Air Law Flashcards

Understanding the rules of the air

1
Q
1. With reference to the appropriate EASA or National document(s), state the rules of the air with regard to: 
• Collision avoidance
• Right of way in the air
• Right of way on the ground
• Flight in the vicinity of an aerodrome
• Landing and taking off
• Lights to be displayed
• Low flying
A
  • Collision avoidance *- The commander of any aircraft must avoid collision with any other vehicle always.
  • Right of way in the air *- Constant bearing - whoever has the other AC on their right must give way and pass behind.
  • Right of way on the ground *- AC taking off, landing and those towing have right of way. If two vehicles converging - same as air rule. Vehicles must turn right to avoid collisions and those who have the other aircraft on their right have the right of way. Aircraft being overtaken have right of way.
  • Flight in the vicinity of an aerodrome *- The priority of all vehicles on an aerodrome is as follows - Aircraft landing, Aircraft taking off, Vehicles towing aircraft, Aircraft taxiing, Other Vehicles.
  • Landing and taking off *- Aircraft landing or on final approach with clearance to land have the right of way over other aircraft in flight or on the ground.
  • Lights to be displayed *- Steady green on starboard wingtip, shining 110 degrees ahead to back left, Steady red on port wingtip, shining 110 degrees ahead to back right, Steady white nav tail light shining 70 degrees on either side of dead astern. Flashing red anti-col light shining in all directions, high intensity white strobe lights positioned on both wing tips.
  • Low flying *- An aircraft must maintain an altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
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2
Q
  1. Define QFE, QNH, RPS and Standard Pressure Setting (1013) and explain the practical use of these various altimeter settings for a typical cross-country flight (VFR and/or IFR) in different classes of airspace.
A
  • QFE = pressure setting which measures AC distance above ground level. Two types of QFE; Airfield QFE - measured at the highest point of the airfield * Touchdown QFE - measured at the touchdown point of the runway, used for precision approaches. A pilot would set airfield QFE when flying circuits at uncontrolled airfield (Class G) to maintain positive height agl. Also when performing a precision IFR approach.
  • QNH = local pressure setting, measures ACs altitude above MSL (mean sea level) and therefore airfield elevation. There are two types of QNH; Airfield QNH and Regional QNH. QNH is programmed for departure from controlled airfield an enroute XC to maintain safe seperation at lower alts.
  • RPS = regional pressure setting. The Regional Pressure Setting is a forecast of the lowest QNH value within an altimeter setting region. The values which are made available hourly for the period H + 1 to H + 2, are given in whole millibars.
  • 1013 hectopascals / millibars refers to the pressure of the ISA (international standard atmosphere) at sea level. A pilot would program the altimeter to the RPS when flying en-route on a cross country leg so as to ensure safe terrain separation at all time.
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3
Q
  1. Define height, altitude, flight level, transition altitude and transition level. Explain when and where it is appropriate to be flying by reference to height, altitude and flight levels.
A
  • Height = measured distance agl.
  • Altitude = measured distance above the local pressure setting or altitude above mean sea level.
  • FL = measured pressure level above the 1013 hPa millibar datum.
  • Transition Altitude = The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes.
  • Transition Level. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
  • Transition Layer. The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.
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4
Q
  1. With reference to an appropriate chart or document, explain the classification and extent of controlled and uncontrolled airspace in the UK.
A

Class A = only IFR flying is permitted. It is the most strictly regulated airspace where pilots must comply with ATC instructions at all times. Aircraft are separated from all other traffic and the users of this airspace are mainly major airlines and business jets.

Class C. Class C airspace in the UK extends from Flight Level (FL) 195 (19,500 feet) to FL 600 (60,000 feet). Both IFR and Visual Flight Rules (VFR) flying is permitted in this airspace but pilots require clearance to enter and must comply with ATC instructions.

Class D - is for IFR + VFR flying. An ATC clearance is needed and compliance with ATC instructions is mandatory. Control areas around aerodromes are typically class D and a speed limit of 250 knots applies if the aircraft is below FL 100 (10,000 feet).

