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EAWS > Air > Flashcards

Air Flashcards

1
Q

who is OPSO?

A

CDR Young

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2
Q

what makes up the Ops department?

A

CATCC, METOC, CDC, Strike Ops, CVIC

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3
Q

how many work centers make up CATCC?

A

3: AirOps, CCA, ATO

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4
Q

what does AirOps do?

A

coordination of air ops, proper functioning of CATCC

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5
Q

what positions are manned in AirOps during flight ops?

A

Air OPSO, Assistant Air OPSO, AirOps Suprvisor, Launch/Land Record Keeper, Plotter

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6
Q

who is Air OPSO?

A

CDR Marusich

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7
Q

what does Air OPSO do?

A

coordination of flight ops, functioning of CATCC, determines approach and degree of control

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8
Q

what does Assistant Air OPSO do?

A

assist Air OPSO

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9
Q

what does Air Ops Supervisor do?

A

Enlisted, ensures correct display of information, coordinates bingo/divert aircraft with air traffic control authorities and shipboard entities

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10
Q

what does Land/Launch Record Keeper do?

A

updates the ISIS to ensure accurate ac launch/recovery

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11
Q

what does Plotter do?

A

updates near land and divert field bearing and distance, displays weather for the ship and divert fields, submits pre-launch brief 2,5 hours prior to recovery

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12
Q

what is CCA?

A

Carrier Controlled Approach, operational control of departing/inbound ac

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13
Q

what positions are manned in CCA during flight Ops?

A

Departure, Marshal, Approach and Final Control

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14
Q

what does Departure Control do?

A

control of departing ac in case I, II, III until transfer to CDC, monitor tanker ac and low-state ac, control rendezvous btw tanker and low-state ac

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15
Q

What does Marshal Control do?

A

control of inbound ac during case I, II, III until handoff to Pri-Fly/Approach Control, establish initial interval btw ac: first ac placed 21 nm behind ship at 6000 ft altitude

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16
Q

what does Approach Control do?

A

control of inbound ac during case II, III btw Marshall and Pri-Fly/Final Control, maintains ac separation, ensure first ac makes ramp time

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17
Q

what does Final Control do?

A

control of inbound ac during case III until transfer to LSO or ac 3/4 miles away, control of ac glide slope and lineup performance, maintain ac separation

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18
Q

what is ATO?

A

Air Transfer Office, CODs

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19
Q

what is METOC?

A

Meteorology and Oceanography, Collects, interprets and disseminates weather info for carrier and at shore facilities used as divert fields

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20
Q

how many Launch and Recovery Conditions are there?

A

3: Case I, II, III

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21
Q

what is Case I?

A

no instrument conditions, daytime, 3000 ceiling and visibility 5 nm

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22
Q

what is Case II?

A

may encounter instrument conditions, daytime, 1000 ceiling and visibility 5 nm

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23
Q

what is case III?

A

will encounter instrument conditions, ceiling below 1000 and visibility below 5 nm, 30 min before/after sunset/sunrise

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24
Q

what is CDC?

A

Combat Direction Center: collect, process, display, evaluate and disseminate tactical info in a timely fashion; tactical decision-making for ship’s self-defense

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25
Q

what is Strike Ops?

A

establish air plan, weaponeering of ordnance

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26
Q

what is CVIC?

A

gather intelligence with systems in CVIC and SupPlot spaces; supply operational, technical and strike planning information

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27
Q

how many divisions in CVIC?

A

3: OZ, OS, OP

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28
Q

what is OZ division?

A

day-to-day ops of CVIC and SUPPLOT spaces, Intel Officers, Intel Specialists, ETs, ICs

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29
Q

what is OS division?

A

provide special intel communications to warfare commanders, Crypto Specialists

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30
Q

what is OP division?

A

photographic support, process Tactical Airborne Reconnaissance Pod System (TARPS) film

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31
Q

what are 3 RADARs in CATCC?

A

AN/SPN 41, 43 and 46

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32
Q

what is SPN 41?

A

Bulls Eye, gives pilot glide-slope indication of ac vis-a-vis the ship

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33
Q

what is SPN 43?

A

Marshal, main CATCC radar

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34
Q

what is SPN 46?

A

aka Precision Approach and Landing System (PALS) or Easy Rider, manual or auto control

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35
Q

EMCON

A

restrictions on the use of electronic systems to deny info about location of the ship, ZIPLIP

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36
Q

motion

A

act or process of changing place or position

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37
Q

3 types of motion pertaining to flight

A

acceleration, speed, velocity

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38
Q

acceleration

A

rate of speed change

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39
Q

speed

A

rate of movement in distance over time

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40
Q

velocity

A

speed of an object in a given time and direction

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41
Q

Newton’s 1st law

A

inertia: object at rest will remain at rest, object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and direction until acted upon by the outside force

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42
Q

Newton’s 2nd law

A

force: if a moving object is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion/accelaration will be directly proportional to the amount of force, inversely proportional to the mass of the object

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43
Q

Newton’s 3d law

A

action and reaction: for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

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44
Q

Bernoulli’s principle

A

speed of fluid passing through constriction is increased and pressure decreased

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45
Q

Bernoulli’s principle applied to flight

A

lift is accomplished by the split in airflow, less pressure/faster speed above the wing, greater pressure/slower speed below

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46
Q

lift

A

upward force (opp weight)

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47
Q

weight

A

force of gravity acting downward

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48
Q

drag

A

force holding ac back, caused by disruption of air about protruding parts of the ac

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49
Q

thrust

A

forward force of engines

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50
Q

longitudinal axis

A

centerline between nose and tail

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51
Q

lateral axis

A

line parallel to wings

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52
Q

vertical axis

A

line from top to bottom

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53
Q

roll

A

along longtitudinal axis

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54
Q

pitch

A

along lateral axis

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55
Q

yaw

A

along vertical axis

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56
Q

ailerons

A

control roll, along longitudal axis

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57
Q

elevators

A

control pitch, lateral axis

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58
Q

rudder

A

control yaw, vertical axis

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59
Q

cyclic stick

A

controls roll/pitch, tilts angle of rotor blades and ac, changes direction of the lift

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60
Q

tail rotor

A

controls yaw, counteracts torque of the main rotor, de/increases amount of horizontal thrust, vertical axis

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61
Q

4 flight controls on fixed wing aircraft

A

flap, spoiler, speed breaks, slats

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62
Q

flap

A

creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing, reduce takeoff runs and landing rollout

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63
Q

spoiler

A

decreases wing lift, more predictable landing

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64
Q

speed brakes

A

reduce speed of aircraft

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65
Q

slats

A

movable surfacess attached to the leading edge of the wing

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66
Q

collective

A

main rotor of helicopter, two or more blades

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67
Q

AoA

A

Angle of Attack, angle at which airfoil or fuselage meets flow of air

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68
Q

autorotation

A

involves reverse airflow through rotor and collective’s pitch, allows helos land safely without using engine

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69
Q

aircraft hydraulic system

A

reservoir, pump, tubing, selector valve, actuating unit

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70
Q

reservoir

A

holds hydraulic fluid

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71
Q

pump

A

provides flow

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72
Q

tubing

A

transmits fluid

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73
Q

selector valve

A

directs the flow

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74
Q

actuating unit

A

converts fluid pressure into work

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75
Q

landing gear components

A
  1. shock strut assembly, 2. wheel brake assembly, 3. retracting/extending mechanism, 4. side struts and supports 5. tires
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76
Q

shock strut assembly function

A

absorbs shock to the airframe

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77
Q

tires function

A

allows ac to roll, provides traction

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78
Q

wheel brake assembly function

A

slow/stop ac, prevent ac from rolling when parked

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79
Q

retracting and extending mechanism function

A

electrically and hydraulically extend and retract landing gear

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80
Q

side struts and supports function

A

lateral strength/support for landing gear

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81
Q

type I hangar

A

235’x85’, for carrier aircraft, rotary wing and other smaller aircraft

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82
Q

type II hangar

A

325’x119’, for USMC aviation

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83
Q

type III hangar

A

165’X165’, for land-based patrol and large transport aircraft

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84
Q

How many aircraft can hangar bays hold?

