AI Test Flashcards

1
Q

What is general pathology?

A

Study of the underlying mechanisms of disease focusing on changes in structure and function at molecular, cellular, and tissue levels.

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2
Q

What does systemic pathology study?

A

The study of disease as it occurs within a particular organ system.

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3
Q

What is cytopathology?

A

Study of disease on a cellular level, where cells may be obtained by aspiration, scrapings, biopsies, or fluids.

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4
Q

What is the definition of aetiology?

A

The cause of a disease.

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5
Q

How is pathogenesis defined?

A

How the aetiology brings about the disease.

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6
Q

What is pathophysiology?

A

The physiology of abnormal states, specifically the functional changes that accompany a particular syndrome or disease.

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7
Q

What does pathognomonic refer to?

A

An abnormality characteristic only of that disease or condition.

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8
Q

What is morphology in pathology?

A

The features which are seen with the naked eye or via the microscope.

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9
Q

What are clinical manifestations?

A

The symptoms and signs with which a disease presents.

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10
Q

What does the natural history of disease describe?

A

The natural progress of a disease which is left untreated.

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11
Q

What is a predisposing factor?

A

A factor that makes the body more susceptible to a disease and may alter the course of the disease.

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12
Q

What is a complication in the context of disease?

A

The possible consequences of a disease if restitution of normal structure and function does not occur.

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13
Q

What is prevention in disease management?

A

Activities which aim to stop the development of a disease or prevent it from worsening.

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14
Q

What is prognosis?

A

The likely outcome of a disease.

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15
Q

What does morbidity refer to?

A

The amount of ill health caused by a disease.

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16
Q

What does mortality refer to?

A

The loss of life caused by the disease.

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17
Q

Fill in the blank: The study of disease on a cellular level is called _______.

A

cytopathology

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18
Q

True or False: Pathognomonic abnormalities are common to multiple diseases.

A

False

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19
Q

What is a lesion?

A

This is the part of tissue directly affected by the disease process.

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20
Q

Define localized disease.

A

A limited area of tissue is involved in the disease process.

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21
Q

What characterizes widespread disease?

A

More extensive areas of tissue are affected by the disease process.

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22
Q

What is systemic disease?

A

Most of the body is affected, often due to a virus spreading in the blood causing fever, pains, and general malaise.

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23
Q

What does multi-system disease involve?

A

A number of body systems are involved in the disease process.

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24
Q

Name types of diseases classified by the body system or organ involved.

A
  • Neurological disease
  • Liver disease
  • Gastrointestinal disease
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25
Q

What is an acute disease?

A

A disorder which is either reasonably severe or characterized by a sudden onset and termination.

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26
Q

Define chronic disease.

A

A disorder characterized by a gradual onset and long duration, with a clinical course that may be continuous or marked by fluctuations of severity.

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27
Q

What is intermittent disease?

A

Disease undergoes ‘cycles’ of appearing and disappearing.

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28
Q

What is remission?

A

A temporary or permanent decrease in the severity of a disease.

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29
Q

What does relapse refer to?

A

A return of the disease.

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30
Q

What is diagnosis?

A

The art of distinguishing one disease from another and identifying a disease or condition through scientific evaluation.

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31
Q

Define differential diagnosis.

A

The determination of a list of possible diseases by evaluating symptoms, signs, and laboratory tests.

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32
Q

What is history taking?

A

The process of asking a series of questions to develop a differential diagnosis for a patient’s presenting complaints.

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33
Q

What does physical examination involve?

A

Observation of the patient and the use of physical techniques such as palpation, percussion, and auscultation.

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34
Q

What is a symptom?

A

Perceptions of the patient which may indicate a disorder of the body, mind, or emotions.

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35
Q

Define sign in medical terms.

A

Objective evidence of a disorder attained through physical examination.

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36
Q

What is a syndrome?

A

A cluster of symptoms and signs that consistently occur together.

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37
Q

What are investigations in the context of disease detection?

A

Processes that include analysis of body fluids, imaging, and measuring electrical activity to determine the cause of a patient’s problem.

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38
Q

What is gross pathology?

A

Macroscopic or naked eye examination.

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39
Q

What is light microscopy?

A

Cut sections from tissues are embedded, sectioned, stained, and viewed under microscopy.

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40
Q

Describe electron microscopy.