Class E - is for IFR + VFR use. IFR AC require ATC clearance and compliance with ATC is mandatory for separation. VFR traffic does not require clearance to enter class E airspace but must comply with ATC .

Class F - removed in 2014

Class G - aircraft may fly when and where they like, subject to a set of simple rules. Pilots take full responsibility for their own safety, although they can ask for help.

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5
Q
  1. State the dimensions of an ATZ and MATZ and explain the practical considerations for piloting an aeroplane through or in the vicinity of, the airspace associated with an ATZ and/or a MATZ.
A
An ATZ is the airspace around certain types of aerodrome. 
They adopt the class of airspace in which they are located. An aircraft must not enter an ATZ unless the commander has the permission of the ATC unit. If it doesn’t have an ATC unit, the commander must obtain information from the Airfield Information Service (AFIS) or Air/Ground (A/G) radio station to enable safe flight within the ATZ.

•The ATZ extends from 0-2000ft agl, radius 2nm.

A MATZ is the airspace around certain types of military aerodrome.
When two or more military aerodromes are within 10 nm of each other they will have a Combined Military Air Traffic Zone (CMATZ). A MATZ has a 5nm radius from the mid-point of the longest runway. It extends vertically from surface to 3000ft agl. Some MATZs have stubs that extend a further 5nm from the edge of the MATZ in line with the approach to the main runway, they extend from 1000ft agl to 3000ft agl.

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6
Q
  1. With reference to an appropriate chart or document, describe the lateral and vertical dimensions of a control zone (CTZ) and control area (CTA). Explain the practical considerations for piloting an aeroplane through or in the vicinity of a CTA and/or a CTZ.
A

CTZ
Control Zones (CTZ). Aerodrome Control Zones afford protection to aircraft within the immediate vicinity of aerodromes.
• A control zone is the airspace around certain aerodromes, it is marked on a 1:250,000 chart as a thick dashed blue line.
•It extends from ground level to a specified altitude or flight level. In this case surface to FL 85 at the Northern end and surface to FL 105 at the Southern end.
•Its lateral dimension will be at least 5nm either side of the extended centre lines.
•Radar control is provided to all traffic in a CTZ.

CTA

Control Areas (CTA). Control Areas are situated above the Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) and afford protection over a larger area to a specified upper limit.
•A control area is an area of airspace that is usually used to link a number of aerodromes to airways, CTAs are also marked on a 1:250,000 chart as a thick square dotted blue line.
•It extends vertically from a specified base altitude or flight level to an upper limit which is marked as a flight level.
•Particularly busy CTAs such as Daventry are Class A, most others are Class D.
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7
Q
  1. State the visual and instrument flight rules (VFR), (IFR) as they apply outside of controlled airspace and explain the relevance of each for the typical private pilot.
A

VFR
At or above FL100: 8km flight visibility, 1500m horizontally from cloud, 1000ft vertically from cloud.
Below FL100: 5km flight visibility, 1500m horizontally from cloud, 1000ft vertically from cloud
At or below 3000ft: As per below FL100…or…, Fixed wing aircraft need 5 km visibility; clear of cloud and in sight of the surface, fixed wing aircraft operating at 140kt or less: 1500m flight visibility; clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
These rules are exceptionally important to a PPL pilot, as they will be flying in VFR conditions, and they must understand where they are allowed to fly, and what the relevant conditions are. This table allows them to decide on the flight conditions and whether they will be able to fly or not.
IFR
• When a pilot is flying outside of controlled airspace, but is IFR, they will still be under control. The service provided is ATSOCAS (Air Traffic Service outside Controlled Airspace).
• ATSOCAS gives 4 different types of service: Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction and Procedural. Dependant on the type of aircraft, this will determine the service offered.
• IFR for a PPL is more about understanding the procedures, as it is unlikely a PPL will be IFR rated to begin with,

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8
Q
  1. With reference to suitable documents, explain the conditions required for flight in accordance with VFR/VMC for a PPL on a typical X-Country Flight.
A

Typically a PPL flying a VMC X-Country route, will fly below FL100. Therefore:
Below FL100: 5km flight visibility, 1500m horizontally from cloud, 1000ft vertically from cloud
At or below 3000ft: As per below FL100…or…, Fixed wing aircraft need 5 km visibility; clear of cloud and in sight of the surface, fixed wing aircraft operating at 140kt or less: 1500m flight visibility; clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.

