Air Law Flashcards
1
Q
What is the regulatory structure?
A
- Aeronautics Act
- The regulations (the CARs)
- The standards (documents)
- The advisor material
2
Q
What is the Aeronautics Act?
A
An act of Parliament providing the basis for the regulations of aeronautics
3
Q
What are regulations?
A
Rules of conduct made by the Cabinet (on the advice of the Minister of Transport or by the Minister him or herself)
4
Q
What are standards?
A
The criteria and conditions of each regulation (the “how to”)
5
Q
What is the advisory material?
A
The recommended procedures or guidance informationi n respect of a regulation or standard
6
Q
Break down the following reference to its parts:
4 21.26 (6) (b) ii
A
Part - 4
Subpart - 21
Section - .26
Subsection - (6)
Paragraph - (b)
Subparagraph - ii
7
Q
Explain what the second digit in a CARs reference represents
A
It represents the publication
405.06 - Regulation
425.06 - Standard
445.06 - Advisory
8
Q
List the first 8 parts of the CAR
A
Part I - General
Part II - Identification, Registration, and Leasing of Aircraft
Part III - Aerodromes and Airports
Part IV - Personal Licensing and Training
Part V - Airworthiness
Part VI - General and Operating Flight Rules
Part VII -Commercial Air Services
Part VIII - Air Navigation Services
9
Q
Which part of the CARs contains general rules applicable to all aircraft operations?
A
Part VI - General and Operating Flight Rules
10
Q
Which airspace users do the CARs not apply to?
A
Military aircraft of Her Majesty
Military aircraft of a foreign country
Model aircraft
Rockets
Hovercraft
Wing-in-ground-effect machines
11
Q
103.04 Record Keeping Summary states that aviaton documentation may be recorded vis-a-vis on which mediums?
A
Paper, electronic, microfiche
Can only be used if the records can be provided on paper upon request
12
Q
According to 103.02 Inspection of Aircraft, Requests for Production of Documents and Prohibitions Summary, what must the aircraft owner make available for inspection?
A
The aircraft, aviation documents, technical records
13
Q
What does 103.02 Inspection of Aircraft, Requests for Production of Documents and Prohibitions Summary state about aviation documents?
A
No person shall lend, mutilate, alter, or render illegible an aviation document
14
Q
Which regulation states that where a Canadian aviation document has been suspended or cancelled, the person to whom it was issued shall return it to the Minister immediately after the effective date of the suspension or cancellation
A
103.03 Return of Canadian Aviation Documents
15
Q
According to subsection 103.02(1) Administration and Compliance, what are the maximum fines for non compliance?
A
Individual $500
Corporation 2,500
16
Q
How long must you wait if you fail a TC exam?
A
14 days(1st fail)
30 days(2nd fail)
60 days(3rd fail) (etc. up to 180 days)
17
Q
According to 401.03 Requirement to Hold a Flight Crew Permit, License or Rating Summary, what must you have when you fly?
A
An appropriate and valid permit, license or rating and medical
18
Q
What does 401.08(1) Personal Logs state you maintain a personal log of when you apply for, and hold a flight crew permit, license, or rating?
A
Experience accumulated in respect of the flight crew permit, licence or rating, and recency
19
Q
Who are the only people allowed to make an entry in a personal log?
A
The holder of the log, or someone authorized by the holder of the log to make an entry in the log
20
Q
What information should a personal log contain, according to 401.08(1) Personal Logs?
A
the holder’s name
the date of the flight
aircraft typeand registration mark
flight crew position
flight conditions(day, night, VFR, IFR)
departure and the place of arrival
all intermediate take-offs and landings
flight time
21
Q
List the PPL requirements
A
Minimum age➔17years of age
Medical fitness➔Cat 1 or Cat 3
Knowledge➔40 hrs G.S, (min. 60% written) Experience➔45 hrs
(17hrs dual, 3hrs X/C, 5hrs instrument) + (12 hrs solo, 5 hrs X/C)
Skill➔P.P.L flight test
22
Q
Explain the difference between class, type, and category
A
Class - aircraft have similar operating characteristics (land, sea, multi-land, etc.)
Type - specific makes or models of aircraft with similar performancecharacteristics (non-high performance, high performance)
Category - aircraft with similar designcharacteristics (balloon, aeroplane, helicopter, etc.)
23
Q
Who is allowed to supervise flight training?
A
A holder of a flight instructor rating for that category of aircraft
24
Q
Who conducts a flight test? Are other passengers allowed?
A
A flight examiner. Other passengers are not allowed
25
401.04 Flight Crew Members of A/C Registered in Contracting States Other Than Canada states that in order to fly in Canada, in an aircraft registered from a contracting state other than Canada, a person must hold and be able to produce:
a TC flight crew license(issued under this subpart); or a flight crew license issued under the laws of a Canadian contracting state
26
401.05(1a,b) state that you cannot act as P.I.C or Co-Pilot of an aircraft if the person has not flown in five years. What is the exception?
You have completed a flight review
27
401.05(2a) Recency Requirements states that no holder of a flight crew permit or license shall exercises the privileges of a license or permit unless they have completed recurrant training in ___ months.
24 months
28
According to 421.05(2a) Recency Requirements, what can count as Reccurant Training?
completion of a flight review
attendance at a TC aviation safety seminar
participation in a program designed to update pilot knowledge of human factors, weather, flight planning, navigation, CARs, rules and procedures
PPC or approved company training program
renewals, up-grades, written examsof a permit, license or rating
annual,self-paced TC Aviation Safety Newsletter
29
What requirements should be met prior to carrying a passanger, as per 401.05(2b) Recency Requirements?
within the six months preceding the flight, you must complete:
5 night or day take-offs and landings, if the flight is conducted wholly by day, or 5 night take-offs and landings, if the flight is conducted wholly or partly by night
30
How often must recurrent training be completed, even if flying regularly?
Every 2 years
31
True or False:
A holder of a PPL is able to act as a pilot for hire or reward
False, yet passengers can reimburse you for fuel, oil, and fees associated with flying
32
401.28 states that you may be reimbursed from an employer for costs incurred while flying under which circumstances?
You're employed on a full-time basis by the employer for purposes other than flying, and you accept reimbursement for flying (employer's business only) when the flying is incidental to the execution ofyour duties
33
What does 404.03 Requirement to Hold a Medical Certificate state about medical certificates?
No person shall exercise the privileges of a permit, licence or rating unless the person holds a valid medical certificate of a category that is appropriate for that permit, licence or rating
34
What category of medical certificate do commercial pilot license and airline transport pilot license holders require?
Category 1
35
What category of medical certificate do air traffic controllers and flight engineer license holders require?
Category 1 or 2
36
What category of medical license does a private pilot license holder require?
Category 1 or 3
37
What category of medical license does a recreational pilot permit holder or student pilot permit holder require?
Category 1, 3, or 4
38
What is the validity period of a PPL holder's medical certificate?
Under 40 years old - 60 months
40 years old and older - 24 months
39
What are the 3 possible medical endorsings listed in 404.18 Permission to Continue to Exercise the Privileges of a Permit, License or Rating?
Fit
Fit, subject to any restriction
Unfit
40
Define aerodrome
Any area of land, water (including frozen surface) or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped, or set apart for use (partially or fully) for the arrival, departure, movement or servicing of aircraft and includes any buildings, installations and equipments
41
What is a registered aerodrome? Are they subject to an ongoing inspection program?
An aerodrome listed in the supplement which is not certifiedas an airport. Registered aerodromes are not subject to an ongoing inspection program
42
Define airport
An aerodrome for which an airport certificate is issued, requiring the operator to maintain and operate the site in accordance with applicable Transport Canada standards
43
What is an aerodrome operator required to do if an aerodrome is permanently closed?
Remove all of the markers and markings installed at the aerodrome. Unservicable movement areas still require red flags or red cones
44
301.04 Markers and Markings states that if a runway (4,001’+) or part of a runway is closed for more than 24 hours, the operator of the aerodrome shall...
Place white “X”s at each end of the closed runway, and additional closed markings (or part thereof) located at intervals not exceeding 1000’
45
Where should closed markings be located on a runway 1501' to 4000' in length?
At each end of the closed runway or part thereof and an additional closed marking of the same dimensions shall be located at a point equidistant from the two markings
46
Where should closed markings be located on a runway up to 1500'?
At each end of the closed runway
47
What marking should be placed at each end of a closed taxiway?
A yellow "X"
48
List 4 requirements for a Wind Direction Indicator as stated in 301.06
Conspicuous colour or colours
In the shape of a truncated cone
Visible from an aircraft flying at an altitude of 1,000’ above the wind direction indicator
Iluminated at night
49
When does a wind direction indicator not need to be installed?
When the wind direction can be determined by factors like smoke movement in the air or wind lines on the water
50
State how a dry Transport Canada wind direction indicator will react to wind speeds of 6, 10, and 15+ knots
51
301.07 Lighting states that runways used at night must have parallel lines of fixed white lights that are visible from an aircraft in flight at a distance of at least __ nautical miles
Two
52
Describe the lighting set up for a runway used at night, including length, number of lights, and the positioning
53
Describe the lighting setup of a taxiway used at night
Two parallel lines of fixed blue lights or blue retro-reflective markers
The distance between adjacent lightsor markers in each line is not more than 200’
Where two taxiways intersect, two adjacent blue lights are placed at each side of the taxiway
54
When an aircraft parking area at an aerodrome is used at night, the operator of the aerodrome shall...
Indicate the boundary of the area with fixed blue lights or blue retro-reflective markers, placed at intervals not exceeding 200 feet, or with floodlighting
55
Describe how to activate type J and type K ARCAL
Type J - key the microphone 5 times in 5 seconds on the appropriate frequency
Type K - activate by keying the microphone 7 times initially on the appropriate frequency, then 3, 5 or 7 times within 5 seconds for low, medium or high intensities respectively
56
What does 301.08 Prohibitions state that an aircraft must have if it is to be parked in an active maneuvering area at night?
Operating wingtip, tail and anti-collision lights or is illuminated by lanterns suspended from the wingtips, tail and nose of the aircraft
57
What does 301.08 Prohibitions state that an aircraft must have if it is to be towed in an active maneuvering area at night?
Operating wingtip, tail and anti-collision lights or is illuminated by lights mounted on the towing vehicle and directed at the aircraft
58
Are unrestrained owned birds or other animals allowed at aerodromes?
No, except for the purpose of controlling other birds or animals at the aerodrome as permitted by the operator
59
In which three areas of an aerodrome are smoking and open flames prohibited, according to 301.09 Fire Prevention?
On an apron
On an aircraft loading bridge or on a gallery or balcony that is contiguous to or that overhangs an apron
In an area where smoking or the presence of an open flame is likely to create a fire hazard that could endanger persons or property
60
What is an exception to open flames and sparks listed in 401.09 Fire Prevention?
Maintenance/servicing operations on an apron that involve the use, production, or potential development of an open flame or spark where the operations are conducted in a manner that is not likely to create a fire hazard that could endanger persons or property
61
What is an exception to smoking listed in 401.09 Fire Prevention?
Smoking in an enclosed building or shelter located on an apron where such smoking is not likely to create a fire hazard that could endanger persons or property
62
How is cruising altitude for direction of flight determined in the Northern and Southern Domestic Airspace?
Northern Domestic Airspace - True Track
Southern Domestic Airspace - Magnetic Track
63
What is a Flight Information Region? How many is the CDA divided into?
An airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth, in which flight information service and alerting services are provided. CDA is divided into 8 FIRs
64
Describe the vertical sections of the CDA
Low Level Airspace - airspace below 18,000 feet ASL
High Level Airspace - airspace from 18,000 feet ASL and above
65
What is a controlled airspace?
Airspace within which Air Traffic Control service is provided
66
Define airspace structure
The physical dimensions of the elements into which the airspace is divided, such as Control Zones, Terminal Control Areas, Control Area Extensions and Airways
67
What are airways? How are they identified?
Controlled corridors of airspace between two stations
Identified with a single letter plus a number(G1 - golf 1, J500 - jet 500)
68
What are air routes? How are they identified?
Uncontrolled corridors of airspace between two stations
Identified with two letters plus a number(GG1 - golf golf 1, BR4 - bravo romeo 4)
69
Describe the distances and drift lines of different types of airways
70
Describe Class A airspace classification
From FL180 up to and including FL600
No VFR Permitted
71
Describe Class B airspace classification
Above 12,500 to below FL180
VFR permitted but only if you meet certain criteria
Controlled VFR (VFR operating under IFR procedures -except Wx) (Mapping Surveys, etc.)
72
Describe Class C airspace classification
Is not altitude related
VFR permitted but clearance required and only if you meet certain criteria
None in the Atlantic Region
73
Describe Class D airspace classification
Is not altitude related
A mix of IFR/VFR traffic is likely
In our region, applies to Control Zones serviced by an ATC tower
Becomes class E if Control Tower closes
74
Describe Class E airspace classification
Is not altitude related
A mix of IFR/VFR traffic is likely
In our region, normally class E control zone is also a designated MF area
Usually associated with a FSS
75
Describe Class F airspace classification
Special use airspace (Advisory, Restricted areas)
Limitations are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of activities happening in class F airspace
76
Describe Class G airspace classification
Uncontrolled airspace
Applies to airspace outside of Control Zones and Terminal Control areas below 2200’ (south of Bathurst)
A mix of IFR/VFR traffic is possible
A - G (Ref: RAC 2.8)
77
CAR 601.03 Transponder Airspace states that aircraft shall be equipped with a functioning transponder incorporating an automatic pressure reporting device (MODE C) when operating in the following airspace:
Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace that is classified as "Transponder Airspace" in the DAH
78
What is required to fly VFR in Class B airspace?
A/C equipped with proper COMM, NAV, & Transponder Mode C
Continuous listening watch on Radio
Position Reports as required by ATC
A/C operated in VMC at all times.
79
What sources can you refer to for information on airspace?
VFR Navigation Charts (VNC)
VFR Terminal Area Charts (VTA)
Low Level EnrouteCharts (LO Charts)
Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH TP1820)
Canada’s Airspace Poster (TP6010)
ATC/FSS
A.I.M.
80
What does 602.01 Reckless or Negligent Operation of Aircraft state?
No person shall operate an aircraft in such a reckless or negligent manner as to endanger or be likely to endanger the life or property of any person
81
602.02Fitness of Flight Crew Members states that no operator of an aircraft shall require any person to act as a flight crew member and no person shall act as a flight crew member, if that person:
Is, or will be, fatigued
Unfit to perform flight crew duties
82
What rules are in place for aircraft crew members regarding alcohol and drug use?
No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within twelve hoursafter consuming an alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, or while using any drug that impairs the person's faculties in a way that can endanger the aircraft or other crew members
83
What rules are in place for aircraft passengers regarding alcohol?
Alcohol cannot be consumed by passengers unless served by the aircraft operator. An exception is if there are reasonable grounds to believe serving alcohol to the passenger may put the aircraft at risk
84
Is an aircraft operator permitted to allow intoxicated (drunk) passengers aboard the aircraft?
Only if the operator believes that the intoxicated person will not pose a risk to the aircraft or other crew
85
Is the operator of an aircraft permitted to allow passengers under the influence of drugs aboard the aircraft?
Only if the passenger is supervised by an attendant and the drug was administered with medical authorization
86
According to 602.05 Compliance With Instructions, who should passengers take instruction from? Who should the flight crew take instruction from?
Passengers shall comply with instructions given by crew members.
Crew members shall comply with instructions given by the pilot in command, or anyone authorized by the pilot in command
87
When is smoking aboard an aircraft prohibited, as stated in 602.06 Smoking?
During take off an landing, in the lavatory, and when prohibited by the pilot in command
88
602.07 Aircraft Operating Limitations states that no person shall operate an aircraft unless it is operated in accordance with the operating limitations. Where are the operating limitations indicated?
In the aircraft flight manual, set out in a approved document (S.O.P), indicated bymarkings or placards
89
What does 602.08 say about the use of Portable Electronic Devices aboard an aircraft?
No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a portable electronic device on board an aircraft, where the device may impair the functioning of the aircraft's systems or equipment
90
According to 602.09 Fuelling with Engines Running, when is fuelling of the aircraft prohibited?
What are the exceptions?
When passengers are aboard, embarking, or disembarking the aircraft.
Exceptions are Airline, Commuter, and Private operator
91
What conditions must be met to start the engine of an aircraft?
A pilot's seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft, and precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving
92
What conditions must be met to leave the engine of an aircraft running?
A pilot's seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft
Where no persons are on board the aircraft, precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving, and the aircraft is not left unattended
93
Define critical surface
The wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers or any other stabilizing surface of an aircraft and, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted engines, includes the upper surface of its fuselage
94
What does 602.11 state about aircraft icing?
No person shall conduct or attempt to conduct a take-offin an aircraft that has frost, ice or snow adhering to any of its critical surfaces
Sight of ice on the aircraft must be reported to the PIC
Crew members and passengers must be notified if the aircraft is to be de-iced
95
How is lift affected by aircraft icing?
Lift can be decreased by 30-40%
96
What does 602.13 Take-offs, Approaches and Landings within Built-up Areas of Cities and Towns state? What are the exceptions?
No person shall conduct a take-off, approach or landing in an aircraft within a built-up area of a city or town, unless that take-off, approach or landing is conducted at an airport or a military aerodrome
Exceptions: the flight is conducted without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface; and the aircraft is operated for a police operation or to save a life
97
What is the minimum altitude & horizontal distance allowed over a built-up area or over an open-air assembly of persons?
1,000’ above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of 2,000’ from the A/C
In other circumstances: no distance less than 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
98
What are some examples of permissable low altitude flight?
police operation
saving human life
fire-fightingor air ambulance operations
fisheries Act or Coastal Fisheries Protection Act
national/provincial parks
flight inspection, aerial application or aerial inspection
aerial photography (air operator cert. required)
helicopter external load operations
flight training(flight instructor required)
99
In the event of a potential collision, what must the PIC with the right of way do?
Take necessary action to avoid collision, and if required in emergency, give right of way to the other aircraft
100
What are the blind spots created by the wing and fuselage?
101
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the PIC of the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way, except in what situations?
Power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons
Airship shall give way to gliders and balloons
Glider shall give way to balloons
Power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are seen to be towing gliders or other objects or carrying a slung load.
102
Where an aircraft is required to give way to another aircraft, the P.I.C of the first-mentioned aircraft shall not:
Pass over or under, orcross ahead of, the other aircraft unless at such a distance as will not create a risk of collision
103
Where two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a risk of collision, what should each PIC do?
Alter heading to the right
104
Two aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing. Who has the right of way?
The aircraft at the lower altitude
105
What does 602.21 Avoidance of Collision state?
No person shall operate an aircraft in such proximity to another aircraft as to create a risk of collision
106
602.22Towing states that no person shall operate an aeroplane that is towing an object unless it is equipped with:
An approved tow hook and release control system
107
Is the dropping of objects from aircraft permitted?
No
108
602.24 Formation Flight states that no person shall operate an aircraft in formation with other aircraft. What are the exceptions?
Pre-arrangement between the P.I.C of each aircraft or where the flight is conducted within a control zone
109
In what areas is parachuting from an aircraft prohibited?
In controlled airspace
Over or into a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons
110
Where are aerobatic maneuvers prohibited?
Over a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons
In controlled airspace, except in accordance with a special flight operations certificate
When flight visibility is less than 3 miles
Below 2,000 feet AGL, except in accordance with a special flight operations certificate
111
Aerobatic maneuvres are prohibited with passengers unless P.I.C has engaged in:
At least 10 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting of aerobatic maneuvres or 20 hours conducting aerobatic maneuvres; and at least 1 hour of conducting aerobatic maneuvres in the last 6 months
112
ATC directs an instruction at you. How do you respond?
Comply and acknowledge the instruction
Read back is required
113
After accepting an ATC clearance, your safety is at risk. What do you do?
Inform ATC ASAP of any deviations
114
Is read back required for ATC clearances?
Only when requested
115
What emergency equipment is required aboard a power-driven aircraft?
A checklist or placards
Current aeronautical charts
Hand-held fire extinguisher in the cockpit
Timepiece (indication of seconds)
Flashlight(“means of illumination” for night flying)
First aid kit
116
Survival equipment for flights over land must include means for:
Starting a fire
Providing shelter
Providing or purifying water
Visually signaling distress
117
What are the exceptions for having survival equipment on flights over land?
Operations within 25 nm of the aerodrome of departure provided you are capable of radio communication with a surface-based radio station for the duration of the flight
Operations in a geographical area where(and at a time of year when) the survival of the persons on board is not jeopardized
118
What is required for an aircraft to be permitted to fly over 50nm away from shore?
A life preserver for each person on board
119
Explain the difference between life preserver, personal floatation device, and individual floatation device
Life preserver - keeps head out of water
Personal floatation device - keeps body out of water
Individual floatation device - something to hold onto to keep afloat in the water
120
When is an aircraft required to have a liferaft on board?
S/E aeroplane, or a M/E aeroplane that is unable to maintain flight with any engine failed when operating at more than 100 Nm, or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site
M/E aeroplane that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than 200 NM, or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutesof flightat the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site
121
What does 602.73 Requirement to file a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary state about IFR and VFR flights?
All IFR are required to file (with some exceptions)
All VFR aircraft or required to file a flight planoritinerary when beyond 25 NMs from the departure point
All VFR and IFR are required to file a flight plan, in any case, for a trans-boarder flight(in or outside 25 NMs)
122
What do you do if you decide to change your destination, route, or duration mid flight?
Flight plan - get clearance from ATC in controlled airspace
Flight iterinary - inform ATC, FSS or CARS (or responsible person) ASAP in controlled or uncontrolled airspace.
123
How long do VFR aircraft have to close their flight plan and flight itinerary?
Flight plan - 1 hour
Flight itinerary - 24 hours
124
Do IFR aircraft have to close when landing at a destination with an ATC or FSS?
No, unless requested
125
What are the regulations regarding carry on baggage?
Must be stowed in a bin, compartment, rack or other location that is certified in accordance with the aircraft type and restrained to prevent them from shifting during movement of the aircraft
126
How much of a fuel reserve should VFR aircraft have?
Day flights - to destination + a 30 minute reserve
Night flights - to destination + a 45 minute reserve
127
What must passengers be briefed on before take-off, according to 602.89?
Emergency and normal exits
Safety belts, shoulder harnesses and restraint devices
The positioning of seats and the securing of seat backsand chair tables
The stowage of carry-on baggage
Any prohibition against smoking
Life preservers, individual flotation devices or personal flotation devices
First aid kits and survival equipment
ELT
Life raft
128
As stated in 602.96, before operating an aircraft at an aerodrome, what must the pilot be sure of?
No potential of collision with another aircraft or vehicle
Aerodrome is suitable for the intended operation
129
Unless otherwise directed, which direction should aircraft turn while in the aerorome traffic circuit?
Left
130
How should an aircraft land and takeoff relative to the wind?
Into the wind
131
What are two exceptions to not being able to fly less than 2000' AGL over an aerodrome?
For the purpose of landing/takeoff
Unless directed/authorized by ATC
132
Describe MF reporting procedures
133
What should an aircraft operating within a MF area be equipped with? What should the PIC be doing?
Must be equipped with proper radio communication equipment
PIC should maintain a listening watch at the specified frequency
134
The PIC of a NORDO VFR aircraft may operate to/from an U/C aerodrome within a MF area if:
ground station is in operation at the A/D
Prior noticegiven to ground station of intention to operate at A/D
When conducting T/O, PIC confirms visuallly that no danger of collision with other traffic exists
when approaching to land, the A/C enters the A/D traffic circuit so as to complete two sides of the circuit before turning onto final approach
135
Describe how a NORDO aircraft can enter a MF area
136
Why is it is essential that you’re aware of other traffic and exchange information when approaching (or departing) an uncontrolled aerodrome?
Some aircraft may not have communicatons capability
137
How can information be exchanged with an FSS, CARS, UNICOM, or vehicle operators?
By directed transmissions or with other aircraft by broadcast transmissions
138
What is ATF? What is it normally designated for?
Aerodrome Traffic Frequency - all radio equipped aircraft in area are on the same frequency
Normally designated for active uncontrolled aerodromes that do not meet MF criteria
139
Describe reporting in an ATF area
140
Describe the size of an zone designated as MF or ATF
Circle with a 5NM radius capped at 3000 feet AAE
141
At what altitude should you cross over an aerodrome prior to joining the circuit?
at least 500 feet above ciruit altitude
142
What should you report when flying continious circuits? When can you initiate the turn?
You can initiate the turn at 500’ after take-off
Report entering downwind
Report established on final
Report clear of the active runway after the final landing.
143
In MF/ATF zones, what should you report when taxiing on maneuvering areas?
Report intentions and maintain a listening watch prior to entering the manoeuvring area
144
In non MF/ATF aerodromes, at what frequency should position reporting be made?
123.2MHz
145
At non-MF aerodromes (or when MF procedures are not invoked), what should you be on the lookout for?
NORDO traffic may also be established in or be entering the circuit without other traffic or the ground station being aware
If the aerodrome is equipped with an IFR approach, IFR arrivals may also be landing via straight-in or circling procedures
146
Describe the VFR weather minima as outlined in 602.114
147
605.03 Flight Authority (C of A) states that no person shall operate an aircraft in flight unless:
The C of A is in effect
The aircraft is operated in accordance with the conditions set out in C of A
The C of A is carried on boardthe aircraft
148
What does 605.04 Availability of Aircraft Flight Manual state?
The A/C flight manual must be on board and availableto the flight crew members at their duty stations
149
What does 605.08 Unserviceable and Removed Equipment - General state about taking off in an aircraft with unservicable equipment?
No person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft that has equipment that is not serviceable or from which equipment has been removed if, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command, aviation safety is affected
150
What equipment must power-driven aircraft for the purpose of DVFR flight have?
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, magnetic compass, tachometer, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator, fuel quantity gauge, 2-way radio communication system
manifold pressure gauge, coolant temperature indicator, landing gear indicator, radio navigation equipment
151
What equipment must power driven aircraft operating VFR OTT have, other than equipment required for DVFR
Altimeter with subscale, pitot heat, directional gyro, attitide indicator, turn coordinator
152
What equipment must power driven aircraft operating NVFR have, other than equipment required for DVFR
Altimeter with subscale, turn coordinator, directional gyro, landing light, instrument illumination, position and anti-collision lights, adequete source of electrical energy for all electrical and radio equipment, spare fuses
153
When can anti-collision lights be turned off at night?
When the PIC determines that, because of operating conditions, doing so would be in the interests of aviation safety
154
What are the safety belt requirements for aircraft other than balloons?
The aircraft must be equipped with a seat and safety belt for each person on board (other than an infant)
Safety belt must have metal-to-metal latching device
155
What are the shoulder harness requirements on an aircraft?
Each front seat shall be equipped with a safety belth that includes a shoulder harness. Exception is small aeroplanes manufactured before July 18, 1978
156
When should the PIC of the aircraft direct all persons on board to fasten safety belts?
During movement on the surface
During take off and landing
Any time during the flight that the PIC considers it necessary
157
605.29 states that no operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a flight control lock in respect of the aircraft unless:
The flight control lock is incapable of becoming engaged when the aircraft is being operated
An unmistakable warning is provided to the person operating the aircraft whenever the flight control lock is engaged
158
When must oxygen equipment and an oxygen supply be available for all crew and 10% of passengers?
At cabin pressure altitudes between 10,000'-13,000' ASL for the entire period of flight exceeding 30 minutes
159
When must oxygen equipment and an oxygen supply be available for all persons on board an aircraft?
At cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000'ASL for the entire period of flight
160
When should all crew wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen during operations between 10,000'-13,000' ASL?
For any part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutse in duration
161
When should each person on board an aircraft flying over 13,000'ASL wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen?
For the duration of the flight at those altitudes
162
What should you do in the case of losing your transponder en route?
With ATC clearance, fly to next aerodrome of intended landing in fligh plan, or to the first aerodrome with facilities to remove and fix the unit
163
605.38 states that no person shall operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with one of more ELTs. What are the exceptions?
F.T.U engaged in flight training and operated within 25 NM of the aerodrome of departure
Engaged in a flight test
A new aircraft engaged in flight operations incidental to manufacture, preparation or delivery of the aircraft (test flight)
164
When can you fly without an ELT (as per the MEL)?
There is displayed on a readily visible placard within the aircraft cockpit, for the period of removal of the ELT from the aircraft, stating that the ELT has been removed and setting out the date of removal, and the aircraft is to be re-equiped with a serviceable ELT within 30 days after the date of removal
165
When should an ELT be activated?
Only in an emergency
During first 5 minutes of any hour for no more than five seconds, for the purpose of testing
166
Who should be notified if the ELT is accidentally activated during flight?
ATC, FSS, CARS
167
605.84 states that take-off is prohibited unless the aircraft is maintened in accordance with:
Any airworthiness limitations
The requirements of any airworthiness directives issued by the Minister
168
605.85 states that after undergoing maintenance, and aircraft shall not fly unless:
A maintenance release is signed
169
Is maintenance release required for tasks identified as elementary work?
No
170
605.86 prohibits taking off in an aircraft unless it is maintained in accordance with a regular maintenance schedule. Who approves the maintenance schedule?
The Minister
171
When can the Minister authorize an operator to deviate from the requirements of the maintenance schedule?
When the operator submits a request in writing which demonstrates that the deviation will not affect aviation safety
172
What should be done before taking off in an aircraft that has been subjected to any abnormal occurence?
Inspect the aircraft for damange. Can be done by the PIC if it does not require disassembly
173
What technical records should be kept by the owner in respect of the aircraft?
Journey log
Seperate technical record for the airframe, each installed engine, and each variable-pitch propeller
174
How long should the owner of an aircraft retain every entry in a journey log?
1 year
175
When can the operator take off in an aircraft without carrying the journey log on board?
It is not planned that the aircraft will land and shut down at any location other than the point of departure
176
What should also be delivered when transferring the title of an aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance to another person?
All the technical records that relate to that aeronautical product
177
When can weapons, ammunition, or other equipment designed for use in war be carried on board an aircraft?
The aircraft is a Canadian aircraft, or when authorized by the Minister
178
What does 606.02 state about liability insurance?
No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless proof of liability insurance is carried on board
