Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

WELL Certification > AIR > Flashcards

AIR Flashcards

1
Q

The WELL Building Standard promotes clean air through:

A

reducing or minimizing the sources of indoor air pollution, requiring optimal indoor air quality to support the health and well-being of building occupants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Air pollution is the #1 environmental cause of pre-mature mortality, contributing to approximately:

A

7 million, or 1 in 8 premature deaths worldwide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Humans breathe more than ______ liters of air everyday

A

15,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Poor ventilation practices can expose humans to:

A
  • Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
  • Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAH)
  • Microbial Pathogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

WELL addresses 6 major air pollutants:

A
  • Carbon monoxide
  • Lead
  • Nitrogen Dioxide
  • Ozone
  • Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5)
  • Sulfur Dioxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

01 AIR QUALITY STANDARDS
This feature requires an assessor to complete a performance test after occupancy as an independent means of verifying that the building is meeting:

A

critical air quality requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

01 AIR QUALITY STANDARDS
PART 1: STANDARDS FOR VOLATILE SUBSTANCES
The following conditions are met:

A

a. Formaldehyde levels less than 27 ppb.

b. Total volatile organic compounds less than 500 μg/m3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

01 AIR QUALITY STANDARDS

PART 2: STANDARDS FOR PARTICULATE MATTER AND INORGANIC GASES

A

a. Carbon monoxide less than 9 ppm.
b. PM2-5 less than 15 μg/m3.
c. PM10 less than 50 μg/m3.
d. Ozone less than 51 ppb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

01 AIR QUALITY STANDARDS

PART 3: RADON

A

Radon less than 4 pCi/L in the lowest occupied level of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

01 AIR QUALITY STANDARDS
Key Fact:
This feature requires an assessor to complete a __________ test after occupancy.

A

performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

01 AIR QUALITY STANDARDS
Key Fact:
PM10 is particulate matter 10 micrometers or less in diameter, PM2.5 is particulate matter 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter. Particles in this size range make up a large proportion of dust that can be drawn deep into the lungs. Larger particles tend to be trapped in the:

A

nose, mouth, or throat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

02 SMOKING BAN

PART 1: INDOOR SMOKING BAN

A

Smoking and the use of e-cigarettes is prohibited inside the building.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

02 SMOKING BAN
PART 2: OUTDOOR SMOKING BAN
Signage must be present to indicate:

A

a. A smoking ban within 7.5 m [25 ft] (or the maximum extent allowable by local codes) of all entrances, operable windows and building air intakes.
b. A smoking ban on all decks, patios, balconies, rooftops and other regularly occupied exterior
building spaces.
c. The hazards of smoking, in all areas beyond 7.5m of the building entrances (if smoking is permitted in these areas). These signs are to be placed along all walkways with a distance of not more than 30 m [100 ft] between signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

02 SMOKING BAN
KEY FACT:
Average life expectancy of a smoker is _____ years less than that of a non-smoker.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

03 VENTILATION EFFECTIVENESS

A

This feature sets a foundation for ventilation rates, which can be adjusted according to measured concentrations of carbon dioxide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

03 VENTILATION EFFECTIVENESS

It is based on these requirements:

A

ASHRAE requirements for adequate ventilation, which include separate options for mechanically ventilated and naturally ventilated buildings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

03 VENTILATION EFFECTIVENESS
PART 1: VENTILATION DESIGN
ONE of these requirements is met for all spaces:

A

a. Ventilation rates comply with all requirements set in ASHRAE 62.1
b. Projects comply with all requirements set in any procedures in ASHRAE 62.1-2013 and demonstrate
that ambient air quality within 1.6 km [1 mi] of the building is compliant with either the U.S. EPA’s NAAQS or passes the Air Quality Standards in the WELL Building Standard for at least 95% of all hours in the previous year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

03 VENTILATION EFFECTIVENESS
PART 2: DEMAND CONTROLLED VENTILATION
For all spaces with an actual or expected occupant density greater than 25 people per 1,000 ^2, ONE of the following requirements is met:

A

a. A demand controlled ventilation system regulates the ventilation rate of outdoor air to keep carbon dioxide levels in the space below 800 ppm.
b. Projects that have met the Operable windows feature demonstrate that natural ventilation is sufficient to keep carbon dioxide levels below 800 ppm at intended occupancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

03 VENTILATION EFFECTIVENESS
PART 3: SYSTEM BALANCING
After the HVAC system is installed, the following requirement is met:

A

After substantial completion and prior to occupancy, the HVAC system undergoes testing and
balancing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

03 VENTILATION EFFECTIVENESS
PART 3: SYSTEM BALANCING
KEY FACT: (1 of 2)

A

• Carbon dioxide levels serve as a proxy for other indoor pollutants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

03 VENTILATION EFFECTIVENESS
PART 3: SYSTEM BALANCING
KEY FACT: (2 of 2)

A

• Documentation Required: Letter of Assurance from the MEP Engineer as well as a Commissioning Report. As a side note, you only need to memorize the required documentation listed throughout this Study Guide; you don’t need to memorize the documentation required for every feature in the WELL Building Standard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

04 VOC REDUCTION
PART 1: INTERIOR PAINTS AND COATINGS
The VOC limits of newly applied paints and coatings meet ONE of the following requirements: (3, total)

A

a. 100% of installed products meet California Air Resources Board (CARB) or South Coast Air Quality Management District (SCAQMD) standards.
b. At minimum 90%, by volume, meet the California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standards.
c. Applicable national VOC control regulations or conduct testing of VOC content in accordance with
ASTM standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

04 VOC REDUCTION
PART 2: INTERIOR ADHESIVES AND SEALANTS
The VOC limits of newly applied adhesives and sealants meet ONE of the following requirements: (3, total)

A

a. 100% of installed products meet South Coast Air Quality Management District (SCAQMD) standards
b. At minimum 90%, by volume, meet the California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standards
c. Applicable national VOC control regulations or conduct testing of VOC content in accordance with ASTM standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

04 VOC REDUCTION
PART 3: FLOORING
The VOC content of all newly installed flooring must meet all limits set by the following, as applicable:

A

California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

04 VOC REDUCTION
PART 4: INSULATION
The VOC content of all newly installed thermal and acoustic insulation in ceilings and walls must meet all limits set by the following, as applicable:

A

California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

04 VOC REDUCTION
PART 5: FURNITURE AND FURNISHINGS
The VOC content of at least 95% (by cost) of all newly purchased furniture and furnishings within the project scope must meet all limits set by the following, as applicable:

A

ANSI/BIFMA Furniture Sustainability Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

04 VOC REDUCTION

KEY FACTS: (3)

A
  • VOCs include benzene and formaldehyde.
  • VOC levels can be 5 times higher indoors than outdoors.
  • Documentation Required: Letter of Assurance from Architect & Contractor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

05 AIR FILTRATION
PART 1: FILTER ACCOMMODATION
If recirculated air is used, the following requirements are met in ventilation assemblies in the main air ducts for recirculated air: (2 requirements)

A

a. Rack space and fan capacity is in place for future carbon filters.
b. The system is able to accommodate additional filters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

05 AIR FILTRATION
PART 2: PARTICLE FILTRATION
ONE of the following requirements is met: (2 requirements)

A

a. MERV 13 (or higher) media filters are used in the ventilation system to filter outdoor air.
b. Project demonstrates that for 95% of all hours in a calendar year, ambient outdoor PM10 and PM2-5 levels measured within 1.6 km [1 mi] of the building are below the limits set in the WELL Air Quality Standards Feature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

05 AIR FILTRATION
PART 3: AIR FILTRATION MAINTENANCE
To verify that the filtration system continues to operate as designed, projects must annually provide IWBI with:

A

Records of air filtration maintenance, including evidence that filters have been properly maintained as per the manufacturer’s recommendations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
05 AIR FILTRATION
KEY FACTS (3)
A
  • Carbon filters are designed to absorb volatile pollutants and remove the largest particles.
  • Media filters are meant to address smaller particles.
  • Documentation required: Letter from MEP Engineer and Spot Check (Parts 1 & 2); Operations Schedule (Part 3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

06 MICROBE AND MOLD CONTROL

This feature requires the use of ultraviolet germicidal irradiation (UVGI) devices to:

A

Manage mold and bacteria

on cooling coils as well as inspecOons for signs of mold outside of the air handling system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

06 MICROBE AND MOLD CONTROL
PART 1: COOLING COIL MOLD REDUCTION
In buildings that rely on a mechanical system for cooling, ONE of the following requirements met:

A

a. Ultraviolet lamps are employed on the cooling coils and drain pans of the mechanical system supplies.
b. Building policy states that all cooling coils are inspected on a quarterly basis for mold growth and cleaned if necessary. Dated photos demonstrating adherence are provided to IWBI on an annual basis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

06 MICROBE AND MOLD CONTROL
PART2: MOLD INSPECTIONS
The following are not present: (2)

A

a. Signs of discoloration and a mold on ceilings, walls or floors.
b. Signs of water damage or pooling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

07 CONSTRUCTION POLLUTION MANAGEMENT
PART 1: DUCT PROTECTION
To prevent pollutants from entering the ventilation system, all ducts are either:

A

a. Sealed and protected from possible contamination during construction.
b. Vacuumed out prior to installing registers, grills and diffusers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

