Aircraft Systems Flashcards
1
Q
The type of alternating current used by a typical large aircraft electrical system is
A
115 VAC 400Hz
2
Q
In the event of failure of the active sources of AC power generation in a large jet transport category aircraft, the component of the electrical system which supplies AC power is
A
The static inverter
*Static inverter converts DC to AC via a transformer
3
Q
Batteries are often connected in parallel in an aircraft electrical system to
A
Increase the total amp hour capacity
4
Q
The function of a transformer/rectifier unit (TRU) in an aircraft electrical system is
A
To convert AC to DC at a lower voltage
*Its TRU that AC/DC was a band and you don’t like their music so you need to LOWER their volume
5
Q
The type of rectifiers normally used in large aircraft AC generators to provide DC for field excitation of the main generator are
A
Full wave bridge rectifiers
*Converts AC to DC
6
Q
When a generator field breaker (generator field relay) trips, the associated generator
FIELD BREAKER
A
Excitation field is disconnected from the voltage regulator
7
Q
A constant speed drive on an AC generator in a large transport aircraft is required to maintain a constant generator RPM over a wide engine speed range. If the constant speed drive is disengaged during flight
A
The CSD may only be re-engaged on the ground
8
Q
An advantage of constant frequency alternators in an aircraft electrical system is
A
Load sharing
*Think of all being on the same frequency so you can share
*Constant frequency alternator produces electrical power at a consistent frequency regardless of speed of aircraft engine - normal output is usually from 115VAC to 400Hz
9
Q
In a shunt wound generator, as load increases, output voltage
A
Decreases
*Shunt generator = as load increases, output voltage decreases
*Series generator = as load increases, output voltage increases
(Series has an “i” in it and “i” is for increase
10
Q
The KVAR meter in an aircraft electrical system measures
A
Reactive mode
*KVAR = reactive power, reactance or current flow which acts opposite direction of the main current
Kw=real power
11
Q
Real load in a large aircraft AC electrical system is expressed as
A
KW
*KW=real load
KVAR=reactive power
KVA=KW+KVAR
KVA=kilowatt amps
KVA=the total power - the total work done by the generator in overcoming real resistance to perform work as well as reactance in the circuit
12
Q
Total load in a large aircraft AC electrical system is expressed as
A
kVA
13
Q
The circumstance which would prevent the connection of ground AC power to the electrical system of a large jet transport category aircraft is
A
A generator connected to its bus
14
Q
Of the following, the consideration which is not an advantage of a NICAD battery over a lead acid battery would be
A. Reduced corrosion hazard
B. Better discharge chatacteristics
C. Lighter weight
D. Lower purchase price
A
Lower purchase price
*Lead acid = old school, significant drop as they approach full discharge, give off O2+hydrogen gas mix
*NICAD batteries = lighter and tougher, don’t give off dangerous gas, faster recharge cycle, higher purchase cost, increased risk of thermal runaway
15
Q
Correct bonding of the fuselage components in a large jet transport category aircraft is necessary to
A
Ensure an even electrical potential throughout the fuselage
16
Q
A bus bar in the electrical system of a large jet transport category aircraft is
A
A main point receiving electric current from generator or battery
17
Q
In the event of a failure of the active sources of 115V AC power generation in a large jet transport category aircraft, the component of the electrical system which supplies DC power is
A
Battery
18
Q
Batteries may be connected in series in an aircraft electrical system to
A
Increase the total EMF
*EMF=electromagnetic force which is the potential energy a battery can provide per unit charge
*Connected in series=positive to negative, holding hands in a circle, increases total voltage at a constant current capacity (amps)
*Connected in parallel=positive to positive and negative to negative, increases total current capacity (amps) at constant voltage
19
Q
The function of a static inverter in an aircraft electrical system is
A
To convert DC to AC at a higher voltage
*Opposite of TRU
20
Q
The component of an electrical system in which diodes would be found is a
A
Rectifier
*Diodes are one way valves which control the flow of current
Used in converting AC-DC at a lower voltage
21
Q
When a generator breaker (generator control relay) trips, the associated generator
A
Is disconnected from it’s bus
22
Q
A constant speed drive on an AC generator in a large transport aircraft is required to maintain a constant generator RPKKM over a wide engine speed range. If the constant speed drive is overheating
