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Operative II > AI questions > Flashcards

AI questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary difference between a Class III and a Class IV composite restoration?

a. A Class III restoration involves the incisal edge, while a Class IV restoration does not.

b. A Class IV restoration involves the incisal edge, while a Class III restoration does not.

c. A Class III restoration is always done with composite, while a Class IV restoration can be done with composite or porcelain.

d. A Class IV restoration is always done with composite, while a Class III restoration can be done with composite or porcelain.

A

b. A Class IV restoration involves the incisal edge, while a Class III restoration does not.

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2
Q

Which type of veneer preparation is most frequently recommended?
a. Window preparation

b. Incisal lapping preparation

c. Dovetail preparation

d. Butt joint preparation

A

a. Window preparation

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3
Q

What is the purpose of etching enamel before bonding?

a. To create a smooth surface for the bonding agent to adhere to

b. To remove the outer layer of enamel, which is less susceptible to bonding

c. To increase the surface area and surface energy of the enamel, improving the bond strength

d. To neutralize the acidic environment of the mouth, promoting better bonding

A

c. To increase the surface area and surface energy of the enamel, improving the bond strength

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4
Q

Which of the following factors can negatively impact the bond strength of a composite restoration to dentin?

a. Overdrying the dentin after acid etching

b. Using a rubber dam for isolation

c. Applying the bonding agent in multiple thin layers

d. Curing each layer of composite for the appropriate amount of time

A

a. Overdrying the dentin after acid etching

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5
Q

What is one advantage of using a self-etch bonding system over a total-etch system?

a. Reduced risk of postoperative sensitivity

b. Stronger bond to enamel

c. Compatibility with self-cure composite materials

d. Deeper penetration of the bonding agent into the dentin tubules

A

a. Reduced risk of postoperative sensitivity

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6
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a pulpal perforation that occurs during pin placement?

a. Immediately extract the tooth

b. Seal the perforation with a glass ionomer cement

c. Consider pulp capping with calcium hydroxide, depending on the tooth’s prognosis

d. Monitor the tooth for signs of infection and intervene only if necessary

A

c. Consider pulp capping with calcium hydroxide, depending on the tooth’s prognosis

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7
Q

Which of the following is a potential problem that can arise during the use of pins in dental restorations?

a. Aspiration of the wrench or pins into the lungs

b. Allergic reaction to the metal components of the pins

c. Interference with radiographic imaging

d. Galvanic corrosion between the pins and the amalgam restoration

A

a. Aspiration of the wrench or pins into the lungs

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8
Q

What is one advantage of using a gold onlay compared to a ceramic onlay?

a. Superior esthetics

b. Lower cost

c. Greater resistance to fracture

d. Ease of repair in case of damage

A

c. Greater resistance to fracture

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9
Q

When is it generally recommended to choose an onlay over an inlay?

a. When the caries extends beyond the cementoenamel junction

b. When the patient has a history of bruxism

c. When the bucco-lingual width of the cavity preparation extends two-thirds of the way from the central groove to the cusp tip

d. When the tooth has already received endodontic treatment

A

c. When the bucco-lingual width of the cavity preparation extends two-thirds of the way from the central groove to the cusp tip

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10
Q

Which ceramic material is known for its high flexural strength and opacity?

a. Lithium disilicate ceramic

b. Zirconia

c. Feldspathic porcelain

d. Leucite-reinforced ceramic

A

b. Zirconia

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11
Q

What type of composite resin is recommended for achieving the most esthetic result on the facial surface of a Class IV restoration?

a. Hybrid composite resin

b. Packable composite resin

c. Flowable composite resin

d. Microfill or nanofill composite resin

A

. Microfill or nanofill composite resin

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of composite veneers compared to porcelain veneers?

a. Higher cost

b. Susceptibility to wear

c. Potential for staining

d. More technique sensitive placement

A

Higher cost

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13
Q

What is a potential consequence of inadequate tooth reduction during porcelain veneer preparation?
a. Failure of the restoration due to insufficient space for the material
b. Increased risk of postoperative sensitivity
c. Difficulty achieving proper interproximal contact
d. Compromised esthetics due to a translucent appearance

A

a. Failure of the restoration due to insufficient space for the material

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14
Q

When preparing a tooth for a gold inlay, what is the recommended degree of divergence for the walls of the preparation?
a. 0-2 degrees
b. 2-7 degrees
c. 7-10 degrees
d. 10-15 degrees

A

2-7 degrees

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15
Q

What type of cement should be avoided when placing provisional restorations for teeth that will receive ceramic restorations?
a. Eugenol-containing cement
b. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement
c. Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
d. Polycarboxylate cement

A

Eugenol-containing cement

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16
Q

What is the primary bacteria associated with the development of dental caries?
a. Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. Actinomyces viscosus
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. Porphyromonas gingivalis

A

Streptococcus mutans

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17
Q

Where does caries progress most rapidly within a tooth?
a. Enamel
b. Dentin
c. Cementum
d. Pulp

A

dentin

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18
Q

Why is it recommended to break contact with the adjacent tooth when placing a Class III composite restoration?
a. To prevent damage to the adjacent tooth during preparation.
b. To ensure adequate access for placing and curing the composite material.
c. To create a distinct margin for finishing the restoration.
d. To reduce the risk of recurrent decay at the contact point.

A

To create a distinct margin for finishing the restoration.

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19
Q

Which of the following describes the correct placement of the tofflemire retainer when preparing a Class II restoration?
a. The retainer is placed on the lingual side with the slot facing the gingiva.
b. The retainer is placed on the buccal side with the slot facing the gingiva.
c. The retainer is placed on the lingual side with the slot facing the occlusal surface.
d. The retainer is placed on the buccal side with the slot facing the occlusal surface.

A

b. The retainer is placed on the buccal side with the slot facing the gingiva.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of the reverse S curve in a Class II amalgam preparation?
a. To improve the resistance of the amalgam to fracture by moving the narrowest portion away from the axiopulpal line angle.
b. To enhance the retention of the amalgam by increasing the surface area of the preparation.
c. To facilitate condensation of the amalgam by creating a more uniform cavity shape.
d. To provide a smoother transition between the restoration and the natural tooth structure.

A

a. To improve the resistance of the amalgam to fracture by moving the narrowest portion away from the axiopulpal line angle.

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21
Q

What is the minimum depth required for a pin to be considered adequately placed in dentin?

a. 1.0 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 2.0 mm
d. 2.5 mm

A

2.0mm

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22
Q

What is the function of the aluminum shank in a twist drill used for pin placement?

a. To increase the cutting efficiency of the drill
b. To prevent slippage of the drill in the handpiece
c. To guide the drill for accurate pinhole placement
d. To absorb heat generated during drilling

A

d. To absorb heat generated during drilling

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23
Q

Which of the following is a recommended technique for correcting a pin that is placed too high?

a. Reduce the pin height with a handpiece
b. Bend the pin over with a condenser
c. Remove the pin and replace it with a shorter pin
d. Build up the amalgam around the pin to the desired level

A

a. Reduce the pin height with a handpiece

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24
Q

What is the recommended distance between two pins placed in the same tooth?

a. 1.0 mm
b. 2.0 mm
c. 3.0 mm
d. 4.0 mm

A

3.0mm

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25
Q

What is the recommended management for a broken pin during placement?

a. Attempt to retrieve the broken segment with a small instrument
b. Leave the broken segment in place and continue with the restoration
c. Place a new pin at least 1.5 mm away from the broken pin
d. Extract the tooth to prevent further complications

A

c. Place a new pin at least 1.5 mm away from the broken pin

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using pins in dental restorations?

a. Improved retention of the restoration
b. Preservation of tooth structure compared to other methods
c. Increased strength of the amalgam restoration
d. Cost-effectiveness compared to alternative treatments

A

. Increased strength of the amalgam restoration

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27
Q

n which of the following clinical situations is pin placement generally contraindicated?

a. A tooth with a small, well-defined cavity preparation
b. An endodontically treated tooth with large pulp canals
c. A tooth with minimal caries and strong remaining tooth structure
d. A tooth that has previously been restored with a composite filling

A

b. An endodontically treated tooth with large pulp canals
( i feel like most of these are contraindicated)

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28
Q

What is the main reason for using a rubber dam during pin placement?

a. To improve visibility of the operating field
b. To control moisture and contamination
c. To prevent aspiration of the wrench or pins
d. To protect the patient’s soft tissues from injury

A

. To prevent aspiration of the wrench or pins

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29
Q

What is the proper way to cut a pin that is protruding too high after placement?

a. Cut parallel to the long axis of the pin
b. Cut perpendicular to the long axis of the pin
c. Use a high-speed handpiece for efficient cutting
d. Apply firm pressure on the pin to prevent it from loosening

A

Cut perpendicular to the long axis of the pin

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30
Q

What is the recommended approach for managing a periodontal ligament perforation that occurs during pin placement?