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9
Q
  1. With reference to suitable documents, explain the requirements for a pilot to operate at night (with & without passengers)
A

The night rating must be a minimum 5-hour course which includes 3 hours of dual flight, 2 hours of solo flight and 5 take-offs / landings as a pilot in command. The night rating does not expire, however in order to carry passengers at night you must have performed one take-off/landing at night in the preceding 90 days.

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10
Q
  1. Demonstrate the procedure for calculating the onset of official night time
A

• Using the Air Almanac, interpolate by choosing the appropriate location.

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11
Q
  1. With reference to a suitable document, explain the circumstances in which a pilot (with or without an IMC, IR restricted, en-route IR or instrument rating) may operate in accordance with the instrument flight rules and when a pilot may operate in instrument meteorological conditions.
A

• Special VFR is a subcategory of VFR flight. Permission to operate under Special VFR within a Control Zone, in meteorological conditions not meeting VMC minima, is given to a flight by means of an Air Traffic Control clearance. Such traffic is effectively also Controlled VFR.

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12
Q
  1. Explain the meaning of the terms “safety altitude” and “minimum safe altitude” (MSA). Explain the relevance of safety altitude and/or MSA for a VFR flight.
A

The Safety Altitude is the altitude at which the tallest obstacle reaches within 5nm either side of an aircrafts track. Aircraft must not fly under this altitude at any point during the relevant en-route leg so as to avoid potential collision with said obstacle.

The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) is the lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 300 m (1000 ft.) above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (25 NM) radius centred on a radio navigation aid. Sometimes the MSA can be taken as Minimum Safe Altitude.

Minimum Safe Altitude is a generic expression, used in various cases to denote an altitude below which it is unsafe to fly owing to presence of terrain or obstacles. An ICAO definition of a term “minimum safe altitude” as such does not exist. The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) is found on the plan view of: Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP), Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR) charts.

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13
Q
  1. Explain the relevance of and how to calculate the minimum safe altitude for a flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
A

• To calculate the MSA for a flight, you would create a ‘corridor’ 5nm either side of your track. On each section of the track you would choose the highest obstacle within this ‘corridor’, and add 1000ft to that height. In the case of the highest obstacle being terrain, you add a further 300ft (technically 299ft) to that height. This is due to legislation in the UK that a person may erect a structure no larger than 299ft without permission. The reason we need to know this, is for the safety factor of knowing our obstacle clearance during IFR flight. It lets the pilot know the lowest possible altitude they may fly in that sector and remain out of danger from CFIT.

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14
Q
  1. With reference to a suitable document, explain the privileges and limitations of the light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), private pilot licence (PPL) [or where applicable, the commercial pilot licence (CPL)]. Explain how those privileges and limitations are amended by the inclusion of:
A

• Most basic pilot licence is the LAPL
- only use this licence in Europe. For aeroplanes, this licence is limited to SEP up to 2,000kg & max 4 PAX (inc. PIC). VFR only.
- Need around 100 of theory and 25 hours of flight instruction + medical Class 2 or LAPL medical required.
Can credit LAPL towards PPL.

