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AIP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the elevation of the airfield?

A

120ft

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2
Q

What is the Magnetic Variation and the Annual Change ?

A

0.97 degrees W / 0.16 degrees E

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3
Q

What flight rules are permitted at TIA?

A

IFR VFR SVFR

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4
Q

What fuel types are there at TIA?

A

JET A-1 and AVGAS

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5
Q

What is the fire category at TIA?

A

6

CAT 6 is for scheduled operators utilising aircraft with seating capacity of up to 100 seats. Aircraft operating above 100 seats capacity will require prior approval. Fire cover up to and including CAT 8 are available with prior notice

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6
Q

What is the apron surface and strength of the Eastern Apron?

A

Surface- Concrete

PCN 6/R/D/W/T

6- load carry capacity 
R- Rigid design
D- strength ultra low 
W- tire pressure Unlimited
T- technical testing
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7
Q

What is the surface and strength of the Main Apron?

A

Surface- concrete

PCN 47/R/D/W/T

47- load carry capacity 
R- Rigid design
D- strength ultra low 
W- tire pressure Unlimited
T- technical testing
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8
Q

What is the surface and strength of the Western Apron?

A

Surface- Concrete

PCN 13/F/D/X/T

13- load carry capacity 
F- Flexible design
D- strength ultra low 
X- tire pressure High
T- technical testing
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9
Q

What is the surface and strength of Taxiway Alpha?

A

Surface- Concrete and Asphalt

PCN 30/F/C/X/T

30- load carry capacity 
F- Flexible design
C- strength low strength 
X- tire pressure high 
T- technical testing
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10
Q

What is the surface and strength of Taxiway Bravo?

A

Surface- Concrete and Asphalt

PCN 37/F/D/X/T

37- load carry capacity 
F- Flexible design
D- strength ultra low 
X- tire pressure high 
T- technical testing
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11
Q

What is the surface type and strength of Taxiway Charlie?

A

Surface- Concrete and Asphalt

PCN 30/F/D/X/T

30- load carry capacity 
F- Flexible design
D- strength ultra low 
X- tire pressure high 
T- technical testing
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12
Q

What is the surface type and strength of Taxiway Delta?

A

Surface- Concrete and Asphalt

PCN 30/F/D/X/T

30- load carry capacity 
F- Flexible design
D- strength ultra low 
X- tire pressure high 
T- technical testing
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13
Q

What is the width of taxiway Alpha ?

A

10.5 metres

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14
Q

What is the taxiway width of Bravo?

A

35 metres

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15
Q

What is the width of taxiway Charlie?

A

15 meters

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16
Q

What is the width of taxiway Delta?

A

15 meters

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17
Q

what stand numbers are there on the main apron and how are aircraft guided onto stand by what colour lines?

A

Stands 1L, 1, 1R, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 5R

Parked nose in, following yellow painted guide lines onto stand

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18
Q

What runway marking aids are there?

A

Threshold markings white

05/23 runway designators (numbers)

Centre line and touch down markings white

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19
Q

Describe the runway lighting system?

A

Runway edge lights- white

Lead on/Lead off lighting at Bravo, Charlie and Delta - Yellow and Green

Threshold and wing bar lighting- Amber
A1, B, C and D2

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20
Q

What colour are the taxiway marking aids and lighting?

A

Yellow centre line marking with Green lights (which go from Eastern Apron/Stand 13 to Delta)

Blue edge lights is provided throughout taxiway Alpha

Runway guard lights (wig wags) at all entrances to the runway and illuminated runway and taxiway holding position signs

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21
Q

Where is the 23/05 windsock and is it illuminated ?

A

23- Adjacent to PAPIs and yes

05- Adjacent to 05 GP and yes

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22
Q

What aerodrome obstacles is there within the approach/take off areas?

A

23 Approach / 05 take off run is a tree which is height 39ft or elevation of 154ft there is no obstruction lighting for this

05 Approach / 23 take off run is a tree which is height 72ft or elevation of 138ft there is no obstruction lighting for this

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23
Q

Where is the MET office located ?

A

Exeter

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24
Q

How long is a TAF valid for?

A

9 hours

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25
Q

What other obstacles is there around the aerodrome ?

A

Spire
X2 wind farms
X3 Mast line of pylons
Floodlight

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26
Q

What is the true bearing and dimensions of runway 05?