A

60 +

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85
Q

threshold markings

A

parallel stripes 12’ X 150’ designating landing area

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86
Q

overrun area

A

un/paved deceleration areas at the ends of runways

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87
Q

taxiways

A

paved areas for ac to move between parking aprons, runways etc

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88
Q

parking apron

A

open paved areas adjacent to hangers, fuel services

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89
Q

runway

A

paved areas for ac takeoff and landing

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90
Q

MA-1 series overrun barrier

A

for aborted take-off or emergency overrun landing, always on standby

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91
Q

compass rose

A

compass calibration pad, paved area in magnetically quiet area

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92
Q

runway numbering system

A

numbered in relation to magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10*

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93
Q

airfield rotating beacon

A

clockwise rotation, military: 2 white, 1 green @ 12/15 times/min, civilian: 1 white, 1 green

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94
Q

flightdeck safety equipment

A
  1. flightdeck steel-toed safety shoes, 2. protective jersey, 3. cranial, 4. goggles, 5. leather gloves
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95
Q

yellow jerseys

A
  1. handling officer 2. flight deck officer 3. CAT officer 4. Air Bos’n 5. arresting gear officer
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96
Q

white jerseys

A
  1. safety 2. Pri-fly 3. LOX handlers 4. ATO/cargo handlers 5. LSO 6. troubleshooters 7. QA/final checkers 8. medical
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97
Q

brown jerseys

A

plane captains

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98
Q

blue jerseys

A
  1. ac handling 2. chock crewmen (chocks, trains, tractors) 3. elevator operators
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99
Q

green jerseys

A
  1. CAT and arresting gear 2. ac maintenance personnel 3. helicopter landing signal enlisted-man 4. GSE troubleshooters 5. photographers
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100
Q

red jerseys

A
  1. crash and salvage 2. explosive ordinance disposal (EOD) 3. ordinance handling personnel
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101
Q

purple jerseys

A

fuel

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102
Q

Medical flight deck clothing

A

white jersey with red cross

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103
Q

Landing LSE flight deck clothing

A

green jersey, red cranial

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104
Q

Ordnance flight deck clothing

A

Red jersey with black stripes

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105
Q

Air Dept khakis, LPOs, EOD, Ordnance officers flight deck clothing

A

cranial with 3 orange stripes

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106
Q

Tractor King wears

A

Yellow jersey, blue vest

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107
Q

LSO wears

A

white jersey, no cranial

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108
Q

Safety wears

A

white jersey with green cross

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109
Q

PKP identification

A

12” red stripe/3” white PKP letters

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110
Q

Saltwater stations identification

A

18” red stripe/3” yellow “W”

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111
Q

CO2 bottle stowage id

A

12” red stripe/3” white “CO2”

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112
Q

AFFF id

A

18” green stripe/3” white “AFFF”

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113
Q

bomb jettison ramp id

A

4” red/yellow stripes, 12” bomb symbol

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114
Q

steam smothering id

A

18” black stripe/3” white “STEAM”

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115
Q

3 flight deck/hangar deck safety concerns

A

Jet Blast, rotor wash, prop arcs

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116
Q

V-1

A

Flight Deck Directors

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117
Q

V-2

A

Catapults, Arresting Gear, VLA

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118
Q

V-3

A

Hangar Bay Directors

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119
Q

V-4

A

Fuels

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120
Q

V-5

A

Air Admin and Tower Personnel

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121
Q

Air Boss

A

CAPT Doster

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122
Q

Mini Boss

A

CDR Bassel

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123
Q

Handler

A

LCDR Caldwell

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124
Q

Stations manned in Pri-Fly during flight Ops

A
  1. air boss, 2. mini boss, 3. pri-fly control supervisor, 4. land/launch record keeper, 5. ISIS operator, 6. FWD spotter, 7. AFT spotter, 8. Recovery equipment controller, 9. FLOLS controller
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125
Q

Responsibilities of Air Officer

A

supervision and direction of aircraft launch and recovery, VLA and shipboard handling of aircraft, determines case launch and recovery of aircraft, visual control of all aircraft

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126
Q

Responsibilities of Aircraft Handling Officer

A

supervision of handling of the embarked ac on the flight deck/hangar deck, Assists Air Officer

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127
Q

Responsibilities of Crash Crew

A

Save lives, flight deck fire fighting, clearing debris

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128
Q

Responsibilities of CAT and Arresting Gear Officer

A

operation of ALRE and VLA

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129
Q

Purpose of barricade

A

emergency landing of ac: nose of ac passes throught the barricade and vertical straps wrap wings

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130
Q

2 types of barricades

A
  1. for jet ac, 2. for E-2C
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131
Q

Arresting engine specs

A

MK-7, hydro-pneumatic system

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132
Q

Basic parts of MK-7

A
  1. engine 2. cylinder and ram assembly 3. crosshead and fixed sheaves 4. control valve system 5. accumulator system 6. aux air flasks 7. sheave and cable arrangement
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133
Q

what powers catapults?

A

steam from the reactor

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134
Q

who is allowed on catwalks during launch?

A

catapult crews

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135
Q

Stations manned in Flight Deck Control

A
  1. Aircraft Handling Officer/Flight Deck Officer 2. Assistant Flight Deck Officer 3. Aviation Fuels Representative 4. Sound-Powered Phone Talkers 5. Elevator Operators 6. Weapons Personnel 7. Squadron/Aircraft Maintenance Representative (Dog/Pup)
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136
Q

Purpose of IFLOLS

A

visual landing aid used by the pilot to bring ac down a glide slope to the deck

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137
Q

Purpose of MOVALS

A

backup to FLOLS, training for LSO/pilot, controlled by LSO, 2 port/1 stbd

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138
Q

Purpose of ILARTS

A

monitor and record ac launch/landing, used for flight analysis, evaluation, investigation, Ch2

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139
Q

Stations manned in Hangar Deck Control

A

Hangar Deck Officer/Deck CPO/LPO, Elevator operators

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140
Q

Conflag Station

A

1 in each hangar bay, responsible to the Integrity Watch Officer (IWO) or OOD, security of the hangar bay, proper operation of all remotely controlled fire-fighting apparatus

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141
Q

Lube oil system

A

storage tank, 1 or 2 pumps take suction from manifolds in storage tank, valves, piping to supply 2 or 4 ready service tanks in CAT spaces

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142
Q

what is the airwing onboard CVN-70?

A

CVW (Carrier Air Wing)-17

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143
Q

what are 3 key functions of the airwing?

A
  1. Naval Air Defense and Offensive Missions 2. SAR 3. Logistics Support
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144
Q

AAW

A

Anti-Air Warfare

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145
Q

ECM

A

Electronic Counter Measures

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146
Q

AEW

A

Airborne Electronic Warfare

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147
Q

SEAD

A

Suppress Enemy Air Defense

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148
Q

ASW

A

Anti-Submarine Warfare

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149
Q

CAS

A

Close Air Support

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150
Q

ISR

A

Intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance

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151
Q

BAMS/UAS

A

Broad Area Maritime Surveillance/Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

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152
Q

Surface Search Radar

A

SPS-67 (100 nm), SPS-73 (96 nm)

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153
Q

Fire Control Radar

A

SPQ-9B (80 nm)

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154
Q

8 squadrons of CVW-17

A
  1. HS-15 RedLions 2. VAW-125 TigerTails 3. VFA-22 Fighting Redcocks 4. VFA-25 Fist of the Fleet 5. VFA-81 Sunliners 6. VFA-113 Stingers 7. VAQ-134 Garudas 8. VRC-40 Rawhides
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155
Q

HS-15

A

Red Lions, Helicopter Sea Combat Squadron, MH-60S/R

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156
Q

VAW-125

A

Tiger Tails, Carrier Airborne Early Warning, E2-C Hawkeye

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157
Q

VFA-22

A

Fighting Redcocks, Strike Fighter, FA-18 Baby/Super Hornet

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158
Q

VFA-25

A

Fist of the Fleet, Strike Fighter, FA-18

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159
Q

VFA-81

A

Sunliners, Strike Fighter, FA-18

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160
Q

VFA-113

A

Stingers, Strike Fighters, FA-18

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161
Q

VAQ-134

A

Garudas, Tactical Electronic Warfare, EA-6B Prowler

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162
Q

VRC-40

A

Rawhides, Fleet Logistics, E-2C Carrier Onboard Delivery (COD)

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163
Q

Airwing Commander

A

CAPT ?