a. Ignore the perforation as it will heal spontaneously
b. Seal the perforation with a flowable composite resin
c. Uncover the perforation, remove the protruding pin segment, and consider plugging the area with amalgam
d. Perform root canal treatment to address the communication with the periodontal ligament

A

c. Uncover the perforation, remove the protruding pin segment, and consider plugging the area with amalgam

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31
Q

Which type of bond is established when a composite resin is bonded to etched enamel?

a. Chemical bond
b. Micromechanical bond
c. Ionic bond
d. Covalent bond

A

b. Micromechanical bond

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32
Q

Which of the following factors is known to negatively affect the bond strength of composite resin to dentin?

a. The use of a rubber dam during the bonding procedure
b. Bonding to superficial dentin rather than deep dentin
c. Maintaining a moist dentin surface throughout the bonding process
d. The presence of caries in the dentin

A

d. The presence of caries in the dentin

33
Q

What is one of the primary disadvantages of the total-etch (etch-and-rinse) bonding technique?

a. It is not compatible with self-cure or dual-cure composite materials.
b. It does not effectively etch unprepared enamel surfaces.
c. It can lead to collagen collapse and postoperative sensitivity if the dentin is over-dried.
d. It has been associated with lower long-term bond strength and breakdown.

A

It can lead to collagen collapse and postoperative sensitivity if the dentin is over-dried.

34
Q

What is a potential advantage of using self-etch bonding systems over total-etch systems?

a. They generally result in lower postoperative sensitivity.
b. They provide a more predictable and stronger bond to enamel.
c. They are compatible with all types of composite resin materials.
d. They consistently achieve higher long-term bond strength.

A

a. They generally result in lower postoperative sensitivity.

35
Q

What is the primary function of a sealant in caries prevention?

a. To remineralize early carious lesions on smooth tooth surfaces
b. To create a physical barrier that prevents bacteria from accumulating in the pits and fissures of teeth
c. To neutralize the acids produced by bacteria in the oral cavity
d. To inhibit the growth and metabolism of cariogenic bacteria

A

To create a physical barrier that prevents bacteria from accumulating in the pits and fissures of teeth

36
Q

When is the optimal time to place sealants on permanent molars for maximum caries prevention?

a. After the patient has experienced their first episode of dental caries
b. Once all the permanent teeth have fully erupted
c. Soon after the permanent molars erupt
d. At any time during adolescence, as long as the teeth are caries-free

A

. Soon after the permanent molars erupt

37
Q

What is one of the primary benefits of using a rubber dam during dental procedures?

a. It provides better visualization of the operating field by retracting the cheeks and tongue.
b. It enhances patient comfort by preventing the aspiration of water and debris.
c. It simplifies the cleanup process by containing all the dental materials used.
d. It reduces the risk of cross-contamination between patients.

A

a. It provides better visualization of the operating field by retracting the cheeks and tongue.

38
Q

Which of the following is a correct step in placing a rubber dam?

a. Punch the holes in the rubber dam after it has been placed in the mouth.
b. Stretch the dam over the clamp before placing the clamp on the tooth.
c. Invert the dam around the cervical area of the tooth to create a seal.
d. Ligate the anterior teeth after placing the dam on the posterior teeth.

A

c. Invert the dam around the cervical area of the tooth to create a seal.

39
Q

What percentage of enamel is composed of inorganic material by weight?

a. 55%
b. 70%
c. 85%
d. 95-98%

A

95-98%

40
Q

Which component of dentin plays a key role in bonding procedures?

a. Peritubular dentin
b. Intertubular dentin
c. Dentinal tubules
d. Hydroxyapatite crystals

A

Intertubular dentin

41
Q

What is the main difference between a Class III and a Class IV composite restoration?
a. A Class IV restoration involves the incisal angle.
b. A Class III restoration involves the incisal angle.
c. A Class IV restoration uses a different type of composite material.
d. A Class III restoration is always on a posterior tooth.

A

a. A Class IV restoration involves the incisal angle.

42
Q

When preparing a Class IV composite restoration, what is an important consideration for occlusion?
a. The restoration should be built up to create an overbite.
b. Occlusion should be adjusted so that the opposing tooth contacts the restoration first.
c. All occlusal prematurities in centric and excursions should be removed.
d. Occlusion is not a factor in Class IV restorations.

A

c. All occlusal prematurities in centric and excursions should be removed.

