Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral > Airframe Oral > Flashcards

Airframe Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What is another name for GTA welding?

A

TIG welding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is used as the electrode in GTA welding?

A

Tungsten wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are three types of power that can be used for GTA welding?

A

DC- straight polarity, DC-reverse polarity and AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of power provides the greatest heat and deepest penetration in GTA welding?

A

DC-straight polarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of power is used for GTA welding aluminum and magnesium?

A

DC-reverse polarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are two advantages of laminated construction over riveted sheet metal?

A

light weight and rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are two popular types of core material used in laminated structures?

A

Foam and honeycomb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are two popular types of matrix material used in laminated structures?

A

Polyester and epoxy resins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two parts of polyester matrix material?

A

Resin and catalyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two parts of an epoxy matrix material?

A

Resin and hardener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are three materials that may be used to reinforce the matrix material for aircraft stttructures?

A

Fiberglass, Kevlar and graphite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is meant by a unidirectional fabric?

A

All major fibers run in same direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is meant by the ribbon direction of a honeycomb material?

A

Parallel to the length of the strips of material that makes up the core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What kind of repair can be made to a small damage of the core material and one face sheet of a piece of aluminum alloy honeycomb structure?

A

Potted compound repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you grind the point of a twist drill that is to be used for drilling transparent acrylic material?

A

Cutting edge dubbed off to a zero rake angle, and included angle of tip should be ground to 140 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a warp clock in a structural repair manual?

A

Alignment indicator to show orientation of the plies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are two types of repair to a damaged honeycomb core composite material?

A

Room temperature cure repair and hot bond repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is function of the elevators on an airplane?

A

Rotate airplane on lateral axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a stabilator?

A

Horizontal tail surface that acts as a horizontal stabilizer and an elevator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is meant by differential aileron travel

A

Aileron movement which the upward moving airleron deflects a greater distance than the one moving downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a Frise aileron?

A

Aileron with its hinge line set back from the leading edge so when its deflected upward, part of leading edge projects below the wing to produce parasite drag to overcome adverse yaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a ruddervator?

A

Moveable control surfaces on a V-tail aircraft controlled by the rudder pedals and the yoke acts as a elevator and rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function of airlerons on an airplane?

A

Ailerons rotate the airplane on longitudinal axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a mechanic gives a 100 hour inspection to an aircraft that proves to be unairworthy, what must the mechanic give the owner or operator of aircraft?

A

A signed and dated list of discrepancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where can you find the recommended statement to use for recording the approval or disapproval of an aircraft for return to service after a 100 hour inspection?

A

14 CFR 43.11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Under what conditions can an aircraft be operated with a 100 hour inspection overdue?

A

Aircraft can be operated for no more than 10 hours after a inspection is due for purpose of flying it to where inspection can be performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long can an aircraft be operated if a 100 hour inspection is overdue?

A

No more than 10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Under what condition can an aircraft that is due for an annual inspection be operated?

A

When a special flight permit is issued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What certification is required for a mechanic to be able to approve an aircraft for return to service after a 100 hour inspection

A

Airframe and Powerplant 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What determines whether or not an aircraft must be given a 100 hour inspection?

A

If it carrys people for hire and for flight instruction for hire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between an annual inspection and a 100 hour inspection?

A

Annual requires A&P and IA  / 100 hour can be done by A&P without an IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What certification is required for a mechanic to conduct an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service after the inspection?

A

A&P and IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a progressive inspection?

A

Inspection approved by FAA to be performed on a schedule that doesnt require the aircraft to be out of service for the time to peform the entire inspection at once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What certification is required for a mechanic to conduct a progressive inspection?

A

A&P and IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where can you find the requirements for inspecting the altimeter and static systems of aircraft operated under instrument flight rules?

A

43 Appendix E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where can you find the requirements for inspecting the ATC transponder that is installed in an aircraft?

A

43 Appendix F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What items must be inspected on a helicopter in accordance with instructions for Continued Airworthiness?

A

Drive shafts, Main rotor transmission gear box, main rotor and center section and auxiliary rotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where would an aviation mechanic find required special inspections?

A

Aircraft maintenance manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What absorbs the taxi shocks in an oleo shock strut?

A

compressed air or nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How much air or nitrogen should be put into an oleo shock strut?