07 CONSTRUCTION POLLUTION MANAGEMENT
PART 2: FILTER REPLACEMENT
To prevent pollutants from entering the air supply post-occupancy, if the ventilation system is operating during construction, the following requirement is met:

A

All filters are replaced prior to occupancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

07 CONSTRUCTION POLLUTION MANAGEMENT
PART 3: VOC ABSORPTION MANAGEMENT
To prevent building materials from absorbing and later releasing VOCs emitted by other (source) materials during construction, the following requirements are met: (3)

A

a. A secure area is designated to store and protect absorptive materials, including but not limited to carpets, acoustical ceiling panels, fabric wall coverings, insulation, upholstery and furnishings.
b. Wet materials, including but not limited to adhesives, wood preservatives and finishes, sealants, glazing compounds, paints and joint fillers are installed and allowed to fully cure, prior to installation of absorptive materials.
c. Hard finishes requiring adhesive installation are installed and allowed to dry for a minimum of 24 hours, prior to installation of absorptive materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

07 CONSTRUCTION POLLUTION MANAGEMENT
PART 4: DUST CONTAINMENT AND REMOVAL
The following procedures are followed during building construction:

A

a. All active areas of work are isolated from other spaces by sealed doorways or windows or through
the use of temporary barriers.
b. Walk-off mats are used at entryways to reduce the transfer of dirt and pollutants.
c. Saws and other tools use dust guards or collectors to capture generated dust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

07 CONSTRUCTION POLLUTION MANAGEMENT

Documentation Required for Feature 07:

A

Letter of Assurance from the Contractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

08 HEALTHY ENTRANCE
PART 1: PERMANENT ENTRYWAY WALK-OFF SYSTEMS
To capture particulates from occupant shoes at all regularly used entrances to the project, ONE of the following is installed and is maintained on a weekly basis. (3 possibilities)

A

a. Permanent entryway system comprised of grilles, grates or slots, which allow for easy cleaning underneath, at least the width of the entrance and 3 m [10 ^] long in the primary direction of travel.
b. Rollout mats, at least the width of the entrance and 3 m [10 ^] long in the primary direction of travel.
c. Materials manufactured as an entryway walk-off system, at least the width of the entrance and 3 m [10 ^] long in the primary direction of travel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

08 HEALTHY ENTRANCE
PART 2: ENTRYWAY AIR SEAL
ONE of the following is in place to slow the movement of air from outdoors to indoors at the main building entrance: (3)

A

a. Building entry vestibule with two normally-closed doorways.
b. Revolving entrance doors.
c. At least 3 normally-shut doors that separate occupied space from the outdoors. For example, a space on the fifth-floor could be separated by the exterior building doors, the first-floor elevator doors and the fifth-floor elevator doors. This option is applicable only for buildings whose entrance lobby is not a regularly occupied space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

09 CLEANING PROTOCOL

This feature incorporates the development of a written protocol, including:

A

The frequency, supplies, equipment, procedures and training to improve cleaning regimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

09 CLEANING PROTOCOL
PART 1: CLEANING PLAN FOR OCCUPIED SPACES
To achieve sufficient and regular removal of debris and pathogenic microorganisms, a cleaning plan is created and presented during staff trainings that includes the following elements:

A

a. A list of high-touch and low-touch surfaces in the space.
b. A schedule that specifies, for each high-touch and low-touch surface, the extent and frequency (e.g., daily, weekly) that a surface can be cleaned, sanitized or disinfected.
c. A cleaning protocol and dated cleaning logs that are maintained and available to all occupants.
d. A list of approved product seals with which all cleaning products that must comply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

09 CLEANING PROTOCOL

KEY FACT:

A

The written cleaning protocol should address the frequency, supplies, equipment, procedures and training to
improve cleaning regimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

10 PESTICIDE MANAGEMENT

A

This feature requires the creation of pest management systems that reduce pesticide and herbicide use and eliminate highly toxic chemicals.

46
Q

10 PESTICIDE MANAGEMENT
PART 1: PESTICIDE USE
The following conditions are met for all pesticides and herbicides used on plants: (2)

A

a. Pesticide and herbicide use is minimized by creating a use plan based on Chapter 3 of the San Francisco Environment Code Integrated Pest Management (IPM) program.
b. Only pesticides with a hazard tier ranking of 3 (least hazardous) as per The City of San Francisco Department of the Environment’s (SFE) Reduced-Risk Pesticide List are used.

47
Q

10 PESTICIDE MANAGEMENT
KEY FACTS:
*Atrazine
*Glyphosate

A

• Atrazine is one of the most widely used pesticides, and a suspected endocrine disruptor associated with
cardiovascular problems.
• Long-term exposure to glyphosate, a widely used herbicide, may lead to kidney problems and reproductive
difficulties.

