced drag?
A

Drag caused by lift. Decreases at higher speeds.

197
Q
  1. What is profile drag?
A

Drag caused by the aircraft going through the air. Skin drag. These are the nuts and bolts for example. Profile drag increases with airspeed.

198
Q
  1. What is the purpose of vortex generators and wing fences?
A

Reenergize the boundary layer.

199
Q
  1. What are the effects of spanwise airflow?
A

Wingtip vortices

200
Q
  1. What is absolute ceiling?
A

The maximum height above sea level at which a particular airplane can maintain horizontal flight under standard air conditions

201
Q
  1. What is service ceiling?
A

The maximum height at which a particular type of aircraft can sustain a specific rate of climb.

202
Q
  1. What is the angle of incidence?
A

The angle between the chordline and the longitudinal axis.

AIRLINK (4 decks)

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