A

Study changes at the molecular level using high-resolution images formed by a beam of electrons.

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41
Q

What are cell cultures?

A

Organisms artificially grown in a controlled environment for diagnostic or research purposes.

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42
Q

What is the basic structural and functional unit of the body?

A

The cell

The cell is essential for all biological processes.

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43
Q

What is the cell membrane also known as?

A

Plasma membrane

The cell membrane regulates movement of molecules into and out of the cell.

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44
Q

What are the main components of the cell membrane?

A
  • Phospholipids
  • Glycolipids
  • Cholesterol
  • Protein

These components contribute to the membrane’s structure and function.

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45
Q

What is the primary function of the cell membrane?

A

Act as a physical barrier and regulate movement of molecules

It also mediates cellular recognition and interaction.

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46
Q

What does ‘selective permeability’ mean in the context of the cell membrane?

A

Allows some substances in or out, but not others

This property is crucial for maintaining homeostasis.

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47
Q

List the ways substances can cross the cell membrane.

A
  • Simple diffusion
  • Facilitated diffusion
  • Active transport
  • Filtration
  • Osmosis
  • Endocytosis
  • Exocytosis

Each method varies in energy requirement and mechanism.

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48
Q

What is the function of the nucleus in the cell?

A

Acts as the ‘brain’ of the cell and contains DNA

The DNA encodes instructions for making cells, tissues, and organs.

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49
Q

What does the cytoplasm contain?

A

Cytosol and organelles

Cytosol is the fluid portion, while organelles perform various functions.

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50
Q

What is cytosol?

A

The fluid portion of the cytoplasm

It contains water, dissolved solutes, and various suspended particles.

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51
Q

What are organelles?

A

Specialized structures within the cell that regulate growth, maintenance, and reproduction

Each organelle has a specific function essential for cell operation.

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52
Q

What is the function of centrioles?

A

Contain DNA for self-replication

Centrioles play a role in cell division.

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53
Q

What do centrosomes do?

A

Serve as a center for organizing microtubules

They assist during cell division by forming mitotic spindles.

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54
Q

What is the cytoskeleton composed of?

A
  • Microfilaments
  • Microtubules

It helps give the cell shape and support and aids in movement of cell structures.

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55
Q

What is the primary function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Provides mechanical support, facilitates material exchange, and conducts nerve impulses in muscle cells

It serves as a surface for chemical reactions.

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56
Q

What is the rough-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum (rER) responsible for?

A

Synthesis of proteins

Ribosomes attach to rER for protein production.

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57
Q

What does the smooth-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum (sER) synthesize?

A
  • Fatty acids
  • Phospholipids
  • Steroids

sER is involved in lipid metabolism.

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58
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

Packages synthesized proteins for secretion

It also forms lysosomes and synthesizes carbohydrates and glycoproteins.

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59
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A

Digest substances and foreign materials

They contain enzymes for breaking down waste.

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60
Q

What is the role of mitochondria in the cell?

A

Powerhouse of the cell; produces ATP

ATP is the main energy currency of the cell.

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61
Q

What do peroxisomes contain?

A

Enzymes to detoxify harmful substances

They play a crucial role in cellular metabolism.

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62
Q

What is the site of protein synthesis in the cell?

A

Ribosomes

They can be found floating freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the rER.

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63
Q

What are the two main types of epithelial tissue?

A
  1. Covering and lining type
  2. Glandular type

Covering and lining type covers body and organs, while glandular type forms secretory parts of glands.

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64
Q

What are the four types of tissues in the body?

A
  1. Epithelial tissue
  2. Connective tissue
  3. Muscle tissue
  4. Nervous tissue

These tissues comprise groups of similar cells.

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65
Q

What are the functions of epithelial tissue?

A
  • Protection
  • Secretion
  • Lubrication
  • Digestion
  • Absorption
  • Excretion
  • Filtration

Epithelial tissue serves multiple essential functions in the body.

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66
Q

What are the characteristics of epithelial tissue?

A
  • Cells closely packed together
  • Avascular
  • High capacity to regenerate
  • Has a nerve supply
  • Varies in cell shapes (squamous, cuboidal, columnar, transitional)
  • Can be simple, stratified, or pseudostratified

These characteristics contribute to the unique functions of epithelial tissue.

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67
Q

What is the primary function of connective tissue?