48
Q

11 FUNDAMENTAL MATERIAL SAFETY

This feature does the following:

A

restricts the presence of added lead, asbestos and other chemicals in building materials and limits occupant exposure to these hazards where they might exist in older structures.

49
Q

11 FUNDAMENTAL MATERIAL SAFETY
PART 1: ASBESTOS AND LEAD RESTRICTION
All newly-installed building materials meet the following materials composition requirements:

A

a. No asbestos.

b. Not more than 100 ppm (by weight) added lead.

50
Q

11 FUNDAMENTAL MATERIAL SAFETY
PART 2: LEAD ABATEMENT
For repair, renovation or painting on buildings constructed prior to any applicable laws banning or restricting lead paint, lead evaluation and abatement is conducted in accordance with the following guidelines: (2?)

A

a. An on-site investigation of the commercial space conducted by a certified risk assessor or inspector technician to determine the presence of any lead-based hazards in paint, dust and soil
b. All commercial and institutional spaces found to have lead-based hazards must adhere to U.S. EPA standards for conducting lead-based paint activities.
c. N/A

51
Q

11 FUNDAMENTAL MATERIAL SAFETY
PART 3: ASBESTOS ABATEMENT
To reduce hazards in buildings constructed prior to any applicable laws banning or restricting asbestos, the following testing, evaluation and abatement is conducted: (3)

A

a. Projects conduct asbestos inspection every three years
b. Development, maintenance and update of asbestos management plans follow protocol detailed in the Asbestos-Containing Materials in Schools Guidelines
c. Projects conduct post-abatement clearance in accordance with Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act (AHERA) Asbestos-Containing Materials in Schools

52
Q

11 FUNDAMENTAL MATERIAL SAFETY
PART 4: POLYCHLORINATED BIPHENYL ABATEMENT
Any projects undergoing current renovation or demolition which were constructed or renovated between 1950 and the institution of any applicable laws banning or restricting PCBs carry out the following: (2)

A

a. Conduct evaluation and abatement of materials in accordance with the U.S. EPA Steps to Safe PCB Abatement AcOviOes.
b. Conduct removal and safe disposal of PCB-containing fluorescent light ballasts in accordance with the U.S. EPA guidelines.

53
Q

11 FUNDAMENTAL MATERIAL SAFETY
PART 5: MERCURY LIMITATION
Mercury-containing equipment and devices are restricted in accordance with the below guidelines:

A

a. Project does not specify or install new mercury containing thermometers, switches and electrical relays.
b. Project develops a plan to upgrade current mercury-containing lamps to low-mercury or mercury- free lamp technology per specified limits
c. Illuminated exit signs only use Light-Emiwng Diode (LED) or Light-Emiwng Capacitor (LEC) lamps.
d. No mercury vapor or probe-start metal halide high intensity discharge lamps are in use.

54
Q

11 FUNDAMENTAL MATERIAL SAFETY

KEY FACTS: (2)

A

• Exposure to asbestos fibers through inhalation can occur when building materials degrade over time or are
disturbed during renovation or demolition, and is associated with lunge cancer and mesothelioma.
• Exposure the lead can have neurotoxic effects and in early development is associated with negative effects on
memory, IQ, learning and behavior.

55
Q

12 MOISTURE MANAGEMENT
PART 1: EXTERIOR LIQUID WATER MANAGEMENT
A point-by-point narrative describes how liquid water from outside the building is addressed, responding to the nature and intensity of wetting based on the project’s site and climate, and includes the following leading concerns: (4)

A

a. Site drainage, including the impact of any site irrigation.
b. The local water table.
c. Building penetrations (especially windows and plumbing/ electrical/ mechanical penetrations).
d. Porous building materials connected to exterior sources of liquid water.

56
Q

12 MOISTURE MANAGEMENT
PART 2: INTERIOR LIQUID WATER MANAGEMENT
A point-by-point narrative describes how liquid water from interior sources is addressed, including these leading concerns: (4)

A

a. Plumbing leaks.
b. “Hard-piped” plumbing appliances (appliances such as clothes washers exposed to building water pressure event when not in use).
c. Porous building materials connected to interior sources of liquid water.
d. New building materials with “built-in” high moisture content or building materials wetted during construction but now on the inside of the building.

57
Q

12 MOISTURE MANAGEMENT
PART 3: CONDENSATION MANAGEMENT
A point-by-point narrative describes how condensation is addressed, including these leading concerns: (4)

A

a. High interior relative humidity levels, particularly in susceptible areas like bath and laundry rooms and below-grade spaces.
b. Air leakage which could wet either exposed interior materials or interstitially “hidden” materials.
c. Cooler surfaces, such as basement or slab-on-grade floors, or closets/cabinets on exterior walls.
d. Oversized air conditioning units.