43
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a composite veneer over a porcelain veneer?
a. Superior esthetics
b. Lower cost
c. Higher resistance to wear
d. Requires multiple appointments

A

lower cost

44
Q

Which type of composite resin typically yields the best esthetic result for a Class IV restoration?
a. Macrofill
b. Hybrid
c. Microfill
d. Flowable

A

microfill

45
Q

What is the primary purpose of pin placement in a dental restoration?
a. To strengthen the amalgam
b. To improve esthetics
c. To reduce the need for local anesthesia
d. To improve retention

A

d. To improve retention

46
Q

What is a contraindication for pin placement?
a. Extensive preparations
b. Large pulp canals
c. Missing a cusp
d. Prognosis of tooth is uncertain

A

. Large pulp canals

47
Q

According to the UMKC guidelines, what is the recommended depth for a self-threading pin to be placed into dentin?
a. 1.0 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 2.0 mm
d. 2.5 mm

A

2.0 mm

48
Q

When placing multiple pins, what is the minimum recommended distance between them?
a. 1 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 5 mm
d. 7 mm

A

3mm

49
Q

What part of the twist drill helps minimize dentin crazing and breakage?
a. Latch head
b. Aluminum shank
c. Built-in wobble
d. Diamond coating

A

built in wobble

50
Q

If a pin is placed too tall, how can it be adjusted?
a. Remove and replace with a shorter pin
b. Push down on the pin with a condenser
c. Bend the pin with a pin bending tool
d. Grind down the pin with a high-speed handpiece

A

. Bend the pin with a pin bending tool

51
Q

What type of dental dam is recommended for pin placement procedures?
a. No dental dam is necessary
b. Split dam
c. Rubber dam
d. Liquid dam

A

rubber dam

52
Q

What is an advantage of an indirect inlay restoration compared to a direct composite restoration?
a. Lower cost
b. Single appointment
c. Better control of restoration contours
d. Easier to repair

A

c. Better control of restoration contours

53
Q

When is an onlay restoration indicated instead of an inlay restoration?
a. When the caries is limited to the occlusal surface
b. When the buccal and lingual cusps are strong and intact
c. When the bucco-lingual width of the cavity preparation extends two-thirds of the way from the central groove to the cusp tip.
d. When the patient prefers a less expensive option

A

When the bucco-lingual width of the cavity preparation extends two-thirds of the way from the central groove to the cusp tip.

54
Q

Which material generally requires more bulk to prevent fracture: ceramic or gold?
a. Gold
b. Ceramic
c. Both require the same bulk
d. Bulk is not a factor in fracture prevention

A

ceramic

55
Q

What type of cement should be used for provisional restorations when an indirect ceramic restoration is planned?
a. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
b. Eugenol-free cement
c. Glass ionomer cement
d. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement

A

b. Eugenol-free cement

56
Q

What is the approximate bond strength of a properly placed enamel bond?
a. 2-5 MPa
b. 7-10 MPa
c. 20-25 MPa
d. 50-100 MPa

A

20-25 MPa

57
Q

Which type of dentin bonding system uses phosphoric acid as a separate etching step?
a. Self-etch
b. Total-etch
c. Selective-etch
d. Universal bond

A

total etch

58
Q

What is a potential disadvantage of using a total-etch dentin bonding system?
a. Lower bond strength to enamel
b. Increased risk of postoperative sensitivity
c. Incompatibility with self-cure composite materials
d. Inability to etch unprepared enamel

A

b. Increased risk of postoperative sensitivity

59
Q

Which bacteria plays a primary role in the development of dental caries?
a. Streptococcus salivarius
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Actinomyces viscosus
d. Streptococcus mutans

A

d. Streptococcus mutans

60
Q

What dietary habit can help reduce the risk of dental caries?
a. Frequent snacking on sugary foods
b. Consuming acidic drinks throughout the day
c. Chewing sugar-free gum with xylitol
d. Brushing teeth once a day

A

c. Chewing sugar-free gum with xylitol

61
Q

When is it appropriate to place a dental sealant?
a. On teeth with existing carious lesions
b. On smooth enamel surfaces
c. On noncavitated pit and fissure areas
d. On primary teeth only

A

c. On noncavitated pit and fissure areas

62
Q

Where is the slot of the Tofflemire retainer positioned when placing a Class II restoration?
a. Facing the occlusal surface
b. Facing the gingiva
c. Facing the mesial surface
d. Facing the distal surface

A

b. Facing the gingiva

63
Q

Which of the following is a possible consequence of restoring a tooth without considering occlusion?
a. Increased retention of the restoration
b. Reduced risk of tooth fracture
c. Improved periodontal health
d. Pain on biting

A

pain on biting

64
Q

When preparing a tooth for a composite veneer, which of the following scenarios might necessitate a gingival preparation extending further than 0.5mm subgingivally?
a. When minimal discoloration is present.
b. When the tooth exhibits significant lingual version.
c. When the patient desires minimal tooth reduction.
d. When severely discolored enamel is present.