A
  • Binds structures together
  • Supports and strengthens other body tissues
  • Protects and insulates internal organs
  • Compartmentalizes structures

Connective tissue plays a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity of the body.

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68
Q

What are the characteristics of connective tissue?

A
  • Contains a matrix in which cells are embedded
  • Generally not found on a free surface
  • Has a nerve supply (except cartilage)
  • Highly vascular (except cartilage and tendons)
  • Cells vary by type (e.g., fibroblasts, macrophages)
  • Matrix contains protein fibers

The matrix and its components determine the type and quality of connective tissue.

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69
Q

List the four main types of connective tissue.

A
  • Connective tissue proper
  • Cartilage
  • Osseous (bone tissue)
  • Blood

Each type of connective tissue has distinct structures and functions.

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70
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

A
  1. Skeletal muscle tissue
  2. Smooth muscle tissue
  3. Cardiac muscle tissue

Each type of muscle tissue is specialized for contraction.

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71
Q

What are the two main types of cells in nervous tissue?

A
  • Neurones
  • Neuroglia

Neurones are the functional units, while neuroglia support and nourish them.

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72
Q

What are epithelial membranes?

A

Thin, sheet-like structures comprising an epithelial and connective tissue layer

They serve as protective barriers and are crucial for various body functions.

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73
Q

What are the two main types of epithelial membranes?

A
  • Mucous membrane (mucosa)
  • Serous membranes

Mucous membranes line cavities open to the exterior, while serous membranes line cavities not directly open to the exterior.

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74
Q

Fill in the blank: Synovial membranes consist of _______ only.

A

connective tissue

These membranes line the cavities of freely movable joints.

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75
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

A condition in which the internal environment remains relatively constant within limits.

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76
Q

What are the three requirements for maintaining homeostasis?

A
  1. Optimum concentration of nutrients, water, gases, and ions
  2. Optimal temperature
  3. Optimal pressure for cell function
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77
Q

What can disturb homeostasis?

A

Any imbalance in the internal environment.

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78
Q

What may cause imbalances in homeostasis?

A

Some form of stimulus called a stressor, which may be mild or extreme.

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79
Q

Can stressors originate from inside the body?

A

Yes, stressors may originate from either inside or outside the body.

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80
Q

True or False: Homeostasis can only be disturbed by external factors.

81
Q

Fill in the blank: Homeostasis requires the internal environment to contain optimum concentration of _______.

A

[nutrients, water, gases, and ions]

82
Q

What is the consequence of an imbalance in homeostasis?

A

It may cause ill health or death.

83
Q

What does the body have to maintain homeostasis?

A

Many devices that try to maintain homeostasis.

84
Q

What is a stressor?

A

A physical, mental, or emotional factor that causes bodily or mental tension.

85
Q

What are the two types of stressors?

A

Internal and external.

86
Q

What are examples of external stressors?

A

Environmental, psychological, or social situations.

87
Q

What are examples of internal stressors?

A

Illness or from a medical procedure.

88
Q

How can stressors be categorized based on their duration?

A

Temporary or long-term.

89
Q

What is injury?

A

A pathological process in the tissue due to stress, disrupting normal structure and/or function.

90
Q

How is injury different from trauma?

A

Injury is a pathological process; trauma is a type of injury.

91
Q

What are the causes of injury?

A

Environmental and genetic influences.

92
Q

What are environmental influences on health?

A

Factors that play a major role in disease development.

93
Q

What are the three classifications of environmental factors related to disease?

A
  • Aetiology
  • Predisposing factors
  • Contributory factors
94
Q

What are examples of physical agents that influence health?

A

Radiation and mechanical trauma.

95
Q

What are examples of chemical agents that influence health?

A

Tobacco, toxins, and dusts.

96
Q

What are biological agents that can influence health?

A

Viruses, bacteria, and fungi.

97
Q

What nutritional factors can influence health?

A

Nutritional deficiencies or excesses.

98
Q

What is meant by iatrogenic diseases?

A

Diseases caused by the health professions.

99
Q

How can genetic influences manifest?

A

Clinical manifestations may present at varying times post-birth or may never appear.

100
Q

What is the significance of environmental influence on genetic makeup?

A

It can range from insignificant to profound.

101
Q

Why is classification of diseases useful?

