Air Ops MOD2 Flashcards

1
Q

RUAS

A

Ready to Use Armaments Section

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2
Q

NEM

A

Net Explosive Mass

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3
Q

3 Types of DG

A

Ammunition, liquids, fuels, gasses, radioactive materials etc

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4
Q

minimum notice required for a PPR for visiting ac?

A

24HR (PPR = Prior permission required)

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5
Q

GAR

A

General Aviation Report

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6
Q

Three elements of a GAR

A

Registration, dep/arr details, captain/crew details

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7
Q

JSP used for visiting civ ac

A

JSP360

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8
Q

Aerodrome 1st line servicing

A

On the line

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9
Q

Aerodrome 2nd line servicing

A

in the hangar

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10
Q

Aerodrome 3rd line servicing

A

routine scheduled servicing, final = ground run and Eng test

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11
Q

difference between Mil and Civ visual circuit

A

Mil doesn’t have a crosswind or base leg. Mil is oval, Civ Square

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12
Q

Three different types of activities that make up a display and open day

A

Flying displays, role demonstrations, fly pasts

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13
Q

parameters for definition of Aeromed

A

movement of patient in fastest, safest and least stressful way

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14
Q

Who can waver fees for aeromed evacuations

A

ICAO, Eurocontrol.

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15
Q

COMP A, COMP B, COMP C

A

justified for immediate, justified for specific date or next available opportunity. Not entitled.

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16
Q

UNCAT and DILFOR

A

Doesn’t meet criteria.
DILFOR = travel and accom for relatives/friends to visit sick/injured SP. SP usually going to die.

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17
Q

2 methods of refuelling

A

OShKosh, Bowser, Bladders, Pipeline

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18
Q

2 types of AAR

A

Probe and Drogue, Boom

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19
Q

most common type of fuel used

A

F34

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20
Q

Difference between F34 and F35 fuel

A

F35 does not have the de-icing element

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21
Q

Three types of airports

A

Designated, certificate of agreement, other

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22
Q

Why is a GAR needed for one of the airports

A

Customs and excise, immigration, police.

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23
Q

Define parking fees

A

Free for first 2hrs, charged for every 24hr period after. 2 months = short term

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24
Q

Under what circumstances would fees be waivered

A

VIP, Air ambulance, emergency, Official, service flying clubs

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25
MIP?
Major Incident Plan
26
What four requirements are there for a MIP
preserve evidence, preserve reputation, health and safety, restoration of accident site.
27
Define Royal Flight
Movement of one or more of the Royal family
28
what restrictions are defined for a TCZ
(temporary control zone) 15 mins before, 30 mins after, flight embargo, emergency state 3.
29
what dimensions for a Royal Low level corrdior (RLLC) rotary
1000ft above max cruising altitude
30
How long is an ATO cycle
72 hrs
31
What is an ATO sequential task?
Planned mission takes place but won't complete until next day
32
What is an ATO residual task?
Planned mission already in place from previous day but will cease on current ATO day
33
Aim of a contingency plan
Co-ord Stn response. Protect property and personnel, provide aid and comms, policy guidance.
34
Three purposes of Battlespace Management
Maximise freedom of action Minimise constraints for battlespace users Reduce risk of fratricide
35
Three things you would find on an ACN?
Dates/Time, summary, limits, aerodromes, ac involved, route closures.
36
RAMROD?
10 letter cypher Used to pass on digits, no repeating letters
37
BULLSEYE?
Pass lat and long location in code.
38
Purpose of a FlyPro
Ensure all assets and airspace is deconflicted
39
Four things you might see in a Flypro
Authorisation, AAR, embargoes, WIP, operating hours.
40
Form to record daily flying stats?
F68
41
MACA
Military Aid to Civil Authorities
42
ECC - Emergency Control Centre
43
JSP for arms control?
JSP 914
44
Flight Plan Form
F2919
45
APCM
Air system Post Crash management
46
Who is a GAR used by and why?
Police, Immigration and border control. To control and prevent entry of criminal or terrorist elements.
47
Name two agencies you might contact after an incident
DCDSDO - Deputy chief of defence staff duty officer CDOC - Command duty ops centre D&D - Distress and diversion Cell
48
Emergency state 3
49
Emergency state 2
50
Emergency state 1
51
Gold silver bronze - mil
Strat, Operational, Tactical
52
Gold silver bronze - civ
Strat, Tactical, Operational
53
if a flight circuit is followed by RH what does this signify?
A Right Handed flight circuit, as opposed to the standard left. i.e Rway 25RH
54
Before a pilot enters a circuit, what call must they make to ATC?
An intentions call
55
Three types of approach?
Touch and go, Low approach, Land
56
Requirements for crossing the runway?
centreline and at 90 degrees
57
Circuit and approach altitude
Fixed wing 1000ft, rotary 500ft.
58
What four sections provide direct support to the air system?
Eng, VAHS, Refuellers, Armament engineering section
59
For flight displays what might be required for air space segregation?
RA(T) Restricted airpsace temportary or even a danger area activation may be required.
60
If an armed a/c needs to be parked at an airfield without the correct license, which doc do you refer to?
RA4657
61
DG/armed aircraft parking coordinated by?
DEOC (Duty Eng ops controller)
62
If ATC tannoy declares emergency state 2 shortly after an armed aircraft has taken off what could this indicate?
Hung weapon malfunction
63
JSP for armed and D/G
JSP800
64
bootlegging?
Requesting a refuelling slot from AAR a/c without prior booking
65
What doc should you consult for whether Hot Pits can take place?
Stn Flying Order Book
66
Voyager fuel capacity
111 tons. 6.5 tons per hour.
67
C-CAST
Critical Care and Support Team
68
Document detailing civilian use of military aerodromes
JSP 360
69
Logbook
F6658
70
DAM
Defence aerodromes manuel
71
CFFR
Carry Fuel for Radar
72
CCT
Circuits
73
USL
Underslung Load
74
BINGO
A/c has enough fuel to make final approach attemtp AND divert, alternatively BINGO +10 or +20 for minutes
75
Three Types of Aerodromes?
Designated Airports Regulated Aerodromes or Regulated Bespoke Aerodrome Unregulated Aerodrome. – only allowed to receive domestic flights.
76
FSII
Fuel system Icing Inhibitor
77
Tansor
tanker used for QRA
78
JCCC
Joint Casualty and Compassionate Centre JSP751
79
KittyHawk
32 Sqn KRF
80
Rainbow
Kings Helicopter Flight, TKF
81
Sparrowhawk
Civ Charter KRH
82
Flight submission method?
F2919 or via MilEAMS
83
Flight plan submission requirements?
Correct format, Block capitals, UTC, in plenty of time.
84
NOTAM Suffix - N, C, R?
New, Cancelled, Replacement
85
Flight Plan Types?
Full, Repetition, Abbreviated
86
Overdue action response
Check movement board> Departure airfield> Check with ATC> Inform ATCO/D&D
87
Airfield design RA?
RA3263
88
Overdue - fixed wing
ETA Radar entry ETA Overhead ETA landing
89
Overdue Fixed wing
ETA Landing ETA End of notified endurance
90
Diversion Grades 1, 2, self enactors?
1 - AOA 2 - ATC Self - A/C captain
91
Types of Diversion
Routine, PD, Commitment, Armed
92
Number of AARA's?
14
93
What is LFCEU?
Low flying Complaints enquiry unit
94
Number of National Grid Primary Zones?
6, further broken into 100km square secondary zones.
95
Elements of PCN?
80/R/B/W/T (example) Grade/Pavement type/Subgrade strength/Maximum tire pressure/evaluation method.
96
Emergency Grades?
1 - Actual serious incident/crash 2 - Potential issue, mech, illness, bird strike 3 - Precautionary, Air display, VIP, first solo flight etc.
97
Book a Diversion info required?
Type a/c. Time from/to Number of a/c Type of diversion Additional info
98
7700
General Emergency
99
7600
RT Fail
100
7500
Hi-Jack
101
MODE1 - 2 SIF
Selective ID Feature
102
MODE3
Sqwk + Charlie
103
MODE4
ID "Friend or Foe" IFF
104
Standard Pressure Setting
1013.25hPa
105
RPS
Regional Pressure Setting
106
QNH, QNE, QFE
Nautical Height, Pressure Elevation(FL), Field Elevation