58
Q

12 MOISTURE MANAGEMENT
PART 4: MATERIALS SELECTION AND PROTECTION
A point-by-point narrative describes how moisture-tolerant materials have been selected and/or moisture- sensitive materials (MSP) are being protected, considering these leading concerns:

A

a. Exposed entryways and glazing.
b. Porous cladding materials.
c. Finished floors in potentially damp or wet rooms such as basements, bathrooms and kitchens.
d. Interior sheathing in damp or wet rooms.
e. Sealing and storing of absorptive materials during construction.

59
Q

12 MOISTURE MANAGEMENT
PART 4: MATERIALS SELECTION AND PROTECTION
KEY FACTS:

A

Moisture can enter buildings and building assemblies in four ways: bulk water, capillary water, air-transported moisture and vapor diffusion.

60
Q

13 AIR FLUSH
PART 1: AIR FLUSH
A building air flush is performed while maintaining an indoor temperature of at least 15 °C [59 °F] and relative humidity below 60%, at one of the following volumes:

A

a. A total air volume of 4,500 m3 of outdoor air per m2 of floor area [14,000 ^3 per ^2 of floor area] prior to occupancy.
b. A total air volume of 1,066 m3 of outdoor air per m2 of floor area [3,500 ^3 per ^2 of floor area] prior to occupancy, followed by a second flush of 3,200 m3 of outdoor air per m2 of floor area [10,500 ^3 per ^2 of floor area] post-occupancy. While the post-occupancy flush is taking place, the ventilation system must provide at least 0.1 m3 per minute of outdoor air per m2 of floor area [0.3 CFM fresh air per ^2 of floor area] at all times.

61
Q

13 AIR FLUSH
PART 1: AIR FLUSH
KEY FACT:

A

Management of construction pollution should be a first priority given the time required to conduct a flush.

62
Q

14 AIR FILTRATION MANAGEMENT

A

This feature requires testing to check for air leakages in the building envelope. These weak points are not only wasteful, but can also lead to conditions conducive to growth of molds and the infiltration of pests or polluted air.

63
Q

14 AIR FILTRATION MANAGEMENT
PART 1: AIR LEAKAGE TESTING
The following is required in terms of the rate of fresh air supply to all regularly occupied spaces:

A

a. Envelope commissioning in accordance with ASHRAE Guideline 0-2005 and the National Institute of Building Sciences (NIBS) Guideline.
b. Detailed plan for action and remediation of unacceptable conditions.

64
Q

14 AIR FILTRATION MANAGEMENT

Documentation Required:

A

Annotated Document: Commissioning Report

65
Q

15 INCREASED VENTILATION PART 1: INCREASED FRESH AIR SUPPLY

A

Exceed ASHRAE fresh air supply rates met in the WELL Ventilation Effectiveness feature by 30%.

66
Q

16 HUMIDITY CONTROL

A

This feature requires buildings to provide humidification when relative humidity is low and dehumidification when relative humidity is high.

67
Q

16 HUMIDITY CONTROL
PART 1: RELATIVE HUMIDITY
At least ONE of the following is required:

A

a. A ventilation system with the capability to maintain relative humidity between 30% to 50% at all times by adding or removing moisture from the air.
b. Modeled humidity levels in the space are within 30% to 50% for at least 95% of all business hours of the year. Buildings in climates with narrow humidity ranges are encouraged to pursue this option.

68
Q

16 HUMIDITY CONTROL
PART 1: RELATIVE HUMIDITY
KEY FACTS: (3)

A
  • High humidity may promote the accumulation of growth of microbial pathogens, including bacteria, dust mites and mold.
  • An increase in relative humidity of 35% can increase the emissions of formaldehyde by a factor of 1.8-2.6.
  • Radiant heating and cooling may be preferable in arid environments because it doesn’t further dry out the air
69
Q

17 DIRECT SOURCE VENTILATION

A

This feature requires the isolation of indoor pollution sources in separate rooms or exhausted cabinets to minimize their effect on overall indoor air quality.

70
Q

17 DIRECT SOURCE VENTILATION
PART 1: POLLUTION ISOLATION AND EXHAUST
All cleaning and chemical storage units, all bathrooms and all printers and copiers (with a few exceptions) meet the following conditions:

A

a. Are closed from adjacent spaces with self-closing doors.

b. Air is exhausted so that all air is expelled rather than recirculated.

71
Q

17 DIRECT SOURCE VENTILATION
PART 1: POLLUTION ISOLATION AND EXHAUST
KEY FACT:

A

Copy rooms can contribute to the production of ozone, which is linked to asthma and other respiratory diseases.

72
Q

18 AIR QUALITY MONITORING AND FEEDBACK

A

This feature requires real-Ome measurement, recording and transmission of key indoor air quality metrics as well as ambient outdoor air quality.

