AI generated Flashcards
What are the methods of making a diagnosis?
Blood, urine/faeces, biopsy/resection, imaging, biomarker detection including DNA-based technology
These methods help in identifying diseases through various biological samples and imaging techniques.
What is an Ultrasound Scan?
A procedure that uses high frequency sound waves with low resolution
Ultrasound is commonly used for imaging soft tissues and organs.
What does CT stand for and how does it work?
Computerised Tomography; it uses X-rays to image organs quickly with less detail than MRI
CT scans are often used in emergency settings for rapid assessment.
What are the main features of neoplastic cells?
Do not respond to external signals, do not undergo cell death when stressed
These characteristics differentiate neoplastic cells from normal cells.
Define ‘neoplastic mass’.
A mass of neoplastic cells known as a tumour, which is not always cancerous
Tumours can be benign or malignant.
What is cellular pleomorphism?
Variation in shape and size of cells or nuclei
This is a feature of poorly differentiated cancer cells.
What distinguishes benign tumours from malignant ones?
Benign tumours have defined margins and remain localized; malignant tumours invade surrounding tissue
The growth patterns and margins are key in determining the nature of the tumour.
What is the purpose of histological examination?
To examine cellular characteristics and distribution of neoplastic cells
This examination is critical for accurate diagnosis of diseases.
What is the main goal of a biopsy?
To obtain a tissue sample for examination
Different types of biopsies include needle, endoscopic, incisional, and excisional.
At what age are women invited for cervical cancer screening?
25 years
Screening is conducted through smears every 3 or 5 years.
What is the main histological stain used in tissue examination?
Haematoxylin and Eosin
This stain helps differentiate between acidic and basic cellular structures.
What are heat shock proteins?
Proteins that act as chaperones to protect and refold other proteins
They play a crucial role in cellular stress responses.
True or False: Apoptosis is a normal cell process.
True
Apoptosis is a programmed cell death mechanism that is essential for normal development and homeostasis.
What is the primary cause of acute inflammation?
To eliminate damaging stimuli and heal damage
Acute inflammation is a protective response that is usually temporary.
List the cardinal effects of acute inflammation.
- Rubor (redness)
- Calor (heat)
- Dolor (pain)
- Tumor (swelling)
These effects are due to increased blood flow and vascular permeability.
What is the role of neutrophils in acute inflammation?
Main effector cells that perform phagocytosis
Neutrophils are usually the first responders to sites of infection.
What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?
Innate immunity is rapid and non-specific; adaptive immunity is slower and antigen-specific
Both arms of the immune system are crucial for fighting infections.
What are the main characteristics of viruses?
Not cells, possess genetic material, lack cell membranes and machinery for synthesizing macromolecules
Viruses replicate within host cells and are difficult to treat.
What defines bacteria?
Prokaryotic cells that lack a distinct nucleus and have a cell wall
Bacteria are classified based on various characteristics including shape and staining properties.
What is the most common cause of infection-related death in Europe?
Pneumonia
Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of microorganisms.
What is the ‘Causal Pies Model’ in epidemiology?
All individual contributing factors must be present for disease to occur
This model helps understand the multifactorial nature of disease.
What increases susceptibility to diseases like breast cancer?
Genetic factors such as BRCA1/2 mutations
Environmental and lifestyle factors also play a significant role.
What was the fatality rate of influenza in 2009?
4% of annual flu deaths
2009 saw 18,000 deaths attributed to influenza.
What is the typical fatality rate of influenza?
Less than 0.1%.
What does the causal pies model for epidemiology state?
All individual contributing factors must be present for disease to occur.
Name two genetic conditions that increase susceptibility to diseases based on ethnic background.
- Sickle-cell anaemia (common in African/Mediterranean heritage)
- Tay Sachs disease (common in Ashkenazi/Jewish/French Canadian ancestry)
What are the main causes of death in the developed world?
- Chronic diseases
- Cancer
- Coronary heart disease
- Type 2 diabetes
What percentage of deaths in 2008 were due to cancer?
Around 13%.
List some common carcinogens.
- Tobacco
- Asbestos
- Benzene
- Viruses (HPV, RSV)
- Aflatoxin B
- Radiation
What types of specimens are commonly used for clinical biochemistry tests?
- Serum from venous blood
- Urine
- Arterial blood
- Faeces
- Cerebrospinal fluid
- Sweat
- Saliva
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
Serum is the top layer after blood is centrifuged without anticoagulant; plasma is the top layer after adding anticoagulant.
Define precision in the context of clinical biochemistry.
Reproducibility of test results.
What does accuracy refer to in clinical testing?
How close the measured result is to the actual value.
What is sensitivity in the context of assays?
How little of the analyte can be detected.
What does specificity measure in an assay?
The ability to discriminate between the requested analyte and other interfering substances.
What are internal quality assurance samples used for?
To monitor performance by comparing test results.
What are false positives and false negatives?
- False positive: healthy but shown outside reference range
- False negative: non-healthy but shown inside reference range
Name some biological factors that can affect biochemical results interpretation.
- Gender differences
- Age
- Pregnancy
- Diet (e.g., fasting blood glucose)
- Time of day (e.g., cortisol)
- Stress/anxiety
- Strenuous exercise
What are the normal sodium levels in the blood?
135-145 mmol/L.
