Air Law Flashcards
0
Q
For aeroplanes, aerial work involves:
CARs 702.01
A
- the carriage on board of persons other than flight crew members
- the towing of objects
- the dispersal of products
1
Q
What type of air services are described by the 702.XX Canadian Aviation Regulations?
A
Aerial Work
2
Q
What type of air services are described by the 703.XX Canadian Aviation Regulations?
A
Air Taxi
3
Q
What type of air services are described by the 704.XX Canadian Aviation Regulations?
A
Commuter Operations
4
Q
What type of air services are described by the 705.XX Canadian Aviation Regulations?
A
Airlines
5
Q
What is the Arctic Control Area (ACA)?
A
Controlled airspace within the Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) at FL270 and above.
6
Q
What is Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA)?
A
All airspace over the Canadian land mass, the Canadian Arctic and the Canadian archipelago, and over areas of the high seas.
7
Q
What is a control zone? (CZ)
A
Controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the surface of the earth up to and including 3000 ft AAE unless otherwise specified.
8
Q
What is low level airspace? (LLA)
A
All airspace within the Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) below 18000 ft ASL.
9
Q
Air Taxi (703.01) includes in an air transport service or aerial work operations, what type of aircraft?
A
- single-engined aircraft
- multi-engined aircraft, other than a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, with a MCTOW of 19,000 pounds (8618 kg) or less and a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of nine or less
10
Q
Commuter operations (704.01) may include what type of aircraft?
A
- a multi-engined aeroplane with a MCTOW of 19,000 pounds (8618 kg) or less and a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats of 10 to 19 inclusive.
- a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane with a maxim zero fuel weight of 50000 pounds (22680 kg) or less and for which a Canadian type certificate has been issued authorizing the transport of not more than 19 passengers
11
Q
Airlines (705.01) includes what type of aircraft?
A
An aeroplane, other than one operating under Subpart 4, with a MCTOW of over 19000 lbs (8618 kg) or for which a Canadian type certificate allows carriage of 20 or more passengers
12
Q
The perimeter of an unpaved runway must be marked with pyramid or cone-shaped makers that are:
A
- Evenly spaced
- Visible from both the ground and the air
- Not more than 300 feet apart along each side of the runway
13
Q
Markers along an unpaved runway must be what colour/pattern for certified aerodromes?
A
Striped orange and white.
14
Q
Markers along an unpaved runway must be what colour/pattern for aerodromes?
A
Solid orange
15
Q
What distance must aircraft hold short from the edge of a runway if there is no hold-short line present?
A
200 feet from the edge of the runway.
16
Q
Broad yellow solid and dashed lines across a taxiway indicate where an airplane must what?
A
Hold-short until cleared for takeoff or further taxi.
17
Q
What side of a hold-short line should an aircraft hold on?
A
The solid line side.
18
Q
If you have landed, where may you hold on a hold short line?
A
You may cross the solid line and hold on the dashed side until getting clearance to taxi.
19
Q
What signifies that a runway or taxiway is unserviceable?
A
A large white or yellow “X” at least 20 feet in length displayed at each end of the taxiway or runway.
20
Q
At night, the unserviceable portions of a runway or taxiway are marked by what?
A
Red lights
21
Q
A wind sock will fly horizontal at what speed or higher?
A
15 knots
22
Q
A windsock will hang 30 degrees below horizontal at what speed?
A
6 knots
23
Q
A windsock is required at each end of a runway of at least what length?
A
4000 feet
24
At night, taxiways are indicated by what?
Blue lights
25
At night, the runway threshold is indicated by what?
Green lights from the front that when viewed from the back are red.
26
At night runways are indicated how?
By two parallel rows of white lights or reflective markers visible at least 2NM in all directions.
27
The standard circuit is performed at what altitude and in which direction?
1000 feet AGL and left turns.
28
Except for the purpose of takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall not overly an aerodrome at what minima?
At a height of less than 2000 feet AGL or;
1000 feet above the circuit.
29
No person shall operate a vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft except:
In accordance with the operator of the airport.
30
The Canada Flight Supplement or CFS contains what information?
It contains information on all registered and certified aerodromes in Canada.
31
The CFS is updated how often?
Every 56 days.
32
The Canadian Domestic Airspace is divided into how many classes of airspace?
7 classes, A through G
33
High Level Airspace in the Canadian Domestic Airspace includes which control areas and what altitudes?