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164
Q

Air Dept Officer

A

CDR Doster

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165
Q

CVIN CO

A

CAPT Whalen

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166
Q

TACELRON 134

A

Tactical Electronic Warfare, VAQ-134/Garudas, EA-6B/Prowler

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167
Q

CARAEWRON 125

A

Carrier Airborne Early Warning, VAW-125/Tigertails, E2C/Hawkeye

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168
Q

STRIKEFITRON

A

Strike Fighter, Strike/Attack: VFA-22,25,81,113, FA-18/Hornet

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169
Q

HELANTISUBRON 15/HELSEACOMBATRON

A

Helicopter Sea Combat, HS-15/HSC Red Lions, MH-60 Seahawk

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170
Q

HELMARSTRIKERON

A

Helicopter Maritime Strike

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171
Q

FELLOGCOMSUPRON 40

A

Fleet Logistics, VRC-40/ Rawhides, E-2C COD

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172
Q

MH-60S

A

Anti-sub warfare, Combat SAR, Humanitarian disaster relief, Med Evacuation, SPECWAR, Mine Contermeasures

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173
Q

MH-60R

A

Anti-sub and surface warfare, Surveillance, Comms Relay, Combat SAR (CSAR), Naval gunfire support, Logistics support

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174
Q

EA-18G

A

Growler, Combination of FA-18 and EA-6B, Will replace EA-6B

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175
Q

Baby Hornet

A

FA-18, 1 seater, circular intakes

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176
Q

Super Hornet

A

FA-18, 2 seater, box/squared

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177
Q

NATOPS Manual

A

NAVAIR 00-80T-105

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178
Q

Aircraft Readiness Condition I

A

7 min, Aircraft: spotted on catapult or clear route to catapult, Aircrew: ready for flight

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179
Q

Aircraft Readiness Condition II

A

15 min, Aircraft: clear route to catapult, Aircrew: on flightdeck or in island (flightdeck level)

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180
Q

Aircraft Readiness Condition III

A

30 min, Aircrew: in flightgear & briefed in ready rooms

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181
Q

Aircraft Readiness Condition IV

A

60 min, Aircraft: minor maintenance may be performed

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182
Q

LSO

A

Landing Signal Officer

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183
Q

6 elements of a Flight Plan

A
  1. event number 2. launch time 3. recovery time 4. mission 5. number and model of aircraft including spares 6. squadron and radio call
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184
Q

what is the purpose of LINK 4A

A

connects information from each unit/aircraft within the Strike Group to formulate a big picture threat assessment

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185
Q

What is the purpose of SEAD?

A

Jams enemy Radars and Communications Systems

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186
Q

6 basic core capabilities

A
  1. forward presence 2. deterrence 3. sea control 4. power projection 5. maritime security 6. humanitarian asistance/disaster relief
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187
Q

13 Aviation communities

A
  1. HSC 2. HSM 3. HT 4. VAQ 5. VAW 6. VC 7. VFA 8. VP 9. VQ 10. VRC 11. VR 12. VT 13. VX/VXE
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188
Q

HSC

A

Helicopter Sea Combat

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189
Q

HSC mission

A

rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, combat SAR

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190
Q

HSM

A

Helicopter Maritime Strike:

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191
Q

HSM mission

A

anti-sub and anti-surface warfare, logistics and rescue

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192
Q

HT

A

Helicopter Training:

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193
Q

HT mission

A

basic and advanced training

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194
Q

VAQ

A

Tactical Electronic Warfare:

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195
Q

VAQ mission

A

tactically exploit, supress, degrade and decieve enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems including comms

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196
Q

VAW

A

Carrier Airborne Early Warning:

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197
Q

VAW mission

A

early warning against weather, missles, shipping, aircraft

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198
Q

VC

A

Fleet Composite

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199
Q

VC mission

A

air services for the fleet, simulations and target towing

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200
Q

VFA

A

Strike Fighter

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201
Q

VFA mission

A

fighter and attack missions

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202
Q

VP

A

Patrol

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203
Q

VQ mission

A

electronic warfare support, i.e. search, interception, recording, analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy; provide comms relay services as part of worldwide airborne command post system

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204
Q

VP mission

A

land based squadrons, anti-sub and anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance, mining

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205
Q

VQ

A

Fleet Air Reconnaissance:

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206
Q

VR

A

Aircraft logistics support

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207
Q

VR mission

A

transport personnel and supplies

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208
Q

VRC

A

Carrier logistics support

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209
Q

VRC mission

A

transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery

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210
Q

VT

A

Training

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211
Q

VT mission

A

basic and advanced training

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212
Q

VX/VXE

A

Air Test and Evaluation:

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213
Q

VX/VXE mission

A

test and evaluate operational capabilities of new ac and equipment, develop tactic and doctrines

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214
Q

Tie Down for up to 45 nm wind speed

A

Initial (6), Normal weather (9)

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215
Q

Tie Down for up to 60 nm wind speed

A

Moderate weather (14)

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216
Q

Tie Down for over 60 nm wind speed

A

Heavy weather (20)

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217
Q

How many personnel must accompany movement of ac?

A

6 to 10

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218
Q

Personnel to accompany ac movement

A
  1. move director 2. brake rider 3. chock walker 4. safety observers 5. tractor driver
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219
Q

CIWS

A

Close-In Weapon System, MK-15 Phalanx, 1 nm

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220
Q

what system is CIWS part of?

A

Anti Ships Missile Defense (ASMD), last measure of defense

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221
Q

what are 3 modes of operation of CIWS?

A

Air Ready, AAW Manual, AAW Auto

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222
Q

what gun fire control system does Phalanx use?

A

20 mm Gatling

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223
Q

how many ways are there to control CIWS?

A

2: local (at the mounts) and remote (Remote Control Panel in Combat)

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224
Q

what is Air Ready mode?

A

energized but not “looking for targets”

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225
Q

what is AAW manual mode?

A

radiating/looking for targets, when target parameters met computer illuminates recommended fire indicator, if all fire breaks closed, operator pushes button to fire

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226
Q

what is AAW auto mode?

A

if all fire breaks closed, operator pushes button to fire, fires automatically as soon as target is found

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227
Q

what is the ship’s first line of defense against missiles?

A

NSSMS, 9 nm

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228
Q

what missile does NSSMS use?

A

RIM-7 Sea Sparrow

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229
Q

what is NSSMS used for?

A

ASMD, offensive weapon against air and surface targets

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230
Q

ASMD

A

Anti Ship’s Missile Defense

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231
Q

what is dual NSSMS?

A

each NSSMS has 2 director’s illuminators

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232
Q

how many modes of operation for NSSMS?

A

2: semi and auto

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233
Q

NSSMS location

A

FWD STBD, AFT PORT

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234
Q

NSSMS Semi-Automatic mode

A

target parameters met, engageable indicator illuminates, if all breaks closed, operator pushes button to fire

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235
Q

NSSMS Automatic mode

A

target parameters met, engageable indicator illuminates, NSSMS commences fire

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236
Q

where are NSSMS controls?

A

Firing Officer’s Console in the Control Rooms

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237
Q

FOC

A

Firing Officer’s Console

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238
Q

who is in charge of ASMD?

A

TAO

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239
Q

what is required to operate NSSMS?

A

Chill water, 440 VAC/60Hz, 400Hz, SINS gyro input

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240
Q

RAM

A

Rolling Airframe Missile System

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241
Q

how many RAM launchers does the ship have?

A

2 21-cell box launchers, port fwd, stbd aft

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242
Q

what missile does RAM use?

A

RIM 116, 25 lb head with IR/RF seeker, speed 2.5 mach

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243
Q

what is RAM range?

A

3-4 nm

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244
Q

what is the purpose of .50 cal gun mounts?

A

offensive weapons system, close-in protection against swimmer, small boat, slow low aircraft, 360 degree coverage

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245
Q

AN/SPS-49

A

2-D Air Search radar, 250 nm, 851-942 Mhz

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246
Q

AN/SPS-48

A

3-D Air Search radar, 220 nm, 2939-3058 Mhz

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247
Q

AN/SPS-67

A

Surface Search radar, 60 nm, 5450-5825 Mhz

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248
Q

SPS-73

A

Navigation radar, 96 nm

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249
Q

SPS- 74

A

Periscope radar, 32 nm

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250
Q

AN/SPS-43

A

Primary Air Traffic Control Radar, Carrier Controlled Approach Search Radar aka Marshall, 50 nm, 3590-3700 Mhz

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251
Q

AN/SPQ-9B

A

Fire Control Radar used for RNSSMS and RAM, 80-100 nm

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252
Q

AN/SLQ-32(V)4

A

ASMD with soft kill capabilities

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253
Q

where are AN/SLQ-32(V)4 antennas located?

A

stbd 08-172, aft of AUXCONN, port 03-74, near angle deck

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254
Q

where is AN/SLQ-32(V)4 controlled?

A

EW module 03-165-2-C

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255
Q

ILS

A

Instrument Landing System, AN/SPN 41

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256
Q

AN/SPN-41

A

guidance-navigation system for instrument approaches to the ship

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257
Q

ACLS

A

Automatic Carrier Landing System, AN/SPN 46

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258
Q

AN/SPN-46

A

ACLS, Easy Rider, precision tracking radar coupled to computer and data link, Mode1 auto, Mode 3 manual, provides azimuth and elevation info (needles)

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259
Q

Define ORM

A

systematic decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards

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260
Q

5 steps of ORM

A

Identify hazzards, assess, make risk decisions, implement controls, supervise

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261
Q

Class A mishap

A

material property damage $2,000,000+, death or permanent disability

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262
Q

Class B mishap

A

material damage $500,000-2,000,000, permanent partial disability, 3+ hospitalized

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263
Q

Class C mishap

A

material damage $50,000-500,000; non-fatal injury resulting in loss of 5+ workdays

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264
Q

list 6 types of PPE

A
  1. cranial 2. eye protection 3. hearing protection 4. impact protection 5. gloves 6. foot protection
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265
Q

mandatory standard hand signals

A

wave off and hold (helos), emergency stop (fixed wing)

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266
Q

CVN hangar bays

A

110’ by 685’, 25’ overhead, 1.4 acres

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267
Q

3 objectives of first aid

A

save lives, prevent further injury, prevent infection

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268
Q

4 methods for controlling bleeding

A

direct pressure, pressure points, elevation, tourniquet

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269
Q

how many pressure points on a body?

A

22

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270
Q

what are the 11 pressure points?

A
  1. temporal 2. facial 3. carotid 4. subclavian 5. and 6. brachial 7. radial/ulnar 8. femoral 9. iliac 10. popliteal 11. tibial
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271
Q

what are 2 types of fractures?

A

closed/simple and open/compound

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272
Q

what are symptoms of heat exhaustion?

A

disturbance of blood flow to the brain and lungs, cool moist skin, dilated pupils, normal/high body temp, profuse sweating

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273
Q

what are symptoms of heat stroke?

A

breakdown of sweating mechanism, hot/dry skin, uneven dilation, weak rapid pulse

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274
Q

symptoms of superficial frostbite

A

ice crystals in upper skin layers, exposure to temp 32 degrees or less

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275
Q

symptoms of deep frostbite

A

ice crystals in deeper skin layers, exposure to temp 32 degrees or less

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276
Q

how many cold weather injuries?

A

3

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277
Q

Hypothermia

A

general cooling of the body, victim pale unconscious, breathing slow and shallow, faint pulse, body semi-rigid stiff

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278
Q

shock

A

insufficient blood flow throughout the body

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279
Q

Types of shock

A

septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic, cardiogenic, hypovolemic

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280
Q

what is septic shock?

A

bacteria in blood releasing toxins

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281
Q

what is anaphylactic shock?

A

allergic reaction

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282
Q

what is cardiogenic shock?

A

heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body

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283
Q

what is hypovolemic shock?

A

severe blood and fluid loss

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284
Q

what is neurogenic shock?

A

caused by spinal cord injury

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285
Q

what is the purpose of CPR?

A

support small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to buy time until normal heart function is restored

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286
Q

what is compression : breath ratio?

A

30 to 2

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287
Q

what is appropriate depth of compression during CPR?

A

1.5 to 2 inches

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288
Q

what is the rate of compressions during CPR?

A

100 per minute

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289
Q

how long should breath be during CPR?

A

1 second

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290
Q

how many cycles of compression before reassessment?

A

5

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291
Q

what is the chain of survival?

A
  1. recognition/activation of CPR 2. chest compressions 3. AED/defibrillator 4. rapid defib 5. effective advanced life support (EMT) 6. integrated post-cardiac arrest care
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292
Q

how many chemical agent types are there?

A

4: nerve, blister, blood, choking

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293
Q

Nerve agent

A

liquid, disrupts nerve functions, Sarin, Tabun, Soman

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294
Q

Blister agent

A

liquid/solid, causes inflamation destroying tissues, Distilled mustard, Lewisite, Phosgene Oxime, Levinstein Mustard

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295
Q

what is a Blood agent?

A

gas, attack oxygen arrying enzymes causing chocking, Hydrogen Cyanide, Cyanogen Chloride, Arsine

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296
Q

Chocking agent

A

gas or liquid, cause lungs to fill with fluid, Phosgene, Diphosgene

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297
Q

what is used to detect presence of liquid chemical agents?

A

M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper

298
Q

how does M9 work?

A

turns red when chemical agent is detected

299
Q

what is a nerve agent antidote?

A

Atropine/2-PAM Chloride Auto Injector

300
Q

how many Atropine/2-PAM-Chloride Injectors are issued?

A

2 each: Atropine and 2-PAM

301
Q

what are the 2 types of Biological agents?

A

Pathogens and toxins

302
Q

what are Pathogens that could be used as biological agents?

A

bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, protozoa, prions

303
Q

how are Toxins categorized?

A

based on organism source or physiological effect

304
Q

what are major Toxin groups by source?

A

mycotoxins, bacterial, algal, animal venom, plant

305
Q

what are Toxins groups by physiological effects?

A

neurotoxins, cytotoxins, enterotoxins, dermatoxins

306
Q

how many pieces of IPE for CBR are there?

A

5: MCU-2P mask, ACPG, Chem protective gloves with liners, Overboots with laces, Skin decon kit

307
Q

how many types of nuclear explosions are there?

A

5: high altitude, air, surface, shallow underwater, deep underwater

308
Q

High altitude air burst

A

altitude 100,000’, ionosphere disruptions and EMP

309
Q

Air burst

A

fireball doesn’t reach the surface, creates vacuum that collects debris

310
Q

Surface burst

A

fireball touches the surface, worst fallout

311
Q

Shallow underwater burst

A

small fireball and blast wave, causes large waves and water contamination

312
Q

Deep underwater burst

A

similar to shallow blast, greater contamination

313
Q

how many MOPP levels do we have?

A

5: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4

314
Q

what is MOPP?

A

Mission Oriented Protective Posture, used to coordinate use of systems and equipment in CBR environment

315
Q

MOPP level 0

A

IPE issued

316
Q

MOPP level 1

A

JSLIST, mask and gloves readily accessible, M9 posted

317
Q

MOPP level 2

A

mask carried, decon supplies staged

318
Q

MOPP level 3

A

GQ, install filters, overboots

319
Q

MOPP level 4

A

don mask and hood, gloves, Circle William set, CounterMeasure Washdown

320
Q

DT-60 dosimeter

A

non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter up to 600 roentgens

321
Q

Another name for Halon

A

bromochlorodifluromethane

322
Q

Another name for PKP

A

potassium bicarbonate

323
Q

FPCON

A

Force Protection Condition

324
Q

what is the purpose of FPCON?

A

series of measures designed to increase the level of a unit’s defense against terrorist attacks

325
Q

What are factors determining FPCONs?

A

terrorist threat level, capability to penetrate existing physical security systems, risk of terrorist attack to personnel/assets, asset’s ability to execute mission if attacked, protected asset’s criticality to their mission

326
Q

how many FPCONs do we have?

A

5: Normal, Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

327
Q

FPCON Normal

A

general global threat of possible terrorist activity

328
Q

FPCON Alpha

A

increased general threat of possible terrorist activity

329
Q

FPCON Bravo

A

increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists

330
Q

FPCON Charlie

A

when an incident occurs or intelligence indicates some form of terrorist action is likely

331
Q

FPCON Delta

A

in the immediate area where terrorist attack has occurred or intelligence is received that terrorist attack is imminent

332
Q

DEFCON

A

defense readiness condition, alert posture used by the US Armed Forces

333
Q

how many levels does DEFCON have?

A

5

334
Q

DEFCON 5

A

normal peacetime readiness

335
Q

DEFCON 4

A

normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures

336
Q

DEFCON 3

A

increase in force readiness above normal readiness

337
Q

DEFCON 2

A

further increase in force readiness, but less than maximum

338
Q

DEFCON 1

A

maximum force readiness

339
Q

who was Carl Vinson?

A

Senator (D) from Georgia, served 50 years in House of Reps, Chairman of Naval Affairs Committee, Father of 2 Ocean Navy

340
Q

what is Vinson-Trammel Act?

A

authorized new warships and appropriations to build USN to its treaty limits

341
Q

when was CVN-70 keel laid down?

A

10/11/1975

342
Q

when was CVN-70 launched?

A

3/15/1980

343
Q

when was CVN-70 officially commissioned?

A

3/13/1982

344
Q

what is the length of the ship?

A

1,115’4”

345
Q

CO when CVN-70 was commissioned

A

Richard Martin

346
Q

Ship’s Sponsor

A

Molly Snead

347
Q

First home port

A

Alameda, CA

348
Q

what happened on 7 Oct 2001?

A

CVN-70 launched first airstrikes in support of Enduring Freedom

349
Q

what happened on 12 Jan 2010?

A

Ship redirected to Haiti after 7.0 earthquake

350
Q

USS Cole Bombing

A

10/12/2000

351
Q

1st take off from a ship

A

11/14/1910, Eugene Ely (civilian pilot), USS Birmingham (CL 2), 50-hp Curtiss plane, Hampton Roads, VA to Willoughby Spit

352
Q

Birthday of Naval Aviation

A

5/8/1911, CAPT Chambers requisitioned 2 Glen Curtiss biplanes, $5,500 each

353
Q

Navy’s first aircraft

A

A-1 Triad

354
Q

who trained the first pilot and mechanic?

A

Curtiss and Wright brothers

355
Q

First fatality

A

6/20/1913, ENS William Billingsley

356
Q

inspector school for aeronautical material established

A

10/22/1917, predecessors of QAR, 14 men enrolled

357
Q

Navy’s first carrier

A

3/20/1922, USS Langley (CV-1), convert from coal carrier Jupiter

358
Q

First jet landing on carrier

A

3/10/1948, FJ-1 Fury landed on USS Boxer

359
Q

Battle of Coral Sea

A

7-8 May 1942, first carrier vs carrier battle

360
Q

significance of battle of the Coral Sea?

A

Japanese plans to invade Australia foiled, code broken, Lexington sunk

361
Q

Battle of Midway

A

3-5 June1942, turning point of the Pacific war

362
Q

what happened at Midway?

A

4 Japanese carriers sunk, Yorktown sunk

363
Q

Guadalcanal

A

13-15 November 1942

364
Q

what happened at Guadalcanal?

A

Solomons came under Allied control, Australia protected, USS Juneau sunk

365
Q

99 transmission

A

broadcast of information of collective interest to all aircraft on a particular frequency

366
Q

air plan

A

schedule of flight ops for 24-hour period

367
Q

ALTRV

A

altitude reservations, for mass movement of planes

368
Q

alpha strike

A

majority of airwing participate

369
Q

angels

A

altitude in thousands of feet

370
Q

arc

A

track over ground for aircraft at constant distance from nav aid

371
Q

axial deck

A

part of flight deck along longtitudal aids of carrier

372
Q

azimuth

A

magnetic bearing on aircraft that provides guidance

373
Q

ball

A

pilot sees visual landing aid

374
Q

base recovery course

A

ship’s magnetic heading during flight ops

375
Q

bingo

A

proceed to land, critical situation

376
Q

break time

A

time between deck being ready and first aircraft recovery (case II)

377
Q

burble

A

air flow disturbances around carrier that affect aircraft landing

378
Q

card of the day

A

daily by CVIC, identifies call signs and numbers, confidential

379
Q

Charlie

A

signal for aircraft to land on ship

380
Q

Clara

A

pilot does not see the visual

381
Q

Coordinated Universal Time

A

at prime meridian, GMT, zulu

382
Q

D&D

A

display and decision. Module in CDC where CDC watch officer, TAO, and ship’s air coordinator are located

383
Q

Delta

A

signal to conserve fuel

384
Q

departure radials

A

provide lateral separation between departing aircraft in case II and III departures

385
Q

departure reference radial

A

assigned by CATCC for all squadron departure radials are referenced

386
Q

Easy rider

A

PALS

387
Q

Final control

A

position in CATCC, controls final approach during case III

388
Q

FACSFAC

A

shore based ATC facility

389
Q

flight level

A

pressure altitude in hundreds of feet, set 29.29 in aircraft altimeter; FL230=23,000 pressure altitude

390
Q

FOX CORPEN

A

ship’s true heading during flight ops

391
Q

glideslope

A

vertical approach path, provided by FLOLS, PALS, ICLS, in degrees above true horizontal plane

392
Q

green sheet

A

daily schedule of carrier ops, published by Ops

393
Q

HIFR

A

helo in flght refueling, from surface vessel

394
Q

high holding pattern

A

secondary case I pattern, reduce fuel consumption

395
Q

holy helo

A

chaplains on helo

396
Q

home plate

A

where a flight originates

397
Q

hook

A

turn made by aircraft from downwind heading during case III

398
Q

hook skip

A

tail hook skips over arresting cable resulting in a bolter

399
Q

hot pump/refueling

A

refuel on flight deck while engine is running

400
Q

hot sheet

A

airspace constrants for each 24 hour period of flight ops in an air plan

401
Q

hot switch

A

pilot replaces another pilot while engine is running

402
Q

ILARTS

A

Integrated Launch and Recovery Landing TV System

403
Q

in tension

A

catapult is secured to aircraft right before launch

404
Q

KILO report

A

indicates aircraft mission readiness

405
Q

link 4A

A

UHF data frequency that transmits PALS commands, transmits CDC data to ac

406
Q

Load report

A

number of passengers, mail, cargo, pilot’s name on aircraft

407
Q

magnetic bearing

A

relation to magnetic north

408
Q

magnetic heading

A

relation to magnetic north by which aircraft navigate

409
Q

mark your father

A

request for pilot’s radial and DME distance from carrier

410
Q

marshal

A

bearing, distance, and altitude fix where approach commences

411
Q

mother

A

ship

412
Q

needles

A

instrument approach indication from PALS equipment

413
Q

no joy

A

pilot can’t see target

414
Q

noradar control

A

pilot flies according to procedure, when radar gear is down

415
Q

NORDO

A

no radio

416
Q

nugget

A

first tour pilot

417
Q

operational commitment

A

granting a deviation during an urgent situation

418
Q

package check

A

operational status of tanker refueling system

419
Q

parrot

A

aircraft’s transponder

420
Q

penetration

A

instrument approach letdown from marshal pattern altitude

421
Q

pickle

A

jettison

422
Q

pigeons

A

magnetic bearing and distance to carrier, field, or other geo position

423
Q

pinkie

A

landing made during twilight

424
Q

pink sheet

A

bi-weekly schedule of carrier ops

425
Q

position of intended movement

A

position ship intends to proceed

426
Q

port holding pattern

A

case I aircraft holding pattern, left-hand, 5 mi max pattern tangent to BRC with ship in 3 o’clock position

427
Q

PALS

A

Precision AIrcraft Landing System, components for all weather recovery

428
Q

radial

A

magnetic bearing from a navigation system

429
Q

rainmaker

A

aircraft sent to shore-based site to verify suitability as a divert field

430
Q

red light

A

local time when helo is no longer SAR, 30 min flight remaining

431
Q

relative bearing

A

in relation to the bow of the ship/nose of aircraft

432
Q

retro report

A

given to COD by marshal with offload info

433
Q

snuggle up

A

directs helo to come close aboard

434
Q

sortie

A

flight of an aircraft from launch to recovery

435
Q

spin

A

signal indicating departure and re-entry into the break

436
Q

sour

A

term indicating aircraft or ship systems are inoperative

437
Q

starboard holding pattern

A

right-hand racetrack pattern between 45 and 135, relative to BRC for CODs and 45-110 for helos. CODs 500’, 1000’ or below, helos 300’ or below approved by CV pri-fly

438
Q

sweet

A

aircraft or ship systems are operative

439
Q

tally-ho

A

target has been visually acquired by pilot

440
Q

tanker king

A

tanker in charge of tanking plan, coordinates all tanking

441
Q

Texaco

A

fuel/tanker aircraft

442
Q

the 180

A

position abeam the LSO platform where aircraft make 180 turn, during case i and II recoveries

443
Q

tip over

A

point in PALS approach where aircraft intercepts the glide scope and starts final approach, 3.25 nm aft

444
Q

3 nm DME fix

A

checkpoint on final bearing miles from carrier; all helos and props pass through

445
Q

true heading

A

in relation to true north, ships navigate by true north

446
Q

unexpended ordnance

A

ordnance not used durng a mission

447
Q

variation

A

angular difference between magnetic north and true north

448
Q

Winchester

A

aircraft is out of ordnance

449
Q

wind over deck

A

wind speed and direction over flight deck

450
Q

yo-yo

A

aircraft launch with one event and recovery with previous event

451
Q

Zip-Lip

A

condition during daylight flight ops when radio transmissions are kept to a minimum for safety, exception of CODs

452
Q

MOVLAS

A

manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System

453
Q

IFLOLS

A

Improved Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System

454
Q

ISIS

A

integrated shipboard information system

455
Q

TARPS

A

tactical airborne reconnaissance pod system

456
Q

PIM

A

position of intended movement

457
Q

DME

A

distance measuring equipment

458
Q

DRR

A

departure reference radial

459
Q

Publication for NAMP

A

COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2

460
Q

NAMP objective

A

achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards

461
Q

Who is in charge of NAMP

A

CNO

462
Q

NATOPS

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

463
Q

MO

A

Maintenance Officer

464
Q

Head of AIMD Department

A

CDR Choate (MO)

465
Q

AMO’s role

A

Admin officer. Liason with Ops Department. Manages SE training and licensing program.

466
Q

AMO

A

Assistant Maintenance Officer

467
Q

Assistant Maintenance Officer

A

LCDR Schneider

468
Q

MMCO

A

Maintenance/Material Control Officer

469
Q

Maintenance/Material Control Officer

A

LCDR Khert

470
Q

MMCO’s role

A

Overall production and material support of the department. Prepares and publishes MMP.

471
Q

MMCPO

A

Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer

472
Q

Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer

A

Master Chief Leech

473
Q

MMCPO’s role

A

Directs maintenance on day-to-day basis; Provides training to mp-s; Senior enlisted advisor to MO and CO for aicraft maintenace.

474
Q

QAO

A

Quality Assurance Officer

475
Q

Role of QAO

A

ensure all personel assigned to perform QA functions recieve continuous training in inspection, testing, and quality control methods specifically applicable to their area of assignment

476
Q

MCO

A

Material Control Officer

477
Q

3 levels of NAMP maintenance

A

O, I, D

478
Q

I-level maintenance

A

repair, inspection and upgrade of aircraft and aircraft systems that are beyond the scope of individual squadrons

479
Q

O-level maintenance

A

daily maintenance, upkeep, and servicing of aircraft and their systems

480
Q

D-level maintenance

A

repair, modification, and rework of aircraft and aircraft systems that are beyond the scope of individual squadrons and IMA

481
Q

2 types of maintenance

A

rework, upkeep

482
Q

rework

A

restorative or additive work performed at industrial establishments (D-level)

483
Q

upkeep

A

preventative, restorative, additive work performed by operating units

484
Q

types of upkeep

A

turnaround, daily, special, conditional, phase, acceptance, transfer

485
Q

Turnaround maintenance

A

Conducted btw flights. Good for 24 hours

486
Q

Daily maintenance

A

More detailed inspection than Turnaround, Good for 72 hours

487
Q

Special upkeep

A

Inspection within a prescribed interval prescribed by PMS. 7, 28 days; 50 hours; 10 arrestments; 5000 rounds fired

488
Q

Conditional maintenance

A

unscheduled events, a result of over limit condition

489
Q

Phase maintenance

A

total scheduled maintenance requirements divided into smaller packages/phases. Done sequentially at specified intervals

490
Q

Acceptance maintenance

A

after major depot level maintenance

491
Q

RCM

A

Reliability Centered Maintenance

492
Q

Reliability Centered Maintenance purpose

A

Process to ensure that assets continue to do what their users require

493
Q

ASPA

A

Aircraft Service Period Adjustment

494
Q

PMI

A

Periodic Maintenance Interval

495
Q

Define management

A

the efficient attainment of objectives

496
Q

Define maintenance

A

all actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability

497
Q

Maintenance management

A

actions necessary to retain or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with a minimum expenditure of resources

498
Q

main difference btw maintenance and production control

A

maintenance - O-level, production - I-level

499
Q

MMP

A

monthly maintenance plan

500
Q

When is MMP distributed?

A

25th at the O-level, 1st at the I-level

501
Q

what is aircraft logbook?

A

hard-bound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment

502
Q

What can you find in Aircraft Logbook?

A
  1. non-aging record, 2. flight time, 3. inspection records, 4. technical directive, 5. repair/rework, 6. miscellaneous history, 7. preservation and de-preservation record, 8. installed explosive devices, 9. inventory record, 10. assembly service record, 11. equipment history record, 12. SRC cards, 13. ALSS records, 14. AESR’s
503
Q

SRC

A

scheduled removal components (SRC) cards

504
Q

ALSS

A

aviation life support system records

505
Q

AESR

A

aeronautical equipment service records (AESR)

506
Q

QA

A

Quality Assurance

507
Q

Quality Assurance

A

Prevention of the occurrence of defects

508
Q

QAR

A

QA Representative

509
Q

QA Representative

A

m/p who inspect work completed in accordance with current instructions

510
Q

CDQAR

A

Collateral Duty QAR

511
Q

Collateral Duty QAR

A

assigned to production work centers

512
Q

CDI

A

Collateral Duty Inspector

513
Q

Collateral Duty Inspector duties

A

assigned to production work centers, inspect work and spot checks

514
Q

6 programs MANAGED by QA

A

QA audit, Maint Dept safety, SE misuse and abuse, CTPL, ACSP, NAMDRP

515
Q

CTRPL

A

Central Technical Publications Library

516
Q

ACSP

A

Aircraft Confined Space Program

517
Q

NAMDRP

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program

518
Q

Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program

A

report substandard workmanship, deficiencies

519
Q

what is work center audit

A

semi-anual, evaluates overal quality of performance of each work center

520
Q

3 types of QA Audits

A

Special (anytime), Workcenter (semi-annually), Program audits (annually)

521
Q

What is special audit

A

conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures, and programs

522
Q

what is program audit

A

evaluates programs to identify deficiencies and adhere to technical publications and instructions

523
Q

NATOPS

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

524
Q

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

A

Est 1961 as a positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving reduction in aircraft mishaps

525
Q

FRS

A

Fleet Replacement Squadron

526
Q

Fleet Replacement Squadron

A

indoctrinate new aircrew and ac mechanics into peculiarities of specific aircraft

527
Q

Warning in NATOPS means

A

may cause death if precautions not observed

528
Q

Caution in NATOPS means

A

can cause damage to equipment if precautions not observed

529
Q

Note in NATOPS means

A

emphasis

530
Q

Shall in NATOPS means

A

mandatory procedure

531
Q

Should in NATOPS means

A

recommended procedure

532
Q

May in NATOPS means

A

optional procedure

533
Q

Will in NATOPS means

A

indicates futurity

534
Q

COMNAVAIRLANT aircraft designators

A
  1. A-M 2. A-Z
535
Q

COMNAVAIRPAC aircraft designators

A
  1. N-Z 2. A-Z
536
Q

CNATRA (training squadron) aircraft designators

A

A-G

537
Q

AIMD

A

Aircraft Intermediate Maintenance Department

538
Q

Name 4 AIMD divisions

A

IM-1, 2, 3 and 4

539
Q

IM-1

A

Admin

540
Q

IM-2

A

Aircraft, structural and propulsion repair

541
Q

IM-3

A

Avionics/Armament: electrical, electronic and ordinance repair

542
Q

IM-4

A

GSE

543
Q

Name IM-1 (ADMIN) work centers

A
  1. Admin (AZ), 2. QA, 3. PC-NALCOMIS, 4. MATCON (LS), 5. 3M DC
544
Q

What does PC do?

