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ATPL - Module 2b > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

Public vs Private International Law

A

Public International Law govern how states behave.
Private International Law governs how individuals act, their responsibilities and liabilities (including corporations).

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2
Q

Territorial waters definition

A

Within 12NM of shore.

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3
Q

Suzerainty

A

Authority of a dominant State over a subordinate State.

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4
Q

Convention which ratified ICAO and its objectives

A

Chicago Convention 1944

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5
Q

Chicago Convention Annexes
1, 2, 6, 15

A

1) Licensing
2) RotA
6) Operation of Aircraft
15) Aeronautical Information Services

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6
Q

3 sections of PANS

A

PANS-ABC: ICAO Abbreviations & Codes
PANS-OPS: Aircraft operations
PANS-ATM: Air traffic management

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7
Q

3 sub-sections of PANS-OPS

A

Vol 1: Flight procedures
Vol 2: Construction of visual and instrument procedures
Vol 3: Aircraft operating procedures

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8
Q

SARPs

A

Standards and Recommended Procedures, part of the 19 annexes to the Chicago Convention.
Member states are expected to incorporate the standards into their aviation law, and recommended to adopt the recommended practices.

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9
Q

PANS

A

PANS (procedures for air navigation services) don’t have the same weight as the SARPs, but in practice these are the rules that countries follow.
There is no requirement to inform ICAO from deviation from PANS.

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10
Q

SUPPs

A

These are regional updates to the PANS which amend the SOPs in the PANS to cater for different needs of regions of the world.

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11
Q

Requirement for state unable to comply with annexes or SARPs

A

Advise ICAO in writing and publish deviations in their AIP.

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12
Q

ECAC
- Stands for
- Members
- Purpose

A

European Civil Aviation Conference
44 members including all 28 EU states, 31 of 32 EASA states and all 41 Eurocontrol states.
Promotes development of safe, efficient and sustainable European air transport.

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13
Q

Eurocontrol

A

Coordinates and plans ATC for all 41 states across Europe.

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14
Q

SES

A

Single European Sky.
First version (SES 1) organised European airspace into traffic based blocks, rather than on a country basis.
SES 2 is performance oriented, aims to improve economic, financial and environmental performance of air space.

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15
Q

EASA

A

European Aviation Safety Agency
Responsible for aviation safety through setting standards, carrying out inspections of member states and providing technical expertise, training and research.

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16
Q

EASA hard law vs soft law

A

Hard law: Regulations, Delegated Acts, Implementing acts, Implementing rules

Soft law: Certification Specifications (CS), Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC), Guidance Material (GM)

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17
Q

Certification Specifications (CS)

A

Developed in consultation with industry bodies and interested parties, these must be followed in order to achieve regulatory approval of certification.

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18
Q

Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC)

A

Serves as a way of meeting requirements set out in basic regulation. Not binding, other means may be used to meet the basic regulation. Competent National Aviation Authorities (NAAs) can come up with their own AMC.

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19
Q

EASA documents
- CS 23 and CS 25
- CS 27 and CS 29
- PART-FCL
- PART-CAT

A

CS 23/25: Airworthiness requirements for small and large aircraft
CS 27/29: Airworthiness requirements for small and large rotorcraft
PART-FCL: Flight crew licensing
PART-CAT: Commercial Air Transportation

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20
Q

EASA definition
- Commercial Operation

A

Operation of aircraft in return for remuneration (or other valuable consideration), which is either available to the public or performed under a contract where the customer has no control over the operator.

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21
Q

EASA definition
- Complex motor powered aircraft

A

i) Aeroplane either over 5700kg, OR certificated for over 19 passengers, OR certificated for minimum crew of at least 2 pilots, OR equipped with turbojet or turboprop engines.
ii) Helicopter either over 3175kg, OR certificated for over 9 passengers, OR certificated for minimum crew of at least 2 pilots.
iii) Rotor tilt aircraft

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22
Q

ICAO definition
- Competency element & unit

A

Competency element: A task that has a triggering element and terminating event that defines its limits, and an observable outcome.
Competency unit: A discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.

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23
Q

ICAO definition
- Co-pilot

A

Licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC, but excluding a pilot on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.

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24
Q

IATA

A

International Air Transport Association
Association of air transport operators dealing with issues outside of ICAO such as:
- Airport slots
- Commercial Fuel Policy
- Consumer protection
- Environmental policy
- Unruly passengers
- Security
- Taxation

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25
Q

SERA - who is covered?

A

Airspace users and aircraft either operating into/within/out of EU or bearing nationality/registration marks of a member state of the union (although rules of territory flying through take precedence).

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26
Q

Status of ICAO standards

A

ICAO publishes standards and recommended practices which states can opt out of, or adopt in full.

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27
Q

1st & 2nd freedoms

A

Aircraft of any signatory power can fly over territory of any other signatory, or land there for technical reasons (e.g. refuelling).
Created under the International Air Transport TRANSIT Agreement in the Chicago convention.

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28
Q

3rd, 4th & 5th freedoms

A

Allows carriage of traffic (passengers & freight):
- from state of registration to any other signatory state (3rd)
- from any signatory state to the state of registration (4th)
- from any signatory state to any other signatory state (5th)
Created under the International Air Transport Agreement

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29
Q

Sovereignty vs freedom of the air

A

States retain sovereignty over airspace and can deny entry at any time. This overrides freedoms of the air.

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30
Q

Cabotage

A

Operating commercially entirely within a single signatory state (other than state of registration). This isn’t included in the 5 freedoms and can be unlawful.
i.e. domestic flight

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31
Q

The 8th freedom

A

Consecutive cabotage
Members states within the EU permitted to carry passengers or cargo between two points in one foreign country.
[Not part of chicago convention]

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32
Q

Structure of ICAO

A

The Assembly: 191 contracting states, meets every 3 years.
Council: 36 states for a 3 year term. The council adopts SARPs.
Air Navigation Commission: 19 individuals (nominated by states, appointed by council) considers, finalises and recommends SARPs and PANS to the council.
Assembly = Sovereign body
Council = GOVERNING body

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33
Q

ICAO regions

A

Provision for air navigation facilities and ground services split up into regions:
- SAM - South America
- NAM - North America
- EUR - European
- ASIA - Asia
- MID - Middle East
- CAR - Caribbean
- NAT - North Atlantic
- PAC - Pacific
- AFI - African-Indian Ocean

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34
Q

Article
- Right of non-scheduled flight
- What states can demand

A

Civilian aircraft not engaged in scheduled international services (i.e. GA) can fly over states territory and land for non-traffic purposes without prior permission.
State being overflown may require aircraft to land.
States can define prescribed routes over inaccessible regions or where air navigation facilities are limited, or require permission for such flights.

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35
Q

Article
- Scheduled air services

A

Scheduled international air services require approval of states they operate over or into.

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36
Q

Article
- Cabotage

A

States can refuse permission for cabotage to aircraft of other contracting states.
However they can’t enter into contracts allowing it exclusively to any other single state or airline of a state.

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37
Q

Article
- Landing at customs airport

A

Unless permitted to cross a state without landing, all aircraft entering territory must land and depart at customs airport.
States must publish and transmit to ICAO details of their customs airports.

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38
Q

Article
- Applicability of Air Regulations

A

Aircraft operating in a states territory must comply with the states laws and regulations.

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39
Q

Article
Rules of the Air
- responsibility of states
- restriction on national RotA
- high seas

A

States must prosecute breaches of regulations of aircraft in their territory.
They must ensure their regulations comply with ICAO SARPs to “greatest extent possible”.
Over high seas ICAO SARPs apply.

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40
Q

Article
- Search of Aircraft

A

Appropriate authorities of states are allowed (without undue delay) to search aircraft of other states on landing or departure and to inspect certificates or documents prescribed in the convention.

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41
Q

Article
- Nationality
- Dual Registration

A

Aircraft nationality is nation in which they are registered.
Aircraft can change nation of registration but can’t be registered in 2 nations.

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42
Q

Allocation of registration marks

A

International Telecommunications Union (ITU) allocates codes to ICAO.
ICAO distributes to states of registration.
State of registration allocate to aircraft.

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43
Q

Article
- Report of Registrations

A

States must supply to ICAO or other states information regarding registration and ownership of any aircraft registered there.

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44
Q

Article
- Facilitation of formalities
- Customs & immigration procedures

A

States agree to facilitate and expedite navigation of aircraft between contracting states and avoid unnecessary delays, especially in administration of laws around immigration, quarantine, customs and clearance.
States should establish (as far as possible) customs & immigration procedures in line with ICAO. This does NOT prevent customs free airports.

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45
Q

Article
- Customs duty

A

Aircraft travelling to or through states are temporarily free of duty, along with spare parts, fuel, oils, regular equipment and aircraft stores on board if retained on board [subject to customs regulations of the state].
Articles taken off (e.g. spare parts for another aircraft) may require keeping under customs supervision, but should be customs free [subject to customs regulations of the state].

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46
Q

Article
- Aircraft in distress

A

States must provide assistance to aircraft in distress in their territory.
They must permit (subject to control by their authorities) owners of the aircraft or authorities of state of registration to provide assistance.
In searching for missing aircraft states must collaborate as required by ICAO.

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47
Q

Article
- Air navigation facilities and standard systems

A

States must provide airports, radio services, met services and air navigation services in accordance with ICAO standards and practices.
States must adopt standard ICAO codes, markings, signals, lighting, communication procedures and operational practices.
States must cooperate with international measures to publish maps to ICAO standards.

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48
Q

Article
- Documents to be carried on board

A
  • Certificate of Registration
  • Certificate of Airworthiness
  • Licenses for each crew
  • Journey log book
  • Radio license (if it has a radio)
  • Passenger list (names, embarkation, destination)
  • Cargo manifest and detailed declarations of cargo
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49
Q

Article
- Recognition of certificates and licenses (exception)

A

States must recognise certificates of airworthiness and licenses issued by the state in which the aircraft was registered, provided they are up to ICAO standards.
BUT they reserve the right to refuse to recognise for flight above their own territory, licenses issued to their own nationals by a contracting state.

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50
Q

Article
- Cargo restrictions

A

No munitions of war to be carried in a states territory without its permission. Can define this themselves, but must be guided by ICAO recommendations.
Can prohibit other items if their own aircraft meet the restrictions on international flights AND safety not affected.

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51
Q

Article
- Endorsed licenses and certificates

A

Aircraft or crew not meeting ICAO standards must have certificates of airworthiness or licenses endorsed.
Endorsed aircraft or crew require permission of states entered to operate international flights.

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52
Q

ICAO objectives

A

To do with safety and efficient/strong aviation industry.
Also ensure equal rights of different states to aviation industry and no damage due to excess competition.

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53
Q

Permanent seat of ICAO

A

Montreal

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54
Q

Article
- Legal capacity of ICAO

A

ICAO to be granted in each state legal capacity as may be required for performance of its functions.

