Air Navigation Flashcards

1
Q

The Federal Aviation Administrator or any person to whom he has delegated his authority in the matter concerned is referred to through the FARs as the ______.

A

Administrator

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2
Q

the time that an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of flight until it comes to rest after landing is ______ _________.

A

Flight Time

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3
Q

the average forward horizontal distance at which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified by day and prominent lighted objects may be seen and identified by night is known as what?

A

Flight Visibility

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4
Q

night is defined as what?

A

the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight as published in the American Air Almanac, converted to local time.

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5
Q

what documents are required to be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when you are acting as pilot in command of an aircraft?

A

a current pilot certificate, an appropriate medical certificate, and photo identification

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6
Q

what is required before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane with more than 200 HP (high performance)?

A

receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in either a high performance airplane or an approved flight simulator or flight training device.

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7
Q

assume that you are a private pilot acting as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night. within the preceding 90 days, you must have made at least three what?

A

takeoffs and three full-stop landings at night in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type.

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8
Q

who is responsible for “determining” if the aircraft is airworthy?

A

Pilot in command of the aircraft

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9
Q

what has the final authority as to the operation of an aircraft?

A

PIC

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10
Q

you may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or while what?

A

Using any drug that affects your faculties contrary to safety

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11
Q

as pilot in command when are you required to wear your safety belt?

A

during takeoff and landing and enroute

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12
Q

the pilot in command must ensure that all passengers are briefed on the use of safety belts and notified that they must be fastened. true/false?

A

True

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13
Q

what is the maximum airspeed for flight below 10,000 ft, unless authorized or required by ATC?

A

250 Knots

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14
Q

Which Federal Aviation Regulations discusses general operating rules?

A

Part 61

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15
Q

Practical Test Standards (PTS) are a set of objective standards:

A

developed to be used when conducting practical tests

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16
Q

FAA regulations change _____, and the AIM is updated once every _______

A

Monthly, 12 calendar months

17
Q

the AIM is intended to what?

A

Present scenarios and applications for material available in the FAR / explain concepts in further detail than may be available in the FAR.

18
Q

what does 14 part 91 contain?

A

regulations pertaining to the majority of flight operations encountered in the general aviation field.

19
Q

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft but no injuries to occupants, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified when?

A

IDK

20
Q

what incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office

A

Flight control system malfunction/failure, inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness, failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris other than out the exhaust path, in flight fire, aircraft collision in flight, damage to aircraft over $25k, release of all of a portion of a prop blade from aircraft, excluding release caused by ground contact.

21
Q

the inability of a crew member to perform normal duties due to an in-flight injury or illness is a requirement for immediate notification of the NTSB. true or false?

A

False

22
Q

the non-rechargeable batteries in an ELT are required to be replaced when?

A

after 1 hour of cumulative use or when 50% of the useful life has expired.

23
Q

FAR

A

Federal Aviation Regulations

24
Q

AIM

A

Aeronautical Information Manual

25
Q

What does FAR part 61 cover?

A

Certifications, pilots, flight instructors, and ground instructors

26
Q

what does FAR part 91 cover?

A

general operating and flight rules

27
Q

what does FAR part 141 cover?

A

pilot schools

28
Q

what does NTSB 830 cover?

A

notifications and reporting of aircraft accidents or incidents and overdue aircraft, and preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records

29
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class A airspace?

A

N/A, N/A

30
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class B airspace?

A

Visibility = 3SM. Distance from clouds = Clear of clouds

31
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class C airspace?

A

Visibility = 3SM. Distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontal

32
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class D airspace?

A

Visibility = 3SM. Distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontal

33
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class E airspace at less than 10,000 ft MSL?

A

Visibility = 3SM. Distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontal

34
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class E airspace above 10,000 ft MSL?

A

Visibility = 5SM. Distance from clouds = 1000 ft below, 1000 ft above, 1SM horizontal

35
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class G airspace at 1200 ft or less above the surface during the “day”?

A

Visibility = 1SM. Distance from clouds = Clear of clouds

36
Q

what is the minimum visibility and distance from clouds for class G airspace at 1200 ft or less above the surface at “night”?

A

Visibility = 3SM. Distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontal