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Biol 131 > AI generated > Flashcards

AI generated Flashcards

1
Q

What are the methods of making a diagnosis?

A

Blood, urine/faeces, biopsy/resection, imaging, biomarker detection including DNA-based technology

These methods help in identifying diseases through various biological samples and imaging techniques.

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2
Q

What is an Ultrasound Scan?

A

A procedure that uses high frequency sound waves with low resolution

Ultrasound is commonly used for imaging soft tissues and organs.

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3
Q

What does CT stand for and how does it work?

A

Computerised Tomography; it uses X-rays to image organs quickly with less detail than MRI

CT scans are often used in emergency settings for rapid assessment.

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4
Q

What are the main features of neoplastic cells?

A

Do not respond to external signals, do not undergo cell death when stressed

These characteristics differentiate neoplastic cells from normal cells.

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5
Q

Define ‘neoplastic mass’.

A

A mass of neoplastic cells known as a tumour, which is not always cancerous

Tumours can be benign or malignant.

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6
Q

What is cellular pleomorphism?

A

Variation in shape and size of cells or nuclei

This is a feature of poorly differentiated cancer cells.

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7
Q

What distinguishes benign tumours from malignant ones?

A

Benign tumours have defined margins and remain localized; malignant tumours invade surrounding tissue

The growth patterns and margins are key in determining the nature of the tumour.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of histological examination?

A

To examine cellular characteristics and distribution of neoplastic cells

This examination is critical for accurate diagnosis of diseases.

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9
Q

What is the main goal of a biopsy?

A

To obtain a tissue sample for examination

Different types of biopsies include needle, endoscopic, incisional, and excisional.

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10
Q

At what age are women invited for cervical cancer screening?

A

25 years

Screening is conducted through smears every 3 or 5 years.

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11
Q

What is the main histological stain used in tissue examination?

A

Haematoxylin and Eosin

This stain helps differentiate between acidic and basic cellular structures.

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12
Q

What are heat shock proteins?

A

Proteins that act as chaperones to protect and refold other proteins

They play a crucial role in cellular stress responses.

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13
Q

True or False: Apoptosis is a normal cell process.

A

True

Apoptosis is a programmed cell death mechanism that is essential for normal development and homeostasis.

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14
Q

What is the primary cause of acute inflammation?

A

To eliminate damaging stimuli and heal damage

Acute inflammation is a protective response that is usually temporary.

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15
Q

List the cardinal effects of acute inflammation.

A
  • Rubor (redness)
  • Calor (heat)
  • Dolor (pain)
  • Tumor (swelling)

These effects are due to increased blood flow and vascular permeability.

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16
Q

What is the role of neutrophils in acute inflammation?

A

Main effector cells that perform phagocytosis

Neutrophils are usually the first responders to sites of infection.

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17
Q

What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

A

Innate immunity is rapid and non-specific; adaptive immunity is slower and antigen-specific

Both arms of the immune system are crucial for fighting infections.

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18
Q

What are the main characteristics of viruses?

A

Not cells, possess genetic material, lack cell membranes and machinery for synthesizing macromolecules

Viruses replicate within host cells and are difficult to treat.

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19
Q

What defines bacteria?

A

Prokaryotic cells that lack a distinct nucleus and have a cell wall

Bacteria are classified based on various characteristics including shape and staining properties.

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of infection-related death in Europe?

A

Pneumonia

Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of microorganisms.

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21
Q

What is the ‘Causal Pies Model’ in epidemiology?

A

All individual contributing factors must be present for disease to occur

This model helps understand the multifactorial nature of disease.

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22
Q

What increases susceptibility to diseases like breast cancer?

A

Genetic factors such as BRCA1/2 mutations

Environmental and lifestyle factors also play a significant role.

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23
Q

What was the fatality rate of influenza in 2009?

A

4% of annual flu deaths

2009 saw 18,000 deaths attributed to influenza.

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24
Q

What is the typical fatality rate of influenza?

A

Less than 0.1%.

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25
Q

What does the causal pies model for epidemiology state?

A

All individual contributing factors must be present for disease to occur.

