Airbus General Flashcards
What are the time limitations on use of TOGA power?
5 mins, or 10 minutes in case of engine failure.
What’s the maximum operating altitude (Jetblue restriction)?
39,100 ft
What’s the lowest altitude to engage the autopilot after takeoff with SRS mode?
100 AGL. (Internal logic also limits for 5 secs after liftoff.)
What’s the maximum altitude with flaps or slats extended?
20,000 ft
What’s the maximum altitude for the APU to power electric and bleed air (one pack)?
22,500 ft.
During landing, what triggers full ground spoiler extensions?
Both main gear compressed, ground spoilers armed, both throttles at idle. Or, both main gear compressed, ground spoilers not armed, one throttle at idle and at least one throttle in reverse.
What’s the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?
65 kts
What’s the lowest altitude for autopilot use on an ILS approach with CAT 1 on FMA?
160 ft AGL.
What’s the minimum engine oil quantity before flight?
11 quarts plus add estimated consumption of 0.3/hr.
What does REV GREEN mean?
The translating sleeves are fully deployed. Greater than idle reverse is available.
What’s the minimum runway width?
98 ft (30 m)
In ABNORMAL ATTITUDE law, what are the pitch and lateral control algorithms?
Pitch is Alternate Law with load factor protection (but without autotrim). Lateral is Direct Law with yaw alternate.
What’s the maximum crosswind on runways less than 130 ft (40 m)?
25 kts (captain only)
What are the maximum wind conditions for CAT II / CAT III automatic approach, landing and roll out?
Headwind: 30 kts. Crosswind: 15 kts. Tailwind: 10 kts.
What does Speed Reference System command after takeoff?
Both engines: FD guidance of V2 + 10 knots
OEI: FD guidance of V2, or current speed, limited to V2+15
Limited by a max pitch of 18 degrees, and a minimum of 120 feet per minute climb.
In normal law, with the autothrust OFF, what occurs as the aircraft slows to below VLS to Alpha Prot?
AOA Protection becomes active, and: A - Autopilot disconnects. S - Speed brakes retract. A - Sidestick changes from load-factor demand to AOA. P - Pitch trim (nose up) inhibited.
What’s the maximum speed with landing gear extended, Vle?
280 kts / M 0.67.
What are the three methods available to disconnect the autothrust?
1: Press either autothrust instinctive disconnect pushbutton on throttles.
2: Move both Thrust Levers to idle.
3: Push A/THR pb on FCU. (This will generate Thrust Lock.)
What’s the minimum oil temp for takeoff?
50 C.
On takeoff, what triggers ground spoiler extension?
If speed brake handle armed: wheel speed > 72kts, both thrust levers at or near Idle If speed brake handle not armed: speed > 72 knots, with at least one thrust lever in reverse and other thrust lever at or near idle.
When do flaps go to 1 or 1+F?
What’s the limitation on opening the ram air inlet?
Only open if differential pressure less than 1 psi.
When is the LOW ENERGY warning active?
Below 2000 ft R/A in CONF ≥ 2
What’s the maximum speed with a cockpit window open?
200 kts.
IAE V2526-A5 oil system capacity, and when does ENG ECAM oil quantity pulse?
29 US quarts capacity, with 25 US quarts usable. Oil quantity ENG ECAM pulses when below 5 quarts.
What’s the limitation on using air conditioning with LP ground unit?
“Do not use conditioned air simultaneously from packs and LP ground unit (to avoid chattering of the non-return valves).”
When will the flaps retract automatically?
When 1 + F is selected, if the pilot does not select config 0 after takeoff, the flaps retract automatically at 210 knots.
What conditions will cause the EEC to abort a start on the ground?
1 - Hung start. 2 - Hot start. 3 - No N1 rotation. 4 - Starter valve failure. 5 - Ignition failure. 6 - Stall. 7 - No light off. 8 - Pressure Raising Shutoff Valve failure. 9 - EGT >250°C when restart.
What’s the maximum crosswind for engine start?
35 kts.
What’s the maximum EPR with parking brakes set?
1.18 on both
What’s the emergency equipment in the cockpit?
M - Manuals O - Oxygen Masks R - Ropes E - Extinguisher F - Flashlight L - Life Vests A - Axe P - PBE
What’s the maximum wind for cargo door opening?
40 kts.
What’s the maximum speed to extend landing gear, Vlo extend?
250 kts.
In NORMAL law, what does pulling/pushing the stick command?
Command is constant G load maneuver. Aircraft response is G Load / Pitch rate. It’s pitch rate at low speed / flight path rate or G at high speed.
What’s the maximum altitude for an APU battery start?
FL 250.
What’s the normal HYD operating pressure?
3,000 +/- 200 PSI.
Whats the maximum operating speed? Vmo and Mmo
Vmo: 350 kts. Mmo: 0.82 M. (Changeover std atmosphere 24,600 ft)
What cockpit lighting is available on battery power?
Captains instrument panel. Standby compass. FO dome light, if DOME switch is in DIM or BRT.
What’s the FLARE mode pitch down?
At 50 ft the attitude is memorized. As the aircraft descends through 30 ft, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude (2° down in 8 sec).
What’s the lowest altitude for autopilot use on a circling approach!
Applicable MDA - 100 ft. (or MDH - 100 ft.)
What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing?
38 kts (gust included).
What decelerations are commanded by the auto brakes?
LO - 0.15 g or 3 kts/sec. MED - 0.3 g or 6 kts/sec. Full manual braking with anti-skid is about 0.5g or 10 kts/sec.
What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?
25,000 ft.
What’s the limitation on using air conditioning with HP ground unit?
“Do not use HP ground unit when APU supplies bleed air to avoid bleed system damage.”
Whats the maximum tailwind for landing?
10 kts
What causes the speed brakes to automatically retract?
1: In flight, Flaps FULL for A320 (Flaps 3 and FULL for A321). 2: Alpha Prot. 3: TOGA Thrust selected.
What’s the maximum tire speed
195 kts ground speed
What is the maximum continuous load per generator?
100% (90kVa)
What’s the minimum oil temp prior to exceeding idle?
-10 C.
When is engine ignition automatically on?
1 - Engine anti-ice is on.
2 - EIU failure is detected.
3 - TOGA or FLEX takeoff thrust is selected.
4 - Flap lever is not at 0. 5 - An engine flameout or stall is detected.
6 - The engine MASTER control switch is moved from ON to OFF, and then back to ON.
Can approach and landing be accomplished with one wing full of fuel and the other wing empty?
Yes.
What are the flight maneuvering load acceleration limits?
Clean: -1 g to +2.5 g. Any slats/flaps: 0 g to +2 g.
What is the maximum continuous load per transformer rectifier (TR)?
200 amps
What’s the maximum brake temp for takeoff (fans off)?
300°C
When does the amber ENG FAULT light illuminate?
- An automatic start abort. 2. A start valve fault. 3. A disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded position.
When does the “SPEED BRK” memo display?
In Flight Phases 2, 3 , 4 and 5, the SPEED BRK flashes in amber with speedbrakes are extended.
In Flight Phases 6 and 7, the SPEED BRK memo is displayed in green when the speedbrakes are extended. It flashes in amber after 50 seconds, if at least one engine is above idle.
When is ABNORMAL ATTITUDE law triggered?
Pitch: 50° up, 30° down. Bank: 125° AOA: 30°, -10°. Speed: 440 KIAS, 60 KIAS. Mach: 0.96, 0.1.
What is a good check of the alternate brake pressure?
“Spongy brakes” 2538 +/- 145 psi.
What’s the minimum engine oil pressure?
60 psi.
How can you disable autothrust for the remainder of the flight?
Press the autothrust pushbutton on the FCU for more than 3 seconds. Or, press the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons for more than 15 seconds.
What’s the optimum engine relight speed during ENG DUAL FAILURE
280 kts
What’s the smallest maximum fuel imbalance allowed for takeoff?
882 lbs (A321 with near full tanks)
How long can you run the APU with ECAM “LOW OIL LEVEL” displayed?
10 hours.
What speed does SRS command during TO?
The minimum of: - AEO, V2 + 10 AEO; or if OEI the speed at the time of failure limited to V2. - maximum pitch: 17.5°. - pitch required to climb with a minimum climb gradient of .5°, limited to 22.5°.
What does an emergency call made from the cabin to the flight deck do?
The lights on the EMER call switch flash, and you hear 3 long buzzer sounds.
What’s the minimum battery voltage during cockpit acceptance check?
Greater than 25 V (actually 25.5).
What’s the minimum oil temp prior to engine start?
-40 C
What are the maximum & minimum cabin pressure differential limits, and the safety relief setting?
+9.0 psi to -1 psi. Safety relief setting is 8.6 psi.
Lowest altitude for autopilot all other phases, A320
500 ft AGL.
What’s the maximum speed to retract the landing gear, Vlo retract?
220 kts.
What’s the maximum taxi speed when weighing over 167,500 lbs?
20 kts
Lowest altitude for autopilot on straight-in precision-like approach
Applicable MDA (MDH)
IAE V2526-A5 engine, what’s the ‘keep out’ zone to prevent engine flutter?
60% - 74% N1
What’s the maximum tailwind for takeoff?
15 kts
When does the jet say RETARD?
The RETARD call out is a reminder to do so; it comes in the flare at 20 ft, except if autoland where it comes at 10 ft.
What’s the limitation on use of electrical outlets during takeoff and landing?
Prohibited.
What’s the maximum continuous engine oil temp?
155 C. With 165 C transient allowed for 15 minutes.
On takeoff, what triggers autobrakes to engage?
If speed brake handle armed: Wheel speed > 72kts, and both thrust levers at or near idle. If speed brake handle not armed: Wheel speed > 72 knots, with at least one thrust lever in reverse and other thrust lever at or near idle.
What’s the minimum APU oil quantity, before APU start?
LOW OIL LEVEL not displayed.
What’s the maximum speed to use windshield wipers?
230 kts.
What are the 6 ‘critical items’ that require direct confirmation of both pilots?
Retarding thrust lever. (Physically guard.) Turning off engine master switch. (Physically guard.) Pushing engine fire push button. Pushing IDG push button. Any rotation of ADIRS rotary switch. Activating cargo smoke discharge toggle switch.
What are the 10 flight phases
Which lights illuminate with then EMER EXIT LT selected ON?
- Overhead emergency lights.
- EXIT signs.
- Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system.
What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton?
Duct overheat.
(The valve and trim air valves will close automatically.)
How would you get out of THR LK ?
Move the thrust levers
What does TOGA LK indicate?
TOGA LK means TOGA Thrust is being commanded, after alpha floor triggering conditions (A. FLOOR) are no longer met.
What does a FAULT light in an IDG pb represent?
High IDG oil temperature
Low IDG oil pressure
With the RAT MAN ON switch in AUTO, what will cause the RAT to deploy?
The RAT automatically extends if:
1 AC BUS 1 is not electrically supplied, and
2 AC BUS 2 is not electrically supplied, and
3 Aircraft speed is greater than 100 knots.
(RAT auto control is HOT BUS 1, RAT manual control is HOT BUS 2.)
What occurs when the GEN 1 LINE pb is selected OFF?
GEN 1 line contactor opens.
The AC Bus 1 will then be supplied from GEN 2 through bus tie contactors.
A separate circuit is energized from Gen 1 to supply power to one fuel pump in each main tank.
What does illumination of the FAULT light in the APU Master switch indicate?
APU auto shutdown has occurred.
The FACs control which functions?
FAC is Flight Augmentation Computer:
Electrical Rudder Control.
Flight Envelope functions.
Low level energy warning.
Windshear detection.
When will the signal be sent for deployment of passenger oxygen masks, when the MASK MAN ON pushbutton is in auto?
The mask doors are signaled to open automatically when the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet.
What’s the green energy circle?
The energy circle is a green arc, centered on the aircraft’s position and oriented towards the current track line. It is displayed on the NDs during descent, when HDG or TRK mode is selected. It represents the required distance to land from the aircraft’s position down to airport elevation at VAPP speed, considering all speed constraints on the vertical profile.
what does the EMER EXIT LT SIGNS switch on?
Overhead cabin emergency lights.
EXIT signs.
Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system.
What is indicated by a flashing ALIGN light?
1 IR alignment fault, or
2 No present position entry after 10 minutes, or
3 Difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1° of latitude or longitude, or
4 Aircraft movement .
After pressing either guarded NAV key on RMP 1 or RNP 2, what happens if you press the NAV key a second time?
RETURNS CONTROL OF THE NAV RADIOS TO THE FMGC