A

For communication, diagnosis, treatment, record keeping, research, and psychosocial/economic factors.

102
Q

What are the two main classifications of diseases?

A
  • Congenital
  • Acquired
103
Q

What are the subcategories of congenital diseases?

A
  • Genetic (genes, DNA, chromosome)
  • Non-genetic (infections, malformation)
104
Q

What typically causes acquired diseases?

A

Mostly environmental causes.

105
Q

What is aetiology?

A

The cause of the disease.

106
Q

What is defined as a pathological process in tissue due to stress?

A

Injury

Injury disrupts normal structure and/or function of tissue

107
Q

What are the two types of cell injury?

A
  • Reversible
  • Irreversible
108
Q

What occurs during reversible cell injury?

A

Non-lethal damage that can be corrected by removal of the stimulus

This includes temporary alteration in cell function and effective adaptive mechanisms

109
Q

What leads to irreversible cell injury?

A

Lethal damage leading to cell death

110
Q

What is the ‘point of no return’ in cell injury?

A

The transition between reversible and irreversible damage

111
Q

What are some non-lethal outcomes of cell injury?

A
  • Temporary alteration in cell function
  • Effective adaptive mechanism triggered
  • Structural damage with permanent impairment of function
  • DNA mutation
112
Q

What factors influence the outcome of cell injury?

A
  • Type of injury
  • Duration of injury
  • Severity of injury
  • Type of cell/tissue being injured
  • Current status of the tissue
  • Adaptability of the tissue
113
Q

What are labile cells?

A

Cells that constantly divide to replenish those that are lost, e.g., skin and bone marrow

114
Q

What are stable cells?

A

Cells that can divide but do so occasionally, e.g., liver and kidney

115
Q

What are permanent cells?

A

Cells that have lost the ability to divide, e.g., neurones and cardiac muscle

116
Q

What are common stressors causing cell injury?

A
  • Direct damage to proteins, membranes, DNA
  • Mitochondrial damage causing ATP depletion
  • Increasing intracellular calcium
  • Damaging membranes
  • Forming free radicals
117
Q

What is oncosis?

A

Cellular swelling due to decreased ATP synthesis affecting sodium-potassium-ATPase function

118
Q

What occurs when a cell switches from aerobic to anaerobic respiration?

A

Depletion of cytoplasmic glycogen and production of lactic acid

119
Q

What may fatty change in cells lead to?

A
  • Mild: No effect on function
  • Severe: Transient impairment of function
  • Very severe: May precede cell death
120
Q

What are the signs of irreversible cell injury?

A
  • Vacuoles in cytoplasm
  • Severe mitochondrial damage
  • Rupture of lysosomes
  • Massive influx of calcium
  • Changes in cell nucleus (pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis)
  • Cell membrane defects worsen
121
Q

What is ischaemia?

A

Inadequate blood flow to tissues, often due to narrowed arteries

122
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Decrease in tissue oxygenation

123
Q

What is anoxia?

A

Absence of tissue oxygenation

124
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Cell death as a result of injury, often due to ischaemia

125
Q

What is infarction?

A

Necrosis occurring as a consequence of ischaemia

126
Q

What is the accumulation of abnormal substances within cells?

A

Cells may accumulate abnormal amounts of substances either transiently or permanently, which may be harmless or cause injury.

127
Q

What are the sources of substances that may accumulate in cells?

A

Substances may come from:
* Outside the body (e.g., carbon particles from polluted air)
* Inside the body from normal substances (e.g., water, glycogen, fat, protein)
* Inside the body from abnormal metabolism or synthesis.

128
Q

What is oncosis?

A

Accumulation of water in cells.

129
Q

What is steatosis?

A

Accumulation of fat in cells.

130
Q

Which diseases are associated with glycogen accumulation?

A

Glycogen storage diseases.

131
Q

What are lysosomal storage diseases?

A

Diseases associated with the accumulation of carbohydrates and lipids.

132
Q

What are neurofibrillary tangles?

A

Accumulation of proteins associated with Alzheimer’s disease.

133
Q

What is melanin?

A

A pigment that may accumulate in pigmented moles and melanomas.

134
Q

What is haemosiderin?

A

A yellow-brown pigment derived from haemoglobin that may accumulate with excess iron.

135
Q

What condition is associated with excess bilirubin accumulation?