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26
Q

Name two genetic conditions that increase susceptibility to diseases based on ethnic background.

A
  • Sickle-cell anaemia (common in African/Mediterranean heritage)
  • Tay Sachs disease (common in Ashkenazi/Jewish/French Canadian ancestry)
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27
Q

What are the main causes of death in the developed world?

A
  • Chronic diseases
  • Cancer
  • Coronary heart disease
  • Type 2 diabetes
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28
Q

What percentage of deaths in 2008 were due to cancer?

A

Around 13%.

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29
Q

List some common carcinogens.

A
  • Tobacco
  • Asbestos
  • Benzene
  • Viruses (HPV, RSV)
  • Aflatoxin B
  • Radiation
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30
Q

What types of specimens are commonly used for clinical biochemistry tests?

A
  • Serum from venous blood
  • Urine
  • Arterial blood
  • Faeces
  • Cerebrospinal fluid
  • Sweat
  • Saliva
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31
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma?

A

Serum is the top layer after blood is centrifuged without anticoagulant; plasma is the top layer after adding anticoagulant.

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32
Q

Define precision in the context of clinical biochemistry.

A

Reproducibility of test results.

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33
Q

What does accuracy refer to in clinical testing?

A

How close the measured result is to the actual value.

34
Q

What is sensitivity in the context of assays?

A

How little of the analyte can be detected.

35
Q

What does specificity measure in an assay?

A

The ability to discriminate between the requested analyte and other interfering substances.

36
Q

What are internal quality assurance samples used for?

A

To monitor performance by comparing test results.

37
Q

What are false positives and false negatives?

A
  • False positive: healthy but shown outside reference range
  • False negative: non-healthy but shown inside reference range
38
Q

Name some biological factors that can affect biochemical results interpretation.

A
  • Gender differences
  • Age
  • Pregnancy
  • Diet (e.g., fasting blood glucose)
  • Time of day (e.g., cortisol)
  • Stress/anxiety
  • Strenuous exercise
39
Q

What are the normal sodium levels in the blood?

A

135-145 mmol/L.

40
Q

What is hypernatremia and its causes?

A

Sodium > 145 mmol/L; caused by water depletion, excessive sodium intake, renal failure.

41
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypernatremia?

A
  • Decreased blood pressure
  • Reduced urine output
  • Dry mucous membranes
42
Q

What is hyponatremia and its causes?

A

Sodium < 135 mmol/L; can be caused by water retention or sodium loss.

43
Q

What is the normal potassium range in the blood?

A

3.4-4.9 mmol/L.

44
Q

What is hyperkalemia and its potential consequence?

A

Potassium > 4.9 mmol/L; can lead to cardiac arrest.

45
Q

What are the causes and treatment options for hyperkalemia?

A
  • Causes: renal failure, adrenal failure
  • Treatment: calcium gluconate, insulin + glucose, dialysis.
46
Q

What is the treatment for hypokalemia?

A

Oral or IV potassium (administered slowly with ECG monitoring).

47
Q

What are the biochemistry findings in acute renal failure?

A
  • Concentrated urine
  • Increased serum urea and creatinine
  • Hyperkalemia.
48
Q

What are the three types of renal failure?

A
  • Pre-renal: blood supply failure
  • Renal: damage to kidney tissue
  • Post-renal: obstruction blocking urinary drainage.
49
Q

What are the consequences of myocardial infarction?

A

Death of tissue following lack of blood supply in heart muscle.

50
Q

What are the two main coronary arteries?

A
  • Left coronary artery
  • Right coronary artery.
51
Q

What is atheroma, and what are its consequences?

A
  • Atheroma: buildup of plaque in arteries
  • Consequences: artery narrowing, thrombus formation, potential aneurysm.
52
Q

What cardiac biomarkers are used to diagnose myocardial infarction?

A
  • Troponin I
  • Troponin T
  • Creatine kinase.
53
Q

What is the normal glucose level range?

A

4.0-6.0 mmol/L.

54
Q

What are the three types of diabetes mellitus?

A
  • Type 1: insulin deficiency
  • Type 2: insulin resistance
  • Gestational: temporary during pregnancy.
55
Q

What is the treatment for Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

Insulin administration or pancreas transplant.

56
Q

What does HbA1c measure?

A

Percentage of glycated hemoglobin, reflecting average blood glucose over 1-2 months.

57
Q

What long-term effects can diabetes have on the body?

A
  • Neuropathy
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Retinopathy.
58
Q

What is the structure of erythrocytes?

A

Biconcave, no nucleus, lifespan of 120 days.

59
Q

What is the role of neutrophils in the blood?

A

Increase indicates bacterial infection; decrease indicates drug toxicity.

60
Q

What is the significance of blood transfusion compatibility?

A

To prevent adverse reactions from incompatible blood types.

61
Q

What is the most common healthcare-associated infection?

A

Pneumonia and other respiratory tract infections.

62
Q

What is the role of hand hygiene in infection prevention?

A

Critical for preventing hospital infections.

63
Q

What are the principles of infection prevention and control?

A
  • Clean environment
  • Minimize risk of healthcare-associated infections.
64
Q

What is sterilization?

A

The process of killing or removing all viable microorganisms.

65
Q

What is disinfection?

A

The process of removing or killing most but not all viable organisms.

66
Q

What is an autoclave?

A

A pressure cooker used for sterilizing equipment and dressings.

Autoclaves utilize high-pressure steam to eliminate microorganisms.

67
Q

What type of irradiation is commonly used for sterilizing needles, gloves, and vaccines?

A

Gamma irradiation.

Gamma rays are effective in killing bacteria and viruses.

68
Q

What is the purpose of filtration in the context of infection control?

A

To sterilize fluids by removing microorganisms.

Filtration can be used for air and liquid sterilization.

69
Q

What chemical is commonly used for disinfecting endoscopes?

A

Glutaraldehyde.

Glutaraldehyde is a potent disinfectant used for heat-sensitive medical instruments.

70
Q

Define disinfection.

A

The process of removing or killing most but not all viable organisms.

Disinfection reduces the number of pathogens to a safe level.

71
Q

List three methods of disinfection.

A
  • Chemical
  • Boiling
  • Low pressure steam

These methods vary in effectiveness and application.

72
Q

What is the goal of infection transmission interruption?

A

To prevent the spread of infections.

This includes measures such as air conditioning checks and isolation nursing.

73
Q

What is a key precaution for airborne infection control in hospitals?

A

Ensure ultra clean air in operating rooms.

Proper ventilation and filtration systems are critical in reducing airborne pathogens.

74
Q

What practices enhance a host’s ability to resist infection?

A
  • Boosting immunity
  • Reducing risk factors

Immunity can be boosted through vaccination and prophylactic measures.

75
Q

Identify high-risk groups for infections.

A
  • Very young
  • Very old
  • Lack of vaccination
  • Immune defects
  • Immunosuppressive drugs
  • Lung, skin, or urinary system disease
  • Trauma (burns, surgery)

These groups are more susceptible to infections and require extra precautions.

76
Q

What does boosting immunity refer to?

A

Increasing the body’s resistance to infections.

This can be achieved through active or passive immunization.

77
Q

Fill in the blank: Prophylactic antibiotics are used to _______ risk factors.

A

[reduce]

They are given to prevent infections during high-risk medical procedures.

78
Q

What are signs of a surgical wound infection?

A
  • Pus
  • Inflammation
  • Discharge

These symptoms indicate the presence of an infection in a surgical site.

79
Q

What precautions should be taken to prevent catheter-associated infections?

A
  • Cover insertion site
  • Wash hands
  • Wear gloves
  • Use single-use disinfection wipes

Proper care and hygiene are essential to prevent infections related to catheters.

80
Q

What is sepsis?

A

A life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure.

Sepsis requires immediate medical attention.

81
Q

What are the key steps in investigating an outbreak of infection?

A
  • Determine the extent of the problem
  • Identify the source of infection
  • Identify those at risk
  • Identify the causative organism
  • Propose effective methods for control

Systematic investigation is crucial for managing outbreaks.

Biol 131 (1 decks)

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