A

047.44 degrees

2291 x 45 meters

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27
Q

What is the true bearing and dimensions of runway 23?

A

227.46 degrees

2291 x 45 meters

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28
Q

What is the surface type and strength of runway 05/23?

A

Surface- Asphalt

PCN 70/F/C/W/T

70- load carry capacity 
F- Flexible design
C- strength low strength 
W- tire pressure unlimited 
T- technical testing
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29
Q

What is the threshold elevation of runway 05?

A

115ft

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30
Q

What is the threshold elevation for runway 23?

A

116ft

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31
Q

What is the TORA for runway 05?

A

2291meters

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32
Q

What is the TORA for runway 23?

A

2291 meters

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33
Q

What is the TORA for runway 05, taking off from holding point Charlie?

A

1770 meters

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34
Q

What is the TODA for runway 05?

A

2576 meters

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35
Q

What is the TODA for runway 23?

A

2488 meters

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36
Q

What is the TODA for runway 05 taking off from holding point Charlie?

A

2049 meters

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37
Q

What is the ASDA for runway 05?

A

2291 meters

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38
Q

What is the ASDA for runway 23?

A

2291 meters

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39
Q

What is the ASDA for runway 05, taking off from holding point Charlie?

A

1770 meters

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40
Q

What is the LDA for runway 05?

A

2291 meters

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41
Q

What is the LDA for runway 23?

A

2291 meters

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42
Q

What is TORA?

A

TORA (Take off Run Available)

TORA is defined as length of runway suitable for normal operations. It need not always equal to LDA (landing distance available). TORA doesn’t include Stopway or Clearway.

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43
Q

What is TODA?

A

TODA (Take off Distance Available)

TODA is the length of runway plus any clearway if available. In case no clearway exists, TODA is same as TORA. TODA includes ground as well as air segments.

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44
Q

What is ASDA?

A

ASDA (Accelerate-Stop Distance Available)

ASDA is used for calculation of V1. It is defined as sum of LDA/TORA (as applicable) and Stopway. In case take off is aborted the aircraft can be brought to a stop either on the runway or on Stopway.

ASDA must not be used as TORA.

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45
Q

What is LDA?

A

LDA (Landing Distance Available)

LDA is the runway length declared available and suitable for landing an airplane.

Information on Clearway, Stopway, TORA, TODA, ASDA & LDA for different runways can be obtained from Aerodrome Information Publications, Jepessen Charts and RTOW charts.

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46
Q

What is a STOPWAY?

A

STOPWAY

Stopway is the area at the end of take-off runway no less wide than the runway and centered upon extended centerline of runway and able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off without causing structural damage to the aeroplane.

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47
Q

What is a CLEARWAY?

A

Clearway is the area beyond the runway not less than 152m wide centrally located about the extended centerline of the runway and under the control of airport authorities. Clearway is expressed as a plane extending from the end of runway with up slop not exceeding 1.25% above which no object or terrain protrudes with exception of threshold lights.

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48
Q

Where are the anemometers located?

A

Wind indicators are located at Runway 05/23 GP

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49
Q

Do TIA have a secondary power supply and what is the switch over time?

A

Yes and 15 seconds, in LVPs a maximum 1 second switch over

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50
Q

Where can helicopters land ?

A

Main runway or direct to stand

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51
Q

What is the vertical limit of the airspace at TIA and what class is it?

A

SFC to 6,000 ft and D

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52
Q

What is the transition altitude at TIA?

A

6,000ft

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53
Q

What is the vertical limit of TIA ATZ?

A

A circle from the centre of the runway with a 2.5nm radius

SFC to 2000ft

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54
Q

What is the frequency of Approach/Radar?

A

118.850 MHz

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55
Q

What is the frequency of Tower?

A

119.8 MHz

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56
Q

What is the frequency of Director ?

A

128.855 MHz

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57
Q

What is the ATIS frequency?

A

132.380 MHz

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58
Q

What is the Durham Fire frequency (when attending a ground incident) ?

A

121.6 MHz

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59
Q

What is the frequency to the ILS?

A

108.500 MHz

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60
Q

What is the frequency to the GP?

A

329.900 MHz

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61
Q

What is the frequency for the DME?

A

108.500 MHz

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62
Q

What is the NDB frequency?

A

347.500 MHz

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63
Q

Are aerobatics and other unusual flight manoeuvres or aerial activities prohibited in the ATZ?

A

Unless prior written permission has been obtained from the airport director of TIA

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64
Q

Explain the surface markings on the airfield?

A

Main apron stands are a ‘follow yellow painted guide lines’

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65
Q

What width should the runway edge lights be?

A

Runways with a width of up to 50m, should have a longitudinal spacing of lights of 60m

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66
Q

When you press the LVP alert button what happens?

A

It activates the standby diesel generators

On the AGL lighting panel the generator status should be green when it’s working and serviceable.

If not the light will appear red and so that there is a fault

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67
Q

What should ATC do if the generator status is showing a fault on the AGL lighting panel?

A

ATC should ring electrics ASAP

It should not effect aircraft movements unless electrics state that there is a permanent fault

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68
Q

If LVPs are not in force or if there is no aircraft movements within 30 minutes what should ATC do, regarding the lighting panel?

A

Turn off the standby generator ‘press LVP alert’

If the switch over works = green light

Not work = red light

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69
Q

When changing runway what three things should the ATCO in the tower switch over?

A

ILS
Wind dial
Approach lighting on the AGL panel

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70
Q

Explain the % of the lighting setting guide?

A

Day 3 = 100%

Twilight 2 = 30%

Twilight 1= 10%

Night 2= 3%

Night 1= 1%

Day 1= for PAPIs 100%

Press what you are wanting to select then confirm button

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71
Q

When should aerodrome lighting be displayed ?

A

Before any ETA and after any ATD as follows-

By day- high intensity systems, where installed on the runway to be used, whenever the visibility is less than 5km and/or cloud base is less than 700ft

By night- irrespective of weather conditions

72
Q

When should hazard/obstruction lighting be displayed?

A

Night and whenever the visibility is less than 3500 meters

73
Q

What is the maximum wingspan on the main apron stands?

A 
1L = up to 29 m (B737-500) 
1= 72 m (B777-200)
1R= up to 38m (A320)

2= 38m(A320)

3= up to 29m(B737-500)

4= up to 38m(A320)

5= up to 29m (B737-500)
5R = up to 29m (ATR42/72)
5RR = up to 29m (ATR42/72)
74
Q

When will RVR readings be taken?

A

Whenever the lowest reported met visibility is less than 1500m and will continue until the lowest reported met visibility is 1500m or more and the RVR is greater than the maximum reportable value

75
Q

What is ROP?

A

Runway Observation Points

76
Q

How does the human observation method work, regarding RVRs?

A

The runway edge lights are counted by the RFFS which are on the ROPs, the centre line lights are turned off and once the RFFS have counted the number of lights they transmit it to ATC which then convert to an actual RVR reading by a calibrated table provided by the met office

77
Q

ATC should read back all RVR readings from RFFS and place a weather standby on for all aircraft movements in and out, true or false ?

A

True

78
Q

What is the maximum RVR value to be passed to aircraft on runway 23 and 05?

A

23- 1000m

05- 1400m

79
Q

What is the limitations for Preliminary action? And what action is to be taken?

A

Visibility between 2000m - 1500m

Arrange ADM to barrier off all entrances to runways from the south side of the airport (including link roads)

Arrange for one RFFS vehicle to position at 05 ROP

Cancel free flow

80
Q

What are the limitations for LVP state 1 and what action should be taken?

A

Lowest met visibility is less than 1500m and the RVR is greater than 800metres but is likely to decrease further

Inform

ADM
Radar 
RFFS
ATE
CP1/Gate 7
Serco 
Cobham

If movements are expected within 30minutes activate the LVP alert buttons

Full airport inspection

RFFS vehicles sent to ROPs

Suspend all airside work

Suspend all south side activity

Ensure LVP boards are uncovered

81
Q

What are the limitations of LVP state 2 and what action should ATC take?

A

When the lowest reported met visibility or RVR is 800metres or less (and/or cloud ceiling is 200ft or less)

All LVP safeguards are in place as LVP state 1

Radar controllers should vector aircraft sufficiently apart to allow the previous landing aircraft to vacate and stop on the apron

Landing clearance must be issued no later than 5nm from touch down

In the event of runway guard lights or taxiway lights being unserviceable no aircraft is to leave the apron unless it can be escorted by the follow me vehicle to the appropriate holding point

UHF cross coupling at all times

No vehicle is to infringe the obstacle free zones (OFZs) and ILS critical areas except in an emergency

A departing aircraft must have commenced its take off run before an arriving aircraft has reached 8nm from touchdown

All taxing aircraft must be stopped and reported they are stationary. If it has not been confirmed before a landing aircraft reaches 5nm from touch down then the aircraft must go around

If any red stop bars are u/s, ATC must limit the number of aircraft on the manoeuvring area or on final approach within 5nm to one given time

RFFS vehicle at the RVR points are to confirm on RT the arrival of an aircraft, has lined up, vacated or airborne

Log start and finish times in ATC log of LVP state 2

82
Q

What action should ATC do when the RVR is less than 600m?

A

Only one aircraft is permitted to use the manoeuvring area at any one time

A follow me vehicle may be used to escort aircraft at any time during LVPs if considered necessary

83
Q

Explain the clearance to land indicator

A

Blue - is the request

Green- aircraft is cleared to land and the runway is clear

Amber- there is a limitation/condition for that aircraft. Vehicle or aircraft or wip near or on the runway which means the aircraft can proceed with a low approach but has a height restriction 
QNH 550ft (400ft plus aerodrome elevation 120ft, rounded up) QFE 400ft (MATS 1)

Red- go around, runway is not clear and cannot continue with the approach

All clearances between tower and Radar must be read back to one another and agreed

84
Q

Explain the wind dails

A

The assistant has there wind dial at a 10minute average (used if there is a gust, which is 10knots or more than the mean of the 2min wind)

The controller should have the 2 minute average selected unless giving an aircraft ‘instant’ wind then that should be selected

Runway 05/23 both have separate selections on the wind dial

85
Q

What is the purpose of the ATM?

A

To assist in achieving maximum runway utilisation and aerodrome capacity

86
Q

What can the ATM be used for?

A

1- determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touch down of arriving aircraft

2- assist in applying longitudinal separation for departing aircraft

3- enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft is correct with the clearance given

4- provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach

87
Q

When approved by the CAA, what other uses can an aerodrome use for the ATM?

A

1- following identification, validate SSR codes of departing aircraft and verify associated mode c read outs

2- monitor the progress of over flying aircraft identified by approach to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing aircraft

3- establish separation between departing aircraft

4- pass traffic information

5- establish separation in the event of a missed approach

6- assist in taking initial corrective action when the separation between arriving aircraft becomes less than the prescribed minima

Provided that-

A- the controller has undertaken specified training

B- the controller is only providing an Air Control Service and a separate Ground Control Service is being provided by another controller on a separate frequency

(Units where gmc and air are combined, they may be exempt from the caa)

C- the procedures are detailed in the MATS PART2

88
Q

What does a continuous red light mean to an aircraft in flight?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

89
Q

What does a continuous red light mean to an aircraft or vehicle on the aerodrome?

A

Stop

90
Q

What does red flashing lights mean to an aircraft in flight?

A

Do not land, aerodrome not available for landing

91
Q

What does red flashing light mean to aircraft or vehicles on the aerodrome?

A

Move clear of landing area

92
Q

What does green flashing lights mean to an aircraft in flight?

A

Return to aerodrome, wait for permission to land

93
Q

What does green flashing lights mean to an aircraft or vehicles on the aerodrome?

A

Aircraft- you may move on the manoeuvring area and apron

Vehicle- you may move on the manoeuvring area

94
Q

What does a continuous green light mean to aircraft in flight?

A

You may land

95
Q

What does a continuous green light mean to aircraft or vehicles on the aerodrome?

A

You may take off (aircraft only)

96
Q

What does white flashes mean to aircraft in flight?

A

Land at this aerodrome after receiving continuous green light, and then after receiving green flashes proceed to apron

97
Q

What does white flashes mean to aircraft or vehicles on the aerodrome?

A

Return to starting point on aerodrome

98
Q

What is the VFR criteria for fixed wing aircraft ? At and below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain, which ever is higher

A

Distance from cloud

1500m horizontal ———

1000ft vertical ^^^^

Flight visibility minima 5km

99
Q

What is the VFR criteria for helicopters transiting Class D, and remaining outside the ATZ or Aerodrome traffic circuit ? At and below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain, which ever is higher—— BY DAY

A

Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight

Flight visibility minima of 1500m

100
Q

What is the VFR criteria for fixed wing aircraft transiting Class D, and remaining outside the ATZ or Aerodrome traffic circuit ? At and below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain, which ever is higher —— BY DAY

A

Clear of cloud and the surface in sight

With a flight visibility minima of 5km

101
Q

What is the VFR criteria for all aircraft transiting Class D, and remaining outside the ATZ or Aerodrome traffic circuit ? At and below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft above terrain, which ever is higher —- BY NIGHT

A

1500m horizontal distance from cloud ———

1000ft vertical distance from cloud ^^^^

And with the surface in sight

Minima flight visibility of 5km

102
Q

What is the criteria for SVFR by day or night for fixed wing aircraft?

A

ground visibility less than 1500m AND/OR cloud ceiling less than 600ft

103
Q

What is the criteria for SVFR by day or night for helicopters?

A

ground visibility less than 800metres AND/OR cloud ceiling less than 600ft

104
Q

What is wake turbulence ?

A

Shall be used to describe the effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wind tips of aircraft

105
Q

What is wake vortex ?

A

Describes the nature of the air masses

106
Q

What is the wake turbulence for a Light aircraft leading in front of any other aircraft ?

A

No wake turbulence

107
Q

What is the wake turbulence for a Small aircraft leading in front of any other aircraft ?

A

Small - Light 4 nm
Small - Small 3 nm

No other aircraft is effected by wake turbulence

108
Q

What is the wake turbulence for a Lower medium aircraft leading in front of any other aircraft ?

A

Lower medium - Light 5nm
Lower medium - Small 3nm

No other aircraft are effected by wake turbulence

109
Q

What is the wake turbulence for a Upper medium aircraft leading in front of any other aircraft ?

A

Upper medium - Light 6nm
Upper medium - Small 4nm
Upper medium - Lower Med 4nm
Upper medium - Upp Med 3nm

No other aircraft is effected by wake turbulence

110
Q

What is the wake turbulence for a Heavy aircraft leading in front of any other aircraft ?

A

Heavy - Light 7nm
Heavy - Small 6nm
Heavy - Low/Upp Med 5nm
Heavy - Heavy 4nm

No other aircraft (A380) is effected by wake turbulence

111
Q

What is the wake turbulence for an A380-500 aircraft leading in front of any other aircraft ?

A

A380 - Light 8nm
A380 - Small 7nm
A380 - Low/Upp Med 7nm
A380 - Heavy 6nm

A380-A380 are not effected by wake turbulence

112
Q

If an aircraft are departing from the same point of the runway, what is the time wake turbulence for a Heavy, Low/Upp med, small departing ahead of a light aircraft?

A

2 mins

113
Q

If an aircraft are departing from a intermediate point of the runway or on a touch and go / low approach, what is the time wake turbulence for a Heavy, Low/Upp med, small departing ahead of a light aircraft?

A

3 mins

114
Q

What’s the wake turbulence departure separation between a H and H from the same point of the runway and an intermediate point?

A

4 nm or time equivalent

115
Q

What is MAY DAY, MAY DAY, MAY DAY message ?

A

Distress message

116
Q

What is a PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN message?

A

Urgency message

117
Q

What should an emergency message contain ?

A

1- MAY DAY / PAN PAN

2- name of station addressed and identification of the aircraft

3- nature of the emergency

4- intention of the person in command, present position, level and heading

5- qualification of the pilot (student)

6- as much other information as time permits

118
Q

What is an aircraft accident/ aircraft accident imminent ?

A

Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome

119
Q

What is an aircraft ground incident?

A

Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, requiring the attendance of emergency services

120
Q

What is a full emergency ?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident

121
Q

What is a local standby?

A

When it is known that an aircraft has, or suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing

122
Q

What is a weather standby?

A

When the weather conditions render a landing difficult or difficult to observe, eg strong cross wind, poor vis, snow or ice on the runway

123
Q

What is an unlawful act?

A

Action to be taken in the case of any unlawful act will be contained in the aerodromes contingency plan, which will be drawn up conjunction with the local police

124
Q

What is an off aerodrome accident ?

A

Emergency orders should contain details of the action to be taken in the case of aircraft accidents occurring outside the aerodrome boundaries

125
Q

What restrictions are there regards to parking requirements on the apron?

A

If an aircraft has push backed, no vehicles or other aircraft can use the D3 - B taxiway

Restricting possible jet vehicles from link 9 to aprons around the airfield

ADM should marshal anything larger than a PA34 Seneca on the Weston Apron

126
Q

What is the phraseology for aircraft vacating the runway and parking? Use the KLM1533 as an example

A

KLM1533 vacate right via Charlie or Backtrack for Bravo, you’ll be Marshalled stand 3 (Nose out)

127
Q

What is the phraseology for a push back? Use KLM66H as an example

A

KLM66H, Teesside Tower, Start up and pack back approved stand 3, information Echo current QNH 1006

128
Q

‘Tower, Eagle 1 permission to Tow FA20 from hanger to flight line’

A

Eagle 1, Tower, tow approved to flight line

129
Q

What is the clearance delivery for IFR departures?

A

As a tower controller you read back the clearance which will be given by the radar controller, once an aircraft has started that is when tower should notify radar to get a clearance

130
Q

What is the standard clearance for VFR departures leaving to ATZ?

A

GBOXC, Teesside tower, hold position, after departure Right/Left turn, Climb straight ahead, cleared to leave controlled airspace on track Stokesley/to the south, VFR, not above Altitude 1,500ft, squawk 7030

131
Q

What is the standard circuit clearance ?

A

GBOXC, Teesside tower, hold position, after departure left hand circuits, VFR, not above HEIGHT 1,300ft, Squawk 7010

132
Q

What is a runway incursion ?

A

A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on protected area of surface designated for aircraft taking off and landing

133
Q

When should an ATCO deselect a stop bar?

A

When the runway and approach is clear

134
Q

What is the phraseology for an aircraft which has not started their take off roll, and you as the tower controller want them to not get airborne ?

A

G-XC, hold position, cancel take off, I say again, hold position cancel take off, acknowledge

135
Q

What is the phraseology for an aircraft on the runway which has started their take off roll and as a tower controller you want them to not get airborne ?

A

G-XC, stop immediately, I say again, G-XC stop immediately, acknowledge

136
Q

What phraseology would you use regarding essential aerodrome information?

A

KLM66H, caution large flock of birds transiting North to South of Runway 23 Threshold

137
Q

What is the phraseology for a tug towing an aircraft?

A

Eagle 2, tower, tow approved from flight line to hanger

Or

Eagle 2, tower, hold position

Or

Eagle2, tower, after the pa38 passes you left to right, tow approved from flight line to hanger

138
Q

What is the phraseology for RVR readings to be passed to aircraft?

A

KLM66H, tower, RVR for runway 23 400meters

Or

Greater than 1200 meters

Or

Less than 60 meters

139
Q

What is the phraseology for an aircraft to take off immediately?

A

KLM66H, runway 23 cleared for immediate take off, surface wind 230 degrees 6 knots

140
Q

What is the readability scale?

A 
1- unreadable 
2- readable now and then 
3- readable with difficulty 
4- readable
5- perfectly readable
141
Q

What is phraseology for an aircraft crossing a u/a lot stop bar?

A

G-XC stop bar unserviceable, cross red stop bar at A1

Or

G-XC, stop bar unserviceable, cross red stop bar, via A1 line up runway 23

142
Q

What are the standard IFR departure routes?

A

ERKIT FL190

GASKO FL130

OTR FL190

NATEB (NT pass)

143
Q

What are the VRPs and the bearing and distance of them?

A

Hartlepool (East) 041 degrees 13 nm
TD 034 degrees magnetic

Redcar Racecourse (SE) 071 degrees 14 nm
TD 078 degrees magnetic

Stokesley (SE) 111 degrees 08nm

Northallerton (S) 186 degrees 10.4nm

Motorway Junctions (W) 272 degrees 07 nm

Sedgefield Racecourse (N) 356 degrees 8.4nm

Others

Reservoirs (NW) 348 degrees 2nm

Yarm (SE) 100 degrees 2.5nm

144
Q

Should aircraft hold at the VRPs if they are outside CAS?

A

No only if the VRPs are inside controlled airspace

145
Q

Explain TIA airspace

A

Class D

Outside CAS = G

CTR- SFC to 6000ft

CTA 1- 1200 to 6000ft
CTA 2- 1500 to 6000ft
CTA 3- 3000 to 6000ft

146
Q

List the danger areas

A

D407 Warcop- SFC to 10,000 ft mon-sun (can be notamed to 13,500ft)

D408 Feldom- SFC to 3000ft tue-sun
(Can be notamed to 5,600ft)

D442 Bellerby- SFC to 3000ft H24

147
Q

List the restricted areas

A

R446
Hartlepool power station - sfc to 2000ft

R432
Durham prison- sfc to 2200ft Helicopters only

148
Q

What runways are at EGXE

A

34R and 16

149
Q

What runways are at EGNT

A

27 and 09

150
Q

List P18 levels

A

4500 ft

6000ft

FL75

FL105

FL125

FL95

151
Q

What is the height of Bilsdale mast

A

Sfc to 2298 ft

152
Q

What is the height of Flyingdales?

A

Sfc to 8000ft

Aircraft must not be in the area over 1 minute

153
Q

What are the responsibilities of a tower controller

A

1- Prevent collisions between-

Aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of the ATZ

Aircraft taking off and landing

Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area

2- assist in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron

(Not solely aerodromes responsibility for the prevention of collisions, pilots and vehicle drivers must also fulfill their own responsibility)

1- notify emergency services as per local instructions

2- informing aircraft under their control of any depletion of the aerodrome emergency services

3- providing an approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control

4- supplying the following information to approach control and according to unit instructions -

Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft

Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information

5- inform aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible

6- initiating overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established

154
Q

What shall aerodrome co-ordinate with approach ?

A

Departing IFR flights

Arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to approach control)

155
Q

What shall approach co-ordinate with aerodrome ?

A

Aircraft approaching to land, if necessary requesting landing clearance

Arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points

Aircraft routing through the traffic circuit

156
Q

What are radars responsibilities ?

A

Separation - between IFR/VFR/SVFR

Co ordination

Supply of information to aircraft and other units

Handover to other agencies either after 10 mins of flying or no longer requiring a service

157
Q

What is a visual approach ?

A

A visual approach is an approach to a runway at an airport conducted under instrument flight rules (IFR) but where the pilot proceeds by visual reference and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must at all times have either the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight.

158
Q

What is a ILS?

A

Instrument landing system is defined as a precision runway approach aid based on two radio beams which together provide pilots with both vertical and horizontal guidance during an approach to land.

Loc (Left or Right)

GP (high or low)

159
Q

What is a SRA approach?

A

surveillance radar approach is a type of radar instrument approach provided with active assistance from air traffic control. The only airborne radio equipment required for radar approaches is a functioning radio transmitter and receiver.

Given 1 mile altitude heights up to 2mile final

160
Q

What is an NDB approach?

A

An NDB or Non-Directional Beacon is a ground-based, low frequency radio transmitter used as an instrument approach for airports. The NDB transmits an omni-directional signal that is received by the ADF or Automatic Direction Finder, a standard instrument onboard aircraft.

161
Q

List the 11 essential aerodrome information aspects

A

1- construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area

2- rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not

3- failure or irregular functioning of the aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. The pilot is responsible for the course of action

4- failure or irregular functioning of approach aids

5- aircraft parked close the the runways of taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines

6- depth of snow layers on runways and taxiways, snow piled or drifted on the manoeuvring area, melting snow and slush, rutted Ice and snow

7- in snow and ice conditions information concerning sweeping and/or sanding of runways and taxiways

8- reports of estimated breaking action determined either by equipments or by reports of aircraft, which have already landed. Including a description of the prevailing conditions, standing water, snow settling, type of aircraft, time of measurement

9- bird formations or individual large birds reported or observed on or above the manoeuvring area or in the immediate vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of the birds dispersal

10- warning of the presence of water on runways

11- information on the location and operational status of any arrester gear installation

162
Q

What are the conditions for multiple line up clearances ?

A

1- daylight hours

2- all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller

3- all aircraft are on he same RTF frequency

4- pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart

5- the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft of the same runway

163
Q

What is the contents of a clearance ?

A

1- aircraft identification as shown in flight plan

2- clearance limit

3- route

4- levels of flight for the entire route or part therefore and changes of levels if required

5- any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance

164
Q

What is a clearance limit?

A

Is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall be specified naming -

1- an aerodrome
2- a reporting point
3- a controlled or advisory airspace boundary

165
Q

How is a conditional clearance to be passed?

A

1- callsign of the aircraft or vehicle being given the clearance

2- the condition (behind)

3- identification of the subject of the condition (aircraft, reporting point, level)

4- the clearance

5- a brief reiteration of the condition (behind)

166
Q

What are the conditions of a land after?

A

1- the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely effected

2- daylight hours

3- the preceding landing aircraft is not required to back track in order to vacate

4- the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway

5- the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft

167
Q

Discuss the allocation of squawks at TIA

A

7030-7047 = aircraft at 5,000ft or below

7050-7066 = aircraft above 5,000ft

7067 = conspicuous squawk

168
Q

What happens when a diversions comes into TIA?

A

Speak to duty manager, handling agents and get a stand

169
Q

What is the difference between an instrument and visual runway?

A

A Visual Runway does not have an existing or planned straight-in instrument approach procedure.

A Non-precision Instrument Runway has an existing instrument approach procedure which uses navigational aids with only horizontal or lateral guidance to the airport or runway.

170
Q

Explain the tower evacuation process ?

A

Inform all personnel on duty in the ATC building and commence evacuation

Inform all aircraft under TIAs control and transfer when/where necessary

Ensure SCACC, XE and NT are informed using the action stated below

Inform ADM

Inform AOX via the direct line in the VCR

Assembly point is Gate 7

Tower- inform RFFS and the ADM, and if time permits will put on the ATIS message to indicate ATC services are suspended

ADC broadcast that ATC service is terminated due evacuation, stop all ground movements and select the stop bars to red, advise all aircraft that are visual with the airfield to land at their discretion, if not visual they must continue with radar.

171
Q

What is free flow?

A

Is where vehicles operate on the manoeuvring area, not including the runway and their associated clear and graded areas, without reference and clearance from ATC.

It reduces ground movement RT

172
Q

Who is free flow giving to at TIA?

A

ADM

Airport Manger

AFS vehicles

ATC staff in any vehicle

Fire 5, with approved falconer/bird control unit staff

ATE

Cobham vehicles - limited operations only

Swissport and Consort - limited operations only

173
Q

Where is free flow approved ?

A

Taxiways except between delta 1-2

The south side

174
Q

What are the conditions of free flow?

A

1- daylight hours only

2- not in LVPs

3- free flow will be in force unless ATC advise otherwise

4- runway 23/05 is specifically omitted from the free flow procedure at all times

5- free flow vehicles are not to proceed beyond any designated runway holding points without specific clearance from ATC

6- only specified section vehicles are to be used

7- adhere to the speed limits 20mph on manoeuvring area and 10mph on main apron

8- drivers must constantly monitor GMC channel 2 and comply immediately with ATC instructions

9- drivers must carry out RT checks every 30mins if no comms are made then equipment must be checked

10- drivers must have completed and passed a TIA RT course

11- the vehicle is properly licensed, equipped and approved as per TIA permit regulations

12- the driver has been properly trained and authorised for airfield driving and holds a valid TIA airfield driving permit

13- vehicles are to give way at all times in accordance with the ANO

14- drivers are to ensure that they provide sufficient leeway for taxiing aircraft so that their progress is not impeded

15- free flow will be audited and strictly monitored. Any breaches of procedures will be logged and analysed for future references

16- vehicles are to use ‘safe areas’ in the event of a problem, gate 13, piggy lane, Hanger 3 mouth east and west and the eastern apron

175
Q

What are the limited operations for cobham regarding free flow?

A

Cobham must contact ATC each morning to determine if free flow is approved.

They are then responsible for ensuring that all relevant personnel are aware of the days procedures

Drivers must give way (in accordance with the ANO) to aircraft and vehicles/aircraft under tow already on the alpha taxiway

No crossings are to take place whilst any aircraft has passed hold alpha 2 westbound or Alpha 3 eastbound

176
Q

What are the limitations regarding free flow for Swissport and Consort?

A

Limited free flow across the Alpha taxiway at the crossing point (cross from stand 9 to tower/gate 7)

All drivers to exercise caution in the vicinity of stand 6 in respect of UKP operations, even though they are not based here.

Transitional Training (1 decks)

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