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55
Q

Article
- Assembly meetings
- Voting

A

Meetings at least every 3 years or extraordinary at request of 1/5th of states.
Each contracting state gets one vote on a majority basis (unless otherwise noted in articles).
Quorum requires majority.

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56
Q

Article
- Council permitted functions

A
  • Create subordinate air transport commissions on a regional or other basis…
  • Delegate or revoke delegation to air navigation commission
  • Conduct research into air transport and navigation and share with states
  • Study matters affecting the organisation and submit plans to the Assembly
  • Investigate situations blocking air navigation at request of states and issue reports
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57
Q

Tokyo Convention

A

Offences committed on board:
- State of registry has jurisdiction
- PIC can use reasonable measures (restraint) and refuse entry
- States must provide ATC and landing clearance for hijacked craft (100m parking distance)

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58
Q

Warsaw convention
- Ticketing

A

Carrier must issue paper or electronic ticket, which is a contract, but loss of ticket doesn’t nullify contract.
1 luggage ticket for luggage, 1 for passenger.
3 air waybills for cargo (for carrier, consignee and consignor).

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59
Q

Agreement on Trade in Civil Aircraft

A

Part of Rome Convention
Eliminates duty on all aircraft (except military) and other products such as engines, sub-assemblies, flight simulators and parts.

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60
Q

Joint financing agreement

A

Part of Rome Convention
Allows ICAO to provide funding (joint support) for financial or technical aid. Iceland and Greenland are given large sums for supporting transatlantic aviation which doesn’t stop there.

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61
Q

Additional EU passenger protection

A

Eur 125 to 600 denied boarding compensation.
Refund entitlement for 5 hour delay if they don’t travel.
Compensation for cancellation with less than 14 days notice, unless rescheduled at similar time or extraordinary circumstances.
Entitlement to assistance in the event of cancellation, delay or denied boarding.

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62
Q

Crediting of flight time as co-pilot for licensing

A

If aircraft is certificated to be operated with a co-pilot, co-pilot can claim full credit for flight time.
If aircraft is certificated to be operated by single pilot, but required by a Contracting State to be operated with co-pilot, co-pilot can claim up to 50% of flight time.
[Contracting State can allow up to 100%, which EASA does]

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63
Q

Definition of PIC under supervision
Crediting of flight time

A

PIC under supervision is a co-pilot carrying out PIC responsibilities under supervision of a PIC.
Full flight time can be credited.

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64
Q

Student Pilot in Command (SPIC)

A

Student acting as PIC with an instructor who will only observe the student and not influence or control the flight.

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65
Q

ICAO definition
- likely (medical)

A

Means a probability of occurring that is unacceptable to the medical assessor

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66
Q

ICAO definition
- medical examiner
- medical assessor

A

Both are physicians with aviation knowledge, designated by a licensing authority to:
Examiner - conduct medical examinations
Assessor - assess medical conditions (take reports from examiners)

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67
Q

What is rendering (a license) valid?

A

When a licensing authority accepts a foreign license as being equivalent to its own, rather than issuing its own license. Validity shall not extend beyond expiry of the original license.

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68
Q

Class ratings vs type ratings

A

There are 4 class ratings - combinations of SEP/MEP and land/sea.
Type ratings only established for:
i) Aircraft with minimum crew >= 2
ii) Single pilot helicopters (except where class rating issued)
iii) Any type at discretion of licensing authority

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69
Q

Rules on psychoactive substances

A

Exclude caffeine and tobacco.
Not only prohibit being under their influence whilst having a function critical to safety of aviation, but shall not engage in problematic usage of substances in general.

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70
Q

RotA
- minimum heights

A

Except TOL or with permission from appropriate authority:
i) Glide clear
ii) 1000ft above highest obstacle within 600m
iii) 500ft above ground or water.

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71
Q

RotA
- formation flying

A

Should be pre-arranged by PICs and:
i) Formation acts as a single aircraft for navigation and position reporting
ii) Separation is responsibility of flight leader and PICs, includes periods of transition
iii) Maximum distance of 1km laterally and 30m vertically from flight leader to be maintained

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72
Q

RotA
- Lights to be displayed

A

Either at night when in the air, or ALL day when on the ground.

i) Anti-collision lights (beacon) [can be switched off or dimmed to prevent problems for pilots or others]

ii) Navigation lights (110 deg, 110 deg, 140 deg) and no lights to confuse these

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73
Q

RotA
- requirement to file a flight plan

A

Submitted before operating:
i) Flight or portion thereof to be provided with an ATC service
ii) Flight across international borders (unless otherwise prescribed by the States)
iii) Night flight if leaving vicinity of aerodrome
iv) IFR flight in advisory space

Flight in areas or routes designated by competent authority to:
v) facilitate provision of flight information or SAR
vi) facilitate coordination with military units or ATS units in adjacent States, to prevent need for interception

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74
Q

RotA
- When to file flight plan (pre-flight, in air)

A

Pre-flight: 60 mins before departure
In-flight: 10 mins before reaching boundary or requiring service

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75
Q

Flight plan
- “Rules” codes

A

I for IFR
V for VFR
Y for IFR changing to VFR
Z for VFR changing to IFR

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76
Q

Flight plan
- Aerodrome without ICAO identifier

A

Put ZZZZ
In box 18 add “DEP/”, “DEST/” or “ALTN/” and the full aerodrome name

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77
Q

Flight plan
- Cruising speed codes

A

In TAS, code letter for units then 4 numbers.
K for km/hr
N for knots
M for mach number (0750 is 0.750)

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78
Q

What speed deviations from flight plan need to be reported to ATC

A

0.02 M
10kt
(TAS +/- 5% under SERA)

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79
Q

Flight plan
- Estimated elapsed time

A

Take off up to…
VFR: Overhead aerodrome
IFT: Point established by navaids where instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or overhead aerodrome if no navaids.

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80
Q

Flight plan
- What ETA deviations need to be reported

A

More than 2 minutes

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81
Q

Flight plan
- When is an amendment or new flight plan required (delay)

A

Delay of 30 minutes to OFF-BLOCK time for controlled flight, or 60 minutes for uncontrolled.

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82
Q

Flight plan
- Closing

A

If landing with ATC unit who observe your landing, nothing to do.
Otherwise need to communicate closure of plan ASAP after landing.
If no communications facilities at destination, close the plan with ATSU immediately prior to landing.

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83
Q

RotA
Transition altitude
- description
- rounding

A

As low as possible, not normally less than 3,000ft (rounded to 1000ft)
It is fixed and can be found in AIP and on charts (unlike the transition level which changes)

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84
Q

When are you allowed to set QNH whilst above transition level?

A

When given clearance to descend to an altitude and not expected to be flying at a level again.
Allows jet craft to target descent more easily.

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85
Q

Air Traffic Advisory Service
- who is it available to?
- what airspace?

A

Service provided within Advisory airspace to ensure separation (as far as practical) between aircraft on IFR flight plans.

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86
Q

Air Traffic Control Unit vs Air Traffic Services Unit

A

ATSU consists of:
i) ATCU
ii) Flight Information Centre
iii) ATS reporting office (receive flight plans)

ATCU consists of
i) Area control centre
ii) Approach control unit
iii) Aerodrome control tower

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87
Q

Approach Control Service

A

ATC service for arriving OR departing controlled flights

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88
Q

Ceiling

A

Height above ground of lowest layer of cloud covering half of the sky, below 20,000ft.

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89
Q

Landing area
Manoeuvring area
Movement area

A

Landing area: Take off & landing
Manoeuvring area: Take off, landing & taxiing (excludes apron)
Movement area: Manoeuvring area plus aprons

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90
Q

Safety sensitive personnel

A

Persons who if not doing their job properly put safety at risk.
Includes, flight crew, maintenance and ATC.

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91
Q

Control area vs control zone

A

Both are controlled airspace.
Control zone extends from surface of the Earth to a given level.
Control area extends from a level above GROUND OR WATER (at least 200m/700ft) to a given level [NOT AAL].

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92
Q

Expected approach time (EAT)
- Description
- When is it required?

A

Time that ATC expects (after a delay) the aircraft will leave holding point to complete approach for landing.
Required when it is likely to be over 30 minutes.

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93
Q

VMC
- Visibility

A

Above FL100/10,000ft: 8km
Below FL100/10,000ft: 5km

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94
Q

VMC
- Distance from cloud

A

1,500m horizontal
1,000ft vertical

Except below 3,000ft AMSL or 1,000ft above terrain in class F & G:
Clear of cloud & sight of surface

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95
Q

VMC
- Reductions in visibility rules

A

Competent authority may approve visibility to not less than 1.5km for flights below 140kt.
Helicopters not less than 800m if at an appropriate speed.

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96
Q

VFR
- Night height requirements

A

Not below 1,000ft over highest obstacle within 8km (2,000ft in mountainous areas).

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97
Q

SVFR flight
- description
- restrictions

A

VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate in controlled airspace in conditions below VMC.
Only applies when entering or leaving a control zone (eg to reach a GA aerodrome).
- Daytime only
- Ceiling >600ft
- 1500m vis (800m rotor, 3km to take off)
- <140kt.

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98
Q

VFR conditions to take off, land or enter circuit

A

Ceiling above 1,500ft
Ground visibility above 5km
Unless cleared by air traffic control unit

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99
Q

VFR
- High flight levels

A

Need authorisation from appropriate ATS authority to operate VFR over FL200.
Authorisation above FL285 not to be granted where RVSM applies.

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100
Q

VFR
- Minimum altitude

A

At least 1000ft above highest obstacle within 600m
At least 500ft above ground or water

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101
Q

VFR
- Changing from and to IFR

A

To change to IFR need to file a flight plan in flight.
To change from IFR need to say “cancelling my IFR flight” and the required changes, only to be done if a reasonable time will be spent in uninterrupted VMC.
ATS will not suggest or request a change to VFR.

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102
Q

IFR
- Height requirements

A

Same as night.
1000ft above highest obstacle within 8km (2000ft in mountainous areas)
Need to take into account accuracy of position establishing equipment.

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103
Q

Time accuracy required for data comms
Time accuracy required for ATSU clocks

A

Data comms: 1 second
ATSU: 30 seconds

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104
Q

Exceptions to continuous air-ground voice communication for controlled flights

A

SELCAL and similar automatic signalling devices satisfy the requirement.
CPDLC does not, air-ground voice communication still required.

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105
Q

Action if communications lost

A

VMC - Stay in VMC, land at nearest aerodrome and report to ATC.

IFR & no radar service - Maintain last cleared speed & level (heading can change!) for 20 mins beyond failed reporting point, then follow flight plan.

IFR & radar service - Maintain cleared speed & level for 7 mins beyond failed reporting point (or 7600 setting time or time reaching last assigned level if later) then re-join flight plan.