A

Jaundice, which causes yellow skin coloration.

136
Q

What is dystrophic calcification?

A

Calcium accumulation in dead or injured cells.

137
Q

What is metastatic calcification?

A

Calcium accumulation in normal cells due to excess calcium in the blood.

138
Q

What causes urate (uric acid) accumulation?

A

Increased production or impaired excretion via the kidneys.

139
Q

What condition can present with urate accumulation?

140
Q

What is lipochrome?

A

A yellow-brown pigment that builds up over time as a result of wear and tear.

141
Q

What are inorganic dusts that may accumulate in the lungs?

A

Coal dust, silica dust, asbestos.

142
Q

What are examples of organic dusts that may accumulate?

A

Dust from mouldy hay, bird droppings.

143
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Necrosis is the sum of cellular changes after local cell death and the process of cellular self-digestion, known as autodigestion or autolysis.

Reference: McCance and Heuther Pathophysiology 8th ed 2019, p88

144
Q

What happens at the ‘point of no return’ in cell death?

A

The cell is said to have reached the stage of biochemical necrosis.

145
Q

What is the role of lysosomal hydrolases after cell death?

A

They progressively digest cellular constituents, but there is widespread leakage of cellular enzymes into the extracellular space.

146
Q

What is Histological Necrosis?

A

It occurs when necrotic tissue exhibits distinctive morphologic appearances visible to the naked eye and under the microscope.

147
Q

What characterizes Coagulative Necrosis?

A

It is characterized by preservation of the basic structural outline of necrotic cells or tissue for several days.

148
Q

Give an example of Coagulative Necrosis.

A

Myocardial infarction.

149
Q

What is Colliquative (Liquefactive) Necrosis?

A

It is characteristic of focal bacterial infections and results in complete digestion of dead cells, often seen in abscesses.

150
Q

What is Caseous Necrosis?

A

A distinctive form of necrosis encountered most often in foci of tuberculosis infection, resembling a cheesy appearance.

151
Q

What does Gangrenous Necrosis refer to?

A

Ischaemic coagulative necrosis of a limb, usually the lower limb, which can be wet or dry.

152
Q

What causes Fat Necrosis?

A

Destruction of fat, typically due to acute pancreatitis or trauma.

153
Q

What is Fibrinoid (Hyaline) Necrosis?

A

Necrosis occurring in connective tissue within blood vessel walls, associated with hypertension and autoimmune diseases.

154
Q

What are the potential effects of necrosis?

A

Death of a person if a vital tissue is affected, inflammation, removal of necrotic tissue, replacement by scar tissue, or calcification.

155
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

A physiological process of cell death, programmed into cells at a certain stage in their life cycle.

156
Q

What type of necrosis is apoptosis described as?

A

Shrinkage necrosis.

157
Q

What is autophagy?

A

A mode of self-destruction and a survival mechanism involved in the removal of worn-out and damaged organelles.

158
Q

List the processes in which autophagy plays a role.

A
  • Development
  • Cell proliferation
  • Remodelling
  • Cardiovascular homeostasis
  • Ageing
  • Inflammatory process
159
Q

How do autophagy and apoptosis relate to each other?

A

They control the turnover of organelles and proteins within cells and of cells within organisms, influencing the clearance of dying cells.

160
Q

True or False: Autophagy and apoptosis are completely independent processes.

161
Q

What is the definition of cellular adaptation?

A

The effect of stressors on cells, causing them to adapt.

162
Q

What are the two main classifications of cellular adaptations?

A
  • Physiological or Pathological
  • Reversible or Irreversible
163
Q

What can result from cellular adaptations?

A
  • No cell injury
  • Mild and reversible cell injury
  • Severe and irreversible cell injury causing cell death
164
Q

Define hypertrophy.

A

An increase in the mass of an organ due to an increase in the size of its specialized cells.

165
Q

What is physiological hypertrophy?

A

Hypertrophy that occurs as a normal response to increased workload, such as in athletes.

166
Q

Provide an example of pathological hypertrophy.

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy due to elevated blood pressure.

167
Q

Define hyperplasia.

A

An increase in the mass of an organ due to an increase in the number of its specialized constituent cells.

168
Q

What is physiological hyperplasia?

A

Hyperplasia occurring in response to normal physiological demands, such as breast development during puberty.

169
Q

What is compensatory hyperplasia?

A

Enlargement of an organ after the removal of one of a pair, such as kidney hyperplasia after nephrectomy.

170
Q

What causes pathological hyperplasia?

A

Excess stimulation by hormones or other stressors, leading to abnormal tissue growth.

171
Q

Define atrophy.

A

A decrease in the mass of an organ due to a decrease in the size or number of its specialized constituent cells.

172
Q

What is physiological atrophy?

A

Atrophy that occurs as a normal part of development, such as thymic involution.

173
Q

What is an example of localized pathological atrophy?

A

Neuropathic atrophy due to motor neuron death in poliomyelitis.

174
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

The conversion of fully differentiated adult tissue to a less specialized form in response to chronic injury.

175
Q

Is metaplasia reversible?

A

Yes, if the stimulus is removed.

176
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Abnormal growth and differentiation of cells leading to disordered and atypical growth.

177
Q

Is dysplasia a pathological condition?

A

Yes, dysplasia is always pathological.

178
Q

What can cause dysplasia?

A
  • Chronic irritation
  • Injury
  • Stressors like cigarette smoking and infections
179
Q

Fill in the blank: Hypertrophy can be classified as _______ or _______.

A

[physiological] and [pathological]

180
Q

Fill in the blank: Hyperplasia can be classified as physiological, compensatory, _______ or _______.

A

[pathological] and [reactive]

181
Q

True or False: Atrophy can only be pathological.

182
Q

What type of hyperplasia occurs in response to infection?

A

Reactive hyperplasia.

183
Q

What is an example of generalized pathological atrophy?

A

Malnutrition or starvation leading to tissue atrophy.

184
Q

What is the relationship between dysplasia and cancer?

A

Dysplasia is considered a premalignant condition.

185
Q

Provide an example of metaplasia in smokers.

A

Normal respiratory epithelium changing to stratified squamous epithelium.

186
Q

What is aplasia?

A

Lack of or faulty development of an organ or tissue or sudden cessation of growth, causing tissue to shrink or disappear.

Aplasia is an acquired defect.

187
Q

What is hypoplasia?

A

Underdevelopment or incomplete development of an organ or tissue.

Hypoplasia is always pathological.

188
Q

What can cause aplastic anaemia?

A

Aplasia of the bone marrow due to drug therapy (chemotherapy), radiotherapy, nuclear accidents, etc.

Aplastic anaemia results from the failure of the bone marrow to produce blood cells.

189
Q

In which genetic disorder is hypoplasia of the breasts often observed?

A

Turner’s syndrome.

Turner’s syndrome involves having only 1 X chromosome.

190
Q

What does agenesis refer to?

A

Absence of development of an organ or tissue during embryonic development due to some abnormality with primordial tissues.

Agenesis is similar to aplasia.

191
Q

Give an example of agenesis.

A

Failure of development of organs such as kidneys, uterus, ovaries, and testes.

Specific tissues like the corpus callosum may also fail to develop.

192
Q

What is dystrophy?

A

Abnormal growth and differentiation of tissue usually due to genetic disorders of nutrition and metabolism.

Dystrophy is often associated with muscle disorders.

193
Q

Name a well-known type of muscular dystrophy.

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

Many genetic muscular dystrophies exist.

194
Q

What are hamartomas?

A

Focal developmental anomalies characterized by overgrowth of normal cells in a tissue where they are usually found.

Hamartomas often appear like tumors but are not neoplastic.

195
Q

What is a benign melanocytic naevus?

A

A mole caused by excessive melanocyte proliferation in the skin.

It is an example of a hamartoma.

196
Q

What are haemangiomas?

A

Excessive blood vessel proliferation within the skin, such as strawberry birthmarks and cherry angiomas.

These are also examples of hamartomas.

197
Q

What are ‘bone islands’ or enostoses?

A

Areas of compact bone found within cancellous bone.

They represent another example of hamartomas.

198
Q

What is a choristoma?

A

A focal overgrowth of normal cells arising developmentally in a tissue where these cells usually would not be present.

Choristomata are normal functioning tissues.

199
Q

Give an example of choristoma.

A

Endometriosis, characterized by endometrial tissue outside the lining of the uterus.

Endometrial tissue can occur in various locations, including the ovaries and pelvic peritoneum.