A
The CSD temperature must be monitored and the drive disconnected if necessary
*Then it can only be reengaged on the ground
23
Q
In a series wound generator, as load increases, output voltage
A
Increases
*Series=load increases, voltage increases
Shunt=load increases, voltage decreases
24
Q
The KW meter in an aircraft electrical system measures
A
Real load
25
An advantage of a lead acid battery over a NICAD is
Reduced risk of thermal runaway
*Thermal runaway is when the battery heats up and sets on fire, NICAD is more likely to set itself on fire
(Think of modern prado setting itself on fire with DPF rather than old school lead ones being safe)
Lead acid is old school, puts out a gnarly gas of O2 and hydrogen, cheaper than NICAD
26
Generator output in a large AC electrical system is expressed as
KVA
*KVA=total power
KVA=KW+KVAR
27
An APU generator will not connect to the electrical system during
Overvolt, undervolt, overspeed and underspeed
28
Correct bonding of the fuselage components in a large jet transport category aircraft is necessary to
Ensure an even electrical potential throughout the fuselage
29
A bus bar in the electrical system of a large jet transport category aircraft is
A main point receiving electric current from generator or battery
30
Batteries in a large aircraft are usually connected in parallel to
Increase the amps at constant voltage
*Series=increase voltage at constant amps
(Think of watching movie series, increase voltage as movies go on)
Parallel=increase amps at constant voltage
(Parallel has letters ‘l” which look like an “I” and letters ‘a’ for ‘amps’
31
A generator breaker in the electrical system of a large transport category aircraft will trip when
The generator develops a fault
32
A trip free circuit breaker is one which
Will trip if an overload exists even if the reset button is held in
33
In an electrical system, diodes would be found in
A transformer rectifier unit (TRU)
*diodes are one way valves which are found in a rectifier
34
An advantage of AC over DC power for electrical systems in large jet transport category aircraft is
Weight and space savings
35
Hydraulic pumps in large aircraft hydraulic systems may be powered by
Engine, electrical system, bleed air or ram air turbine
36
The term ‘hydraulic jack stalling’ means
Air pressure is preventing full extension of a particular jack
37
Compared to hydraulic actuating systems, pneumatic systems of the same operating pressure
Exert less force
*Hydraulic exert more force than pneumatic
*Think of king air hydraulic wheels needing more force to come down than pneumatic blowing up ice boots
38
In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3000psi, an actuator measuring 10 inches by 10 inches would exert a force of
300,000 lbs
*10x10x3000
39
A restrictor valve fitted to the landing gear hydraulic system of large jet aircraft is to
Prevent hydraulic cavitation during gear extension
*Hydraulic cavitation is bubbles in the hydraulic fluid
*Restrictor valve creates smaller flow area so prevents pressure dropping low enough to form vapour bubbles
40
The purpose of the shuttle valve in the hydraulic system of a large jet transport category aircraft is
To allow hydraulic pressure form the alternate system to pressurise the lines in event of a failure of the normal system
41
With a constant velocity type hydraulic pump, the system component which controls fluid flow to the using units is
The pressure regulator
42
The component which is not common to both hydraulic and pneumatic systems is
A. Filter
B. Accumulator
C. Pressure regulator
D. Restrictor valve
E. Shuttle valve
Accumulator
*Accumulator is only in hydraulic system
43
The component in the hydraulic system of a large jet transport aircraft which prevents fluid flow in the reverse direction to normal is
The check valve
44
The component of a hydraulic system in a large jet transport category aircraft which acts as a surge suppressor is
Accumulator
45
Bleed air from the engine compressors of a large jet transport category aircraft may be used for
Engine start, wing anti ice, engine anti ice, pressurisation, reverse thrust actuation
46
In cruise at high thrust settings, bleed air for engine anti ice is normally supplied from
The LP bleed
47
Anti ice systems on the wings of large jet transport category aircraft are usually
Pneumatic
*On the wings - think of the king air, they blow up with air
48
If a bleed duct leak is detected in the bleed air system
The leak should be isolated and the source shut off to prevent structural damage
49
The statement which is not an advantage of a variable incidence tail plane with an elevator, compared to a conventional fixed tailplane with an elevator is