73
Q

18 AIR QUALITY MONITORING AND FEEDBACK
PART 1: INDOOR AIR MONITORING
Monitors measure 2 of the following pollutants in a regularly occupied space (minimum one per floor) within the building, at intervals no longer than once an hour, and results are annually transmitted to IWBI: (3)

A

a. Particle count or particle mass
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Ozone

74
Q

18 AIR QUALITY MONITORING AND FEEDBACK
PART 2: AIR DATA RECORD KEEPING AND RESPONSE
In an effort to consistently meet the WELL parameters, projects provide a written policy specifying:

A

a. Detailed enforcement strategies for monitoring and record-keeping of parameters listed in the Air Quality Standards Feature.
b. Records are to be kept for a minimum of 3 years, including full data from field inspectors or laboratory results where appropriate.
a. Detailed plan for action and remediation of unacceptable conditions.

75
Q

18 AIR QUALITY MONITORING AND FEEDBACK
PART 3: ENVIRONMENTAL MEASURES DISPLAY
Real-time display of the following indoor environmental parameters are made available per 930 m2 [10,000 ^2] of regularly occupied space on a screen no smaller than 15 cm [5.9 inches] by 13 cm [5.1 inches]:

A

a. Temperature.
b. Humidity.
c. Carbon dioxide concentration.

76
Q

18 AIR QUALITY MONITORING AND FEEDBACK
PART 3: ENVIRONMENTAL MEASURES DISPLAY
KEY FACT:

A

Air quality metrics data is reported to the building occupants and to the IWBI.

77
Q

19 OPERABLE WINDOWS PART 1: FULL CONTROL

The following requirement is met:

A

Every regularly occupied space has operable windows that provide access to fresh air and daylight.

78
Q

19 OPERABLE WINDOWS
PART 2: OUTDOOR AIR MEASUREMENT
Outdoor levels of ozone, PM10, temperature and humidity are monitored based on the following requirement, and data collected is made available to the building occupants:

A

A data-gathering station located within 1.6 km [1 mi] of the building.

79
Q

19 OPERABLE WINDOWS
PART 3: WINDOW OPERATION MANAGEMENT
If the outdoor air measurement system indicates that outdoor air either (i) exceeds ozone levels of 51 ppb or PM 10 levels of 50 μg/m3; (ii) has a temperature of 8 oC[15 oF] above or below set indoor temperature; or (iii) has a relative humidity above 60%, then ONE of the following is used to discourage occupants from opening windows:

A

a. Software on occupants’ computers or smartphones.

b. Indicator lights at all operable windows.

80
Q

19 OPERABLE WINDOWS
PART 3: WINDOW OPERATION MANAGEMENT
KEY FACT:

A

Annual prevailing breeze patterns and average contaminant levels must be analyzed before integrating operable windows into the design.

81
Q

20 OUTDOOR AIR SYSTEMS

A

A properly designed DOAS can save energy compared to conventional systems while always supplying the appropriate amount of ventilation.

82
Q

20 OUTDOOR AIR SYSTEMS
PART 1: DEDICATED OUTDOOR AIR SYSTEMS
Dedicated outdoor air systems are used for heating and/or cooling systems and verified as being adequate through ONE of the following: (2)

A

a. The system complies with local codes or standards regarding dedicated outdoor air systems.
b. A detailed design review of the proposed system is conducted by an independent, qualified and registered professional mechanical engineer (not employed or compensated by the mechanical engineer on record). The review addresses thermal comfort (temperature, humidity, air velocity, etc.) and ventilation rates, as well as overall serviceability and system reliability.

83
Q

21 DISPLACEMENT VENTILATION
PART 1: DISPLACEMENT VENTILATION DESIGN AND APPLICATION
ONE of the following is met for projects implementing a displacement ventilation system for heating and/or cooling:

A

a. Low side wall air distribution with the air supply temperature slightly cooler or warmer than the desired space temperature.
b. Underfloor Air Distribution (UFAD) with the air supply temperature slightly cooler or warmer than the desired space temperature. Displacement ventilation applied as part of an underfloor air distribution system must be installed at a raised floor height whereby the underfloor area can be cleaned on an annual basis.

84
Q

21 DISPLACEMENT VENTILATION

PART 2: SYSTEM PERFORMANCE (2)

A

a. A Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) analysis is conducted for the displacement ventilation system.
b. The displacement ventilation system meets ASHRAE 55 (Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy) for comfort for at least 75% of all regularly occupied space.