[IFR head to nav point at destination, commence approach as close to EAT as possible]

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106
Q

EU differences from ICAO in case of lost communications

A

If IFR flight given clearance to a different altitude than flight plan, maintain that altitude for 3 mins then proceed with flight plan.

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107
Q

Cruising levels

A

MAGNETIC TRACK
000 to 179: 10, 30, …, 270
180 to 359: 20, 40, …, 260

VFR: 5 above from FL35 minimum

000 to 179: 290, 330, …
180 to 359: 310, 360, …

VFR: 10 above

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108
Q

RVSM
- description
- flight level range

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima
Areas where vertical separation is only 1,000ft from FL290 to FL410

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109
Q

Fuel dumping
- Requirements
- Min flight level
- Separation

A

If required in an emergency in controlled airspace ATC must be informed and must coordinate including the route to be used, flight level (min 6000ft) and duration of dumping. [min level can be ignored in emergency].
Separation required of 10NM horizontally (but not behind), vertically if behind and within 50NM or 15 mins - 1000ft above or 300ft below.

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110
Q

Distress signals

A
  • SOS (e.g. in morse code)
  • Radio with spoken “MAYDAY”
  • Data link “MAYDAY”
  • Rockets/shells showing red lights, one at a time with short intervals
  • Red parachute flare
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111
Q

Urgency
- Visual signals when compelled to land but no immediate assistance required

A
  • Switch landing lights on and off
  • Switch nav lights on and off (distinctly from regular flashing nav lights)
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112
Q

Urgency
- Urgent message to transmit regarding safety of ship, aircraft, vehicle or person

A
  • Signal via some method of “XXX”
  • Radio with spoken word “PANPAN”
  • Data link “PANPAN”
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113
Q

Ground signal to indicate you are heading into restricted, prohibited or danger area

A

Projectiles at 10 second intervals showing red and green lights or stars

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114
Q

ATC light signals

A
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115
Q

Acknowledging ATC light signals

A

In day time rock wings (NOT base or final), or move ailerons/rudder if on ground.
At night flash landing lights on and off twice (nav lights if no landing lights).

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116
Q
A

Prohibited to land

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117
Q
A

Precaution when landing due to bad state of manoeuvring area (or other reason)

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118
Q
A

Land, TO and taxy on runways and taxiways only

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119
Q
A

Land and TO on runways only, other manoeuvres not confined to taxiways and runways

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120
Q
A

Gliders in operation

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121
Q
A

This bay

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122
Q
A

Proceed to next marshaller

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123
Q
A

Move ahead

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124
Q
A

Turn left
[Having opposite arm out means forward turn]

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125
Q
A

Turn while backing
[Reverse left engine]
[Opposite arm down means reverse turn]

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126
Q
A

Emergency Stop

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127
Q
A

Open to clenched hand - Engage brakes
Clenched to open hand - Release brakes

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128
Q
A

[Start with hands above head]
Moving hands in - Chocks inserted
Moving hands out - Chocks removed

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129
Q
A

Slow engines on indicated side

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130
Q
A

Move backwards
[Arms rolling in a forwards motion]

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131
Q
A

Affirmative/all clear

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132
Q
A

Negative

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133
Q
A

Land (helicopter)

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134
Q
A

Hold position/stand by
[arms at 45 degrees downwards]

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135
Q
A

Dispatch aircraft
[Keeps eye contact until taxi commenced]

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136
Q
A

Don’t touch controls

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137
Q
A

Ground power
Moving fingers up into palm is connect, moving fingers down is disconnect

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138
Q
A

Establish communications via interphone

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139
Q
A

Open/close stairs

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140
Q
A

Recommend evacuation

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141
Q
A

Recommend stop

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142
Q
A

All clear

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143
Q
A

Fire

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144
Q

Intercepted aircraft signal if aerodrome unsuitable

A

Raise landing gear and flash landing lights while passing over runway between 1,000 and 2,000 ft

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145
Q

Intercepted aircraft signal - “cannot comply”

A

Regular switching on and off of lights (dissimilar to flashing)

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146
Q

Intercepted aircraft signal - “distress”

A

Irregular switching on and off of lights

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147
Q

Transponder code for intercepted aircraft

A

7700 - unless indicated otherwise by ATSU

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148
Q

Intercepted aircraft action with conflicting instructions

A

Attempt to resolve the conflict with ATSU but follow the intercepting aircraft primarily

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149
Q

Common mark and registration mark

A

Common mark is the first part of registration based on country of registration (assigned to country by ICAO).
Registration mark is the series of alphanumeric characters assigned by the state of registry (OR “common mark registering authority”).

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150
Q

Confusing registration marks

A

Combinations of registration marks which could be confused with the following not allowed:
- Q codes
- SOS, PAN, XXX, TTT
- 5 letter combinations in international Code of Signals part II

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151
Q

Size of registration marks on aircraft

A

50cm on wings
30cm on fuselage or vertical tail
[Unless aircraft is too small]

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152
Q

Identification Plate

A

To be inscribed at least with:
- Common or nationality mark
- Registration mark

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153
Q

Responsibility for issuing CofA and passing on information about faults or defects for a type

A

[>5700kg TOM only!]
Responsibility of the state of registry.
State of registry needs to tell state of design when they register an aircraft type for the first time.
State of design responsible for passing on information about faults or defects including a continuing integrity programme (e.g. corrosion prevention) and passing information on to states of registry.
State of registry then responsible for passing info on to operators.

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154
Q

Validity of CofA

A

Determined by the state of registry.
Usually remain valid indefinitely as long as inspection requirements are met.

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155
Q

Assessment of damaged aircraft

A

State of registry determines whether the aircraft remains airworthy.
If sustained whilst in territory of another state, that state can prevent resumption of flight but must inform state of registry.
In exceptional circumstances state of registry can allow a non commercial flight to an aerodrome for repairs (subject to limitations). State where it is located must allow it, but can make limitations.

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156
Q

Fireproof

A

Ability to withstand heat of a flame for 15 minutes

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157
Q

Fire resistant

A

Ability to withstand heat of a flame for 5 minutes

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158
Q

Aircraft Equipment

A

Includes first aid, survival equipment and commissary supplies.
Does NOT include spare parts or stores.

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159
Q

Facilitation
- Sojourn rules

A

An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services, is allowed to stay in a state for a period determined by the state, without security for customs duty being required.

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160
Q

Facilitation
- Advance notification of arrival rules

A

For aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services, states are limited in the advanced notification they can demand.
Minimum notification is the information from a flight plan at least 2 hours in advance of arrival at a designated international airport.

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161
Q

Facilitation
- Documentation for arriving aircraft

A

States are limited in the documentation they can demand for arriving aircraft.
Maximum of 3 copies each of:
- Passenger manifest
- Cargo manifest
- General Declaration
- Stores list (for stores being offloaded)

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162
Q

Facilitation
- Requirement for General Declaration

A

States shouldn’t demand a general declaration if the information is available elsewhere.
If they do demand one it should be limited to set items and a set format.
Info on crew, passengers (including illnesses), disinsection.

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163
Q

Facilitation
- Passenger documents demanded

A

States can only demand:
- Travel document (usually passport)
- Entry/re-entry visa
- Exit visa
- Certificate of Vaccination
- Embarkation/disembarkation card (blank copies must be provided for free which the passenger can fill in)

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164
Q

Age from which individual passport required

A

NO minimum age, everybody needs a passport!

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165
Q

Facilitation
- Rules for transiting passengers

A

Passengers staying in a country for up to 2 days before another flight who can’t remain in the airport (due to facilities) must be allowed to stay in the country without needing a visa.

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166
Q

Facilitation
- Disruptive passengers

A

PIC has authority and can remove a person from a flight without coordinating with local authorities

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167
Q

Facilitation
- Inadmissible passengers

A

Will be returned to the operator who will bear the cost of returning them to state of departure (can recover costs from the passenger).

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168
Q

Facilitation
- Segregation of passengers

A

State must ensure security screened and non-security screened passengers aren’t mixed, and if they get mixed all must be re-screened.

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169
Q

Facilitation
- Crew Members Certificates
- Crew baggage

A

MACHINE READABLE CARD used by flight crew and cabin attendants instead of identification or licenses for temporary admission to a state.
[Crew baggage ALSO expedited]

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170
Q

Facilitation
- Unaccompanied baggage

A

CARRIED as cargo but CLEARED as baggage (or other simplified process).

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171
Q

Facilitation
- Cargo manifest items

A

No more than the following 3 items of information for each line:
- Air waybill number
- Number of packages related to each waybill number
- Nature of the goods

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172
Q

Facilitation
- Acceptable writing method of entry/exit documents

A

Typewritten, computer printed or block handwritten all acceptable.

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173
Q

Facilitation
- Offloading of baggage or cargo at wrong airport

A

No taxes, fines, customs duties or penalties can be charged by the state (assuming no gross negligence or carelessness by operator)

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174
Q

Facilitation
- Requirements for mail on contracting state

A

To process in accordance with procedures as described in the Acts in force in the:
Universal Postal Union

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175
Q

2 circumstances where control areas have upper limits

A
  • When no air traffic service is provided above a given level
  • When there is another upper control area above, in which case the upper extent of the control area lines up with the lower extent of that area
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176
Q

Control zone size and location

A

Control zones are positioned around aerodromes to enable an air traffic service to be provided to IFR traffic.
They will extend at least 5NM from the centre of an aerodrome in the directions from which approaches may be made.
If there is a CTA above they will extend up to meet them.

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177
Q

Airspace classes:
- Airway
- CTR
- TMA
- CTA
- Upper airways
- Advisory areas & routes (ADR)
- Open FIR

A

Airway: Usually class A
CTR: A, D, E
TMA: A, D, E
CTA: A, D, E
Upper airways: C
ADR: F
Open FIR: G

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178
Q

Services in classes of airspace

A

A: No VFR, full separation
B: VFR allowed, full separation
C: No VFR/VFR separation, traffic info
D: IFR/IFR separation only, traffic info
E: IFR/IFR sep only, traffic info if possible
F: FIS + advisory service
G: FIS

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179
Q

Which classes of airspace need clearance?

A

A to E - i.e. controlled airspace
EXCEPT VFR in E - don’t get a service, don’t need clearance!

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180
Q

Aircraft on a boundary between classes of airspace

A

Considered to be in the less restrictive airspace

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181
Q

Which classes of airspace need 2 way radio?

A

ALL IFR flights
VFR in B-D (i.e. airspace where they need clearance and receive a service)

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182
Q

Speed control in classes of airspace

A

INDICATED air speed

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183
Q

Area navigation (RNAV)

A

A method of navigation permitting operation on any desired flight path with use of navaids or onboard equipment.
ie. the ability to fly point-to-point, rather than by following radials (VOR, NDB)

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184
Q

Required RNAV to fly in ATS routes in Europe

A

RNP 5
This covers SIDs and STARs
This means accuracy within 2.5NM 95% of the time (for a 5NM radius).
Also need average continuity of service 99.99% of flight time.
Aircraft meeting RNP 5 but without RNAV equipment restricted to certain lower ATS routes.

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185
Q

Designator prefixes for ATS routes
- K
- U
- S
- R at end

digits

A

K - (kopter) for low level helicopter routes
U - (upper)
S - (supersonic)

R at the end means RNAV equipment required

3 digits

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186
Q

Designator prefixed for ATS routes
- Y
- Z
- F
- G

A

Y - For RNP 1 over FL200, all turns between 30 and 90 degrees should be made within 22.5NM radius
X - For RNP under FL190, all turns between 30 and 90 degrees should be made within 15NM radius

F - Advisory service only on part of the route
G - FIS only on part of the route

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187
Q

Objectives of ATSUs

A
  • Prevent collisions between aircraft
  • Prevent collisions on the ground
  • Expedite orderly flow of traffic
  • Provide advice and information for safe and efficient conduct of flight
  • Search and rescue
188
Q

Flight Information Service

A

Distinct from an air traffic control service, purpose is simply to provide advice and information for safe and efficient conduct of flight.
[plus alerting service]

189
Q

Approach control service

A

ATC service for flights arriving OR DEPARTING

190
Q

Handover between approach and tower

A

In IMC approach keeps control till aircraft lands and takes over before entering runway or (if preferable in local procedures) immediately once airborne.
In VMC approach can hand over when in the airfield vicinity and visual conditions ok to land. Picks up again when aircraft leaves vicinity of airfield, or enters IMC.

191
Q

Composite separation

A

When both vertical and horizontal separation is used. Separation minima can be reduced by up to 50% from standard vertical/horizontal only amounts.

192
Q

Longitudinal separation in Europe
[?]

A

ICAO variation
3 mins separation provided:
- Continuous radar monitoring
- 20NM minimum radar separation

193
Q

Mach separation requirements
[?]

A

Accepted in Europe (ICAO variation)
Requires:
- Both aircraft monitored on radar and no interruption to monitoring expected
- Both operating assigned mach numbers with following aircraft at same or lower MN than aircraft ahead

194
Q

Unit responsible for route clearance

A

Area Control Centre in which the flight originates.
If flight expected to enter second FIR within 30 mins, first ACC should coordinate with second before issuing clearance.
If coordination fails and clearance stops, PIC is responsible.
In reality coordination is very good.

195
Q

Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM)

A

A European airspace system designed to optimise flow of traffic.
Available to all EUR states but not adopted by all.
Can be applied to all flights that take place in EUR region, depart from it or enter it.
Need to file flight plans well in advance and likely to be given a departure slot. Some flights prioritised.

196
Q

ATC aim and actions under ATFM

A

Aim is to ensure the number of aircraft in an area doesn’t exceed air traffic control capacity.
If an ATC unit becomes aware that additional traffic can’t be accommodated they must inform affected ATC units, aircraft and operators.

197
Q

FIS items

A
  • Weather
  • Volcanic activity
  • Serviceability of navaids
  • Collision hazards in C, D, E, F & G
  • Surface vessel info for flights over water
  • Changes in aerodrome conditions
  • Unmanned free balloons and other safety info
198
Q

3 types of FIS broadcast

A
  • HF operational FIS (OFIS) broadcasts
  • VHF OFIS broadcasts
    [these two are VOLMETs]
  • ATIS
199
Q

What do you need to read back from ATIS report?

A

Only the letter and pressure setting

200
Q

When are air traffic control services responsible for terrain collission?

A

Only IFR under radar control (vector)

201
Q

Who is entitled to an alerting service?

A
  • Aircraft under ATC
  • As far as practicable, all aircraft who filed flight plan or are otherwise known to air traffic services
  • Any aircraft believed to be subject to unlawful interference
202
Q

Chain of communication of emergency

A
  • Pilot communicates to ATC unit they are in contact with
  • ATC unit contacts FIC or ACC responsible
    -FIC/ACC contact the rescue coordination centre (RCC)
    EXCEPT when notification would be superfluous
203
Q

3 phases of emergency

A
  • Uncertainty
  • Alert phase (apprehension regarding safety of an aircraft & occupants)
  • Distress phase (reasonable certainty of grave & imminent danger or need immediate assistance)
204
Q

At what SAR phase do RCC alert SAR units and initiate action

A

Alert phase

205
Q

INCERFA
- triggers

A

Uncertainty phase
Initiated when:
- aircraft fails to arrive within 30 mins of last notified ETA; or
- no communication for 30 mins since when a communication should have been received or attempt at communication was unsuccessful

206
Q

ALERFA

A

Alert phase
Initiated when:
- Failure to establish communications following uncertainty phase;
- Aircraft cleared to land doesn’t land within 5 mins and no comms;
- Operating efficiency of aircraft impaired but forced landing not likely; or
- Believed unlawful interference.

207
Q

DETRESFA

A

Distress phase
Initiated when:
- Further unsuccessful communication attempts and probability aircraft is in distress;
- Fuel exhausted or insufficient to reach safety;
- Operating efficiency reduced and likely forced landing;
- Aircraft making a forced landing unless reasonably certain aircraft & occupants not in grave & imminent danger.

208
Q

SAR regions

A

Regions must not overlap.
Must be based on operational and technical considerations, not national borders.
Each one needs a RCC.

209
Q

RCC communication requirements

A

Must be able to communicate quickly and reliably with:
- Neighbouring RCCs
- Rescue units
- Meteorological offices
- Alerting posts
- COSPAS-SARSAT satellite service

210
Q

ICAO rule & recommendation on SAR cooperation

A

RECOMMEND states develop common SAR procedures to aid coordination.
States MUST ensure aircraft, services, vessels not involved in SAR cooperate with SAR and extend any possible assistance.

211
Q

Communication of SAR to aircraft in vicinity

A

Aircraft in vicinity must be made aware of the emergency ASAP.
EXCEPT unlawful interference, which should not be communicated unless the aircraft has already stated it and broadcast would not aggravate the situation.

212
Q

Procedures for PIC near accident

A

Unless unable or in circumstances it is unreasonable or unnecessary:
- Keep in sight craft in distress
- Determine position (if not already certain)
- Report to RCC or traffic services info (type of craft, position, time, persons seen etc)
- Act as instructed by RCC or traffic services

213
Q

Who is in charge of on-scene activities?

A

First PIC to arrive, even if not an SAR unit, is in charge until an SAR unit arrives.
If first aircraft is unable to contact RCC, must mutually agree to handover to another aircraft.

214
Q

Emergency Locator Transmitter frequencies

A

121.5 MHz
406 MHz

215
Q

Action if intercepting distress signal

A
  • Record position of craft in distress if given
  • Take a bearing on transmission if possible
  • Inform RCC or ATS
  • Proceed to the position at your discretion whilst awaiting instructions
216
Q

Signalling surface craft

A

Pass ahead of the vessel to summon to site, pass astern to cancel.
Need to circle once and get attention by rocking wings, open/close throttle and change prop pitch.

217
Q

Ground to air help signals

A

V - Assistance required
X - Medical assistance required
N - negative
Y - affirmative
-> - proceeding in this direction

218
Q

Ground to air rescue unit signals

A
219
Q

Life jackets required

A
  • Multi engine 50NM from shore
  • Single engine beyond gliding distance
  • TO/L over water where likelihood of ditching in event of mishap
220
Q

Life rafts and flares required

A
  • Multi engine 120 min cruise or 400NM from land
  • Single engine 30 min cruise or 100NM
221
Q

Definition of accident

A

Takes place between people boarding aircraft for purpose of flight and all persons disembark, and:
- A person fatally or seriously injured due to:
+ being in aircraft
+ contact with any part of aircraft
+ exposure to jet blast
- Aircraft damage which:
+ affects structure, performance or flight characteristics
+ requires major repair or replacement of component
- Aircraft missing or inaccessible

222
Q

Exceptions to accidents

A

Fatal/serious injuries from natural causes, self inflicted or inflicted by other persons don’t count.
Stowaways outside normal crew/passengers areas don’t count.
Aircraft damage limited to either engines (& cowling/accessories), propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings or small dents/puncture holes in skin.

223
Q

Definition of incident

A

Occurrence other than accident affecting safety of operation.

224
Q

Definition of serious incident

A

Incident where an accident nearly occurred.
e.g. near misses, emergency use of oxygen by crew, undershooting/overshooting or running off runway.

225
Q

Definition of serious injury

A
  • Requires >48 hours hospitalisation within 7 days of accident
  • Bone fracture
  • Lacerations causing sever haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
  • Injury to internal organ
  • 2nd/3rd degree burns or any burns to >5% of body
  • Exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation
226
Q

State responsible for investigation

A

Initially the state of occurrence.
May delegate by mutual agreement to another state (state of design, manufacture or operator)

227
Q

Notification of accident

A

State of occurrence to notify ASAP:
- State of design
- State of manufacture
- State of registry
- State of operator
- ICAO if over 2250kg
[If state of occurrence not aware, state of operator should notify the others]

228
Q

Responsibility of states of design and manufacture to accident

A

Need to inform state of occurrence of the name of their representative, whether that person will be present and if so, when.
This is mandatory for >2250kg craft, optional for below.

229
Q

Accident final report sent to

A
  • State that instituted investigation
  • States of design, manufacture, operator, registry
  • States participating in investigation
  • States whose citizens died or were seriously injured
  • State that provided information, facilities or experts.
  • For >5700kg, ICAO
230
Q

State information exchange recommendations

A
  • If a state identifies safety information relevant to other states it should forward it on.
  • Should promote establishment of safety information exchange networks and facilitate exchange of information
231
Q

Deadline for sharing safety information with European agency (376/2014)

A

30 days from date of notification by the reporter

232
Q

Aerodrome reference code

A

2 digits:
i) Aeroplane reference field length
ii) Wingspan & outer main gear wheel span

233
Q

Aerodrome reference code
- Aeroplane reference field length codes

A

1 - <800m
2 - 800m to 1200m
3 - 1200m to 1800m
4 - >1800m

234
Q

Aerodrome reference code
- Wingspan & outer main gear wheel span

A

Code Wingspan Main Gear
A <15m <4.5m
B 15 - 24m 4.5 - 6m
C 24 - 36m 6 - 9m
D 36 - 52m 9 - 14m
E 52 - 65m 9 - 14m
F 65 - 80m 14 - 16m

235
Q

Runway types (by approach)

A

Non-instrument (visual approaches)
Instruments:
- Precision (using ILS or MLS)
- Non-precision (using approach aid with directional guidance for straight-in)

236
Q

Minimum runway width
- By airport classification
- Precision runway

A

Precision min of 30m

237
Q

Taxiway width (straight portion)

A

A - 7.5m
B - 10.5m
C - 15m (18m for wide wheel base)
D - 18m (23m for wide wheel base)
E - 23m
F - 25m

238
Q

Runway holding positions if none designated

A

50m from runway edge if >900m
30m from runway edge if <900m

239
Q

Runway strip
- Definition
- Size

A

Area free of obstacles around runway + stopway.
Should be 60m length before threshold and after stopway (30m for cat 1 non-instrument).

240
Q

Radio Altimeter operating area

A

300m long by 120m wide (60m in some circumstances) in front of runway. Should aim for constant slope.
Changes in slope should be limited to 2% per 30m.

241
Q

Runway End safety area (RESA)
- description
- size

A

Intended to reduce risk of damage to aircraft undershooting or overrunning (NB stopway not relevant to undershooting).
Should extend at least 90m beyond runway STRIP and be at least twice as wide.

242
Q

Aerodrome Elevation

A

Highest point in the landing area

243
Q

Pavement Classification Number (PCN)

A

Describes strength of runway. Higher is better.
<5700kg can IGNORE this!
Compare to Aircraft Classification Number (ACN) and if ACN <= PCN you’re good to go.
If ACN is higher can go ahead in some circumstances.

244
Q

2 pavement strength restrictions on aircraft

A

Max weight
Max tyre pressure

245
Q

Stopway
- description
- size

A

Stopway primarily for abandoned takeoffs, NOT undershooting (unlike RESA).
At least as wide as the runway, area suitable for stopping in abandoned takeoff.

246
Q

Clearway
- description
- width

A

Can be any surface (eg water).
Not greater than 50% of take off run.
At least 75m extension from centreline.

247
Q

TORA
TODA
ASDA
LDA

A

TORA - Takeoff run available
TODA - TORA + clearway
ASDA - TORA + stopway
LDA - Landing distance available (shorter than TORA if displaced threshold)

248
Q

Types of water deposit

A

Damp - change of colour
Wet - soaked, but no standing water
Standing water - over 3mm depth for over 25% of the surface

249
Q

Snow types & definitions

A

Dry snow - blown if loose or falls apart if compacted - SG < 0.35
Wet snow - sticks together if compacted - SG 0.35 - 0.5
Slush - water saturated snow, heel to toe…, SG 0.5 - 0.8

250
Q

Rescue & Firefighting service (RFF)
- level of protection

A

Level of protection depends on size of largest aircraft using the aerodrome:
Cat 1: 9m long, 2m fuselage
Cat 10: up to 90m long, 8m fuselage

251
Q

RFF response time

A

Measured from time of initial call to time reaching 50% of foam discharge rate.
Maximum 3 mins to ends of runway, ICAO recommend 2 mins.

252
Q

Sterile pre-threshold area
- markings

A

This isn’t suitable for normal use, but may be part of stopway.
If at least 60m long should be marked with yellow chevrons spaced 30m apart.

253
Q

Designation of over 3 parallel runways

A

Use consecutive numbering, e.g. for 280 magnetic:
28L, 28R, 29L, 29R
or 28L, 28C, 28R, 29L, 29C, 29R

254
Q
A

1 - Last holding point (= Cat I)
2 - Cat II or III holding points
3 - Intermediate holding point

255
Q

Road Holding points

A

Used at intersection between road and RUNWAY (not taxiway).
Road markings must be in accordance with local road rules.
Holding position is white writing on red background. “STOP” sign (or local equiv) and sign saying contact ATC.
If runway is useable in visibility <350m also need a light (green/red controlled by ATC or flashing red).

256
Q

Mandatory Instruction Markings

A

Marking on ground instead of sign.
White on red background, same content as the sign.
EXCEPT no entry: sign would be no-entry sign (white line on red background), marking says “NO ENTRY”.

257
Q

Information markings and signs colours

A

Location is yellow writing on black.
Direction is black writing on yellow.

258
Q

Aircraft stand identification sign

A

Black writing on yellow background (like direction, not location signs).
Visible to pilot lining up.
Will have lat and long on the sign.

259
Q

When must signs be illuminated?

A
  • RVR < 800m
  • Instrument @ night
  • Code 3 or 4 non-instrument @ night
260
Q

Taxiway edge and centre-line markers

A

Edge markers - Blue squares
Centre-line - Green lights (can be run over)

261
Q

Boundary markers

A

Used for landing areas which don’t have a runway (i.e. grass).
Triangular cross section orange or orange & white at least every 200m, OR
White cones every 90m
[or combination of both]

262
Q

Marking of wires/cables

A

60cm diameter balls on highest wire.
Alternating white/red or white/orange.

263
Q

Aerodrome & identification beacons

A

Aerodrome: White or green/white, flashing every 2 - 3 seconds
Identification: Morse flashing light, green - civil, yellow - civil water, red - military

264
Q

Lighting intensity

A

Intensity controls must exist to ensure compatible intensity between the different types of lighting

265
Q

If aerodrome lights are turned off, how long before a new arrival must they be capable of being turned back on?

A

1 hour

266
Q

Vehicle lights

A

Emergency: Flashing blue
Other: Flashing yellow

267
Q

Vehicle colours
- emergency
- service

A

Emergency: Red or yellow/green
Service: Yellow

268
Q

High object lighting

A

Up to 45m: low intensity, steady red
>45m: medium intensity, flashing red or white
>150m: high intensity flashing white

269
Q

Simple approach lighting

A

Row of lights on extended centreline in front of runway >420m (where possible) with crossbar 18m or 30m long at 300m before threshold.
Suitable for non-instrument, non-precision and CAT I where a CAT I lighting system is not possible.

270
Q

Precision approach CAT I approach lighting

A

900m extended centreline.
300m crossbar.
(30m gaps)

271
Q

Precision approach CAT II/III approach lighting

A

Extended centreline must extend 900m before threshold at 30m intervals, with additional row of red lights on each side up to 270m (aligned with touchdown lights on runway).
Crossbars at 150m and 300m.

272
Q

Runway lead-in lights

A

Define the approach path.
Each group of lights must be visible from the previous with max 1600m gaps.
Can be straight or curved.
Each group of lights at least 3 flashing lights, ideally flashing in pattern towards runway.

273
Q

Runway edge lights
- Colour
- When required

A

White
Except red for displaced threshold area.
Possibly yellow for lower of 600m or 1/3rd runway length at far end.
Required if runway used at night.

274
Q

Runway threshold identification lights

A

Unidirectional flashing white lights extending horizontal threshold line, 10m outside each line of runway edge lights.
Optional, for:
- Non-precision; or
- Precision with displaced threshold

275
Q

Threshold lighting

A

Fixed green unidirectional lights.
Threshold lights within 3m of end of runway (as close as possible).
Wing bars (line of 5 lights outside edge lights by 10m) when required, or for non-instrument & non-precision in place of threshold lights.

276
Q

Runway touchdown lights
- which categories
- position

A

For Cat II/III, lights on the touchdown markings.
Extend 900m into runway (but no more than half, so shorter for <1.8km runways).

277
Q

Runway centre-line light colours

A

White from threshold to 900m before end.
Alternate red/white from 900m to 300m.
Red for last 300m.

278
Q

Runway end lights

A

Fixed red unidirectional.

279
Q

Runway guard lights

A

Unidirectional flashing yellow.
Configuration A is a pair on each side of taxi-way, for RVR <550m with no stop bar, or RVR 550m-1200m with heavy traffic.
Configuration B is a line across taxiway spaced 3m for holding bays, runway holding positions or road holding positions.

280
Q

PAPI

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator
On the left, or both sides of runway.
4 lights, more white lights indicate high, more red lights indicate low.
2 red & 2 white => on approach slope.

281
Q

APAPI

A

Abbreviated PAPI
Same as PAPI but with only 2 lights.

282
Q

T-VASI

A

20 lights, 10 each side of runway, forming a cross shape [4 horizontal, 6 verical].
When on approach path you see horizontal white line of lights.
Above, you see top of cross (1, 2 or 3 verticals) in white.
Below, you see bottom of cross (1, 2 or 3 verticals) in red.

283
Q

AT-VASI

A

Abbreviated T-VASI just on one side of the runway (10 lights).

284
Q

Taxiway lighting

A

Blue side lights and/or (for low visibility aerodromes) green centre line lights.
If centre line encroaches onto runway lights should be yellow/green alternating leading off it, green leading onto it.

285
Q

Barrette

A

A series of at least 3 lights spaced closely together that appear as a short bar.
Alternative to “single source” light.

286
Q

Availability of AIS (Aeronautical Information Service)

A

If not 24 hours, needs to be available at least 2 hours before and after a flight.
AND at other times when requested by appropriate ground organisation.

287
Q

What is AIS?

A

A Service that collates information and shares information with AIS of other states, and produces an AIP published for interested parties in a form that is suitable for them.

288
Q

Aeronautical Information Package

A
  • AIP (Publication)
  • AIP amendments
  • AIP supplements
  • NOTAMs and PIBs (pre-flight information bulletins)
  • AICs (aeronautical information circulars)
  • Checklists & summaries
289
Q

3 parts of AIP

A

1) GEN - General
2) ENR - En-route
3) AD - Aerodromes

290
Q

AIP GEN contents

A
  • Procedures for entry/transit/departure of aircraft, cargo, passengers etc.
  • Abbreviations, symbols
  • LIST of radio navaids
  • Aeronautical charts
  • Air traffic services
  • Meteorological services
  • SAR
  • Charges
  • Other general items
291
Q

AIP ENR contents

A
  • VFR/IFR procedures
  • Airspace classifications
  • Holding/enroute/departure procedures
  • Radar services/procedures
  • Altimeter setting procedures
  • Flight planning
  • Details of navaids
  • Details of danger/restricted areas
  • En-route charts
292
Q

AIP changes

A

Permanent are issued as amendments to AIP.
Temporary changes of long duration (3 months +) or with lots of info are issued as AIP supplements (coloured yellow).
Checklist of supplements issued monthly.

Short duration temporary (<3 months) issued by NOTAM.

293
Q

NOTAM

A

Not used when information is very detailed (lots of text or diagrams) in which case AIP supplement required.

Generally for temporary short duration changes.
Can also be used for short notice changes that are long duration or permanent.

294
Q

Unusual NOTAMs

A
  • SNOWTAM
  • ASHTAM
  • “Space weather phenomena”
  • Epidemics!
  • Radioactive materials!
  • Humanitarian relief!
295
Q

Not a NOTAM

A

Items that don’t affect operational functionality (e.g. navaid frequency down when another frequency works).

296
Q

NOTAM checklist

A

Distributed monthly including latest AIP amendments, AIP supplements and internationally distributed AICs.

297
Q

Pre-flight information bulletin (PIB)

A

Map or chart of NOTAMS produced by AIS relevant to your flight (by route, area etc.)

298
Q

SNOWTAM duration

A

8 hours

299
Q

ASHTAMs

A

Red: Eruption in progress or likely, ash plume over FL250
Orange: Eruption in progress or likely, ash plume not expected over FL250
Yellow: Volcano active but not currently dangerous
Green: Activity ceased

300
Q

AIRAC
- Description
- Timings
- Requirement if timings missed

A

Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control
Required timings for publishing changes (measured in days) e.g. AIP supplements/amendments.
Normal: To arrive 4 weeks ahead
Major: To arrive 8 weeks ahead
Both to be published an additional 2 weeks earlier (so 42 & 70 days).
Failure to follow timings requires a NOTAM marked AIRAC

301
Q

Trigger NOTAM

A

NOTAM issued on effective date of the AIP change to draw attention to it.

302
Q

Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs)

A

Issued monthly
Pink: Safety
Yellow: Operational matters (inc. ATS)
White: Administrative
Mauve: Reserved & restricted airspace
Green: Maps & charts

303
Q

Security
- Prisoners on aircraft

A

Operator and PIC must be INFORMED when passenger is being compelled to travel, so special security controls can be applied.
States must ensure special security measures are followed when undesirable passengers fly (eg deportations, inadmissible passengers, prisoners).
e.g. prior boarding

304
Q

Security
- Weapons

A

PIC to be informed of armed passengers and their seat numbers.
In flight security officers to be coordinated with other states and kept confidential.
Other weapons on board must be stowed so as to be inaccessible and determined not loaded by an authorised person.

305
Q

Security
- Notification of unlawful interference

A

State where aircraft lands must inform:
- State of registry
- State of operator
- State of citizens injured/killed/hostages
- State of citizens on board
- ICAO

306
Q

Security
- PIC actions for unlawful inteference
- priority

A

Inform ATC or 121.5 if can’t talk to ATC.
If no regional procedures, adopt level 500ft from 1000ft vertical separations or
1000ft from 2000ft vertical separations.
PRIORITY - Land ASAP

307
Q

Security
- PIC getting help from others in apprehending unlawful person

A

PIC can REQUIRE crew members to assist in apprehending people.
Can REQUEST passengers to assist.

308
Q

Security
- Flight deck door

A

Must be lockable and unlockable from either pilot station.
Must be a means of cabin crew discreetly warning pilots of unlawful activity.
Must be locked from time external doors are closed to opened for disembarkation, except to allow authorised persons in or out.
Pilots must be able to monitor the area outside the door.

309
Q

Acts of unlawful interference (3)

A

Includes:
- Communication of false information
- Forcible intrusion on-board, at an airport or at an aeronautical facility
- Bringing on board a weapon or hazardous item with criminal intent

310
Q

Aircraft security check/search

A

Search is considerably more thorough than a check.
Both involve looking through interior of aircraft to find suspicious objects, weapons, explosives etc.

311
Q

ICAO Departure Procedures

A

Included in PAN-OPS, so not part of SARPS and don’t have the same force as the annexes. In reality most states follow them.

312
Q

Obstacle Clearance Volume

A

An area around departure track where minimum obstacle clearance is guaranteed. Consists of primary area (1/2 the total width) in the middle and secondary area with reduced clearance (1/4 width on either side).
Width increases further away from runway, depending on obstacle clearance requirement and departure gradient.

313
Q

Procedure Design Gradient
.

A

This is the gradient of the departure, defaulting to 3.3%, starting at ZERO at end of runway.
3.3% made up of 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance.

314
Q

Assumed cone of confusion for:
- VOR
- NDB

A

VOR: 50 degrees either side of vertical
NDB: 40 degrees either side of vertical

315
Q

Assumed accuracy of:
- Terminal area radar
- En-route radar
- DME

A

Terminal area radar: 0.8NM within 20NM
En-route radar: 1.7NM within 40NM
DME: 0.25NM + 1.25% of distance

316
Q

3 features required for GNSS based RNAV to be used (for departure/arrival)

A

Need the following features:
- Integrity monitoring, e.g. RAIM
- Turn anticipation
- Capability for procedures from the read-only nav database

317
Q

Other requirements for using GNSS based RNAV (for departure/arrival)

A

Aircraft approved by state of operator.
Satellite availability checked.
Alternative aerodrome with conventional navaids selected.
[Plus usual - equipment serviceable, pilots know how to use it]

318
Q

Difference between RNAV and RNP

A

Very similar, but RNP requires monitoring of TSE (total system error) and warnings when the required level is broken.

319
Q

Baro-VNAV

A

VNAV element of FMS based on barometric information. Can be used in 2 different situations:
- Approach and landing operations with vertical guidance (APV): Lateral guidance with RNP, baro-VNAV required for vertical
- Non-precision approaches: Baro-VNAV not required but assists with CDFA

320
Q

Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC)

(Turning & straight departures)

A

Zero at end of runway, increases by 0.8% gradient assuming turns of no more than 15 degrees (considered straight departure).
For turns over 15 degrees (turning departure) need a “turning area” with MOC of >90m.
MOC may be increased in mountainous terrain.

321
Q

Turning departure requirements
- initial component
- other limitation

A

Straight flight up to 120m (400ft) height.
May be speed limits to limit radius. Aircraft with high minimum speeds need to use a different departure route.

322
Q

Omnidirectional departure
- description
- purpose

A

Straight departure to a given height then turn onto desired track.
If no suitable navaid available need to maintain runway centre-line until at least 120m (90m helicopters).
Designed for AVOIDING SECTORS with NO NAVAIDS.

323
Q

Approach segments (5)

A

Arrival (e.g. STAR - only goes this far!)
Initial approach (IAF)
Intermediate (IF)
Final approach (FAF)
Missed approach segment

324
Q

Straight-in approach (non-precision)
- limitation

A

Within 30 degrees of runway centre line.

325
Q

Aerodrome Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) vs Terminal Arrival Altitude (TAA)

A

Both require 300m MOC within 25NM of a specific point.
MSA: 25NM centred on the homing facility used for aerodrome approach
TAA: 25NM centred on IAF (or IF), replaces MSA for RNAV procedures.

326
Q

Aircraft Approach Categories basis

A

Based on 1.3 x stall speed in landing config @ maximum landing mass

327
Q

Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height (OCA/H)
- meaning for precision and non-precision approaches

A

Published for each approach procedure, depends on aircraft approach category (i.e. speed).
Precision/APV: Lowest alt/height at which missed approach procedure must be initiated to comply with obstacle clearance criteria.
Non-precision/visual (circling): Lowest alt/height aircraft can descend to before breaking obstacle clearance criteria.

328
Q

Types of precision and non-precision approaches (navaids and systems)

A

Precision: ILS, MLS, GLS, PAR.
Non-precision: ILS LOC only, SRA, VOR (/DME), NDB (/DME), VDF.

329
Q

Decision Height/Altitude (DH/A)

A

OCA/H + Lower Limit
Where lower limit (or margin) is based on several factors such as aircraft category, crew qualifications, weather conditions, aerodrome characteristics…
Also need to consider ILS category limits on DH and RVR.

330
Q

ILS DH & RVR requirements by category

A

CAT I: DH 200ft RVR 500m (or 800m vis)
CAT II: DH 100ft RVR 300m
CAT IIIA: DH 0ft RVR 200m
CAT IIIB: DH 0ft RVR 50m
CAT IIIC: DH 0ft RVR 0m

331
Q

Arrival segment
- description
- shapen of primary area

A

Sector leading up to initial approach fix (IAF). MOC in primary area of 300m.
Primary area expands at angle of 30 degrees from the IAF out to 25NM away.

332
Q

Initial Approach Segment
- description
- MOC

A

From IAF to IF.
300m MOC in primary area.
Can be very short, or include reversal procedures, base turns or racetrack procedures to lose height.

333
Q

Reversal procedure - 45/180

A

Called PROCEDURE TURN.
Commence either straight for 1-3 mins or straight up to a fix point.
Turn off by 45 degrees then straight for 1:00 (CAT A/B) or 1:15 (C/D/E).
Then turn opposite way to complete a circle and return in opposite direction along initial straight line.

334
Q

Reversal procedure - 80/260

A

Start same as 45/180 but turn by 80 degrees initially, then immediately commence circle turning in opposite direction (260 degrees) to achieve the 180.

335
Q

Base turn

A

A specified outbound track limited by timing or a fix.
At that point commence a turn to intercept an inbound track (not a reciprocal track so different to a reversal procedure).

336
Q

Intermediate Approach Segment
- description
- MOC

A

MOC reduces from 300m to 150m in primary area.
Aircraft speed and configuration adjusted to prepare for final approach, so descent gradient kept as shallow as possible.

337
Q

ILS dead reckoning approach
- interception angle
- track length
- arrival phase

A

In approach procedure there may be a dead reckoning required up to ILS interception.
Should intercept the localiser at 45 degrees and the track shouldn’t be over 10NM long.
Point of interception will be the beginning of the intermediate approach segment.

338
Q

Speed instructions by radar controller during approach

A

Radar controller may request speed changes up to 20kt in intermediate and final approach phases, but NOT within 4NM of runway.

339
Q

Final Approach Segment

A

From Final Approach Fix (or point) up to the Missed Approach Point (MAPt).
Can lead to a straight in approach or to the aerodrome area for a visual manoeuvre.
Straight-in limited to 30 degrees from centre line for Cat A/B aircraft only, 15 degrees otherwise.

340
Q

Visual manoeuvring - circling

A

Name for the stage at the end of instrument approach when a straight in approach isn’t possible.

341
Q

Final Approach Point
- description
- typical height

A

FAP is a point on centre line of localiser or MLS azimuth that intersects with the glidescope and the intermediate approach altitude.
Normally 300m to 900m above runway elevation.

342
Q

Approach points vs approach fixes

A

Points relate to precision approaches, i.e. a point in space.
Fixes are 2d locations used in non-precision approaches.

343
Q

Final approach descent angles
- cat II/III
- other

A

ONLY 3 deg for CAT II/III
In other cases minimum is 2.5 degrees.
Maximum is 3.7 degrees for Cat A/B, 3.5 degrees for Cat C/D/E.

344
Q

Non-precision approaches
- Vertical path control methods (3)

A

Stepdown - A series of steps, ending at MDA/H. High descent rates, needs careful monitoring.
Constant angle - Constant angle from FAF to 50ft point. Level off at MDA/H until visual or MAPt reached.
Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA): Continuous descent from at least IAF to 50ft point. Method is preferred. Never level off at MDA/H, if you get within 50ft of it go around.

345
Q

Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA)
- Limitations

A

Normally stops 2NM before threshold.
With appropriate authority and suitable accuracy can continue to the runway, in which case will provide distance and level information every 0.5NM.
No transmission interruptions for more than 5 seconds.

346
Q

Missed approach phases

A

Initial: From MAPt to when climb established
Intermediate: Up to when 50m obstacle clearance achieved and maintained
Final: Up to commencement of new approach

347
Q

Missed approach gradients

A

Normally based on 2.5% (nominal gradient).
Minimum of 2% can be used if necessary safeguarding carried out.
Higher gradients for better climbing aircraft can be used, will be clearly notified on the approach chart.

348
Q

Ways MAPt can be identified
- precision
- non precision (3)

A

Precision approach:
- Intersection of glidepath and DA/H
Non-precision approach:
- Navigational facility
- Fix
- Specified distance from FAF

349
Q

Path from MAPt
- vertical restriction when following
- path splay

A

Pilot expected to continue to MAPt even if decision made sooner, but higher altitude is allowed.
Path splays at 15 degrees from that point.

350
Q

Radar (surveillance radar approach or precision radar approach) missed approach

A

Order a missed approach if:
- No clearance by 2NM
- Traffic de-confliction
- Dangerously positioned
- Instructions from aerodrome controller

Suggest a missed approach if:
- Aircraft position indicates that successful approach not possible
- Not visible on radar for significant time in last 2NM

351
Q

Areas related to holding area (3)

A

Holding area: Suitable for racetrack holding pattern based on aircraft speed etc.
Entry area
Buffer area: 5NM outside

352
Q

Minimum holding level
- requirements

A

Must provide clearance of:
- 300m above obstacles in holding area (600m in mountainous areas)
- Reducing value to provide clearance over obstacles in buffer area
Round up to 50m or 100ft

353
Q

Standard holding pattern direction

A

Right turn

354
Q

Holding pattern diagrams
- Outbound vs inbound
- Holding vs limiting outbound distances

A
355
Q

Holding pattern turning limits

A

Lesser of 25 degrees of bank or 3 degrees per second (rate 1 turn)

356
Q

Holding entry sectors

A
357
Q

Holding entry sector 3 - Direct

A

Direct entry
Head to the holding fix and commence the first right turn.

358
Q

Holding entry sector 1 - Parallel

A
359
Q

Holding entry sector 2 - Offset

A
360
Q

Holding - turn timing

A

Fix end turn is over the fix.
Outbound end turn is defined by a DME or limiting radial, OR by time:
<=FL140/14000ft: 1:00
>FL140/14000ft: 1:30

361
Q

Departing hold at set time

A

Adjust the last holding pattern to achieve departure at set time (i.e. make the outbound end turn earlier).

362
Q

Parallel runways definition

A

Non-intersecting runways whose extended centrelines diverge/converge by 15 degrees or less.

363
Q

Parallel Runway Operation Modes

A

1: Independent Parallel Approaches
2: Dependent Parallel Approaches
3: Independent Parallel Departures
4: Segregated Parallel Operations

364
Q

Divergence of parallel approach track

A

Must diverge by at least 30 degrees as soon as practicable

365
Q

Independent vs dependent parallel approaches/departures

A

Dependent means there is radar separation minima and radar vectors

Independent still requires ATC monitoring (by radar) but no vectors or separation minima.

Parallel departures are independent only.

366
Q

Independent parallel approaches
- no-transgression zone

A

Independent means no radar separation minima.
Need a >=2000ft (610m) wide no-transgression zone equidistant between the runways. Must be visible clearly on radar screen.
If an aircraft encroaches ATC must intervene to manoeuvre threatened aircraft on approach to the other runway.

367
Q

Parallel departures
- Divergence required
- Radar requirement

A

Means parallel runways, SAME direction.
Independent parallel departures requires:
- 15 degree track divergence immediately after takeoff; and
- Radar capable of identifying aircraft within 1NM of end of runway

368
Q

Parallel (missed) approaches & departures requirement

A

Nominal tracks of departure procedure and missed approach track must diverge by 30 degrees

369
Q

Types of parallel approach & departure Operations

A

Mixed - Simultaneous approaches &/or departures on both runways
Segregated - One runway for departures, one for approaches
Semi-mixed - One runway just approaches or just departures, other does both

370
Q

Equipment requirements for parallel approaches

A

IFR avionics - i.e. ILS or MLS capability

371
Q

Simultaneous Independent Parallel approach procedures
- Radar requirement
- Separation before final approach track
- Interception of final approach track
- Required flat distance before glidepath interception
- How 1000ft separation is achieved

A
  • Must be radar monitored in ALL weather conditions (i.e. VFR & IFR)
  • Min of 3NM radar separation OR 1000ft vertical separation until ILS localiser or MLS final approach track
  • No procedure turns, must intercept ILS/MLS at less than 30 degrees, need >=1NM S&L flight before ILS/MLS interception
  • Final vector >=2NM on ILS/MLS before intercepting glidepath/elevation angle
  • Each pair of approaches has “high side” and “low side” until ILS/MLS track to maintain 1000ft separation
372
Q

Transponder aircraft requirements
- Mode A

A

Except in emergency, comms failure or unlawful interference, pilot must:
- Operate transponder and set code given by ATC;
- Operate transponder based on air navigation agreements; or
- In absence of either of these, operate transponder with 2000

373
Q

Transponder aircraft requirements
- Mode C

A

Must operate in mode C if you have it

374
Q

Transponder aircraft requirements
- Mode S

A

Europe:
IFR with MTOM>5700kg or TAS>250kt need Mode S EHS
Other IFR need Mode S ELS

375
Q

Transponder failure before departure

A
  • Let ATC know ASAP, ideally pre-flight plan
  • Item 10 under SSR, “N” for non-serviceable or other character for partial capability
  • Comply with published procedures
  • If required by ATS, proceed to nearest aerodrome where repair can happen
376
Q

Transponder codes
- Emergency
- Unlawful interference
- Radio failure
- Interception

A

Emergency: 7700
Unlawful interference: 7500
Radio failure: 7600
Interception: 7700

377
Q

Aircraft which need ACAS

A

MTOM > 5700kg; or
>19 passenger capacity

378
Q

Shortened ATC clearances

A
  • Can say “cleared via flight plan route” without detailing the route itself.
  • Can say “cleared via (aerodrome) arrival” or “departure” to refer to STARs and SIDs, instead of the full route in detail.
379
Q

Multi-stage flight clearances

A

Only as far as next landing aerodrome.

380
Q

ATC clearance contents

A
  • Aircraft identification
  • Clearance limit
  • Route
  • Level (or levels if relevant)
  • Other information/instructions
381
Q

Position report contents

A
  • Aircraft Identification
  • Position
  • Time
    Optional based on ATC/regional navigation agreements:
  • Level
  • Next position and time over
  • Ensuing significant point
382
Q

Exemption from position reporting (2)

A

Under radar control
ADS contract

383
Q

AIREP SPECIALS

A
  • (Mod)/Sev turb
  • (Mod)/Sev icing
  • Sev mountain wave
  • TS (OBSC, IMBD, WSPD, SQ)
  • Heavy dust/sand storm
  • Volcanic ash cloud or eruption
384
Q

Wake turbulence categories

A

Super (J): A380
Heavy (H): >136,000kg
Medium (M): 7,001 to 136,000kg
Light (L): <=7,000kg
[Letter is flight plan code]

385
Q

ATC Speed instructions
- cruise increments
- approach restrictions

A

At or above FL250: 0.01MN increments
Below FL250: 10kt IAS increments

Turbine pilot can reject speed below 250kt if they have good reason

Final approach speed changes limited to 20kt, nothing in last 4NM.

386
Q

Vertical Separation in climb/descent for pilots in direct communication

A

Pilots in direct communication with each other may be allowed to maintain specified vertical separation during climb/descent.

387
Q

Longitudinal separation for aircraft crossing levels (i.e. no vertical separation)
[?]

A

i) 15 mins normally
ii) 10 mins when navaids permit frequent position reporting
iii) 5 mins provided level change commences within 10 mins of second aircraft reporting at a reporting point

388
Q

Clearance to flight level being vacated
[?]

A

Can be cleared once mode C shows first aircraft has departed the level by 300ft.
EXCEPT:
- Severe turbulence known
- Higher aircraft in cruise climb
- Big difference in aircraft performance
[In which case 1000/2000ft vertical separation minima apply]

389
Q

Lateral vs longitudinal separation

A

Lateral - Different tracks
Longitudinal - Achieved by timing

390
Q

Lateral separation via
- VORs
- NDBs
- Dead reckoning
- Geographical location

A

All need to be 15NM away from beacon or DR point
VOR: 15 degrees separation
NDB: 30 degrees separation
DR: 45 degrees separation
Geographical: pilot report locations

391
Q

RNAV lateral separation requirements (degrees)

A

Tracks diverge by 15 degrees and airspace doesn’t overlap.

392
Q

DME/GNSS lateral separation
- Methodology

A

Based on aircraft using “on track” DME stations, or DME stations @ waypoints, or same waypoint with GNSS. Separation achieved by simultaneous DME/GNSS readings from the aircraft.

393
Q

DME/GNSS lateral separation
- Separation for same level (nm)
[?]

A

20NM normally
reduced to 10NM if leading aircraft at least 20kt TAS faster
Also applies to crossing aircraft if angle less than 90 degrees

394
Q

DME/GNSS lateral separation
- Separation for climbing/descending on same track (nm)
[?]

A

10NM

395
Q

Longitudinal separation same track & level (mins)
[?]

A

i) 15 mins normally;
ii) 10 mins if navaids allow frequent position reporting;
iii) IF both left same aerodrome or reporting point:
5 mins if first aircraft 20kt faster
3 mins if first aircraft 40kt faster

396
Q

Longitudinal separation by mach number
[?]

A

Can be used if both left same reporting point or ATC can otherwise determine appropriate time interval at a common point.
M 0.06: 5 mins
M 0.05: 6 mins
M 0.04: 7 mins
M 0.03: 8 mins
M 0.02: 9 mins
M 0.00: 10 mins

397
Q

Reduction of longitudinal separation near airports

A

Can be reduced if
i) aerodrome controller has both aircraft continuously visible
ii) aircraft can both see each other continuously or following aircraft can see one in front and maintain separation.

398
Q

European longitudinal separation difference

A

With radar available, 3 mins separation allowed as long as never closer than 20NM.

399
Q

Longitudinal separation minima under RNP (4, 10, other)

A

RNP 4: 30NM
RNP 10: 50NM
Otherwise 80NM

400
Q

Radar separation minima

A

Standard - 5NM
If equipment allows - 3NM

401
Q

Own separation rules in controlled airspace

A

Only VMC during daytime, in classes D and E, up to 10,000ft, provided authorised by ATC and agreed by pilot.

402
Q

Essential traffic definition

A

Controlled traffic which isn’t separated from other traffic

403
Q

Transferring to Approach on departure (from aerodrome control)

A

VMC: Must be transferred before entering IMC or leaving vicinity of aerodrome
IMC: Before entering runway for takeoff or immediately after airborne if local procedures make this preferable

404
Q

Minimum separation on departure (mins)

A

1 min if tracks diverge by at least 45 degrees [can be reduced for parallel/diverging runways specific rules]

2 min if same track and first aircraft >40kt faster

5 min if no vertical separation, same track and fly through each others levels

405
Q

Update information for departing aircraft (3)

A

Information must be given to departing aircraft ASAP, unless already known to aircraft:
- Significant meteorological change (eg surface wind)
- Operational status of navaids
- Local traffic

406
Q

Maximum turn angle for straight departure

A

15 degrees

407
Q

Transfer from Approach for arrivals (to aerodrome control)

A

Transfer at earliest of:
- Landing
- Vicinity of aerodrome and have uninterrupted VMC or otherwise able to complete approach and landing with visual reference to the ground

408
Q

Separation of departing and arriving traffic
- when do arriving aircraft become relevant (3)
- restrictions on departures after that point

A

An arriving flight is of concern once it starts procedure turn (to face landing direction), base turn to final or 5 min final.
After this, no departures within 45 degrees of landing centreline back towards the landing aircraft.
Departures outside that 90 degree section allowed up to 3 mins before landing aircraft is over beginning of instrument runway.

409
Q

Own separation for arrivals and departures

A

If aircraft requests, and allowed by ATS authority, pilots can be given authority to climb to a level (or point, or time) or descend, subject to providing own separation and remaining in VMC.

410
Q

Requirements to clear visual approach for IFR aircraft

A

IFR flight can be cleared for visual approach and landing if either:
i) Pilot reports at initial approach level OR during instrument approach that visual conditions allow it; or
ii) Reported ceiling at or above initial approach level for the aircraft.

Pilot must proceed with full IFR approach unless cleared for visual.

411
Q

Separation for visual IFR approach

A

Separation must be provided for aircraft that are cleared for a visual approach, UNTIL pilot reports having aircraft ahead in sight. At this point can be instructed to follow and maintain own separation.

412
Q

ATC passing info on IFR approach pattern (3 + 1)

A

If pilot reports it, or otherwise clear pilot is unfamiliar with the IFR approach, ATC pass info on:
- Initial approach level
- Point and level at which procedure turn started
- Final approach track
- (Optional) Missed approach procedure

413
Q

Holding and approach sequence

A

Aircraft should be held with lowest to make first approach. If an aircraft wishes to hold for longer to wait for conditions, it should be positioned at the correct height order, or moved to another holding area.

414
Q

Estimated Approach Time

A

Time ATC expect aircraft will be able to commence approach.
Must be determined if delay over 10 mins expected and transmitted to aircraft ASAP (ideally before commencing descent from cruise).
Must be sent by “most expeditious means” if over 30 mins.
Must be updated if it changes by over 5 mins.

415
Q

Information to be passed to pilots on final approach (5)

A

Significant changes mostly, of:
- hazards on the runway
- windspeed
- runway surface condition
- operational status of navaids
- visibility

416
Q

Required windspeed changes to be informed to pilots on approach

A

Headwind - 10kt
Tailwind - 2kt
Crosswind - 5kt

417
Q

Who do aerodrome control tower notify if aircraft doesn’t contact them or ceases contact?

A

Area control centre or flight information centre

418
Q

Tower action if VFR suspended (4)

A
  • Hold all departures without IFR flight plan and get approval for them from area control centre;
  • Recall local VFR flights or obtain special VFR approvals;
  • Notify area control centre;
  • Notify all area operators of reasons for taking action.
419
Q

Pre-taxy information (6)

A
  • Runway in use
  • Wind
  • QNH (QFE if requested)
  • Air temp for runway (for turbine)
  • Visibility
  • Correct time
    [Except if known that pilot is already aware]
420
Q

Pre-takeoff information (2)

A
  • Significant changes in conditions (wind, air temp, visibility)
  • Significant meteorological activity in take off and climb out area
    [Except if known that pilot is already aware]
421
Q

Information before entering circuit

A
  • Runway in use
  • Wind
  • QNH (QFE if requested!)
422
Q

When is QFE for runway threshold given? (2)

A

When threshold more than 7ft (2m) below aerodrome elevation; or
Precision approach runways

423
Q

Clearance to land after other aircraft

A

Not normally permitted to cross beginning of runway until departing craft has:
- crossed the end of the runway in use;
- started a turn;
Or arriving aircraft:
- are clear of runway in use.

424
Q

Distance by which clearance to land should be given

A

2NM from touchdown

425
Q

Term “radar contact”

A

Means you have been identified on radar

426
Q

Radar control close to boundary

A

Shouldn’t be vectored closer to boundary of radar controlled space than 2.5NM.
Unless:
- transfer of radar control to be effected; or
- local arrangements for separation made for separation against radar controlled craft in neighbouring space.

427
Q

Radar vectoring to ILS, interception requirements

A

Last vector at angle of less than 45 degrees to centreline (30 degrees for parallel runways).
Should be on centreline 2NM before glideslope intercept.

428
Q

Wake Turbulence Radar Separation
- General minima

A
429
Q

Wake Turbulence Radar Separation
- When general minima apply

A
  • Aircraft behind another between 0ft and 1000ft below
  • Aircraft using same runway, or parallel less than 760m apart
  • Aircraft crossing behind another, 0ft to 1000ft below
430
Q

Wake Turbulence Separation
- Light aircraft, arriving & departing

A
431
Q

Wake Turbulence Separation
- Medium aircraft, arriving & departing

A
432
Q

Wake Turbulence Separation
- Heavy aircraft, arriving & departing

A

Nothing when arriving
2 mins when departing

433
Q

Wake Turbulence Separation
- Departing from intermediate position

A

1 minute longer than departing from same position

434
Q

Wake Turbulence Separation
- Opposite direction

A

2 minute separation between L or M following H, or L following M.
Based on using an opposite direction runway for take off or landing on the same runway in opposite direction (or parallel less than 760m).

435
Q

Size of heading change requested by radar to identify you

A

30 degrees

436
Q

Definition of “strayed” aircraft

A

Deviated from radar track significantly, or reported lost.

437
Q

Adult, child, infant

A

Adult: >= 12 years old
Child: 2 - 12 years old
Infant: < 2 years old

438
Q

EASA AIR OPS annexes
- Annex V
- Annex VI
- Annex VII

A

Annex V: SPA - Specific Approvals
Annex VI: NCC - Non-Commercial Complex
Annex VII: NCO - Non-Commercial Other

439
Q

EASA AIR OPS
- Acceptance checklist

A

Document used to assist with checking dangerous goods

440
Q

Requirement to fly EASA aircraft

A

EASA license
Or license from another ICAO country that is VALIDATED by EASA.
Validation lasts up to one year, as long as underlying license is valid.

441
Q

EASA state of license issue

A

Deemed to be the state holding your medical records.
Can change it later for administrative reasons to the state in which you are normally resident.
Can get theory results and ratings done in any EASA state.

442
Q

Documents for pilot to carry in flight

A
  • License, medical certificate and photo ID
  • Should be able to present flight time record without undue delay
  • Student pilot on solo cross country should carry evidence of required authorisation
443
Q

Validity of class ratings and type ratings

A

Type ratings & multi-engine class ratings: 1 year
Single-engine class ratings: 2 years

FROM DATE OF ISSUE

444
Q

Time frame for class or type rating proficiency check in advance of expiry date

A

Max 3 months

445
Q

Differences training

A

Required where class rating covers an aircraft but there are significant changes. Particulars to be recorded in log book.

446
Q

Failed tests

A

If you fail a test you can’t use the relevant rating, even if time was left on the original.

447
Q

Multi-crew type rating
- exemptions from MCC course (3)

A
  • Type rating includes MCC course;
  • Pilot is MPL student; or
  • Applicant has >500hrs multi-pilot
448
Q

Older pilots

A

60-64 years: No single pilot commercial flight
65 years+: No commercial flight

449
Q

Professional pilot profficiency checks validity period

A

Valid for 6 months.
First one valid for 6 months from the last day of the month of the check.
If next one is within 3 months of end of the last validity period, add 6 months to the original validity period.

450
Q

Flight time - flights with less than 30 minutes gap

A

Treated as one flight

451
Q

Times to refer to aero-medical examiner (7)

A
  • Surgery or invasive procedure
  • Commence regular medication
  • Significant personal injury
  • Significant personal illness
  • Pregnancy
  • Admitted to hospital/clinic
  • First use of corrective lenses
452
Q

Deferral of medicals

A

Medicals for non-commercial operations can be delayed for up to 6 months

453
Q

Medical validity
- class 1
- class 2

A

Class 1: 12 months (6 for over 60s or over 40s for SINGLE PILOT operations)

Class 2: 60 months up to 40
24 months up to 50
12 months thereafter

[Limits to age 42 and 51 for medicals issued before age 40 and 50]

454
Q

Medical - renewal vs revalidation

A

Renewal means the original has expired.
Revalidation means original is still valid.

455
Q

Medical - examination required for renewal

A

Expiry < 2yrs: Routine revalidation
2-5 years: Assess aero-medical records first
5 years+: Initial examination

456
Q

Class A & B aircraft

A

Class A: All multi-jet, multi-prop with >5700kg OR MOPSC > 9

Class B: Multi-prop <5700kg AND MOPSC <= 9

457
Q

Do aircraft taking off have right of way?

A

Yes

458
Q

When does aircraft entering circuit without proper authorisation get permission to land?

A

If it so desires!
Permission to land should not be withheld

459
Q

EU Regulations:
- 996/2010
- 965/2012
- 376/2014
- 373/2017

A

996/2010: Investigations into accidents and SERIOUS incidents
965/2012: Commercial operators (ramp inspections, operator certificates, specialised operations)
376/2014: Safety management systems and importance of reporting
373/2017: Air traffic management & air navigation services

460
Q

Colour of landing direction indicator

A

White or ORANGE

461
Q

Who is responsible for “structural integrity programme” to ensure airworthiness for 5700kg craft?

A

State of design
Includes info on corrosion.

462
Q

Right of way
- Balloons, airships, gliders, towing

A

Balloons > Gliders > Airships > Power

ONLY power give way to towing aircraft

463
Q

No entry sign locations

A

IMMEDIATELY in front of prohibited area.
On BOTH sides of taxiway.

464
Q

Runway holding bays
- Which density of traffic requires them?
- Distance away from which point?

A

Medium or heavy
Distanced from the centreline

465
Q

Boundary marker vs runway edge marker

A

Boundary for NO RUNWAY (e.g. grass), runway edge for not clearly visible.

ATPL - Module 2b (5 decks)

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