  • With PPL you are only limited by the category of aircraft you are licenced to fly (A: aeroplane, B: balloon, H: helicopters or S: sailplanes). You can fly with this licence in an aircraft anywhere in the world. All flights must be done in good weather conditions (otherwise you need an instrument rating, see below). The restriction is that the purpose should be non-commercial (i.e. non-remuneration or hire). To get the PPL you will need around 100 hours of theory and 45 hours of flight instruction. If you already have a LAPL: You get credit for the theory which can reduce the hours of theory to as low as no training and examination at all.
  • The minimum age to get a Commercial Pilots License CPL is 18 and you will need to hold a Part MED Class 1 Medical Certificate.

If you hold a CPL you can, on the appropriate aircraft category:

  1. Exercise all the privileges of the holder of a LAPL and a PPL. (To exercise LAPL privileges you will need a LAPL licence)
  2. act as pilot in command (PIC) or co-pilot of any aircraft operations other than commercial air transport
  3. act as PIC in commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft, subject to some restrictions
  4. Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport subject to some restrictions.
  • Training requirements differ depending on the aircraft category and training route you take. These are set out below.
  • However, in all cases, you must fulfil the class or type rating requirements for the aircraft you take your CPL skill test on. For example, if you are taking the skill test on a multi-engine piston aeroplane (MEP) class, you must have met the relevant flight training requirements.
  • You must successfully complete theoretical exams and flight instruction at an approved training organisation (ATO).

If you have one of the licences above, you can extend your capabilities by getting a night rating which allows to fly at night in good weather conditions (i.e. VFR) or an Instrument rating which allows to fly in low visibility conditions (i.e. IFR instrument flight rules).

For the Night Rating you need 5 hours of theory and 5 hours of flight training.
For the Instrument Rating requirements are different for single engine and multi-engine aircraft. With an IR you can fly under IFR conditions during take-off, en-route and landing. You will need to complete 200 hours of theory and at least 50 hours (single engine) or 55 hours (multi-engine) flight training.

En-route instrument rating: This rating allows you to fly in instrument meteorological conditions only en-route to your destinations. Weather conditions must be good at departure and arrival airport. This rating can be useful for example in cases where en-route the weather conditions give limited visibility or the route might take you above the cloud base. This is a rating that will give you the opportunity to fly even if the weather is bad. It will also give you a good initial understanding of flying under IFR and may at a later stage be used to upgrade to a full Instrument Rating (IR).

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15
Q
  1. With reference to a suitable chart and appropriate document(s), explain the meaning of various airspace restrictions and other areas where activities hazardous to flight may occur including:
A
  • Restricted: Defined airspace with restricted AC operation according to specified conditions.
  • Prohibited: An airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
  • Danger areas: Airspace contains potentially activities, dangerous to the flight of an aircraft, time pf activity may vary under notification.
  • Areas of Intense Air Activity: Airspace within which the intensity of civil and/or military flying is exceptionally high or where aircraft, either singly or in combination with others, regularly participate in unusual manoeuvres.
  • High Intensity Radio Transmission Areas: Airspace of defined dimensions within which there is radio energy of an intensity which may cause interference with and on rare occasion’s damage to communication and navigation equipment.
  • Glider, Hang Gliding and Parascending Sites: Hang Gliding and/or parascending may take place from sites which, because of the low speed characteristics of hang-gliders, paragliders and parascenders and the difficulty of seeing them in certain conditions, are listed as hazards to other airspace users.
  • Free-fall Parachuting Drop Zones: Intensive free-fall parachuting may be conducted up to FL 150 at any Drop Zones and in several Danger Areas. Listing of a Drop Zone does not imply any right to a parachutist to use that Drop Zone. Some Government and licensed aerodromes where regular parachuting takes place are included in the list but parachuting may also take place during daylight hours at and Government or licensed aerodrome. Drop Zone activity information may be available from certain Air Traffic Service Units (ATSUs) but pilots are advised to assume a Drop Zone is active if no information can be obtained.
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16
Q
  1. Demonstrate how to plan and conduct a flight to operate in the vicinity of, or through, the airspace of a designated danger area.
A

• Using chart danger area key schedule + unscheduled with contact * radio information provided for more information and PPR, AIP and Notams, find out relevant information regarding a Danger Area transit.