85
Q

22 PEST CONTROL

PART 1: PEST REDUCTION The following are met:

A

a. All non-refrigerated perishable food, including pet food, is stored in sealed containers.
b. All indoor garbage cans (except paper recycling bins) less than 113 liters [30 gallons] have lids and hands-free operation, or are enclosed by cabinetry in an under-counter pull-out drawer.
c. All indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters [30 gallons] have a lid.

86
Q

22 PEST CONTROL
PART 2: PEST INSPECTION
Inspections show that the following are not present:

A

Signs of infestation by cockroaches, termites or other pests.

87
Q

22 PEST CONTROL
PART 2: PEST INSPECTION
KEY FACTS:

A

• Up to 60% of individuals with asthma who live in urban environments also have a sensitivity to cockroach
allergens.
• The bodies, feces and saliva of dust mites can trigger asthma and allergic reactions.

88
Q

23 ADVANCED AIR PURIFICATION

A

This feature requires the use of carbon filters to remove VOCs and ozone, and ultraviolet sanitizers to irradiate any bacteria, viruses and mold spores present in circulating indoor air.

89
Q

23 ADVANCED AIR PURIFICATION
PART 1: CARBON FILTRATION
To reduce VOCs in the indoor air, buildings which recirculate air use ONE of the following methods:

A

a. Activated carbon filters in the main air ducts to filter recirculated air.
b. A standalone air purifier with a carbon filter used in all regularly occupied spaces.

90
Q

23 ADVANCED AIR PURIFICATION
PART 2: AIR SANITIZATION
Spaces with more than 10 regular occupants, within buildings that recirculate air, use ONE of the following treatments or technologies to treat the recirculated air, either integrated within the central ventilation system or as a standalone device:

A

a. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation.

b. Photocatalytic oxidation.

91
Q

23 ADVANCED AIR PURIFICATION
PART 3: AIR QUALITY MAINTENANCE
As evidence that the selected filtration/sanitation system chosen continues to be fully operational, projects must annually provide IWBI with:

A

Records of air filtration/ sanitization maintenance, including evidence that the filter and/or sanitizer has been properly maintained as per the manufacturer’s recommendations.

92
Q

23 ADVANCED AIR PURIFICATION
PART 3: AIR QUALITY MAINTENANCE
Documentation required:

A

Letter from MEP Engineer and Spot Check (Parts 1 & 2); Operations Schedule (Part 3)

93
Q

24 COMBUSTION MINIMIZATION

A

This feature prohibits combustion in occupied spaces to eliminate a significant source of indoor pollution. It also requires that any combustion equipment serving the building meets stringent clean- burning standards, and discourages vehicles from idling near the building.

94
Q

24 COMBUSTION MINIMIZATION
PART 1: APPLIANCE AND HEATER COMBUSTION BAN
The following are forbidden in regularly occupied spaces:

A

Combustion-based fireplaces, stoves, space-heaters, ranges and ovens.

95
Q

24 COMBUSTION MINIMIZATION

PART 2: LOW-EMISSION COMBUSTION SOURCES

A

All combustion equipment used in the project for heating, cooling, water-heating, process heating or power generation (whether primary or back-up) must meet California’s South Coast Air Quality Management District rules for pollution: Internal combustion engines; Furnaces; Boilers, steam generators and process heaters; Water heaters.

96
Q

24 COMBUSTION MINIMIZATION
PART 3: ENGINE EXHAUST REDUCTION
Signage, visible from pick-up, drop-off and parking areas indicate:

A

Idling with vehicle engines on for more than 30 seconds is prohibited.

97
Q

24 COMBUSTION MINIMIZATION
PART 4: CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT
To reduce particulate matter emissions from both on-road and non-road diesel fueled vehicles and construction equipment, the following requirements are met: (3)

A

a. All non-road diesel engine vehicles comply with the U.S. EPA Tier 4 PM emissions standards or local equivalent when applicable.
b. All on-road diesel engine vehicles meet the requirements set forth in the U.S. EPA model year 2007 on-road standards for PM, or local equivalent when applicable.
c. All equipment, vehicles and loading/unloading are located away from air intakes and operable openings of adjacent buildings when available.

98
Q 
24 COMBUSTION MINIMIZATION
Key Facts (2)
A
  • Carbon monoxide has 210 times the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen.
  • Hypoxia refers to a lack of oxygen delivery to body tissues. It can cause nausea, loss of conscious and death.
99
Q

25 TOXIC MATERIAL REDUCTION
PART 1: PERFLUORINATED COMPOUND LIMITATION
No perfluorinated compounds (PFCs) are present in the following condition:

A

At levels equal to or greater than 100 ppm in components that constitute at least 5% by weight of a furniture or furnishing (drapes/curtains) assembly.