A

d. When severely discolored enamel is present.

65
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of composite veneers compared to porcelain veneers?
a. Composite veneers are more likely to discolor over time.
b. Composite veneers require multiple appointments to complete.
c. Composite veneers are more expensive.
d. Composite veneers require greater tooth reduction.

A

a. Composite veneers are more likely to discolor over time.

66
Q

According to the UMKC guidelines, what is the maximum number of pins recommended for use in a single tooth restoration?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

4

67
Q

When using a self-threading pin system, what happens as the pin is turned with a hand wrench or slow speed handpiece?
a. The pin expands to create a tight fit within the dentin.
b. The pin releases a bonding agent to secure it in place.
c. The pin self-shears, breaking off at the appropriate height.
d. The pin creates undercuts to enhance retention.

A

The pin self-shears, breaking off at the appropriate height.

68
Q

If a pin breaks during placement, what is the recommended course of action?
a. Attempt to remove the broken pin fragment.
b. Leave the broken pin in place and proceed with the restoration.
c. Place another pin 1.5 mm away from the broken pin.
d. Refer the patient to an endodontist.

A

c. Place another pin 1.5 mm away from the broken pin.

69
Q

Which of the following is a potential problem associated with the use of pins in dental restorations?
a. Improved resistance to fracture.
b. Reduced microleakage.
c. Dentin crazing.
d. Increased strength of the amalgam.

A

c. Dentin crazing.

70
Q

What is the recommended depth of the bevel for a gold inlay preparation?
a. 0.5 mm
b. 1.0 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 2.0 mm

A

1.0mm

71
Q

What is the recommended angle for the walls of a gold inlay preparation?
a. 2° divergence for short walls and 5-7° divergence for long walls.
b. 5-7° convergence for short walls and 2° convergence for long walls.
c. 90° for all walls.
d. Parallel walls.

A

a. 2° divergence for short walls and 5-7° divergence for long walls.

72
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a ceramic onlay over a gold onlay?
a. Ceramic onlays are less expensive.
b. Ceramic onlays are easier to repair.
c. Ceramic onlays are more esthetic.
d. Ceramic onlays require less tooth reduction.

A

c. Ceramic onlays are more esthetic.

73
Q

Which type of ceramic material is known for its high flexural strength (600-900 MPa)?
a. Lithium disilicate ceramic
b. Zirconia
c. Feldspathic porcelain
d. Leucite-reinforced ceramic

A

zirconia

74
Q

Why are occlusal adjustments for porcelain inlays and onlays typically delayed until after cementation?
a. The cement needs to fully set before adjustments can be made.
b. Porcelain restorations are more fragile before cementation.
c. Occlusal adjustments interfere with the bonding process.
d. Porcelain restorations expand slightly after cementation.

A

b. Porcelain restorations are more fragile before cementation.

75
Q

When placing a rubber dam for a Class II restoration, how many teeth anterior to the working tooth should typically be isolated?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

A

two

76
Q

When bonding to enamel, where will the bond strength be highest?
a. Bonding to the sides of enamel rods.
b. Bonding to the ends of enamel rods.
c. Bond strength is equal regardless of enamel rod orientation.
d. Bonding to demineralized enamel.

A

b. Bonding to the ends of enamel rods.

77
Q

Which of the following factors can negatively impact the bond strength to dentin?
a. Moist dentin.
b. Superficial dentin.
c. Dry dentin.
d. The use of a rubber dam.

A

moist dentin

78
Q

What is the mechanism by which self-etch dentin bonding systems prepare the dentin surface?
a. The acidic primer completely removes the smear layer.
b. A separate phosphoric acid etching step is required.
c. The acidic primer partially dissolves the smear layer, allowing for penetration of the bonding resin.
d. The bonding resin chemically bonds to the smear layer.

A

c. The acidic primer partially dissolves the smear layer, allowing for penetration of the bonding resin.

79
Q

According to a NHANES report, which age group exhibits a higher prevalence of untreated carious lesions?
a. 6-11 years old
b. 12-19 years old
c. 20-29 years old
d. 30-39 years old

A

b. 12-19 years old

Operative II (11 decks)

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