What is hypernatremia and its causes?
Sodium > 145 mmol/L; caused by water depletion, excessive sodium intake, renal failure.
What are the clinical signs of hypernatremia?
- Decreased blood pressure
- Reduced urine output
- Dry mucous membranes
What is hyponatremia and its causes?
Sodium < 135 mmol/L; can be caused by water retention or sodium loss.
What is the normal potassium range in the blood?
3.4-4.9 mmol/L.
What is hyperkalemia and its potential consequence?
Potassium > 4.9 mmol/L; can lead to cardiac arrest.
What are the causes and treatment options for hyperkalemia?
- Causes: renal failure, adrenal failure
- Treatment: calcium gluconate, insulin + glucose, dialysis.
What is the treatment for hypokalemia?
Oral or IV potassium (administered slowly with ECG monitoring).
What are the biochemistry findings in acute renal failure?
- Concentrated urine
- Increased serum urea and creatinine
- Hyperkalemia.
What are the three types of renal failure?
- Pre-renal: blood supply failure
- Renal: damage to kidney tissue
- Post-renal: obstruction blocking urinary drainage.
What are the consequences of myocardial infarction?
Death of tissue following lack of blood supply in heart muscle.
What are the two main coronary arteries?
- Left coronary artery
- Right coronary artery.
What is atheroma, and what are its consequences?
- Atheroma: buildup of plaque in arteries
- Consequences: artery narrowing, thrombus formation, potential aneurysm.
What cardiac biomarkers are used to diagnose myocardial infarction?
- Troponin I
- Troponin T
- Creatine kinase.
What is the normal glucose level range?
4.0-6.0 mmol/L.
What are the three types of diabetes mellitus?
- Type 1: insulin deficiency
- Type 2: insulin resistance
- Gestational: temporary during pregnancy.
What is the treatment for Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
Insulin administration or pancreas transplant.
What does HbA1c measure?
Percentage of glycated hemoglobin, reflecting average blood glucose over 1-2 months.
What long-term effects can diabetes have on the body?
- Neuropathy
- Atherosclerosis
- Retinopathy.
What is the structure of erythrocytes?
Biconcave, no nucleus, lifespan of 120 days.
What is the role of neutrophils in the blood?
Increase indicates bacterial infection; decrease indicates drug toxicity.
What is the significance of blood transfusion compatibility?
To prevent adverse reactions from incompatible blood types.
What is the most common healthcare-associated infection?
Pneumonia and other respiratory tract infections.
What is the role of hand hygiene in infection prevention?
Critical for preventing hospital infections.
What are the principles of infection prevention and control?
- Clean environment
- Minimize risk of healthcare-associated infections.
What is sterilization?
The process of killing or removing all viable microorganisms.
What is disinfection?
The process of removing or killing most but not all viable organisms.
What is an autoclave?
A pressure cooker used for sterilizing equipment and dressings.
Autoclaves utilize high-pressure steam to eliminate microorganisms.
What type of irradiation is commonly used for sterilizing needles, gloves, and vaccines?
Gamma irradiation.
Gamma rays are effective in killing bacteria and viruses.
What is the purpose of filtration in the context of infection control?
To sterilize fluids by removing microorganisms.
Filtration can be used for air and liquid sterilization.
What chemical is commonly used for disinfecting endoscopes?
Glutaraldehyde.
Glutaraldehyde is a potent disinfectant used for heat-sensitive medical instruments.
Define disinfection.
The process of removing or killing most but not all viable organisms.
Disinfection reduces the number of pathogens to a safe level.
List three methods of disinfection.
- Chemical
- Boiling
- Low pressure steam
These methods vary in effectiveness and application.
What is the goal of infection transmission interruption?
To prevent the spread of infections.
This includes measures such as air conditioning checks and isolation nursing.
What is a key precaution for airborne infection control in hospitals?
Ensure ultra clean air in operating rooms.
Proper ventilation and filtration systems are critical in reducing airborne pathogens.
What practices enhance a host’s ability to resist infection?
- Boosting immunity
- Reducing risk factors
Immunity can be boosted through vaccination and prophylactic measures.
Identify high-risk groups for infections.
- Very young
- Very old
- Lack of vaccination
- Immune defects
- Immunosuppressive drugs
- Lung, skin, or urinary system disease
- Trauma (burns, surgery)
These groups are more susceptible to infections and require extra precautions.
What does boosting immunity refer to?
Increasing the body’s resistance to infections.
This can be achieved through active or passive immunization.
Fill in the blank: Prophylactic antibiotics are used to _______ risk factors.
[reduce]
They are given to prevent infections during high-risk medical procedures.
What are signs of a surgical wound infection?
- Pus
- Inflammation
- Discharge
These symptoms indicate the presence of an infection in a surgical site.
What precautions should be taken to prevent catheter-associated infections?
- Cover insertion site
- Wash hands
- Wear gloves
- Use single-use disinfection wipes
Proper care and hygiene are essential to prevent infections related to catheters.
What is sepsis?
A life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure.
Sepsis requires immediate medical attention.
What are the key steps in investigating an outbreak of infection?
- Determine the extent of the problem
- Identify the source of infection
- Identify those at risk
- Identify the causative organism
- Propose effective methods for control
Systematic investigation is crucial for managing outbreaks.