A. It allows the aircraft to be trimmed at any speed with full elevator travel available
B. It’s use reduces trim drag over a range of speeds and CG position
C. It allows a smaller and lighter elector than the conventional tailplane
D. It reduces control forces and is easier to overpower if out of trim
It reduces control forces and is easier to overpower if out of trim
50
In an aircraft with a flying tail, as the pilot moves the control column
The tailplane moves and the elevator moves in the same direction
51
In an aircraft with a hydraulically actuated system incorporating a hydraulic flap circuit or blow back valve (as an alternative to airspeed sensing) for overspeed protection, the mechanism which prevents the pilot from overspending the flaps when the aircraft is flying well in excess of the flap limit speed is:
The flaps can be selected but if an overspeed exists, the excessive air loads will cause hydralic pressure in the flap circuit to rise and be relived through the blow back valve, allowing the air loads to drive the flaps to a retracted position
52
The aileron lockout system on the flight controls of a large jet transport aircraft operates
At high speeds to lock out the outboard ailerons
*Prevents over controlling at high speeds because the inboard ailerons are enough
53
Spoilers operate to assist roll control
Over all normal operating speeds except maximum cruise speed
54
Safety switches in a jet transport undercarriage system are located
On the under carriage oleo strut
*They’d be no good on the handle because the wheels need to know where they actually are
55
The condition when the use of differential braking (independent main wheel brake application) is permitted on a large transport aircraft to assist nose wheel steering and tighten the radius of a turn is
Only when the nose wheel becomes castoring past its normal angular travel
56
The operation of the main landing gear doors on a large jet during landing gear retraction is controlled by
Sequencing valves
57
Cam centering of the nose wheel steering system operates to straighten the nose wheel
Before landing gear retraction
58
In an aircraft with multiple hydraulic systems, in the event of a hydraulic system pressure failure, alternate nose heel steering and anti skid brake protection is available for
All ground operations including landing and takeoff
59
Thermal fuse plugs are found in some large aircraft
Wheels
60
Antiskid braking system does not provide protection during
Lift off
*Provides protection during touchdown, hydroplaning, locked wheel and fail safe
61
Prior to landing a large jet transport category aircraft, the auto brakes selector is set to level 3. Concerning pilot operation of the toe brakes during auto brakes operation in the landing roll
The auto brakes will disarm
62
An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement is essential after
Thermal fuse plug melt
63
The minimum speed for hydroplaning risk can be determined by
9x the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI for a rotating wheel and 7x the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI for a non-rotating wheel
64
The purpose of chines on an aircraft tyre is to
Deflect water and slush
65
The purpose of a marstrand aircraft tyre is to
Reduce the nose wheel shimmy
66
The inputs required to enable operation of a typical jet transport category aircraft pressurisation system in automatic mode would be
Landing airfield elevation and cruise altitude
67
The function of positive pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to
Limit the maximum positive pressure differential
68
The function of negative pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to
Limit the cabin altitude to a value below or equal to the aircraft altitude
69
The purpose of ram air doors (cooling doors) in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to
Regulate the volume of air passing through the heat exchangers
70
The function of the mixing valves in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft is to
Regulate the mixing of cold and hot air for distribution into the passenger and crew cabins
71
The air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft has a water separator designed to
Remove water which condensed in the system during the cooling process
72
2 main types of cooling systems used in the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft
Air cycle and vapour cycle
73
The purpose of the cabin compressor in a light pressurised twin engined aircraft is to
Pressurise the cabin air
74
Humidifiers are fitted to some aircraft air conditioning and pressurisation systems to
Increase the humidity of the air flowing to the passenger cabin by replacing the water removed during the cooling process
75
If fitted to the air conditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft, humidifiers are used
Always at high altitude
76
The valve in the air conditioning and pressurisation system in a large jet transport category aircraft which controls the cabin pressure is
The outflow valve
77
Cabin pressure differential is the difference between
Cabin pressure and ambient pressure
78
The component which controls the operation of the outflow valve in the normal mode of operation in the air conditioning and pressurisation system of a jet transport category aircraft is
The pressure controller
79
The most important parameter to monitor in the pressurisation system of a large jet transport category aircraft is
Cabin altitude
80
The cabin altitude warning siren will be activated when the cabin altitude exceeds
10,000ft
81
The component in the airconditioning and pressurisation system of a large jet transport aircraft which prevents the maximum cabin pressure differential from being exceeded is
The positive pressure relief valve
82
The component of the air cycle machine in the airconditioning system of a large jet transport category aircraft, in which the coldest air is found is
The expansion turbine
83
A pressurised aircraft is in cruise at FL330 with the cabin altitude at 8000ft. A climb is then made to FL350. regarding the operation of the pressurisation system in an isobaric mode
The differential pressure will increase to maintain a constant cabin altitude
*Isobaric mode is when the cabin altitude remains fixed
84
The ram valve in a pressurisation system is used to
Provide cooling and ventilation by ram supply into the cabin in unpressurised flight
85
The amount of fresh air an aircraft air conditioning system should supply to each passenger for comfort is
One lb/min
86
On an EICAS display with multiple pages of messages, pushing the cancel switch will
Cancel all cautions and advisories from the current page and display the next page with the warnings carried over from the previous page
87
The function of the Recall switch in the EICAS is to
Recall caution and advisory messages that had been cancelled if the associated fault still exists
88
With reference to the cancellation of GPWS warnings and alerts when in the excessive terrain closure rate mode and not in the landing configuration
The warning is silenced when the closure rate envelope penetration no longer exists but the alert requires a barometric altitude gain to be silenced
89
The warning systems on the flight deck of a modern transport category aircraft generate a variety of sounds to alert the crew to specific problems The sound which indicates an engine fire warning is
Bell
*Think of the fire bell in school
90
The GPWS will provide no indication for
Early touchdown in the landing configuration
91
A GPWS has different modes of operation to protect an aircraft from premature or unintentional ground contact. The aural messages provided under various circumstances can often be a soft warning or hard warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation and the speed of the response required for corrective action. An example of a soft warning (caution or alert) and a hard warning, respectively are:
‘Terrain’ and ‘whoop whoop, pull up’
*Terrain is soft
Whoop whoop is hard like action do it now
92
A fly by wire system of control as used on the latest generation of jet aircraft uses
Electrical signals and wires in place of linkages and cables to connect the control surface actuating rams to the flight deck controls
93
The unsafe takeoff contiguration warning system on a large jet transport will activate when the thrust levers are advance for takeoff and an incorrect deflection is made on the
Flaps and spoilers, stabiliser trim and brakes
94
TCAS II RA’s appear on the EHSI as
Red filled squares
*TA’s are amber circle with ‘traffic traffic’ - 40 secs away
RA’s are 25 secs away- red square ‘climb climb’
95
TCAS RA’s are inhibited during operations with one engine inoperative because
The aircraft may not have the climb performance to satisfy the the RA commands
96
The GPWS modes where both hard and soft warnings can be generated is
‘Excessive descent rate’ and ‘excessive terrain closure rate’
97
The TCAS system fitted to the modern jet transport category of aircraft is able to provide 2 main types of messages to alert crew to the presence of traffic in the area. These messages areTA’s and RA’s; the difference between TA’s and RA’s are:
TA’s are 40 secs notice to crew about traffic which will pass close but not close enough to warrant flight path action alteration. RA’s are25secs motive which will not have adequate separation and a command to climb and decent at a minimum rate will be announced
98
TCAS symbols on an EHSI display may appear as filled or outlined shapes of various colours. A TA will be:
Amber filled circle
99
TCAS symbols on an EHSI display may appear as filled or outlined shapes of various colours. Other traffic will be displayed as:
White outlined diamond
100
TCAS II proximate traffic appears on the EHSI as
White filled diamonds
101
The warnings which have priority over TCAS RA’s are:
Stall, wind shear and GPWS
*RA’s are red square and require action
102
On aircraft equipped with automatic GPWS voice call-outs of radio altitude and minimums, the ‘minimums, minimums’ voice alert occurs when the aircraft arrives at the DH set on
Either captains or FO’s radio altimeter, whichever is higher
103
The landing configuration warning system of a typical jet transport category aircraft is activated when the landing gear is not down and locked and
Landing flaps are selected or either thrust levers is retarded to idle below 800ft radio altitude
104
Regarding the colours used on the EICAS display to indicate relative urgency of crew alerts
Warnings are red, cautions and advisories are amber
*Different to the king air so don’t get confused
Advisories are amber but indented a space so you can differentiate from a caution
105
The part of the take off which the Master Caution Lights of a typical jet transport category aircraft are inhibited for all cautions is:
80kts to nose gear lift off plus 20secs or 400ft radio altitude whichever occurs first
106
The GPWS will provide no indication for:
A. Excessive sink rate near the ground
B. Flight toward vertically shear terrain
C. Going below the glide path
D. Sink rate after takeoff
Flight towards vertically shear terrain
*GPWS can’t do surprises it can’t see below it
107
With regard to the relative priority of GPWS and TCAS warning:
TCAS advisories have lower priority than GPWS or windshear warnings
108
A takeoff warning system on a large transport aircraft will operate above a thrust levers setting of
As the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff, the exact thrust setting will vary
109
With regards to operations of the TCAS, an intruder with mode A transponder will be:
Displayed as other traffic or proximate traffic or as a TA
110
With regard to the unsafe takeoff configuration warning system on modern jet transport category aircraft, when the aircraft is on the ground:
The system is armed when either engine accelerates towards takeoff thrust
111
It’s possible but least advisable to fly:
With FD off and AP off
112
You are descending at 3000ft/min in VS mode to the MCP selected altitude of 9000ft with AP engaged. As you approach this altitude:
The VS annunciation will be replaced by ALT CAP then ALT HOLD
113
FD/AP modes are not able to be selected together in
A. HDG HOLD and VS
B. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD
C. HDG HOLD and LOC
D. VS and VNAV PATH
VS and VNAV PATH
114
FD/AP modes which are pitch modes are
VS and VNAV PATH
115
The FO is flying a multiple AP equipped aircraft. The autopilots which should be engaged are:
R only or C unless performing an autoland
116
The autothrottle is on and the AP is off with the FD on and ALT HOLD and SPD and HDG SEL engaged. The correct statement is:
A. This situation is not possible
B. The FD will indicate pitch to hold altitude by way of pitch bar commands
C. The FD will not engage in this situtation
D. The FD command bars will be hidden in this situation
The FD will indicate pitch to hold altitude by way of pitch bar commands
117
Assume AP C in a 767 in cruise and the C AP fails. You would know because:
The C AP engage switch annunciation will extinguish and an audio alarm will sound
118
The operation of a parallel connected AP system causes:
The flight controls in the cockpit move when the AP is engaged
119
The bank angle limit select knob on the AP/FDS control panel has an ‘AUTO’ selection. When set to AUTO, the AP will:
Limit the bank angle in HDG SEL mode to 15degrees at high TAS increasingly progressing to 25degrees as TAS decreases
120
Flight modes which are not able to be engaged simultaneously on a typical auto flight system are:
A, THR HOLD, N1, VS and FD
B. SPD, VNAV PATH, LNAV and CMD
C. SPD, VS, HDG SEL and CMD
D. SPD, GS, LOC and FD
THR HOLD, N1, VS and FD
121
The auto land status annunciation (ASA) monitors:
AP system status
122
With regard to monitoring of AP systems via the ASA (autoland status annunciation)
Land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive)
123
When conducting CAT II or CAT III autoland approaches, the ASA monitors
AP systems only
124
With a fully coupled ILS autoland, the FMC will command a capture of the LOC and GS if the APRCH mode is armed. In this case:
ALT HOLD will be automatically replaced with GS at GS capture
125
To make a missed approach from a coupled autoland approach once the LOC and GS have been captured with RA below 1500ft the correct procedure is to:
Select GA
126
When an aircraft is changed using the FLC function of the auto flight system, the thrust settings used by the autothrottle system are:
On climb thrust is automatically set to a maximum climb thrust, on descent the throttles are automatically retarded to minimum idle thrust
127
In level flight the AP/FDS MCP shows a selected IAS of 280kts in altitude hold mode. The FD, AP and Autothrottle are all then turned off. In this case, the 280kt indication will:
Remain displayed in the window and as the commend airspeed bug on the speed tape
128
With reference to a typical AP/FDS MCP
VS mode may be deselected by selecting ALT HOLD
129
An aircraft is on descent showing SPD, VNAV PATH, LNAV, CMD. If the SPD annunciation goes blank, the probable cause is:
The autothrottle has lost speed data
130
During a multi autopilot category III autoland, an approach submode of ROLLOUT is annunciated on the flight mode annunciator roll mode to replace LOC at approximately 5ft RA. Concerning autothrottle operation when ROLLOUT is engaged:
The autothrottle remains in idle mode until autothrottle disengagement
131
an aircraft equipped with an autoland system is on approach with LAND2 annunciation. One autopilot then fails. In this situtation:
The aircraft will continue to track the LOC and GS on the remaining AP and not allow a significant deviation from the flight path
132
The inputs considered to be ‘outer loop’ in an AP system are
Altitude and heading
*Outer loop are larger parameters dictating the overall flight path
*Inner loop are pitch and roll angle
133
When an AP system mimics the control wheel inputs by moving the control wheel when engaged, it is described as being
Parallel
134
When an AP system ‘hardover’ occurs:
The control surface servomotors go to full deflection
*Means complete failure of the AP system where the aircraft control surfaces are moved quickly and forcefully to their max physical limit
135
With regard to colour coding of elements of a typical EHSI display, the combination which is not correct:
A. Warnings are red
B. Cautions are amber
C. White indicates command information
D. Green indicates dynamic information or engaged modes
E. Cyan indicates background information
White indicates command information
136
Regarding the EHSI, the difference between the display in Plan and MAp mode is
Plan shows a static map background with the FMC flight plan displayed with the current track and heading information at the top of the screen
137
Weather radar returns may be displayed on the EHSI when
In MAP, expanded VOR or ILS modes
138
The vertical deviation scale on an EHSI Map display shoes the pointer at the low end of the display. This indicates that:
The aircraft is above the descent profile by at least 400ft
*Think of when you miss the ILS and the diamond moves to the bottom of the display and you have to descend faster to catch it
139
On EADI flight mode annunciators, in level flight in ALT HOLD, if the SPD annunciator on the EADI changes to a blank display accompanied by an aural warning, the likely cause is:
Autothrottle disengagement
140
When configured for takeoff, the command airspeed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape of the EADI is referenced to:
V2
141
With reference to a typical EHSI display in Map Mode, the altitude range (Aquisition) arc shows:
The computed top of climb position based on current wind and rate of climb
142
TCAS II RA’s appear on the EHSI as
Red filled squares
143
A symbol generator (SG) failure in an EFIS with multiple SG’s will result in
A blank screenn with alternate switching required to restore the display
144
Selecting a negative DH on the EADI will cause
The DH to go blank and the RA readout to remain unaffected
145
A SG failure in the EFIS will result in:
A blank screen on those screens supplied by that particular SG with alternate switching required to restore the display
146
The mode in which TCAS displays are not available on the EHSI is
Plan
147
The mdoe which is Track Up on the EHSI is
MAP
148
On a typical EHSI MAP display, the vertical deviation indicator shows variation from the profile during descent. When the cursor reaches the extreme bottom end of the scale, the aircraft is:
400ft above profile
149
The loss of numeric data which is replaced by dashes on the EHSI display is caused by
Unreliable data
150
With a typical EHSI selected to MAP mode
The display is track up in degrees magnetic
151
With a typical EHSI selected to plan mode
The plan section of the display is oriented to true North with current track at the top
152
When flying within Australia and the flight instrument heading reference switch is switched to Normal, the indications of heading on the flight instrument displays are:
Magnetic heading is displayed on all primary heading reference instruments
153
Concerning the colours of the DH readout and the RA readout on the EADI as the selected DH is passed on descent
DH changes from magenta to amber
RA changes from white to amber
154
When the LOC and GS have been capture and are the engaged modes in pitch and roll, the indications which will be observed on the EFIS are
ILS will be displayed on the EHSI if selected to the ILS mode
155
With the EHSI display selected to ILS and an ILS frequency tuned, the TO/FROM indicator will be:
Removed from the display
156
If the EFIS screen display suddenly goes blank, the most likely cause is
CRT over temp or power failure
157
Partial loss of EFIS presentation with a wire frame outline and loss of raster scanning can be caused by
Overheating
158
During flight planning the crew of transport category aircraft program the FMC with the proposed route but forget to load a descent point and final segment. With LNAV engaged, when the aircraft passes its last programmed waypoint, the auto flight system will
Maintain present heading
159
To provide LNAV guidance the FMC needs as a minimum input from initialisation, navigation data from:
1 IRS
160
The validity dates of nav data contained in the FMC may be confirmed by reference to the:
Ident page of the CDU
161
When an aircraft equipped with a FMS providing vertical navigation capability begins a descent, a vertical deviation indicator shows deviation from the FMC computed profile. During a VNAV PAATH descent with no speed restrictions, if unexpected tailwinds are encountered:
A ‘drag required’ message is displayed on the CDU, prompting the crew to extend the speed brakes
*Think of ‘decelerate’ you get when heading into an approach - the plane does nothing but it tells you what to do
162
A function of the line select key on the CDU of the FMC is to
Select the page identified on the adjacent line, selector the procedure identified on the adjacent line, select the data identified on the adjacent line, select the function identified on the adjacent line
*short answer - select page, procedure, data and function on adjacent line
163
A function of the line select key on the CDU of an FMC is:
Move data from the scratchpad to a line or from a line to the scratch pad
*And select page, procedure, data or function on adjacent line
164
The items which cannot be accepted as a waypoint by the FMC is
Waypoints containing more than 5 characters
165
In an aircraft FMS with 2 FMC’s and 2 CDUs, the minimum equipment required for optimum RNAV operation of the system within radio aid coverage is
1 FMC and 1 CDU with radio updating
166
Regarding the validity periods of FMC data based
The nav database has a 28 day validity and performance database is updated as required
167
If a reduced thrust takeoff is programmed into a FMC using the assumed temperature method, the correct statement regarding thrust output in the event of an engine failure after V1 is:
The reduced thrust output of the remaining engine/s will be sufficient to provide the required climb gradients for obstacle clearance without needing to increase thrust
168
When an aircraft equipped with a FMS is operated on a flight outside the area contained in the FMC nav database, the incorrect statement is:
A. All waypoints must be entered as lat long
B. The FMC will not use radio signals to update its calculated position and will not tune VORs and DMEs
C. The HSI map cannot display airports, nav aids or waypoints that are not in the route
D. Origins cannot be entered into the route
Origins cannot be entered into the route
169
The standby navigation system is made up of
An IRS and CDU on each side of the aircraft
170
The standby nav system is not capable of providing
LNAV and VNAV guidance
171
The function available when using the standby nav system is
APFDS heading select mode
172
During standby nav system operation, memory and computing capability are contained within the
CDU - control display unit
173
The standby nav system has its own permanent
Computing capability
174
With the airspeed window on the AFDS panel blanked, the command airspeed bug is being controlled by
The FMC
175
If the Captains side FMC fails, the opposite side FMC may be selected to provide a map display for the captains EHSI. Concerning EHSI range selection on the captains side
The FO’s EHSI range selector controls EHSI map range for both pilots, but the captains controller must agree with the settings on the FO’s controller or else a MAP RANGE DISAGREE message will be displayed on the EHSI