100
Q

25 TOXIC MATERIAL REDUCTION
PART 2: FLAME RETARDANT LIMITATION
Halogenated flame retardants are limited in the following components to 0.01% (100 ppm) to the extent allowable by local code: (5)

A

a. Window and waterproofing membranes, door and window frames and siding.
b. Flooring, ceiling tiles and wall coverings.
c. Piping and electrical cables, conduits and junction boxes.
d. Sound and thermal insulation.
e. Upholstered furniture and furnishings, textiles and fabrics.

101
Q

25 TOXIC MATERIAL REDUCTION
PART 3: PHTHALATE (PLASTICIZERS) LIMITATION
DEHP, DBP, BBP, DINP, DIDP or DNOP (o^en found in polyvinyl chloride [PVC]) are limited in the following components to 0.01% (100 ppm):

A

a. Flooring, including resilient and hard surface flooring and carpet.
b. Wall coverings, window blinds and shades, shower curtains, furniture and upholstery.
c. Plumbing pipes and moisture barriers.

102
Q

25 TOXIC MATERIAL REDUCTION
PART 4: ISOCYANATE-BASED POLYURETHANE LIMITATION
Isocyanate-based polyurethane products are not used in:

A

Interior finishes.

103
Q

25 TOXIC MATERIAL REDUCTION
PART 5: UREA-FORMALDEHYDE RESTRICTION
Urea-formaldehyde presence is limited in the following components to 100 ppm:

A

a. Furniture or any composite wood products.
b. Laminating adhesives and resins.
c. Thermal insulation.

104
Q

26 ENHANCED MATERIAL SAFETY

PART 1: PRECAUTIONARY MATERIAL SELECTION At least ONE of the following requirements is met: (4)

A

a. The project completes all Imperatives in the Materials Petal under the Living Building Challenge 3.0.
b. At least 25% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) are Cradle to Cradle Material Health Certified
c. At least 25% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) have no GreenScreen® Benchmark substances over 1,000 ppm, as verified by a qualified Ph.D. toxicologist or Certified Industrial Hygienist.
d. At least 25% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) meet some combination of the certifications described in Requirements b and c.

105
Q

27 ANTIMICROBIAL ACTIVITY FOR SURFACES
PART 1: HIGH-TOUCH SURFACES
All countertops and fixtures in bathrooms and kitchens, and all handles, doorknobs, light switches and elevator buttons are ONE of the following: (2)

A

a. Coated with or comprised of a material that is abrasion-resistant, non-leaching and meets EPA testing requirements for antimicrobial activity.
b. Cleaned with a UV cleaning device that has an output of at least 4 mW/cm2, used as recommended by the manufacturer.

106
Q

27 ANTIMICROBIAL ACTIVITY FOR SURFACES

Key Fact:

A

• Short wavelength ultraviolet light (UV-C) can reduce the bacterial load on surfaces.

107
Q

28 CLEANABLE ENVIRONMENT

A

This feature requires that high-touch surfaces are smooth, corrosion- resistant and easily saniOzed to maintain cleanliness.

108
Q

28 CLEANABLE ENVIRONMENT
PART 1: MATERIAL PROPERTIES
High-touch and non-porous surfaces meet the following requirements: (3)

A

a. Smooth and free of defects visible to the unaided eye.
b. Finished to maintain smooth welds and joints.
c. Free of sharp internal angles, corners and crevices.

109
Q

28 CLEANABLE ENVIRONMENT

PART 2: CLEAN-ABILITY

A

a. No permanent wall-to-wall carpeting is used; only removable rugs, removable carpet tiles or hard surfaces are allowed.
b. The building provides adequate flexible storage space for all permanent, movable items to allow high-touch surfaces to be completely cleared during cleaning.
c. Right angles between walls and windows/floors are sealed.

110
Q

29 CLEANING EQUIPMENT

A

This feature specifies cleaning equipment designed to achieve efficient disinfection of surfaces, reduce cross- contamination and decrease exposure to toxic cleaning chemicals.

111
Q

29 CLEANING EQUIPMENT
PART 1: EQUIPMENT AND CLEANING AGENTS
All cleaning equipment meets the following: (4)

A

a. Mops, rags and dusters used to clean all non-porous surfaces consist of microfiber with a denier no higher than 1.0.
b. Cleaning products are certified by either the EPA’s Design for the Environment, Underwriters Laboratories’ EcoLogo or Green Seal.
c. Mops do not have to be wrung by hand.
d. Vacuum cleaners contain filters with a HEPA rating.

112
Q

29 CLEANING EQUIPMENT
PART 2: CHEMICAL STORAGE
All cleaning equipment meets the following:

A

a. In cleaning storage areas, bleach and ammonia-based cleaning products are kept in separate bins from one another.
b. Any bins and bottles of bleach and ammonia-based cleaning products are affixed with large, color- coded labels indicating they are not to be mixed.

WELL Certification (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions