AIDs related Malignancies Flashcards

1
Q

5 AIDs defining cancers

A

kaposi sarcoma peripheral lymphoma primary CNS lymphoma primary effusion lymphoma (PEL) squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

kaposi sarcoma

A

purple/red/brown blotches/tumors on skin due to disrupted endothelium that lines vessels strongly related to immune deficiency (HIV) caused by KSHV (kaposi sarcoma herpes virus) or HHV8 (human herpes virus 8) shed in the saliva (transmission) does NOT integrate, remains episomal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

factors present in kaposi sarcoma that are set up for malignancy but cells themselves are not transformed

A

LANA1 - inhibits p53 tumor suppressor and induces angiogenesis vCyclin - induces entry to cell cycle by blocking cyclin D kinase inhibitors vFLIP - inhibits apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

biopsy of kaposi sarcoma will show

A

spindle cells (lymphatic endothelial cells) near disrupted vessels they are LANA+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment when KSHV infection is lytic and cells are transformed

A

ART wont work use sytotoxic chemotherapy = liposomal adriamycin, doxorubicin or paclitaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

biopsy of burkitt lymphoma will show

A

starry sky = macrophages amongst packed lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

endemic burkitt is associated with what virus

epidemic burkitt is associated with what virus

A

endemic –> EBV +, africa

epidemic –> HIV associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

diffuse centroblastic vs diffuse immunoblastic large B cell lymphomas

A

Diffuse immunoblastic are 100% EBV+ and immune suppressed patients

diffuse centroblastic are 30% EBV and in people with relatively good immune systems (CD4 count is still good)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

treatment for peripheral lymphomas

A

EPOCH or CHOP

etoposide

prednisone

vincristine (oncovin)

cyclophasphamide

doxorubicin (hydroxydaunorubicin)

AND all patients receive CNS prophylaxis to prevent meningeal disease with subarachnoid/intrathecal methotrexate or cytosine arabinoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is used for CNS prophylaxis in peripheral lymphoma patients

A

subarachnoid/intrathecal methotrexate or cytosine arabinoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

primary CNS lymphoma

A

BAD prognosis

usually diffuse large B cell immunoblastic

anti-CD20 to indicate B cells

anti-EBER stain indicates EBV (always EBV+)

occurs in longstanding HIV ifx (<<200 CD4 count)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for primary CNS lymphoma

A

optimize ART

radiation of 4000 cGy to the brain

multi chemotherapy with high dose methotrexate and leucovorin rescue, temozolomide and rituimab

followed by

ARA-C and etoposide

***very harsh treatment; these patients get very sick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PEL

primary effusion lymphoma

A

B-cell lymphoma, presenting with a malignant effusion without a tumor mass caused by KSHV and often coexists with kaposi sarcoma

  • Pulsus paradoxus is present (abnormally large decrease in systolic blood pressure during inspiration = worry for heart issue)
    • Pleural and/or pericardial effusion à heart cant expand
    • usually restricted to the pleura, pericardium, or peritoneum
  • Rare, Usually in young, homosexual men with advanced HIV
  • Survival < 6 months; tumor is refractory to chemotherapy
  • Tumor cell is B cell lineage:
    • Uniformly express KSHV; frequently EBV
    • Ig heavy chain rearrangement
    • Kappa and lambda light chain restriction
    • CD20 negative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

A

associated with high risk HPV16 and HPV18

in intact immune systems, HPV infection is cleared but in immune deficient women, HPV becomes persistent –> the longer it persists the more likely it will turn from episomal to integrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in SCC of the cervix, why is there a low risk of malignancy when virus is episomal and why higher risk when integrated?

A
  • Low risk of malignancy when episomal because E2 suppresses the expression of E6 and E7 (which block p53 and Pb tumor suppression)
  • Persistence –> disrupts E2 and E6 and E7 can be expressed (carcinogenic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do these agent infect

KSHV

EBV

HPV

A

KSHV - lymphatic endothelial cells and B cells

EBV - B cells

HPV - squamous epithelial cells

17
Q

when does cART work to control KS and CIN?

A
  • cART works well to control KS and CIN before the target cells are transformed. Once transformed, the patient will need more than cART to prevent or control malignancy.