A

Production Control, monitors flow of production in AIMD using NALCOMIS

545
Q

What does MATCON do?

A

LSs provide materials and logistics support, supply tracking and asset visibility

546
Q

Name IM-2 (Aircraft Div) work centers

A
  1. AF airframes 2. PP power plants 3. LOFT paraloft
547
Q

Who works in Airframes (AF)

A

Aviation Structural Mechanics (AM)

548
Q

Power Plants (PP)

A

Aviation Machinists (AD)

549
Q

Paraloft (LOFT)

A

Aircrew Survival Equipment (PR)

550
Q

Name IM-3 (Avionics/Armament) work centers (12)

A
  1. Generator Repair and Battery Shop 2. COMSEC 3. Navigation RADAR Shop 4. FLIR shop 5. Fire Control Radar Shop 6. CASS 7. ECM 8. Mini/Micro (2M) Shop 9. Flight Control and Instrument Repair 10. METCAL 11. AAE 12. AIrcraft Gun Shop
551
Q

FLIR

A

Forward Looking InfraRed

552
Q

COMSEC

A

Navigations and Communications Security

553
Q

CASS

A

Consolidated Automated Support System

554
Q

ECM

A

Electronic Counter Measures

555
Q

METCAL

A

Metrology and Calibration

556
Q

AAE

A

Aircraft Armament Equipment

557
Q

Who works in Generator Repair and Battery Shop

A

AE

558
Q

AM

A

Aviation Structural Mechanic

559
Q

AD

A

Aviation Machinistmate

560
Q

ALSS

A

Aviation Life Support System

561
Q

PR

A

Aircrew Survival Equipmentmen

562
Q

AE

A

Aviation Electricianmates

563
Q

AT

A

Aviation Electronics Technicians

564
Q

AO

A

Aviation Ordnancemen

565
Q

AS

A

Aviation Support Equipment Technicians

566
Q

NAMP Instruction

A

COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2B

567
Q

FOD

A

Foreign Object Damage

568
Q

TCP

A

Tool Control Program

569
Q

JOAP

A

Joint Oil Analysis Program

570
Q

PMS

A

Planned Maintenance System

571
Q

MMP

A

monthly maintenance plan

572
Q

Who signs MMP?

A

FIXO (MO)

573
Q

Fuel Surveilance Program Purpose

A

ensure clean contaminant-free fuels are used

574
Q

MRC

A

Maintenance Requirement Cards, O and I level

575
Q

PMIC

A

Periodic Maintenance Information Cards

576
Q

IPB

A

Illustrated Parts Breakdown

577
Q

NAMP

A

Naval AViation Maintenance Program

578
Q

MIM

A

Maintenance Instruction Manual

579
Q

NALCOMIS

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

580
Q

What is NALCOMIS

A

designed to monitor and document production at AIMD and order parts through supply

581
Q

MAF

A

Maintenance Action Form

582
Q

WUC

A

Work Unit Code, 7 digit numeric or alpha numeric code that identifies system or subsystem of the malfunction

583
Q

JCN

A

Job Control Number, 9-11 digit alphanumeric code, basis for data collection

584
Q

JCN breakdown

A

First 3: ORG code D9E, Second 3: Julian Date, Third 3: Serial #

585
Q

TEC

A

Type Equipment Code, 4-digit alphanumeric

586
Q

SMQ

A

Special Maintenance Qualification

587
Q

Special Maintenance Qualification

A

Grants user more or less permissions within the computer system

588
Q

Purpose of MIM

A

contain instructions for O, I and D level maintenance and servicing of a specific weapons system and related airborne equipment including SE

589
Q

Purpose of PMIC

A

PMS publications that contain component and assembly removal and replacement schedules

590
Q

Purpose of IPB

A

included in MIM, contain illustrations and part numbers

591
Q

Purpose of PMS

A

to discover problems before they occur

592
Q

Purpose of TCP

A

prevent tools from becoming FOD

593
Q

5 sections of a jet engine

A
  1. intake, 2 compression, 3. combustion, 4. turbine, 5. exhaust
594
Q

Intake

A

allows outsde air to enter engine

595
Q

Compression

A

comresses incoming air and delivers to combustion

596
Q

turbine

A

extracts and uses major portion of the energy in the gas stream to turn the compressor and rotors

597
Q

exhaust

A

in turbojet and turbofan engines acts as thrust

598
Q

combustion

A

mixes fuel with air, ignites mixture

599
Q

4 general engine systems utilized by aircraft

A

turbojet, turbo shaft, turboprop, turbofan

600
Q

Turbojet

A

EA-6B Prowler

601
Q

Turbo shaft

A

Helos

602
Q

Turboprop

A

E-2C

603
Q

Turbofan

A

FA-18

604
Q

What is NALCOMIS used for?

A

provides capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review and report information required by the organization

605
Q

Alphanumeric code that is basis for NALCOMIS data collection

A

JCN

606
Q

WO

A

work orders

607
Q

Prefilled base on the typed WO selected

A

TYPE MAINTENANCE

608
Q

2 character code describing type of maintenance performed

A

type WO

609
Q

History of the WO from start to finish

A

Accumulated Job Status History

610
Q

Includes worker hours, tools used, QA/CDI, hours worked

A

worker hours

611
Q

WUC

A

Work Unit Code, numeric or alpha-numeric code that identifies system or subsystem of malfunction

612
Q

DM

A

Discrepancy maintenance

613
Q

TS

A

troubleshooting

614
Q

CM

A

cannibalization maintenance

615
Q

AD

A

assist maintenance

616
Q

FO

A

facilitate maintenance

617
Q

CL

A

conditional look phase

618
Q

CF

A

conditional fix inspection

619
Q

SX

A

special inspection one workcenter

620
Q

SC

A

special inspection control

621
Q

TD

A

technical directive

622
Q

OOMA

A

Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity

623
Q

OIMA

A

Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity

624
Q

HOD aka Gun Boss

A

CDR Roe, administratively responsible for WeapDept personnel

625
Q

OHO

A

Ordnance Handling Officer, LT CDR Baldwin

626
Q

What does OHO do?

A

operationally responsible for all ordinance on the ship

627
Q

How many divisions in the Weapons Dept?

A

5: G1, G2, G3, G4, G5

628
Q

G-1

A

hangar bay (AWSE), flight deck ordnance (issue to squadrons)

629
Q

G-2

A

Armory, torpedoes, magazine sprinklers

630
Q

G-3

A

Magazines, bomb assembly

631
Q

G-4

A

Elevators

632
Q

G-5

A

Admin/QA/Ordnance Control/Logistics

633
Q

what is the objective of the Non-Nuclear Ordnance/Explosive Handling Qualification Program?