The Southern Control Area: From 18,000 to 60,000 feet.
The Northern Control Area: From 23,000 to 60,000 feet.
The Arctic Control Area: From 27,000 to 60,000 feet.
34
What defines Class A airspace?
- High-Level Airspace, IFR only
- Pilot must be IFR rated.
- Aircraft must be IFR certified.
- A functioning mode C transponder and a pressure sensitive altimeter are also required.
- Clearance required to enter Class A airspace.
35
What defines Class B Airspace?
- Mid-level Airspace from above 12,500' and up to but not including 18,000'.
- A clearance, VHF Radio, navigation equipment and transponder are required prior to entering and to operate in Class B airspace.
- IFR and CVFR (controlled VFR) only
- Can be a Control Area or a Control Zone
36
What defines Class C Airspace?
- Both IFR and VFR are permitted in this airspace.
- Both IFR and VFR need a clearance to enter Class C Airspace.
- Requires a Mode C Transponder.
- Can be a Control Area or a Control Zone.
37
What defines Class D Airspace?
- IFR needs a clearance to enter.
- VFR must establish two-way radio communication prior to entering.
- May require a transponder. (Charts and CFS will indicate if one is required.)
- Can be a Control Zone or a Control Area.
38
What defines Class E Airspace?
- No special requirements for VFR in Class E airspace but IFR needs a clearance.
- Controlled by an Area Control Centre.
- Mandatory Frequency (MF) procedures must be followed if it is a Control Zone.
39
What defines Class F Airspace?
- Special use airspace with two types: Restricted and Advisory.
- IFR are not permitted in or cleared through by ATC unless the pilot has obtained permission with the user agency, has an Altitude Reservation or is conducting a Contact or Visual approach.
- Can look up different Restricted and Advisory airspaces in the designated airspace handbook.
40
What does the following Area Activity Code signify: A
Aerobatic activities
41
What does the following Area Activity Code signify: H
Hang Glider activities
42
What does the following Area Activity Code signify: S
Soaring activity
43
What does the following Area Activity Code signify: T
Flight Training activity
44
What does the following Area Activity Code signify: P
Parachute activities
45
What does the following Area Activity Code signify: M
Military activity
46
What does the following Area Activity Code signify: F
Flight Test Area
47
What happens to the airspace around a forest fire?
It instantly becomes Class F restricted airspace. This airspace extends from the surface up to 3000 feet AGL with a 5NM radius from the fire. Forest fire area information with be included in NOTAMs.
48
What defines Class G Airspace?
- Uncontrolled airspace
- No traffic separation.
- Low level air routes are included in this type of airspace.
49
Which types of airspace are considered Transponder Airspace in that they require a transponder?
All Class A, B and C airspace requires a transponder.
Class D and E airspace may require a transponder.
50
What is controlled airspace?
This is Airspace within which Air Traffic Control (ATC) service is provided, and within which some or all aircraft may be subject to Air Traffic Control.
51
Define a control area?
- Controlled airspace.
- Provide additional controlled airspace to handle IFR traffic.
- Extends upwards from 2,200 feet AGL up to 18,000 feet ASL.
52
What is the VFR weather minima for UNCONTROLLED airspace BELOW 1,000 ft AGL?
- 2SM visibility day
- 3SM visibility night
- Clear of cloud
53
What is the VFR weather minima for UNCONTROLLED airspace ABOVE 1,000 ft AGL?
- 1SM visibility day
- 3SM visibility night
- 2 000 ft horizontally from cloud
- 500 ft vertically from cloud
54
What is the VFR weather minima for a CONTROL ZONE?
- 3SM visibility
- 500 ft vertically from cloud
- 1NM horizontally from cloud
- 500 ft AGL minimum altitude
55
What is the VFR weather minima for all CONTROLLED airspace other than a control zone
- 3SM visibility
- 1NM horizontally from cloud
- 500 ft vertically from cloud
56
What is Special VFR?
Special VFR grants permission for a VFR aircraft to proceed into a Control Zone when the weather is IFR.
57
What are the requirements for Special VFR (SVFR)?
- Two-way radio communication must be available.
- The pilot must request for Special VFR from ATC.
- The aircraft must remain clear of cloud and maintain a minimum of 1SM visibility (1/2SM for helicopters)
- The pilot must have the ground in sight at all times.
- Day VFR aircraft may request SVFR to arrive or depart the CZ.
- Night SVFR is limited to arriving aircraft.
58
What are the CARs concerning reckless or negligent operation of aircraft?
(CARs 602.01)
No one is permitted to operate an aircraft in a way that would endanger any person or property.
59
What do the CARs state regarding the fitness of flight crew members?
No operator of an aircraft will require any person to act as a flight crew member and no person shall act as a flight crew member that is:
- Suffering or is likely to suffer from fatigue.
- Otherwise unfit to perform properly the person's duties as a flight crew member.
60
What is the definition of Day or Daylight within air law?
"Day" is defined to be the time between the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.
61
What can a displaced threshold, marked by a line across the runway with arrowheads pointing to it, be used for?
Taxiing
62
Recording systems, including computer records and microfiche, that do not comprise entries on paper may be used to comply with the record-keeping requirements of these regulations if:
A copy of the records contained in the recording systems can be printed on paper and provided to the Minister on reasonable notice given by the minister.
63
What are an aircraft's critical surfaces and may an aircraft takeoff or be operated with an frost, snow or ice on those surfaces?
Critical surfaces: wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellors, horizontal stabilizers, any other stabilizing surface, the upper area of the fuselage (on aircraft with a rear mounted engine)
No aircraft may takeoff or be operated with frost, snow or ice on any critical surface.
64
What is the minimum altitude and distance an aircraft may fly when over a built-up area?
1,000 feet over the highest obstacle in a radius of 2,000 feet horizontally.
(1,000 feet in a radius of 500 feet for helicopters)
65
What is the minimum altitude and distance an aircraft may fly over any person, vehicle or structure?
500 feet from any person, vehicle or structure
66
No person operating an aircraft with a passenger on board shall conduct aerobatic maneuvers unless the pilot-in-command of the aircraft has engaged in:
- At least 10 hours dual flight instruction conducting aerobatic maneuvers "or" 20 hours conducting aerobatic maneuvers; and
- At least 1 hour of conducting aerobatic maneuvers in the preceding 6 months.
67
What is an ATC Clearance?
An air traffic control clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed with a certain action.
Acceptance of an ATC clearance must be acknowledged by transmission of the aircraft callsign.
68
When given an ATC clearance with a hold short instruction, what must the pilot of an aircraft do?
Read back and comply with all hold short instructions, safety permitted.
69
When may a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance, if ever?
Whenever a clearance is accepted, it must be complied with unless an emergency is encountered in which case you may deviate from the CARs to the extent necessary.
70
If a pilot is unsure as to the exact meaning of any part of an ATC clearance, what must he do?
The pilot must ask for clarification before accepting the clearance.
71
What is an ATC instruction and how must they be handled?
An ATC instruction is a directive that must be acknowledged and complied with by the PIC.
All ATC instructions must be complied with, safety permitting.
72
What are the airspeed limitations for aircraft operating below 10,000 feet ASL?
Aircraft shall not be operated at an airspeed over 250 knots IAS.
73
Below 3,000 feet AGL and within 10NM of a controlled airport, what airspeed limitations are there?
No person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed greater than 200 knots unless authorized to do so in an ATC clearance.
74
What airspeed limitations are there regarding supersonic flight?
No person shall operate an aircraft at a true Mach number of 1 or greater.
75
What are VFR cruising altitudes and how are they assigned?
- Mandatory cruising altitudes start at altitudes above 3,000' AGL.
- Based on magnetic track in the Southern Domestic Airspace and true track in the Northern Domestic Airspace.
- For tracks from 000 degrees to 179 degrees, use odd thousands plus 500 feet.
- For tracks from 180 degrees to 359 degrees, use even thousands plus 500 feet
76
What is the Standard Pressure Region?
- Includes the Northern Domestic Airspace and all airspace above 18,000' (High Level Airspace)
- The altimeter is set to 29.92"Hg for cruise flight in this region.
- Pilots must reset the altimeters after entering and before leaving the Standard Pressure Region
77
When climbing into the Standard Pressure Region from the Altimeter Setting Region, when must you change the altimeter?
Change the altimeter immediately after ascending through 18,000 feet into the Standard Pressure Region.
78
When descending out of the Standard Pressure Region to the Altimeter Setting Region, when must you change the altimeter and what must you change it to?
The altimeter must be changed just before passing 18,000' into the altimeter setting region and the altimeter must be set to the nearest en route altimeter setting.
79
What is the Altimeter Setting Region?
- This region is all Souther Domestic Airspace up to but not including 18,000' ASL.
- Altimeters must be set to the current altimeter setting or to the elevation of the airport before takeoff.
- In cruise, altimeters should be set to the nearest station along the route of flight. When approaching to land, it should be set to the altimeter setting of the destination airport.
80
What is Flight Time and how is its duration determined?
- Flight time starts as soon as the aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight. Flight time ends as soon as the engine is shut down for the purpose of ending the flight.
- Flight time is what you use to record your accumulated hours in your pilot's logbook.
81
What is Air Time and how is it determined?
- Air time begins once the wheels become airborne, and it ends once the wheels touch the surface again.
- Air time is what is recorded in the Aircraft Journey Logbook and is what is used to determine when maintenance and inspections are due.
82
May an aircraft be flown without the necessary operational and emergency equipment carried on board?
No, it may not.
No person shall operate an aircraft unless the operational and emergency equipment is carried on board.
83
What are the operational and emergency equipment requirements for power driven aircraft?
- Checklist
- Current aeronautical charts and publications covering the route of flight and any diversionary route
- Hand-held fire extinguisher
- Timepiece
- A flashlight available for each crew member (when operating at night)
- A first-aid kit
84
What are the survival equipment requirements for flights over land?
No person shall operate an aircraft over land unless there is carried on board survival equipment, sufficient for the survival on the ground of each person on board given the geographical area, the season of the year and the anticipated seasonal climatic variations, that provides the means for:
- Starting a fire
- Providing shelter
- Providing or purifying water
- Visually signalling distress
85
What are the requirements for the need of life preservers?
No person shall conduct a take-off or a landing on water in an aircraft or operate an aircraft over water beyond a point where the aircraft could reach shore in the event of an engine failure, unless a life preserver, individual floatation device or personal floatation device is carried on board for each person on board.
86
What are the requirements for carrying life rafts aboard single engine aircraft?
No person shall operate over water a single-engine aeroplane or a multi-engine aeroplane that is unable to maintain flight with any engine failed:
- At more than 100 nautical miles, or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable landing site; unless, life rafts are carried on board and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accommodate all of the persons on board.
87
What are the requirements for carrying life rafts aboard multi-engine aircraft?
No person shall operate over water a multi-engine aeroplane that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than 200 nautical miles or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site; unless, life rafts are carried on board and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accommodate all of the persons on board.
88
What Pre-Flight Information must the pilot-in-command be familiar with for a flight?
- The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before commencing a flight, be familiar with the available information that is appropriate to the intended flight.
- The PIC of an aircraft shall, before commencing a flight, be familiar with the available weather information that is appropriate for the intended flight.
89
What authority and responsibility does the PIC have regarding a flight?
- The PIC has the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft.
- It is the PIC's responsibility to ensure the aircraft is in a condition for safe flight.
90
When is a flight plan or flight itinerary required and what is its purpose?
- A flight plan is required any time that a flight goes beyond a 25NM radius from the point of departure. (A flight plan is also necessary to fly to the USA.)
- Main purpose to file flight plan/itinerary is for Search and Rescue (SAR) information.
91
Who is a flight plan and a flight itinerary filed with?
- A flight plan is filed with a FIC/FSS via telephone, in person or via the radio on the published FSS frequency.
- A flight itinerary is filed with a FIC/FSS or a "Responsible Person"
92
Who is a "Responsible Person"?
A "responsible person" is anyone who agrees to notify SAR in case the aircraft becomes overdue.
93
When is an aircraft considered to be overdue?
An aircraft is considered overdue and a search and rescue will commence:
- Within one hour of the overdue time on a flight plan.
- When exceeding the search and rescue time specified in a flight itinerary.
- In all other cases, after 24 hours of the estimated time of arrival.
94
What are the requirements to file an arrival report?
- A pilot should file an arrival report and close the flight plan as soon as possible at the end of a flight.
- After the search and rescue time has passed, a search will begin right away.
- SAR and ATC starts looking as soon as 5 minutes after the expiry time of the flight.
95
What are the contents of an arrival report and how may it be communicated?
- An arrival report shall contain such information as is specified by the Minister in the Canada Flight Supplement.
- If arriving at an airport with a Control Tower, the controller will close your flight plan automatically. (Confirm that it is closed)
- If arriving at a controlled airport with a tower or an uncontrolled airport, an arrival report must be made to an FSS asap, by radio to the FSS a or by phone call to the FIC.
96
What do you do if you suspect an aircraft is overdue?
If you suspect an aircraft is overdue, file an overdue aircraft report by notifying an Air Traffic Control unit, a flight service station, a Community Aerodrome Radio Station or a Rescue Coordination Centre.
Provide, to the best of your knowledge, all of the available information concerning the overdue aircraft.
97
What are the fuel requirements for a VFR FIXED-WING DAY flight?
Enough fuel to fly to the destination aerodrome and then to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
98
What are the fuel requirements for a VFR FIXED-WING NIGHTS flight?
Enough fuel to fly to the destination aerodrome and then to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
99
What are the fuel requirements for an IFR FIXED-WING TURBOPROP flight?
To fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternative aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes.
100
What are the fuel requirements for an IFR FIXED-WING JET flight?
To fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternative aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes.
101
What are the altimeter setting procedures within the altimeter setting region?
- Prior to takeoff, the pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, if that altimeter setting is unavailable, to the elevation of the aerodrome.
- During flight, the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter settings of the nearest station along the route of flight.
- When approaching the aerodrome of intended landing, the altimeter shall be set to the current aerodrome altimeter setting, if available.
102
No person shall operate an aircraft within the Standard Pressure Region unless the aircraft altimeter is set to standard pressure, which is:
29.92"Hg (inches of mercury) or 1013.2 mbs. (Millibars)
103
What must a pilot have visual reference to in order to fly under VFR (Visual Flight Rules)?
The pilot must have visual reference with the ground or water surface at all times.
104
What must a pilot have and what must the minimums be in order to be able to fly Special VFR?
- Authorization must be obtained from the appropriate ATC unit.
- The aircraft must be equipped with a radio.
- Visual contact must be maintained with the ground at all times.
- Flight visibility must not be less than 1SM.
- The aircraft must remain clear of cloud.
105
May SVFR be used for takeoffs and landings during both day and night?
During the day, SVFR can be used for both takeoffs and landings.
At night, SVFR is only permitted for landings.
106
Why is the visibility requirement greater when we are below 1,000' AGL than above it in uncontrolled airspace?
Because you are likely closer to an airport, and/or there are more airplanes likely doing the same thing you are below 1,000' AGL.
107
What is required to fly VFROTT (VFR Over-the-top)?
A VFROTT rating.
108
What are the flight minima for VFROTT?
- Vertical distance from cloud of at least 1,000' must be maintained.
- Where the aircraft is operated between two cloud layers, the vertical distance between layers must be at least 5,000'.
- Flight visibility at the cruising altitude must be at least 5SM.
- Weather at the destination must be forecast to;
= have a sky condition of scattered cloud or clear and,
= A ground visibility of 5SM or greater.
- Also, there should NOT be a forecast of; precipitation, fog, thunderstorms, blowing snow.
- When the forecast used is an Aerodrome Forecast (TAF):
= Requirements stated must persist for the period of 1 hour before till 2 hours after the estimated time of arrival.
- Where a TAF is unavailable and a GFA is used:
= Requirements stated must persist for the period of 1 hour before to 3 hours after the ETA.
109
What are the basic CARs regarding flight in IMC and the use of IFR?
- All pilots operating in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) must operate under IFR rules and in reference to ATC.
- No PIC shall operate an aircraft in IFR flight unless an IFR flight plan has been filed.
- A PIC may file an IFR flight itinerary instead of an IFR flight plan where facilities are inadequate to permit communication, or the flight will remain in part or whole outside controlled airspace. (CARs 602.121)
110
What are the aircraft equipment requirements for IFR?
Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, heading indicator, turn coordinator, altimeter, vertical speed indicator, clock, magnetic compass, engine instruments, communication radio, pitot heat, alternate static, any of at least one of the following:
- VOR/NDB, NDB/NDB, VOR/VOR, GPS/VOR, ADF/GPS
111
What are the aircraft equipment requirements for day VFR flight?
- Radio if operating in a MF or Class A, B, C or D airspace.
- Magnetic compass
- Airspeed indicator
- Sensitive altimeter (two needles)
- Timepiece
- Engine Instruments: Tachometer, Oil Pressure, Oil Temperature, Fuel Gauges, MP Gauge (Manifold pressure gauge, dependant on aircraft)
(Acronym M.A.A.T.E)
112
Can a pilot operate in day VFR flight if any of the equipment requirements is not met? (Magnetic compass, airspeed indicator, altimeter, timepiece, engine instruments)
No, if any of those instruments is not functioning, a pilot may not fly in day VFR flight.
113
What are the equipment requirements for VFR OTT in inclusion to the day VFR equipment?
- Pitot heat and alternate static source.
- Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro)
- Attitude indicator
- Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator
- Radio equipment adequate to permit two-way communication on the appropriate frequencies
- Radio navigation equipment adequate to fly the route flown.
114
What are the power driven aircraft equipment requirements for Night VFR in inclusion to the day VFR equipment requirements?
- Turn and slip/turn coordinator
- Gyroscopic heading indicator (DG)
- Means of illuminating instruments
- Adequate source of electrical energy
- Spare fuses (50% of total) unless breakers are used instead
- Position and collision lights
- With passengers, also:
= Attitude indicator, VSI, OAT gauge, landing light, pitot heat
115
What are the position of the navigation lights on an aircraft?
- Red light on left wing tip
- Green on right wing tip
- White on the tail
116
What colour and function must the anti collision light be?
A flashing white, red or both white/red light.
117
What are the seat and safety belt requirements for aircraft?
No person shall operate an aircraft other than a balloon unless it is equipped with a seat and safety belt for each person on board.
Also, the latches must be metal.
118
What are the restraint system requirements for aircraft?
A restraining system may be used in place of safety belts when:
- A person is carried on a stretcher or an incubator, or other similar device.
- A person is carried for the purposes of parachuting from the aircraft.
119
What are the shoulder harness requirements for aircraft?
- Each front seat or if the aeroplane has a flight deck, all seats on the flight deck must be equipped with a safety belt that includes a shoulder harness.
- An exception are small aircraft manufactured before July 18, 1978.
120
What are the requirements for general use of safety belts and restraints?
- The PIC of an aircraft shall ensure that each person on an aircraft is aware of the operation and direct all passengers to fasten safety belts:
= During movement of the aircraft on the ground/surface
= During takeoff and landing
= Any time during flight that the PIC determines safety belts/harnesses should be fastened.
121
What is an ELT, what is its function and how often must one be inspected?
- An ELT is a transmitter that broadcasts a distress signal in the event of a sudden deceleration (an accident)
- ELT's transmit a siren-like signal on 121.5, 243 and 406 MHz.
- Signals are transmitted to a search and rescue satellite which indicate a search area.
- ELT's must be inspected every 12 months.
122
What are the types of ELT's?
- A or AD: Automatic or Automatic Deploy
- F or AF: Fixed or Automatic Fixed
- AP: Automatic Portable
- P: Personal
- W or S: Water-activated or survival
123
What are the ELT requirements for aircraft?
- All airplanes that are operated more than 25NM from home base require an ELT.
- The only exceptions are: gliders, balloons, ultra-lights, airships, gyro planes, large commercial jets
124
What are the requirements regarding an ELT that is unserviceable?
If an ELT becomes unserviceable, an aircraft may be operated for up to 30 days provided:
- The ELTis removed at the first aerodrome at which repairs or removal can be accomplished.
- An ELT is promptly sent to a maintenance facility.
- A placard has been placed in the cockpit indicating the ELT has been removed and the date of removal.
125
What must a pilot do when a flight is conducted beyond a radius of 25NM from the airport of departure?
The PIC must file an ICAO-standard flight plan or a VFR flight itinerary. Flight plans must be filed with an ATS unit such as a flight service station, flight information centre, or a community aerodrome radio station (CARS). A flight itinerary may be filed with a "responsible person" that will report the aircraft as overdue when the reported total time of the flight has elapsed.
126
For any flight to or from a military aerodrome, what must a pilot do?
A VFR flight plan must be filed for any flight to or from a military aerodrome and prior permission for landing is required before landing at a military aerodrome.
127
What must a pilot do for any planned transborder flight or for any flight that will transit a Air Defence Identification Zone?
A flight plan must be filed for any transborder flight or flight that is planned to transit an ADIZ.
128
What must be done whenever the transport of explosives or dangerous goods are planned?
Prior permission from the Minister of Transport must be obtained before the transport of any explosives or dangerous goods is carried out.
