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AVIA 203 > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

List the Age, Medical, Knowledge & Experience Requirements for a CPL

A

Age: 18 Years Old
Medical: Category 1
Experience: 200 hrs Total (100 hrs PIC, 20 hrs PIC XC), 20 hrs Instrument following PPL, 5 hrs Dual XC, 300 NM XC

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2
Q

What are the Additional Privileges granted to a holder of a CPL?

A

All PPL privileges + VFR OTT rating & Night Rating
Fly for Hire/Reward
Captain of Single-Crew A/C
First Officer of Multi-Crew A/C

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3
Q

When is a Type Rating Required?

A

Any A/C not covered under a blanket rating
High Performance A/C, or A/C requiring min flight crew of 2

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4
Q

What is the Definition of a High Performance A/C?

A

Min Flight Crew of 1
Vne of 250 kts or greater
Vso of 80 kts or greater

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5
Q

Can CPL holder exercise privileges of a PPL?

A

Yes (Medical for a PPL is only class 3)

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6
Q

What time frame is needed for Currency Requirements?

A

24 Months

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7
Q

What are the 7 ways to stay Current?

A
  1. Attend TC Safety Seminar
  2. Participate in Recurrent Training Program (Ground School)
  3. Complete Training Program or PPC
  4. Meet Requirements for Issue/Renewal of Permit, Licence or Rating
  5. Complete Written Exams for Permit, Licence, or Rating
  6. Complete Flight Review
  7. Self-Paced Study Course Completed Anually
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8
Q

What are the 5 Year Recency Requirements?

A

Act as PIC once, or
Write PSTAR & Complete Flight Review with Instructor (Have Logbook Certified)

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9
Q

What are the 6 Month Recency Requirements?

A

Must Complete 5 Takeoffs and Landings to Carry Pax

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10
Q

Who publishes the AIP Canada?

A

NAV Canada

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11
Q

Who publishes the AIM?

A

Transport Canada

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12
Q

When is AIM updated?

A

Twice a Year (Spring/Fall)

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13
Q

Who issues the Canada Flight Supplement and how often is it published?

A

NAV Canada & 56 Days

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14
Q

Which operators must have a Safety Management System (SMS)?

A

All Part 4, 5 & 7 operators

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15
Q

How long must a crew member wait to operate an A/C after drinking alcohol?

A

12 hours

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16
Q

When are you allowed to refuel an A/C with the engine running?

A

Only if in accordance with Air Operator Standards

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17
Q

When is someone allowed to leave an A/C for the purpose of a parachute descent?

A
  1. When it isn’t in controlled airspace or an air route
  2. When it isn’t over a built-up area or an assembly of people
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18
Q

Are Portable Electronic Devices allowed on A/C?

A

They are, as long as they don’t interfere with any system or equipment on the A/C

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19
Q

Can you operate an A/C with a 2-way radio that can’t communicate on 121.5 MHz?

A

No, must be able to communicate on 121.5 MHz

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20
Q

What are 2 systems in place to guard against Control Locks being engaged during flight?

A
  1. Incapable of being engaged when A/C operated
  2. Warning provided whenever control lock is engaged
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21
Q

What are the Critical Surfaces?

A

Wings, Control Surfaces, Props, Stabilizers

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22
Q

When can an A/C fly in Icing Conditions?

A

When the PIC determines the A/C is adequately equipped

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23
Q

What are the minimum items required in a Pre-Flight Briefing?

A
  1. Normal & Emergency Exits
  2. Operation of Safety Belts/Shoulder Harnesses
  3. Positioning/Securing of Seats, Seat Backs, Rudder Pedals, etc.
  4. Stowage of Carry-On Baggage
  5. Operating Oxygen Equipment
  6. Prohibition on Smoking/Eating/Drinking
  7. First-Aid Kits, Survival Kits
  8. Over Water: Life Preservers, Rafts, etc.
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24
Q

What’s the difference between an ATC Instruction and Clearance?

A

Instruction: Must be complied with
Clearance: Must be complied with, if accepted

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25
Q

When do we need to read back an ATC Clearance? - Differences between VFR and IFR

A

VFR - Read back any section of clearance when requested
IFR - Read back entire clearance

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26
Q

What 2 things must be true to dump fuel?

A
  1. Necessary to do so to ensure safety
  2. All appropriate measures taken to minimize danger to life, environment
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27
Q

When may the PIC deviate from an ATC Clearance/Instruction?

A

To carry out a collision avoidance manoeuvre (ACAS, TCAS, GPWS)

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28
Q

What must the PIC do when they deviate from an ATC Clearance/Instruction?

A

Inform ATC ASAP and return to last accepted clearance

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29
Q

What frequency does an ELT transmit on and for how long?

A

121.5 MHz, 243.0 MHz for 48 hours

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30
Q

What are the 2 main categories of ELT?

A

F/AF - Remain in A/C
AP - Can be removed from A/C

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31
Q

When are you allowed to test an ELT?

A

In the first 5 minutes of any UTC hour for max of 5 seconds

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32
Q

What are the 4 exceptional cases where an ELT is not required?

A
  1. Gliders, balloons, airships, ultra-lights, gyroplanes
  2. Operated by FTU within 25 NM of departure aerodrome
  3. Flight test
  4. New A/C in flight for purpose of manufacture, preparation or delivery
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33
Q

What must an operator do to operate an A/C without an ELT when it is required?

A
  1. Repairs/removes ELT at first aerodrome that repairs/removals can take place
  2. Displays placard that ELT has been removed
  3. Re-equips ELT within 30 days after removal
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34
Q

What are the Oxygen Requirements when flying above 13,000’ ASL?

A

Everyone must be wearing oxygen for duration of flight

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35
Q

What are the Oxygen Requirements when flying between 10,000’ and 13,000’ ASL?

A

Crew members for duration of flight over 30 mins
Available to 10% of pax, no less than 1

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36
Q

What are the Oxygen Requirements at night?

A

Above 5000’ ASL must be used

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37
Q

What are the 3 steps the PIC should take when a comm failure occurs in Class B, C, or D airspace?

A
  1. Leave airspace by shortest route
  2. Squawk 7600
  3. Inform ATC ASAP of actions taken
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38
Q

What is the minimum VFR distance over built-up areas?

A

Not lower than 1000’ above highest obstacle within 2000’ radius

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39
Q

What is the minimum VFR distance over non-built up areas?

A

Not lower than 500’ above highest obstacle within 500’ radius

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40
Q

What is the minimum VFR distance over open water?

A

500’ above the water

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41
Q

What is the max speed IAS below 10,000’ ASL?

A

250 kts

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42
Q

What is the max speed IAS below 3,000’ ASL, within 10 NM of a control zone?

A

200 kts

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43
Q

Memorize VFR Weather Minima

A

Yes Sir

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44
Q

What is the weather minima for SVFR?

A

1 SM vis, and clear of cloud

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45
Q

What are the other (non-weather) requirements for SVFR?

A

2-way radio, only authorized at night for landing, must be pilot requested

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46
Q

What is the weather minima for VFR OTT?

A

Weather at destination forecast scattered or better, vis of 5 SM or better, no precipitation, or fog

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47
Q

What is the minimum altitude over-flying an aerodrome?

A

2000’ AGL

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48
Q

What is the rule of thumb when it comes to right of way rules?

A

Right

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49
Q

What is the definition of an aerobatic maneuver?

A

Change in attitude resulting in bank over 60°, abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration

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50
Q

Are aerobatics allowed over built-up areas, in controlled airspace or below 2000’ AGL?

A

No

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51
Q

What requirements must the PIC have to fly aerobatics with pax?

A
  1. 10 hrs dual instruction or 20 hrs conducting aerobatics
  2. PIC flown 1 hr of aerobatics in past 6 months
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52
Q

What are the differences between Northern and Southern Domestic Airspace?

A

Northern uses true track, while Southern uses magnetic because the compass is unreliable up north

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53
Q

What is a Flight Information Region?

A

Area of defined dimension within which flight info service and alerting services provided

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54
Q

What is defined as High Level Airspace?

A

All airspace over 18,000’ ASL

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55
Q

Where do the Southern, Northern, and Arctic Control Areas start?

A

Southern: 18,000’ ASL and above
Northern: FL 230 and above
Arctic: FL 270 and above

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56
Q

What are the normal dimensions for a Control Zone?

A

Extend from surface to 3000’ AAE
Radius of 5 NM
Within TCA have radius of 7 NM
Military is 10 NM

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57
Q

What are the dimensions of Low Level Airways?

A

Controlled airspace extending from 2200’ AGL up to (not including) 18,000’ ASL

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58
Q

What is a Control Area Extension?

A

Controlled airspace within low level airspace extending upwards from 2200’ AGL until specified

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59
Q

What are the dimensions of a Transition Area?

A

Based at 700’ AGL up to overlying airspace
15 NM radius

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60
Q

Describe Class A Airspace

A

All high level controlled airspace to FL 600, only IFR, require Mode C transponder

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61
Q

Describe Class B Airspace

A

Only CVFR and IFR, with Mode C transponder
All low level controlled airspace, above 12,500’ ASL and above MEA up to 18,000’ ASL
Can be control zones & TCAs

62
Q

Describe Class C Airspace

A

Allows both VFR & IFR, VFR requires clearance
Requires 2-way radio, and Mode C transponder
Becomes Class E when no ATC

63
Q

Describe Class D Airspace

A

Controlled allowing both IFR and VFR - VFR must establish 2-way comms prior to entering
Requires 2-way radio and Mode C transponder (when designated)
Becomes Class E when no ATC

64
Q

Describe Class E Airspace

A

When operational control exists but doesn’t need active control
Both IFR and VFR - no requirements
Requires transponder when designated
Control zones, low level airways, control area extensions, or transition areas

65
Q

Describe Class F Airspace

A

Activities confined due to their nature
Advisory (CYA) or Restricted (CYR) - will give type of activity
Designated Airspace Handbook

66
Q

Describe Class G Airspace

A

All remaining airspace
Surface to 18,000’ ASL (or overlying)
Low Level Air Routes - same as Low Level Airways but start at surface

67
Q

When do Cruising Altitude Orders come into effect?

A

3000’ AGL and above
(001-179) = Odd (181-359) = Even

68
Q

What is the difference between the Altimeter Setting and the Standard Pressure Regions?

A

During cruise you set the altimeter to the nearest station in the Altimeter Setting Region, while it gets set to 29.92” Hg in the Standard Pressure Region

69
Q

What is the procedure for entering the Standard Pressure Region? The Altimeter Setting Region?

A

Entering Standard - 29.92” after entering
Entering Altimeter - Altimeter Setting prior to entering

70
Q

What is the requirement for entering the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)?

A

File a DVFR Flight Plane
+/- 20 NM of centreline of track
+/- 5 mins of entry time

71
Q

What is ESCAT?

A

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic - invoked during air defence emergency

72
Q

What are the 3 different modes of transponders?

A

A - Ident Only
C - Ident and Altitude
S - Ident, Altitude and other Info

73
Q

What are the 2 standard VFR transponder codes?

A

1200 - at and below 12,500’ ASL
1400 - above 12,500’ ASL

74
Q

What are the 3 emergency transponder codes?

A

7500 - Hijacking
7600 - Communication Failure
7700 - Emergency

75
Q

Steady Green Light from Ground/Air?

A

Cleared to Takeoff/Cleared to Land

76
Q

Flashing Green Light from Ground/Air?

A

Cleared to Taxi/Return to Land

77
Q

Steady Red Light from Ground/Air?

A

Stop/Give Way and Continue Circling

78
Q

Flashing Red Light from Ground/Air?

A

Taxi Clear of Runway/Airport Unsafe, Don’t Land

79
Q

What do Blinking Runway Lights indicate?

A

Exit the runway

80
Q

What are VFR Fuel Requirements for Day and Night

A

30 minutes at cruise for day
45 minutes at cruise for night

81
Q

What is an Airport?

A

An Aerodrome with a certificate

82
Q

What is the difference between a Maneuvering and Movement Area?

A

Maneuvering - Part of aerodrome used for taking off and landing/movement of A/C, excluding aprons
Movement - Surface movement of A/C includes maneuvering area & aprons

83
Q

What does a Wind Sock parallel to the horizon indicate? 30° below horizon?

A

15 kts & 6 kts

84
Q

What is the difference between VASIS and PAPIs?

A

VASIS = 2x2
PAPI = 4x1

85
Q

What is the minimum runway lighting required for A/C movement at night?

A

White runway edge lights

86
Q

What colour lights surround taxiways? Aprons?

A

Blue & Orange

87
Q

How close to the airport must you be to activate the ARCAL?

A

15 NM

88
Q

What is the difference between Type J and Type K ARCAL?

A

Type J - 5 clicks in 5 secs, 1 setting
Type K - 7, 5, 3 clicks in 5 secs, 3 settings

89
Q

Describe an ATF

A

Active uncontrolled aerodrome
Radio calls made to “Traffic”
122.8, 123.0, 123.2

90
Q

Describe an MF

A

Established at uncontrolled aerodrome where there is a safety benefit
All A/C must have radio
FSS monitoring frequency, calls made to “Radio”

91
Q

What does NOTAMR, NOTAMC, NOTAMJ, and NOTAMQ mean?

A

Replacing
Cancelling
RSC/CRFI
Query Response

92
Q

What kind of flights don’t require a flight plan to be filed?

A

Flights within 25 NM of departure aerodrome

93
Q

When does SAR start after a Flight Plan, and Flight Itinerary?

A

60 minutes
24 hours

94
Q

What must Survival Equipment provide for?

A
  1. Starting a Fire
  2. Purifying Water
  3. Providing Shelter
  4. Signalling Distress
95
Q

What Equipment must be carried on a Power-Driven A/C?

A
  1. Checklist/Placard to operate A/C in accordance with POH
  2. VFR OTT/Night VFR - Current Charts/Publications for route & diversions
  3. Fire Extinguisher
  4. Time Piece for Each Crew Member
  5. Flashlight for Each Crew Member at Night
  6. First Aid Kit
96
Q

Minimum Day VFR Equipment

A
  1. Airspeed Indicator
  2. Magnetic Compass
  3. Altimeter (Controlled Airspace - Adjustable)
  4. Engine Instruments (Tachometer, Manifold Pressure, Fuel Pressure, Oil Pressure, Oil Temperature, Coolant Temperature)
  5. Fuel Gauges
  6. Radio (If in Radio Airspace)
97
Q

Requirements for Seaplanes and Life Preservers/Flotation Devices

A

Life Preservers for each person on board

98
Q

Requirements for Landplanes with Life Preservers/Flotation Devices

A

Can’t be operated beyond gliding distance from shore, unless there is a Life Preserver for each person on board

99
Q

What is required for flights beyond 50 NM from shore?

A

Life Preserver for each person on board

100
Q

What is required for flights beyond 100 NM or 30 mins from emergency landing?

A

Life rafts to fit everyone on board

101
Q

Minimum Night VFR Equipment

A
  1. Day VFR Equipment
  2. Sensitive Altimeter
  3. Turn and Slip/Turn Coordinator
  4. Source of Energy for Electrics
  5. 50% of Required Spare Fuses
  6. Heading Indicator (Away from Airport)
  7. Means of Illuminating Instruments
  8. Landing Light (Carrying Pax)
  9. Anti-Collision & Position Lights
102
Q

What is the Definition of Night?

A

1/2 hr after sunset to 1/2 hr before sunrise

103
Q

What are the Lights Required for Night Flying?

A

Red (Left) & Green (Right) Position Lights (110°)
White Anti-Collision Light (180°)
Strobes (360°)

104
Q

When is a Journey Log required to be carried on board the A/C?

A

When shutting down at another airport

105
Q

Can the Journey Log and Technical Log be carried at the same time?

A

No

106
Q

What are the Required Documents that must be onboard?

A

A - Certificate of Airworthiness
R - Certificate of Registration
O - Operating Manual
W - Weight and Balance
J - Journey Log
I - Intercept Orders
L - Crew Licences
I - Proof of Insurance

107
Q

Does the PIC have to ensure that one pilot is at controls with seatbelt fastened during flight?

A

Yes

108
Q

Seatbelt Requirement for A/C Built After 1978

A

Require front seat shoulder harnesses

109
Q

Seatbelt Requirement for A/C engaged in Flight Training & Airline Flight Deck Seats

A

Require Shoulder Harness

110
Q

Seatbelt Requirement for A/C built After 1986, less than 9 Seats

A

All seats require Shoulder Harnesses

111
Q

Are children under 2 allowed to sit in someone’s lap?

A

Yes

112
Q

What is a Reportable Aviation Accident?

A

Accident resulting directly from operation of A/C, where:
Person sustains serious injury or is killed
A/C sustains damage or failure that affects structural strength
A/C is missing or inaccessible

113
Q

What is a Reportable Aviation Incident?

A

Incident resulting directly from operation of A/C having max takeoff weight greater than 5700 kg

114
Q

Is an Air Operator Certificate needed to operate an air service in Canada?

A

Yes

115
Q

For a Canadian AOC holder what else must be in place to operate an A/C in commercial air service?

A

Canadian Type Certificate & Canadian Flight Authority

116
Q

What does 701, 702, 703, 704, 705, & 706 represent?

A

701 - Foreign Air Operations
702 - Aerial Work
703 - Air Taxi
704 - Commuter
705 - Airline
706 - Aircraft Maintenance Requirements for Air Operators

117
Q

What are the restrictions to be eligible to be an Air Taxi?

A
  1. Single-engine A/C
  2. Multi-engine A/C with MTOW of 19,000 lbs or less, seating 9 or less pax
  3. Any other A/C authorized
118
Q

What are the restrictions to be eligible to be a Commuter?

A
  1. Multi-engine A/C with MTOW of 19,000 lbs or less, seating 10-19 pax
  2. Turbo-jet A/C with max zero fuel weight of 50,000 lbs or less, seating not more than 19 pax
  3. Any other A/C authorized
119
Q

What are the restrictions to be eligible to be an Airline?

A
  1. A/C with MTOW greater than 19,000 lbs and can hold 20 or more pax
  2. Helicopter seating more than 20 pax
  3. Any other A/C authorized
120
Q

What is the Definition of Flight Time?

A

Time from moment A/C first moves under its own power for purpose of taking off until moment it comes to rest at end of flight

121
Q

Flight Time Restrictions

A

1200 hrs in 365 days
300 hrs in 90 days
120 hrs in 30 days (100 on call)
702 & 703: 60 hrs in 7 days

122
Q

What is the Definition of Flight Duty Time?

A

Period that starts when flight crew member reports for flight, or reports for flight crew member on standby, and finishes at “engines off” at end of final flight

123
Q

What is the Max Flight Duty Time?

A

14 hrs in any 24 hrs

124
Q

What must be in place for a Flight Duty Time Extension to occur?

A
  1. PIC consults with other crew members and considers it safe
  2. Extension not more than 3 hrs
  3. Crew members receive extra rest time equal to extension
  4. Operator notified, and informs TC
125
Q

For Aerial Work, can the plane take off without an Operational Flight Plan?

A

No, must be filed

126
Q

What people are Aerial Work Operators allowed to carry on board?

A
  1. People who’s presence is essential
  2. Operator authorized to conduct parachute descents and person is a parachutist
  3. Operator authorized to carry a person
127
Q

Without authorization in AOC, what are the VFR minimum flight visibilities for Aerial Work Operators?

A

2 SM vis, below 1000’ AGL

128
Q

When is an Aerial Work operator not allowed to operate at night in VFR OTT, or IFR?

A
  1. While towing
  2. While helicopter carrying load
  3. While dispersing products
  4. When A/C is single-engine
129
Q

What are 3 situations where an Aerial Work Operator can operate at night with pax?

A
  1. PIC has instrument rating
  2. Operator allowed to conduct parachute descents in night VFR
  3. Authorized in AOC
130
Q

What is required for an Aerial Work A/C to operate at night?

A
  1. Landing light
  2. Means of illuminating icing
131
Q

Does an Aerial Work A/C need 2 seatbelts with shoulder harnesses in the front 2 seats?

A

Yes

132
Q

What is needed to be completed when an Aerial Work A/C is operated in IFR and there are pax onboard?

A

PPC, and if not chief pilot PCC

133
Q

What is a PPC?

A

Pilot Proficiency Check
Similar to Group 1 IFR Flight Test with TC Inspector

134
Q

What is a PCC?

A

Pilot Competency Check
Similar to checkout on A/C with a training captain

135
Q

What is the validity of a PPC for Aerial Work Operations?

A

Until 1st day of 25th month following the month where check was completed
If renewed in last 90 days of validity - extended by 24 months

136
Q

What is the validity of a PCC for Aerial Work Operations?

A

Until 1st day of 13 month following the month where check was completed - If renewed in last 90 days of validity - extended by 12 months

137
Q

Where can an operator place the Company Operations Manual, if one is not given out to each crew member?

A
  1. In each A/C, or
  2. In appropriate place other than A/C
138
Q

What are the A/C requirements for an Air Taxi to operate with Pax in IFR or Night VFR?

A
  1. Factory built, turbine powered A/C
  2. Engine must have MTBF of 0.001/1000 or less established over 100,000 hrs of service
  3. Numerous other automated systems designed to allow rapid responses/prevention of emergencies
139
Q

Can an Air Taxi Operator operate over water beyond gliding distance?

A

No, unless authorized in AOC

140
Q

Is there authorization available for Air Taxi Operators to carry more than 9 Pax?

A

Only for Helicopters

141
Q

Can simulated emergencies be conducted with Pax on board?

A

No

142
Q

What is the Air Taxi VFR Obstacle Clearance distance for Night and Day?

A

Night: less than 1000’ above highest obstacle within 3 miles from route to be flown
Day: less than 300’ AGL or horizontal distance of 300’ from nearest obstacle

143
Q

What is the Air Taxi VFR Minimum Flight Visibility?

A

2 SM vis, below 1000’ AGL

144
Q

What requirements/qualifications must in place for a VFR OTT flight to take place under Air Taxi regulations?

A
  1. Must be able to maintain VMC if pilot is not IFR rated or A/C has 1 engine
  2. Must be able to maintain safe IFR altitude in event of engine failure if pilot IFR rated and multi-engine A/C
145
Q

What are the bare minimum flight crew qualifications for Air Taxi Operations?

A
  1. Hold licence and rating required
  2. Within previous 90 days, completed 3 takeoffs/landings
  3. Completed PPC or PCC for A/C type
146
Q

What is required for an Air Taxi PIC of a multi-engine A/C of single-engine A/C in IFR or Night VFR with Pax?

A

PPC for A/C type

147
Q

What is required for the SIC for an Air Taxi of a multi-engine A/C?

A

PPC or PCC for A/C type

148
Q

What is required for the PIC of an Air Taxi single-engine A/C not operated IFR or night VFR with pax

A

PCC for A/C type

149
Q

What is required for a PIC of an Air Taxi A/C to operate with Pax during Night VFR

A

Instrument Rating

150
Q

What is the Validity of a PPC and PCC for Air Taxi Operations?

A

Both valid until 1st day of 13th month following month proficiency check was completed
If renewed in last 90 days of validity - extended by 12 months

151
Q

When are SOPs required for Air Taxi Operations?

A

For each A/C that is required to have 2 or more pilots

AVIA 203 (3 decks)

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