A

safety, qualification certification program

634
Q

AIM

A

Air Launched Air Intercept Missles

635
Q

AIM 9M

A

sidewinder, supersonic, air-to-air, 190lb, passive IR guidance

636
Q

AIM 9X

A

sidewinder, supersonic, air-to-air, 188lb, passive IR guidance

637
Q

AIM-7

A

Sparrow, supersonic, air-to-air, ejection/rail launched, 510 lb, semi-active, intercepts targets in all weather

638
Q

AIM-120

A

AMRAAM, beyond visual range, all weather day/night, 348 lb, active guidance

639
Q

AGM 84 H/K

A

SLAMER, high value/time critical targets, active guidance, 1500 lb

640
Q

AGM 65 E

A

Maverick, laser-guided, rocket-propelled, air-to-ground, 634 lbs, semi-active guidance

641
Q

AGM 88

A

HARM, air-launched, supersonic, passive electromagnetic energy, 795 lb

642
Q

AGM 114 B/K

A

Hellfire, helicopter launched, against tanks and other point targets, semi-active, 100 lbs

643
Q

AGM 154 A/C2

A

JSOW, against soft targets, parked aircraft, GPS guided, 1040 lbs

644
Q

M61A1/2

A

6-barrel rotary gun systems, operated by hydraulic drive unit, 20 mm, 4000-6600 rpm

645
Q

AMRAAM

A

Advanced Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missle

646
Q

AAM

A

Air-to-Air Missle

647
Q

AGM

A

Air to Ground Missle

648
Q

SLAM-ER

A

Standoff Land Attack Missile-Expanded Response

649
Q

HARM

A

High Speed Anti-Radiation Missile

650
Q

JSOW

A

Joint Stand-Off Weapon

651
Q

CEB

A

Combined Effects Bomblets

652
Q

how many types of bombs we have?

A

3: MK-82, MK-83, MK-84

653
Q

MK-82/BLU-111

A

500 lbs

654
Q

MK-83/BLU-110

A

1000 lbs

655
Q

MK-84/BLU-109

A

2000 lbs

656
Q

JDAM

A

Joint Direct Attack Munition

657
Q

what are 3 types of JDAM we carry?

A

GBU-38, GBU-32, GBU-31

658
Q

GBU-38

A

GPS-guided BLU 111

659
Q

GBU-32

A

GPS guided BLU 110

660
Q

GBU-31

A

GPS guided BLU-109

661
Q

LGB

A

Laser-Guided Bombs

662
Q

how many types of LGB we carry?

A

4: GBU-12, GBU-16, GBU-10, GBU-24

663
Q

GBU-12

A

500 lb

664
Q

GBU-16

A

1000 lb

665
Q

GBU-10

A

2000 lb

666
Q

GBU-24

A

2000 lb, hard target penetrator

667
Q

what gun systems do aircraft use?

A

M61A1 and M61A2

668
Q

TP

A

Target Practice

669
Q

SAPHEI

A

Semi Armor Piercing High Explosive Incendiary

670
Q

TPT

A

Target Practice Tracer

671
Q

HEI

A

High Explosive Incendiary

672
Q

what are 4 different types of 20mm ammunition?

A

TP, SAPHEI, TPT, HEI

673
Q

how many types of missile guidance are there?

A

3: passive, semi-active, active

674
Q

Passive missile guidance

A

information collected from the target, i.e target’s heat-sources, radio-wave transmissions

675
Q

Semi-Active missile guidance

A

use of outside source to find target, i.e. marine on the ground “painting” target, another aircraft uses its radar to direct missile

676
Q

Active missile guidance

A

active detection and tracking, missile tracks target using its own built-in system

677
Q

yellow ammunition color code, 1 band

A

HE

678
Q

yellow ammunition color code, 2 bands

A

HE, thermally protected

679
Q

yellow ammunition color code, 3 bands

A

HE, thermally protected, insensitive explosive filler

680
Q

brown ammo code

A

rocket motors, JATOs, low explosives

681
Q

black ammo code

A

armor piercing

682
Q

light green ammo code

A

smoke or “marker”

683
Q

light red ammo code

A

incendiary

684
Q

white ammo code

A

illuminating, produces colored light

685
Q

light blue ammo code

A

practice

686
Q

bronze/gold/brass ammo code

A

dummy/drill/inert ammo, for handling, loading, assembly, testing, training and display

687
Q

how many types of weapons elevators do we have?

A

2: upper and lower stage

688
Q

How many Upper stage

A

4

689
Q

How many Lower stage

A

6

690
Q

Purpose of Upper stage elevators

A

transport weapons from 2nd deck to flight deck (3), or hangar bay (1)

691
Q

Purpose of Lower stage elevators

A

transport weapons from magazines to hangar bay, ballistic hatches automatically close as elevator clears “armored box” to protect from “sympathetic” detonation

692
Q

AWSE

A

Armament Weapons Support Equipment

693
Q

what are two main types of AWSE?

A

skids (ordnance) and transporters (weapons)

694
Q

Skid/Transporter

A

non-powered manually maneuvered transport vehicle

695
Q

AERO 12C

A

Bomb Skid, wheelbarrow-type

696
Q

MHU-191/M

A

Munitions Transporter, welded tubular frame with4 rubberized wheels and telescoping draw bar, 5,000 lbs

697
Q

Instruction for Explosive Handling Qualification and Certification Program

A

OPNAVINST 8023.24

698
Q

SRS

A

Supply Response Section

699
Q

RCU

A

Requisition Control Unit

700
Q

TRU

A

Technical Research Unit

701
Q

MDU

A

Material Delivery Unit

702
Q

PMU

A

Program Management Unit

703
Q

PEB

A

Pre-Expended Bin

704
Q

CCS

A

Component Control Section

705
Q

RMS

A

repairable Management Section

706
Q

DCU

A

Document Control Unit

707
Q

LRCA

A

Local Repair Cycle Assets

708
Q

SSU

A

Supply Screening Unit

709
Q

AWP

A

Awaiting Parts

710
Q

RAM

A

Repairable Asset Management

711
Q

OMMS-NG

A

Organizational Material Management System-Next Generation

712
Q

MOV

A

Material Outstanding Validation

713
Q

RFI

A

Ready For Issue; Yellow/Orange

714
Q

NRFI

A

Not Ready For Issue; Green

715
Q

what is the difference between unit and net price?

A

unit price - total cost; net price - 10-30% of unit price

716
Q

FEDLOG

A

Federal Logistics

717
Q

AMMRL

A

Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List

718
Q

what is DD 1348?

A

Release receipt

719
Q

ICRL

A

Individual Component Repair List

720
Q

CRIPL

A

Consolidated Remain in Place List

721
Q

NMCS

A

Not Mission Capable Supply

722
Q

PMCS

A

Partial Mission Capable Supply

723
Q

FSC

A

Federal Supply Code 4-digit

724
Q

NIIN

A

National Item Identification Number 9-digit

725
Q

AVDLR

A

Aviation Depot Level Repair

726
Q

IMA

A

Intermediate Maintenance Activity

727
Q

BCM

A

Beyond Capability of Maintenance

728
Q

IMRL

A

Individual Material Readiness List

729
Q

HAZMAT instruction

A

OPNAVINST 5100.19 Chapter 22

730
Q

6 categories of HAZMAT

A
  1. Flammable 2. Aerosol 3. Toxic materials 4. Corrosives 5. Oxidizing materials 6. Compressed gas
731
Q

PPE to be worn when handling HAZMAT

A
  1. Eye protection 2. Respiratory protection 3. Gloves 4. Foot protection
732
Q

HAZWASTE disposal

A
  1. Double bag 2. Label: material, NSN, J-dial, work center, Point of Contact
733
Q

HAZMAT spill procedures

A
  1. Discovery 2. Notification 3. Initiation of action 4. Evaluation 5. Containment 6. Damage Control 7. Dispersion of vapors/gases 8. Cleanup and decontamination 9. Disposal 10. Certification of re-entry 11. Follow-up reports
734
Q

SMO

A

CDR Orsello

735
Q

FRS

A

Fleet Squadron Replacement

736
Q

AUL

A

HAZMAT authorized user’s list

737
Q

Marshal stack

A

starts at point in space, first aircraft 21 nm behind ship at 6,000 altitude

738
Q

How many sections in S-6?

A

2 SRS and CCS

739
Q

How many units in SRS?

A

5: RCU, TRU, PMU, PEB, MDU

740
Q

How many units in CCS?

A

4: DCU, LRCA, AWP, RAM

EAWS (2 decks)

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