Airbus 320 NK Flashcards
CALLS Panel
How should a pilot call a mechanic outside the aircraft?
• Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.
CALLS Panel
How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?
• Press the FWD button
CALLS Panel
What happens when a pilot presses the EMER pushbutton?
- Two Pink lights flash at all area Call Panels
- EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels
- High-low chime sounds three times on all loudspeakers
CALLS Panel
What happens when the Flight Attendants initiate an emergency call?
- The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
- The amber ATT lights flash on all ACP
- 3 long buzzers (inhibited during takeoff and landing) sound consecutively
- In the cabin, the EMERGENCY CALL message will appear on all Attendant Indication Panels (AIP)
OXYGEN Panel
What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PUSHBUTTON?
Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the masks.
How does the passenger oxygen system work?
• Chemical oxygen generators for approximately 15 minutes
What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?
• The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually.
What causes automatic deployment of the masks?
Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet
How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?
The RESET control slide will accomplish this – it does not happen Automatically.
What would indicate a discharge?
The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing.
RCDR Panel
Why is the GND CTL push button selected to ON during preflight?
To record preflight activities in the cockpit
If the pushbutton was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?
- ON for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
- At least one engine is operating, stops 5 min after last engine shut down.
What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?
• ACP 3 PA volume knob out and in the 12 o’clock position
GPWS Panel
What does pressing the SYS pushbutton do?
All basic GPWS alerts (mode 1 to 5) are inhibited.
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?
Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5
What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton have on the TERRAIN mode?
No effect at all
Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3.
- To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3
* In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL
Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton.
- To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
- FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off
What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?
No effect whatsoever
EMER ELEC PWR Panel
What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?
AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the RAT is not supplying electrical power
When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?
• The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supply (approximately eight seconds)
How can the RAT be deployed?
Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR Panel)
or
RAT MAN ON (HYDRAULIC Panel).
Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
What is the difference between the automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT deployment by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?
Blue Hydraulic system and the emergency electrical generator
What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?
AC ESS and AC ESS Shed
DC ESS and DC ESS shed
What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
Aside from the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be other indications of avionics smoke?
ECAM warning
Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the VENTILATION panel.
If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE PUSHBUTTON to OFF, what will be accomplished?
Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)
AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactor
EVAC Panel
What is checked on the EVAC panel during the Preliminary cockpit preparation?
CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position
While conducting the Emergency Evacuation Checklist, the flight crew determines evacuation is required.
How should the flight crew command an
evacuation?
Make a PA announcement
Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton
Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws
What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?
Fly-By-Wire system
Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated
Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated
How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?
Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits
Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape
How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?
Amber Xs
indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections
How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?
Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?
Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
When operating in NORMAL LAW in “flight” mode, what does the side stick
command for pitch and roll?
Pitch – G load
Bank – Roll rate
What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?
The other pilot has gained side stick authority
Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each.
2 ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer
3 SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer
2 FAC – Flight Augmentation Compute
What are the some of the ELAC functions?
- Normal elevator
- Normal aileron
- Normal pitch and roll
- Alternate pitch
- Direct pitch and roll
- Autopilot orders
- Abnormal att
- Aileron droop
What are some of the SEC functions?
- Normal roll
- Speed brakes
• Alternate pitch
- Direct pitch
- Direct roll
• Abnormal attitude
What does SEC 3 control?
Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing
What are some of the FAC functions?
- Rudder Trim
- Rudder travel limit
- Yaw control
- Flight Envelope Protection – vertical
- Windshear Protection
- Low Energy Warning Protection
- Alpha Floor Protection
- Characteristic PFD speeds
What should happen to the THS after landing?
Reset to zero
Describe some of protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW.
- High Speed
- High Angle of Attack (AOA Alpha Protection)
- Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G With Flaps/Slats)
- Pitch Attitude (30° UP / 15° DN)
- Bank Angle (67°)
Describe High Speed Protection.
If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed
What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?
It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW.
In this case the aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).
What is ALPHA MAX?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection.
What protections, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW?
- Load Factor
- High-speed stability
- Low speed stability
What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?
None
When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW?
Describe the whole process.
There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW.
The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.
If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?
If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other thanrecovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged.
In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected
When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?
- When in DIRECT LAW
* When below 100 feet
It’s common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.
- Faulty Radio Altimeter
- A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen.
Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle of attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.
After recovery from an unusual attitude, what control law would the aircraft likely be in?
ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW
How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits.
What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.
If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up?
30° up
If the flight crew selected 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly?
VLS
Describe, in detail, what would happen if the flight crew slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle.
As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
If the angle of attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes.
*Stick movement commands a specific angle of attack instead of a G load change
Since auto trimming is inoperative, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT.
The side stick no longer provides a “G demand.” Instead, the pilot is requesting a specific angle of attack with the side stick.
Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?
- The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
- With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a maximum safe angle of attack (ALPHA MAX). This maximum angle of attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle of attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW.
At some point during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?
- ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on angle of attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
- ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW.
- Angle of attack protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
- On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M 0.6
Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in NORMAL LAW.
• Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs.
• If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
• When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
• When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.
What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the flight crew?
• An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the maximum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
• The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeed indicator as a green “=” sign
*An over speed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at VMO+4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pushbutton.
• If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed to permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit.
- If Angle-of-Attack protection is active, and the pilot maintains full lateral deflection on the sidestick, the bank angle will not go beyond 45 °.
- If high-speed protection is active, bank angle is limited to 40°.
- If high-speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero.
- It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the maximum attainable speed.
When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?
- In “flight” mode of NORMAL LAW, roll control is a roll rate demand. Side stick inputs commands the ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and the rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping.
- The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to side stick deflection. When the side stick is neutral, the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
• When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in NORMAL LAW. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to
achieve the commanded roll rate.
- The side stick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual positions of flight control surfaces.
- In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude (pitch inputs may still be needed to maintain altitude).
- If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the side stick is released, the aircraft would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
- Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or angle-of-attack protection is active).
- Beyond 33°of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.
The pilots find themselves in ALTERNATE LAW. Describe the indications and available protections, and flight control logic.
• In most cases, a single system of component failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stabilizer causes a degradation)
*Indications would be amber Xs and an EW/D message.
*The ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuver protection is still available.
Autopilot availability in ALTERNATE LAW depends on the failures that caused the degradation. Generally speaking, if the failures DO NOT affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.
- Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW, roll is direct (not roll rate demand), and yaw loses turn coordination.
- Attitude, high speed, and angle of attack protections are lost. They are replaced by high speed stability and low speed stability, respectively.
- High speed stability activates just prior to the over speed warning. Nose down trim is inhibited.
- Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose up trim is inhibited.
- The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft.
- Instead of commanding a specific roll rate, there is a direct relationship between side stick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of side stick deflection.
- Bank angle protection is not available in ALTERNATE LAW. Roll commands are carried out directly without modification.
- Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice as it was in NORMAL LAW.
- Attitude protection is lost and the green “=” signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. The aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs. Positive spiral stability is also lost.
- In ALTERNATE LAW, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available if a FAC is operational.
The pilots find themselves in DIRECT LAW. Describe the indications, protections, and flight control logic
- When in ALTERNATE LAW, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to DIRECT LAW when the landing gear is extended.
- DIRECT LAW is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in ALTERNATE LAW.
- An ECAM message is generated and says “PROT LOST”. Unlike in ALTERNATE LAW, this is now true. There are no protections or stabilities available in DIRECT LAW.
- The message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost.
- Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as ALTERNATE LAW (direct relationship with no protections).
The pilots find themselves in MECHANICAL BACKUP. What functions are available?
- MECHANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power.
- Although the aircraft can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
- Note the EW/D warning message and red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” indication on the FMA. There isn’t a specific mechanical backup ECAM message.
- The side sticks are inoperative. Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system.
- Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
- In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers may result in mechanical backup: Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the sidesticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical.
ADIRS Panel
What is the ADIRS?
• Air Data and Inertial Reference System
What are some of the parameters that the Air Data Reference System provides?
• Barometric altitude, airspeed, over speed warnings, temperature, angle of attack, mach.
What are some of the parameters the IR provides?
Attitude Flight Path Vector (FPV) Track Heading Acceleration, angular rates Groundspeed Aircraft position.
If there was an IR1/ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
ATT/HDG to Capt 3
If the AIR DATA portion of the #1 ADIRU failed, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
Air Data to Capt 3
Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.
- Switch from OFF to NAV
- ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
- White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on A319)
In A319; 535,536, A320s, and A321s, the E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. What is the importance of observing the ON BAT light?
It confirms the ADIRS ability to revert to aircraft battery power.
What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?
An external horn sounds
An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in blue on the external power panel.
What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?
IR has failed and cannot be recovered
What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.
What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?
- PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-alignment
- Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position
- Aircraft movement during alignment.
- No align light on A320 – The E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on the other aircraft.
Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?
- The pilots would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
- The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
- At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal.
What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?
• There are two ADIRS control panels installed on the fleet. On the older panel with a keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position, along with all the ADR information. The ECAM instructs the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the affected pilot’s side returns to normal.
The newer panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost and the ADR information would still be available.
EXT LTS Panel
If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted.
What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle Switch?
Separate bulbs.
What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?
AUTO
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
When the computer logic considers the aircraft airborne.
APU Panel [APU]
What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?
Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.
What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?
APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.
What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?
APU fire.
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?
2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft.
If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cool-down cycle?
Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton.
SIGNS Panel
When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?
With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and normal AC power is lost.
- DC SHED ESS BUS not powered
- Cabin altitude is excessive (above 11,300 feet), NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT and EXIT signs illuminated.
What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?
- Floor proximity emergency escape path-marking system
* Overhead emergency lighting
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?
- Overhead emergency lighting
- Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
- EXIT lights
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
- All lights OFF
* Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?
It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries.
INT LTS Panel
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
- Captain’s instrument panel
- Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
- Standby compass
CABIN PRESS Panel
How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?
- Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
- Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
- Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S
CTL toggle switch
What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?
- Closes the outflow valve
- Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet
- Closes the Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract valves
- Closes pack flow control valves
- Closes forward cargo isolation outlet valve (if installed)
- Cargo recirculation fans stop automatically (if installed)
- Closes all valves to the waterline
How many controllers are in the pressurization system? Do they share the load?
2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.
How can a pilot manually switch controllers?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL push button indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
Two pressure relief valves
ANTI ICE Panel
What is accomplished if the WING anti ice pushbutton is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?
The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne.
What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
- Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
- Low pressure
What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic.
Probes and window heat come on automatically (probes LOW on ground/HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne.
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats.
In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
- Wing – valves CLOSE
* Engine – valves OPEN
What is the significance of high swept wings versus less swept wings in ice accumulation?
The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach.
A flight crew is arriving to the aircraft in DTW early in the morning and notice that cockpit windows are frosted over. What should the flight crew do?
Select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT - ON
This must be selected OFF prior to takeoff in order to regain normal system logic.
The temperature outside is 2°C with visible moisture. What should the flight crew turn on?
ENG anti ice after engine start.
After takeoff, when should the flight crew turn on the WING anti ice?
WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing and when conditions warrant its use.
Climbing through FL240 in visible moisture, the crew notices the TAT is - 22°C and the SAT is -45°C. What would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?
Engine anti ice may be turned OFF in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.
Starting a descent out of FL350 with visible moisture, the TAT is -32°C and SAT is -53°C, what would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?
Engine anti ice should be turned ON in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.
Descending through 10,000ft, the pilots notice ice accumulation on the cockpit windshield blades. What should they do?
Turn on the WING anti ice. WING anti ice may either be used to prevent or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. After takeoff, WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Ice accumulation can be detected by observing the ice indicator located between the two cockpit windshields or by observing the windshield wipers blades.
Can the WING anti ice be used on the approach and landing?
YES -but remember second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.
What is TAT?
Total Air Temperature is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram Air Temperature (RAT)
What is SAT?