A

Enough to extend piston to height specified in aircraft maintenance manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the purpose of using an exerciser jack when servicing a shock strut with fluid?

A

To work all the air out of the oil 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a squat switch and where is it located?

A

Prevents landing gear from retracting when weight is on it / Located on the torsion links.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What kind of device is normally used as a sensor to detect the condition of a retractable landing gear?

A

Precision microswitch 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the purpose of the centering cam in a nose wheel shock strut?

A

Forces nose wheel straight back with the strut before it is retracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What absorbs the initial landing impact in an oleo shock strut?

A

Transfer of oil through  a metered orifice

46
Q

Is a chevron seal a one way or two way seal?

A

one way

47
Q

To which side of a chevron seal should the pressure be applied?

A

Open side

48
Q

Is an O-ring seal a one way or a two-way seal?

A

Two way

49
Q

How can you be sure of getting an O-ring made of the correct material for a specific hydraulic component?

A

Correct part number and obtained from reputable source

50
Q

On which side of an O-ring should the backup ring be placed?

A

Away from source of pressure

51
Q

What should be done to sharp edges of threads and actuator pistons when installing O-rings

A

Covered with paper

52
Q

Where does the warm air come from that is used to heat the cabin of a large jet transport aircraft?

A

Engine compressor bleed air

53
Q

Where is the first place the hot compressor bleed air gives up some of its heat in an air-cycle cooling system?

A

Primary heat exchanger

54
Q

What is the function of the air-cycle machine in an air-cycle cooling system?

A

Turns hot air to cold air

55
Q

Why must air-cycle air conditioning systems incorporate a water seperator?

A

To trap moisture before air is released into the cabin

56
Q

How is the temperature of the air produced by an air-cycle cooling system controlled?

A

Temperature control valve

57
Q

What are the two main gases that make up our atmosphere?

A

Nitrogen and oxygen

58
Q

What is used to check an oxygen system for leaks?

A

Leak detector 

59
Q

Why must fittings in an oxygen system not be tightened to stop a leak when there is pressure on the system?

A

Will leak when pressure is reduced 

60
Q

What kind of gaseous oxygen must be used to service an aircraft oxygen system?

A

Aviators breathing oxygen

61
Q

What identification must be stamped on an oxygen bottle carried in an aircraft?

A

DOT 3AA or DOT 3HT, date of manufacture, date of hydrostatic tests

62
Q

To what pressure and how often should DOT 3AA oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically tested?

A

Tested to 5/3 of their working pressure every 3 years

63
Q

To what pressure and how often should DOT 3HT oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically tested and when should they be rretired from service?

A

Tested to 3083 psi every 3 years / Retired after 15 years or 4380 pressurizations whichever is first

64
Q

What kind of lubricant can be used for installing fittings in an oxygen system component?

A

Teflon tape or water based lubricant

65
Q

What is used to check for leaks after replacing a fitting in an oxygen system?

A

Leak detector

66
Q

What cleaning solution can be used to clean parts used in an oxygen system?

A

Anhydrous ethyl, alcohol, isoproppyl alcohol, or freon

67
Q

What may be used to dry components in an oxygen system after they have been cleaned?

A

Water-pumped dry nitrogen

68
Q

What may be used to purge the lines in an oxygen system after it has been opened for servicing?

A

Water-pumped dry nitrogen

69
Q

What must be done before any maintenance can be done on an oxygen system?

A

Oxygen turned off at the bottle 

70
Q

What mechanical means can be used to measure oil temperature?

A

Bourrdon tube

71
Q

How does a thermocouple measure temperature?

A

Voltage sent to a temperature indicator

72
Q

Why is the length of a thermocouple lead important?

A

Dependant on resistance of circuit / Designed for specific installation

73
Q

What type of electrical circuit is used to measure small changes of resistance in an electrical resistance temperature probe?

A

Wheatstone bridge circuit

74
Q

What kind of antenna is used for the ATC transponder?

A

UHF stub antenna

75
Q

What is preferred location for the ATC transponder antenna?

A

Center line of the belly away from any other antenna

76
Q

What are three basic types of antennas used in aviation?

A

Dipole, Marconi and Loop

77
Q

What type of antenna are most aircraft VHF communication antennas?

A

Marconi

78
Q

How do static wicks aid the aircraft communication radios?

A

Disipate the static built up on aircraft

79
Q

On what two frequencies does the emergency locator transmitter operate

A

121.5 and 243 megahertz

80
Q

Where is the ELT transmitter normally located on an aircraft?

A

In the tail or as far aft as possible

81
Q

How often should ELT batteries be replaced or recharged?

A

When in use for more than 1 cumulative hour / When battery expires / When 50% of  charge is used

82
Q

How can you know when an ELT battery must be replaced or recharged?

A

Date marked on outside of transmitter

83
Q

How often must ELTs be inspected for properr installation, battery corrosion, operation of the controls and sensor, and the presence of the radiated signal?

A

Every 12 calendar months 

84
Q

What causes an ELT to actuate?

A

Inertia switch 

85
Q

How is an ELT tested to determine that it is working?

A

Actuate the switch and listen on  121.5 or 243 megahertz / Make test during first 5 minutes of the hour / Do not allow more than 3 sweeps

86
Q

Why are fuel tanks divideddd into compartments or have baffles installed in them?

A

Keeps fuel from surging

87
Q

How is a fuel leak indicated on a reciprocating engine powered aircraft?

A

dye in the gasoline stains the area

88
Q

What is the function of the sump in a fuel tank?

A

Collects water and contaminants 

89
Q

What are the three different types of fuel tanks?

A

Built up tanks, Intergral and bladder

90
Q

What problem can occur in a bladder tank with a blocked vent?

A

Tank can collapse and block fuel outlet

91
Q

How do you prepare an aluminum fuel tank for welding?

A

Remove all fuel / Wash tank inside and out with hot water and detergent / Purged with steam for 30 minutes to remove residual fuel and vapors 

92
Q

After welding an aluminum fuel tank to what pressure should the tank be tested?

A

3.5 psi

93
Q

What color is grade 100LL fuel?

A

Blue

94
Q

How can you detect jet fuel in a sample taken from the tank sump drain?

A

Jet fuel is clear / Odor similar to kerosine

95
Q

What is used as the sensor in the fuel tank for an electronic type duel quantity indicating system?

A

Tubular capacitors

96
Q

What is the priciple upon which electronic type fuel quantity indicating system operates?

A

Capacitance changes as fuel level changes / Dielectric of fuel is twice as much as air

97
Q

What is used as a sensor in the fuel tank for older resistance type fuel quantity indicating systems?

A

Variable resistor with an arm moved by a float

98
Q

What is the purpose of a drip gauge in the fuel tank of a large aircraft?

A

Allows to check fuel level from bottom of the tank

99
Q

When must the fuel quantity indicating system indicate zero

A

During level flight when the fuel in tank is equal to unusable fuel

100
Q

What size generator must be used in an aircraft electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30 amps, and there is no way of monitoring the generator output?

A

37.5 amps

101
Q

What is meant by flashing the field of a generator?

A

Restoring residual magnetism to the frame of the generator

102
Q

What is meant by paralleling the generators in a multi-engine aircraft?

A

Adjusting voltage regulators so all generators share the load equally

103
Q

What are three types of voltage regulators used with aircraft generators?

A

Vibrator / Carbon-pile and solid state

104
Q

What is meant by a trip free circuit breaker?

A

A circuit breaker that cannot be closed while a fault exist

105
Q

What is meant by a slow blow fuse?

A

A fuse that will allow more current than its rating to flow for a short period of time, but will open the circuit if more than its rated current continues to flow

106
Q

What is the function of a fuse or circuit breaker in an aircraft electrical circuit?

A

Protects the wiring from excess current

107
Q

What are two principles upon which circuit breakers operate?

A

Magnetism and heat

108
Q

What circuit in an aircraft electrical system is not required to have a circuit protective device?

A

Main circuit for starter motors

109
Q

Is an automatic reset circuit breaker approved for aircraft electrical circuits?

A

No

110
Q

How does a vibrator type voltage regulator maintain constant voltage?

A

When voltage rises above desired value an electromagnetic relay opens and inserts a resistor in the generator field circuit decreasing the field current and lowering the generator output voltage.

111
Q

What two components are normally housed with a vibrator voltage regulator in a single unit generator control?

A

Current limiter and a reverse current cutout relay

112
Q

What are two ways rain can be kept from obstructing the pilots vision through the windshield of an airplane?

A

Bleed Air and Windshield wipers

Oral (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions