Air and Solid Waste Flashcards
1
Q
Principal Organic Hazardous Constituents (POHC) is regulated under?
A
RCRA (Resource Conservation and Recovery Act)
2
Q
Regulations under RCRA impose restrictions on emissions from hazardous waste incinerators. The regulations define:
A
POHC present in the waste feed and establish performance standards for their destruction and removal in the incineration process.
3
Q
POHC performance standard is defined by a destruction removal efficiency (DRE) of:
A
99.99% or four nines for each POHC in the waste feed
For Dioxins and Furans - 99.9999% or six nines required
4
Q
The DRE only includes the removal efficiency of the air pollution control equipment. True or false?
A
False. The DRE includes both the removal efficiency of the air pollution control equipment and the destruction efficiency of the incinerator.
5
Q
________is heat exchanged by a thermodynamic system in which the exchange of heat changes the temperature of the system but leaves unchanged other variables of the system, such as volume or pressure.
A
Sensible Heat
6
Q
How is the sensible heat of a thermodynamic process calculated?
A
It is the product of the mass flow with its specific heat capacity and the change in temperature.
7
Q
What is the energy released or absorbed by a thermodynamic system during a constant-temperature process? It is calculated by mass flow times the change in enthalpy values during the phase change.
A
Latent Heat
8
Q
What are the two forms of latent heat?
A
Heat of fusion - the heat that must be absorbed to melt a mole of solid.
Heat of vaporization - the heat that must be absorbed to boil a mole of a liquid.
9
Q
What are condensers used for?
A
Pretreatment (used before other emission control processes to remove VOCs when they occur as high concentration vapors to reduce operating costs)
10
Q
Condenser recovery efficiencies over 95% are possible for vapor streams containing over ______ VOCs
A
10,000 ppmv
11
Q
Condenser recovery efficiencies fall below ____ % when vapor concentrations are near 500 ppmv.
A
50
12
Q
What is the most common condenser?
A
A non-contact shell and tube surface condenser, which is essentially a heat exchanger.
13
Q
First Law of Thermodynamics =
A
Conservation of Energy
14
Q
The change in enthalpy will be _____ for exothermic reactions.
A
Negative
15
Q
A strong acid will disociate quickly and release heat in the presence of ____
A
Water
16
Q
What is the general equation for a complete combustion reaction?
A
CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 + 2H2O
17
Q
Henry’s Law is a gas law that states:
A
The amount of dissolved gas in liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the liquid.
18
Q
Henry’s law constant is the ____
A
Proportionality Factor
19
Q
Chemical equilibrium is also known as _____
A
Dynamic Equilibrium
20
Q
When the volume of an equilibrium mix of gases is reduced -
A
A net change will occur in the direction that produces fewer moles of gas.
21
Q
A net change will occur in the direction that produces more moles of gas when -
A
The volume of an equilibrium mix of gases is increased.
22
Q
Increasing the temperature will shift the equilibrium in the direction of the ____ reaction.
A
Endothermic
23
Q
Decreasing the temperature will cause a shift in the direction of the _____ reaction.
A
Exothermic
24
Q
What is the principal effect of the temperature on the equilibrium?
A
It changes the equilibrium constant.
25
What is air stripping?
It is the transferring of volatile components of a liquid into an air stream. It is only effective for volatile and semi-volatile organic compounds.
26
What is air stripping used to treat?
Groundwater and Wastewater
27
Volatile compounds have relatively high ____ and low ____
vapor pressure, aqueous solubility
This is characterized by the compound's Henry's Law Coefficient H' (Ka).
28
Henry's Law Coefficient H' (Ka) is the ratio of what?
The concentration in air that is in equilibrium with its concentration in water H'=(Ca/Cw)
29
Pollutants with ___ Henry's Law coefficients can be economically stripped from water. What are some examples?
Relatively High
Benzene, toluene, xylene found in gasoline, and solvents like trichloroethylene
30
What is the ratio of the maximum rate of flow of either gas or liquid to the minimum rate of flow?
Turndown Ratio - this is the most important concept in the design of stripping columns.
31
An air stripper with a turndown ratio of 3 were designed to handle contaminated groundwater at a maximum flow of 100 gal/min could not function properly if the flow dropped below ___
33 gal/min
32
What is the stripping factor? Values of the stripping factor must be > ___ for stripping to occur.
R = H' (Qa/Qw)
1
33
Incineration with waste separation capability is known as
Resource recover plants
34
What are facilities with boilers called?
Waste to steam plants
35
Facilities with boilers and electrical generators are known as _____
Waste-to-energy plants (WTE)
36
What are the standards for harmful air pollutants?
U.S. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
37
Who established the NAAQS? What authority are these standards under?
United States Environmental Protection Agency under the authority of the Clear Air Act. It is applied for outdoor air throughout the country.
38
What is the U.S. Congress's long-term goal for radon indoors?
The U.S. Congress has set a long-term goal that indoor radon levels be no more than outdoor levels. The indoor levels are estimated to be about 1.3 pCi/L and about 0.4 pCi/L is normally found in the outside air.
39
The OSHA radon exposure limit for adult employees is ____ averaged over a 40-hour work week.
100 pCi/L
40
What does PSD stand for?
Prevention of Significant Deterioration
41
What are the greenhouse gases?
Carbon Dioxide (81%), Methane (CH4) (10%), Nitrous Oxide (6%), Flourinated Gases (3%)
42
What does GWP stand for?
Global Warming Potential
43
How is Nitrous Oxide emitted?
It is emitted during agricultural and industrial activities, as well as during combustion of fossil fuels and solid waste.
44
What are some examples of flourinated gases?
Hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, sulfur hexafluoride, and nitrogen trifluoride
45
Fluorinated gases are synthetic powerful greenhouse gases. How are they emitted?
They are emitted from a variety of industrial processes. They are emitted in smaller quantities, but they are potent. So they are sometimes referred to as high GWP gases.
46
Two key ways in which greenhouse gases differ from each other are?
Radiative efficiency - their ability to absorb energy
Their lifetime - how long they stay in the atmosphere
47
Why was the Global Warming Potential developed?
To allow comparisons of the global warming impacts of different gases.
48
Global Warming Potential (GWP) is a measure of how much energy the emissions of ___ of gas will absorb over a given period of time, relative to the emissions of ____
1 ton of gas relative to 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2)
49
The time period for GWPs is usually ___
100 years
50
The GWP for Carbon Dioxide is
1 regardless of the time period used, because it is the gas being used as the reference.
51
Why are flourinated gases sometimes called high GWP gases?
For a given amount of mass, they trap substantially more heat than CO2
52
Once a regulation is completed and has been printed in the Federal Register as a final rule, it is codified when it is added to the ____
Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
53
Almost all environmental regulations appear in ____
Title 40
54
Mobile sources pollute the air through ___
Combustion and fuel evaporation.
55
Mobile sources contribute to four significant air pollutants.
Carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter
56
The EPA regulates the emissions from mobile sources by setting standards for the specific pollutants being emitted and ____.
also regulates the fuels e.g., sulfur standards for gasoline/diesel fuel
57
What is a Certificate of Conformity for engines or vehicles sold in the US?
It provides authorization for production and sales.
58
All engines or vehicles sold in the US must demonstrate compliance with ____ and receive ___
the CAA/EPA regulations
a Certificate of Conformity
59
What is the Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE)?
Regulations to improve average fuel economy of cars and light trucks for sale in the US
60
The Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA) requires that the ____ establish standards separately and ____
U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT)
enforces maximum feasible levels in each model year
61
DOT delegated the responsibilities from EPCA to ____
the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
62
The CAFE achieved by a given fleet of vehicles in a given model year is the ____
production-weighted harmonic mean fuel economy (expressed in mi/gal of a manufacture's fleet of current model year passenger cars or light trucks)
63
Should CAFE be calculated using harmonic mean or arithmetic mean?
Harmonic mean should be used. It captures the fuel economy of driving each car in the fleet for the same number of miles.
64
What would the arithmetic mean capture if used in fuel economy calculations?
The arithmetic mean captures the fuel economy of driving each car using the same amount of gas.
65
Air Pollution prevention and Control Applies to urban areas that are in non-attainment for one or more of the NAAQS. What can this be found under?
Title 1 of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments
66
What are Part A, C, and D under Title 1 of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments?
Part A: air quality and emission limits
Part C: Prevention of significant deterioration (PSDs)
Part D: requirements for nonattainment areas
67
What does Title II of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments cover?
Mobile Source Program
68
General/Air Toxics (>200 HAPs, hazardous air pollutants) are covered under ____
Title III of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments
69
What does Title IV of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments cover?
Acid Rain Program and Noise Pollution
70
What does Title V of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments cover?
Operating Permit Program
71
Stratospheric Ozone Protection (phase out of CFCs) is covered under ____
Title VI of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments
72
What does Title VII of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments do?
It makes the Clean Air Act more enforceable.
73
What does NESHAP stand for? What are they?
National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants - emission standards not covered by NAAQS
74
The hazardous air pollutants identified under NESHAP as hazardous air pollutants comprise about ____ chemicals and related groups of compounds have been identified as _____
200
potentially significant sources of health risk to humans
75
How is SO2 often formed as a pollutant?
Coal Combustion
76
The two most important constituents of acid deposition are ___ which contribute about ____ of the acid deposition
HNO3 (nitric oxide) and H2SO4 (sulfuric acid)
98%
77
How is H2SO4 formed in the air? What happens when H2SO4 forms?
SO2 mixes with oxygen in the air
(SO2 + O2 -> SO3,
SO3 + H2O -> H2SO4)
H2SO4 precipitates out as acid rain
78
Part 70 operating permits under Title V are issued by ____ and part 71 permits are issued by ___
State and local agencies
EPA
79
The Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) permitting program is for _____ of air pollution such as power plants, manufacturing facilities, and other facilities that emit air pollution.
New and modified major sources
80
PSD applies to all pollutants that do not exceed the _____ in an area
NAAQS
81
The non-criteria pollutants under Title V are listed in EPA's regulations and include _____
fluorides, sulfuric acid mist, hydrogen sulfide, total reduced sulfur, and certain contaminants from municipal solid waste plants.
82
The CAA requires the ___ to set ___ (40 CFR part 50) for pollutants considered harmful to public health and the environment.
EPA
NAAQS
83
There are two types of NAAQS identified by the CAA. What are they?
Primary Standards and Secondary Standards
84
What do the NAAQS primary standards provide?
Public health protection, including protecting the health of "sensitive" populations such as asthmatics, children, and the elderly
85
What do the NAAQS secondary standards provide?
Public welfare protection, including protection against decreased visibility and damage to animals, crops, vegetation and buildings
86
Particulate Matter is one of the Criteria Pollutants. What diameter are we concerned with?
PM <10 um because that is the size that will enter the respiratory system.
PM<2.5 are often created as a secondary pollutant from a chemical reaction.
87
What are the five NOx gases? How are NOx formed?
NO, NO2, NO3, N2O5, N2O4
They are formed from stationary and mobile combustion sources, especially at high temperatures.
88
99% of which airborne criteria air pollutant went away in the US after lead was removed from passenger car fuels?
Lead.
89
Ozone plays a key role in the formation of ___ and is a ____
smog
respiratory hazard
90
What is a non-attainment area?
It is an area considered to have air quality worse than the National Ambient Air Quality Standards.
91
What is the man-made source of particulate matter?
Incinerators
92
Fugitive particulate matter emissions generally originate from ____
materials handling.
93
The major chemistry involved in air pollution of most concern are _____
oxides of nitrogen, sulfur, carbon, ozone, and hydrocarbons
94
Most gaseous pollutants are associated with combustion processes and the characteristics of the fuels burned. Emissions from combustion increase:
-as combustion efficiency decreases
-as available oxygen decreases, and
-as the presence of compounds other than carbon and hydrogen increases
95
The two nitrogen oxides (NOx) that are significant air pollutants are____
Nitric oxide (NO) and Nitrogen oxide (NO2)
96
Which type of smog is typically associated with automobiles?
Photochemical Smog
97
Most nitrogen oxide emissions occur from ____ as relatively benign NO.
fuel release and fossil fuel combustion
98
Photochemical oxidants are a significant constituent of ___
Smog.
99
NO can rapidly oxidize to NO2 which reacts with hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight to form ___
Photochemical oxidants
100
NO2 is associated with ____ ailments.
respiratory
101
NO2 also reacts with the hydroxyl radical (OH-) in the atmosphere to form ____ which is a contributor to ____
HNO3 (Nitric Acid)
acid rain
102
What percent of NOx comes from cars?
40%
103
Which NOx gas do we assume on the PE exam if it says NOx?
NO2
104
Hydrocarbons can form photochemical oxidants. The main concern is nitric acid. The hydrocarbons involved in air pollution are primarily ____
Alkanes comprising the methane series: methane (CH4) ethane (C2H6, propane (C3H8), butane (C4H10)
105
What does an alkane become if it loses a hydrogen atom?
A radical or alkyl that is able to readily react with other compounds.
106
When oxidized alkanes form compounds of the ______, where an oxygen atom is double bonded to a terminal carbon atom.
carbonyl group (aldehydes)
107
How is nitric acid removed from the atmosphere by dry deposition?
The nitric acid aerosols settle out onto surfaces.
108
How is nitric acid removed from the atmosphere by wet deposition?
The aerosols are either in the form of rain droplets or are washed out by falling rain.
109
What is the chemical reaction involving the hydroxyl radical?
NO2 + OH -> HNO3
OH is the hydroxyl radical. This is the neutral form. It is not negatively charged like hydroxide.
110
What equation should be used to find the terminal settling velocity for particles settling from the atmosphere?
Stokes Law
111
What are the largest sources of SO2 emissions?
Fossil fuel combustion at power plants (73%) and other industrial facilities (20%)
112
When burned, the fuels release the sulfur primarily as ____. What are they known as?
Sulfur Dioxide (SO2), Sulfur Trioxide (SO3)
These are known as sulfur oxides (SOx)
113
Sulfur oxides can significantly impact ____ visibility
long range
114
Smog is used to describe the glaring _____ that develops from late morning to mid afternoon when a certain combination of pollution and weather conditions exists.
bluish-brownish, ozone-laden haze
115
At what temperature does optimum smog formation occur?
60-75 degree F
116
The following are major factors affecting ____
1. Distribution of emissions of NOx and VOCs
2. The composition of the emitted VOCs
3. Variations in the wind fields
4. Dynamics of the boundary layer (stability and level of mixing)
5. Variation of solar insolation and temperature
6. The chemical reactions involving VOCs and NOx
7. The loss of ozone and ozone precursors
photochemical air quality
117
The ideal gas law is a generalization containing both ____
Boyle's Law and Charle's Law
118
What is the amount of heat that must be added or removed during a chemical reaction in order to keep all of the substances present at the same temperature?
Heat of Reaction
119
If the pressure in the vessel containing the reacting system is kept at a constant value, the measured heat of reaction also represents the change in the thermodynamic quantity called _____ accompanying the process
enthalpy or heat content
120
The heat of reaction determined at constant pressure is also designated as the ____
enthalpy of reaction, represented by the symbol delta H
121
Catalytic incinerator is another category of oxidation systems that is similar to typical thermal oxidizers, but the catalytic oxidizers use a ___ to promote the oxidation.
Catalyst.
122
Catalytic oxidation occurs through a chemical reaction between the ____ molecules and a precious metal catalyst bed that is internal to the oxidizer system.
VOC hydrocarbon
123
Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP) is defined as air at _____
0 degree C (273.15 degree K, 32 degree F) at 10^5 Pascals, 1 atm
60 degree F and 14.7 psia
124
Normal Temperature and Pressure is commonly used as the condition for testing and documentation of fan capacities. It is defined as air at ______
20 degree C (293 degree K, 68 degree F) and 1 atm (101.325 kPa, 14.7 psia, 0 psig)
125
One mole of an ideal gas at STP conditions occupies ____ liters
22.4
126
One mole of an ideal gas at NTP conditions occupies ___ liters
24.45
127
The mole fraction or volume fraction of the pollutant in the gas mixture multiplied my 1,000,000 = ?
The concentration measure of parts per million (ppm).
128
What equation is needed to convert to volume based concentration in ppmv for any condition of temperature and pressure?
Cvol = ((R*T)/(P*MWp))*Cmass
129
The difference in _____ between the stack gas and the ambient air determines the plume density which affects the plume rise.
Temperature
130
The sum of the physical stack height and the plume rise is referred to as ______
the effective stack height. This is the final height of the plume.
131
The pollutant concentrations in the plume can be assumed to be ____
normally distributed.
132
The ______ equation determines ground level pollutant concentrations based on time-average atmospheric variables e.g.:
gaussian distribution
the concentration & thermal gradients, wind speed
133
How many Pasquill-Gifford stability classes are there?
There are six classes.
134
Which Pasquill-Gifford class represents greatest instability and which class represents the greatest stability?
Class A
Class F
135
An adiabatic process is on in which____
no heat is supplied or withdrawn.
136
Dry air cools adiabatically with height at a constant rate equal to the _____
dry adiabatic lapse rate.
137
During ____ conditions, a parcel of air that moves upward
cools at a slower rate than surrounding air and is accelerated upward by a buoyant
forces. When moved downward, the parcel warms at a slower rate and is accelerated
downward.
unstable
138
Under ____ conditions, upward and downward motion result in
the parcel temperature changing at the same rate as the surrounding air, with no
resultant buoyant forces
neutral
139
During ____ conditions, upward movement produces a parcel
cooler than the surroundings, hence the parcel will settle back to its original elevation.
Downward motion produces a warmer parcel, which will rise to its original elevation.
stable
140
Atmospheric stability occurs when γ < γd, maximum stability occurs when γ becomes negative, i.e., when temperature increases with elevation. This condition is known as ____ and produces most adverse mixing conditions, which can trap emissions near
ground.
inversion
141
Superodiobatic conditions result in a _____ plume
looping
142
Adiabatic conditions result in a ____ plume.
coning
143
Inversion results in a ___ plume.
fanning
144
Inversion over superadiabatic results in a ____ plume.
fumigation
145
Source Classification Codes (SCC's) represent unique ______
that emit an air pollutant, i.e., a source category is a specific industry
sector or group of similar emitting sources
source category specific processes or activities
146
EPA’s ___ is the compilation of EPA's emission factor information and
contains emission factors for more than 200 air pollution source
categories
AP-42
147
The emission factors have been developed and compiled from _____
source test
data, material balance studies, and engineering estimates
148
An _____ is a representative value that relates the quantity of a pollutant released to the atmosphere with a process associated with the release of that pollutant
emissions factor
149
Combustion is an exothermic reaction between a ____ and an ____
fuel
oxidant
150
____ is the ideal combustion
process where fuel is burned completely
Stoichiometric or theoretical combustion
151
A _____ combustion is a process burning all the carbon (C) to
(CO₂), all the hydrogen (H) to (H₂O) and all the sulfur (S) to (SO₂)
complete
152
With ____ products in the exhaust gas, such as C, H₂, CO, the combustion process is uncompleted and not stoichiometric
unburned
153
The ____ is the perfect ideal fuel ratio where the chemical mixing
proportion is correct, i.e., when burned, all the fuel and air is consumed without any
excess left over
stoichiometric ratio
154
_____ combustion used in boilers and high temperature process furnaces usually
incorporates a modest amount of excess air (10 20%) more than what is needed to
burn the fuel completely
On-ratio
155
If an ______ to the burner, unburned fuel, soot, smoke,
and carbon monoxide exhausts from the boiler resulting in heat transfer surface
fouling, pollution, lower combustion efficiency, flame instability and a potential for
explosion
insufficient amount of air is supplied
156
To avoid inefficient and unsafe conditions boilers normally operate at_____, and also provides protection from insufficient oxygen
conditions caused by variations in fuel composition and operating issues in the
fuel air control system
an excess air level
157
If air content is > the stoichiometric ratio, the mixture is said to be ____, if air content < than the stoichiometric ratio, the mixture is ____.
fuel-lean
fuel-rich
158
The EPA has established a level of 100 ppm CO rolling average corrected
to 7 percent oxygen on a dry basis to achieve greater than ____
CO removal
99.99 percent
159
Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) is required on existing sources in areas that are not meeting _____
national ambient air quality standards (i.e., attainment areas)
160
_____ is required on major new or modified sources in clean areas (i.e., attainment areas)
Best Available Control Technology (BACT)
161
____ is required on major new or modified sources in non-attainment areas.
Lowest Achievable Emission Rate (LAER)
162
Material handling process, combustion processes, secondary reactions in the atmosphere between pollutant gases, mining and/or construction activities, motor vehicles, refuse incineration area all examples of ____ sources of ___.
man-made sources of particulate matter (PM)
163
What are natural sources of particulate matter?
Volcanoes, forest fires, windstorms and pollen
164
One of the most important characteristics of a suspension of particles is
the ______, with such a wide range of sizes, the
collection devices are different as well
size distribution of the particles
165
Of greatest concern to public health are the particles small enough to be
inhaled into the deepest parts of the lung. What diameter are these particles?
10 micros or less (1/7th the thickness of human hair)
166
Particles less than 10 microns in diameter are known as ____ and includes fine particulate matter known as ___
PM 10, PM 2.5
167
_____is a major component of air pollution that threatens both our health
and our environment
PM 10
168
Emissions from ____ are a major source of PM
incinerators
169
For stokes law, the particle density is usually given as ______ which is the particle density divided by the density of water.
specific gravity
170
What is the typical particle density? Because of this, is it necessary to include the fluid density in the calculation of the settling velocity using stokes law?
1200 kg/m3, the fluid density can be dropped from the calculation because the density of air is 1.2kg/m3 at 20 degrees celcius.
171
Viscosity has units of Pa*s which is equal to:
N/m^2*s = kg/(m*s)
172
The term _____ is used to describe the net amount of cloth available for filtering when one or more baghouse compartments is taken offline for maintenance or bag cleaning.
Net air-to-cloth ratio
173
The area of a bag is pi(d)(l). What is the total cloth area?
n*pi*d*l=total cloth area
n = total number of bags
174
What is the superficial filtering velocity also known as?
the air to cloth ratio
175
In a cyclone, a particulate laden gas typically enters tangentially near the top. The flow is forced into a downward spiral due to the shape of the cyclone and tangential entry. ______ cause particles to move outward, collide with the outer wall, and slide downward to the bottom of the device.
Centrifugal force and inertia
176
Near ______ of the cyclone the gas reverses its downward spiral and moves upward in a smaller, inner spiral.
177
The cleaned gas exits from the _____, and the particles exit from the bottom of the cyclone through a pipe sealed by a spring loaded flapper valve or rotary valve
top through a “vortex finder” tube
178
There are three broad categories of cyclones available:
high efficiency, conventional, and high throughput
179
In a cyclone, ____ is defined as the diameter of a particle for which the efficiency has the value of 0.5, i.e. 50%.
cut diameter
180
An ESP applies electrical force to separate ____ from the gas stream
particles (dry dusts or liquid droplets)
181
In ESP a high voltage drop is established between electrodes, and particles passing through the resulting electrical field acquire a charge. The charged particles are attracted to and collected on an oppositely charged plate, and the cleaned gas flows through the device. The material is knocked off or washed off the plates and is collected ____.
at the bottom of the ESP
182
NO, NO2, NO3, N2O, N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5 are the ______ of nitrogen that re known to occur.
seven oxides
183
95% of all NOx from stationary combustion sources is emitted as NO. Nitric oxide
is formed by either or both of two mechanisms:
thermal NOx or fuel NOx.
184
______is the NOx formed during combustion by reaction between nitrogen
and oxygen in the air. The rate of formation of thermal NOx is extremely
temperature sensitive, and becomes rapid at “flame” temperature (3000 3600 F).
Thermal NOx
185
_____results from the combustion of fuels that contain organic nitrogen in the fuel (primarily coal or heavy fuel oil). Fuel NOx formation is dependent on local combustion conditions (oxygen concentrations and mixing patterns) and on the
nitrogen amount of fuel.
Fuel NOx
186
______are two sulfur oxides that are formed whenever any material that contains sulfur is burned
SO2 and SO3
187
The two basic approaches to controlling SOx emissions is to either______
remove sulfur from fuel before it is burned or remove SO₂ from the exhaust gases
188
Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is a SO₂ removal technology from the
exhaust gases which can be classified into two basic methods:
a) throwaway or regenerative, and b) wet or dry
189
A process is considered ____ type if the sulfur is removed from the flue gas and then discarded.
throwaway
190
A process is considered ____ if the sulfur is recovered in a usable form.
regenerative
191
Limestone scrubbing systems are capable of ____ removal of sulfur
dioxide, while lime scrubbing can routinely achieve ___ removal of SO₂
90%, 95%
192
The CaSO3 may then be reacted with O2 to produce ____ which is used in the drywall industry.
gypsum
193
Indoor air is considered different from ambient or outdoor air for two
important reasons:____: Indoor air generally is considered private property
and therefore is not subject to the same federal regulations as ambient air;
and ______ although the same air is exchanged between indoors and
outdoors, the pollutants, their sources, and their dispersion behavior can be
quite different indoors than in the outdoor atmosphere
Legal,
Technical
194
Common indoor air pollutants include the criteria pollutants like:
PM 2.5, ozone, NO2, SO2, and CO, as well as a wide variety of VOCs
195
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) has
established _______ for a number of indoor
contaminants which specify recommended concentrations for workplace
exposure (eight hours per day, five days per week)
permissible exposure limits (PELs)
196
The source of Radon as an indoor air pollutant is ____
release from underlying soil, release from water use
197
____ has been used in many building materials such as floor tiles,
textured ceilings, heating pipe insulation, and structural fire protection
insulation.
When any of these ____ are disturbed or
deteriorate, ____ fibers may become airborne and eventually find
their way into the lungs
asbestos, asbestos containing materials (ACMs), asbestos
198
The _______, was specifically
passed by the United States Congress to address asbestos in schools
Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act ( AHERA ) of 1986
199
What do the following strategies control?
-Control the sources of pollutants within the indoor space
-Dilute pollutants and remove them from the buildings through
ventilation, or
-Clean the air by capturing or destroying pollutants in the recirculated air and/or make up air
These are the three main strategies for controlling indoor air quality
200
The EPA has an AQI scale from 0 to 500. The AQI is determined by the ____ with the ____.
pollutant with the highest index. Pick the highest AQI from all of the pollutants in the mix.