Static Air Temperature is also called: Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or True Air Temperature
Should a flight crew use TAT or SAT when determining whether to turn anti ice systems on?
Remember TAT indicates when to turn anti ice ON. SAT indicates when it may be able to be turned OFF.
What is the difference between TAT and SAT known as?
• The difference between TAT and SAT is called “ram rise (RR)” and is caused by compressibility and friction of the air at high velocities. See the sample effects of “ram rise (RR)” below: Ground TAT +2 SAT +2 10000ft TAT -6 SAT -17 18000ft TAT -13 SAT -33 FL240 TAT -23 SAT -45 FL350 TAT -28 SAT -54
AIR COND Panel
If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?
• HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?
• All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.
How are the PACKS controlled and operated?
• Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?
- Valve position disagrees with selected
- Compressor outlet overheat
- Pack outlet overheat
What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?
- Bleed overpressure
- Bleed overheat
- Wing or engine leak on the related side
- Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
- Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON
What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?
• SHUT = the valve is closed.
• AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is
closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).
• OPEN = the valve is open.
What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?
• APU bleed leak.
What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?
- Smoke removal in cabin
* Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
What does selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?
• Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.
How is the Bleed leak detection different on CEO and NEO aircraft?
• If a Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on CEO
ELEC Panel
What is the minimum battery voltage?
• 25.6V
What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?
• Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to AUTO
How long should the batteries be charged?
• 20 minutes, then recheck the voltage
Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?
• Select ELEC on ECAM
• Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
• Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
• If it fails the test, wait until the end of the charging cycle, and repeat the test
Describe the electrical power system.
- The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28-volt DC
- Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then transformed into direct current for certain applications.
- Each of the aircraft’s three generators can supply the whole network.
- If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC power.
- If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the batteries into AC power.
If all AC power is lost, what happens?
• DC power from the batteries is converted into AC.
What would be an expected indication in the GEN pushbuttons prior to engine start?
• FAULT indication.
Define and describe an IDG.
- Integrated Drive Generator
* Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output.
How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?
• Lift the red guard and push the IDG pushbutton, being careful not to hold the pushbutton for longer than three seconds.
How would an IDG be reconnected?
• This cannot be done by the flight crew – it is a maintenance function.
Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO.
- Allows a single source of power to run entire electrical system
- Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system
- Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?
Gen 2 (or APU GEN if available) powers the system through the bus tie.
How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?
• From AC bus 1
If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?
• AC bus 2 automatically feed the AC ESS bus
What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?
• AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminated
What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?
• At least one generator load is above 100% rated output.
Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY pushbutton.
• Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor
What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?
- AC ESS BUS
- AC ESS SHED
- DC ESS BUS by the ESS TR
- DC ESS SHED
What is the difference of the APU GEN FAULT and the ENG GEN FAULT?
• Both are indicators of a line contactor open. The difference is that the ENG GEN fault may also indicate a fault detected by the ENG GCU.
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
- Battery charging current outside limits.
* BAT contactor opens.
When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?
- APU start
- Battery charging
- AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
Describe the layout of the fuel tanks.
• The fuel tank layout depends on the specific aircraft.
• Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:
o On some aircraft the wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks and vent lines.
Describe IDG cooling and how it relates to the FADEC.
• Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to
either the wing tank or outer tank, depending on the aircraft.
• This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power.
• The FADEC controls the fuel return valve. The rate of return is approximately 660 lbs per hour during low IDG temperature and 1,100 lbs per hour during high IDG temperature.
On aircraft without jet pumps, what happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center tanks are feeding?
• The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100 lbs.
What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank, when installed?
• Approximately 1,500 lbs
When do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks?
• When the inner tank quantity reaches approximately 1,650 lbs.
If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lbs, what happens to the other transfer valve?
• All four transfer valves open.
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
HYD Panel
What are the three HYD systems called?
• GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW Systems
How is each system powered?
- GREEN – engine driven
- BLUE – electrically driven
- YELLOW – engine or electrically driven
When does the BLUE pump normally operate?
• After the first engine is started
