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AHUF > AHUF > Flashcards

AHUF Flashcards

1
Q

On the BMI scale, you are considered overweight if you score above…

A

25

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2
Q

On the BMI scale, you are considered obese if you score above…

A

30

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3
Q

Using the pinch test, the fold of skin should be no more than how many mm thick?

A

12mm

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4
Q

how much blood does the heart pump per day

A

7600 litres/day

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5
Q

The most common cause of pilot incapacitation during flight is

A

gastro-intestinal upset

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6
Q

To avoid gastro, you should

A

avoid prepared hot foods that are kept for time

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7
Q

The ideal temperature and humidity for humans is

A

21°C to 27°C and a relative humidity of 50% (40%-60% is comfort range)

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8
Q

the first signs of heat stress will appear in temperatures in excess of…

A

32°C

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9
Q

below what temperature does heat stress (or lack of heat) occur?

A

10°C

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10
Q

There are 3 types of heat stress, what are they?

A

First is too hot, second is sun exposure, third is too cold.

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11
Q

The first signs of dehydration include…

A

drying of the nasal passages and a prickly sensation in the eyes

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12
Q

After donating blood, how long does CASA mandate a rest period on the ground?

A

At least 24hrs

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13
Q

What is the effect of smoking on the chance of a heart attack?

A

risk increase by 100%, or 200% with high blood pressure, or 1000% if on the pill.

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14
Q

What is the effect of smoking on the chance of a stroke?

A

risk increased by 100%

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15
Q

What is the effect of smoking on the chance of gangrene?

A

risk increased by 500%

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16
Q

The purpose of the eustachian tube is to…

A

allow pressure to equalise, which is why a blocked eustachian tube leads to barotrauma.

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17
Q

Does air pressure in the eustachian tube equalise faster in the climb or on descent?

A

During climb

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18
Q

Pressure vertigo is defined as

A

dizziness caused by pressure affecting the ear’s balance mechanism

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19
Q

What manoeuvre is used to relieve baro discomfort during the descent?

A

The valsalve manoeuvre.

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20
Q

Do the medications used to treat hay fever impose any limitations on flying?

A

The typical medications used for such treatment would disqualify a pilot from flying.

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21
Q

If you suffer an injury or any other condition that may impair your ability to fly, do you have to tell casa?

A

Yes (CASR 61.265)

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22
Q

The effects of ageing are noticed primarily in deterioration in…

A

hearing, and presbyopia (long sightedness).

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23
Q

How long do you have to be pregnant for before it is recommended that you stop?

A

6 months

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24
Q

On average, how much water does the body lose per day, and compared to a hot day?

A

1 litre, and 5 litres on a hot day.

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25
Q

Too much salt can lead to…

A

hypertension (high blood pressure)

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26
Q

Green vegetables such as cabbage release gases during digestion which can….

A

cause pain or discomfort when they expand at high altitude.

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27
Q

Too little iron in the diet leads to

A

anaemia

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28
Q

The type of human errors which feature most commonly in aircraft accidents are…

A

Errors in judgement or poor decision making

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29
Q

Is dehydration more likely to occur at low or high altitude?

A

high

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30
Q

Gout is often the result of

A

excessive uric acid in the blood

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31
Q

What sound frequencies is the deterioration of hearing likely to occur?

A

high frequencies

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32
Q

The eustachian tube connects…

A

the inner ear to the throat

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33
Q

If suffering from heat stress, you should…

A

drink more water than dictated by thirst alone

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34
Q

What happens to the volume of gas in the middle ear during a descent with blocked eustachian tubes?

A

decreases

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35
Q

Sinus pain experienced by a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft is most likely with

A

a head cold during a descent

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36
Q

How long are class 2 medicals valid for?

A

4 years if you’re <40, or 2 years if you’re 40 or older

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37
Q

How much time before DEPARTURE must a pilot abstain from consuming alcohol?

A

8hrs

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38
Q

What percentage of alcohol leaves the body via urine, sweat, and breath?

A

10%

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39
Q

At what rate is alcohol metabolised by the body?

A

1 standard per hour for men, and a slower rate for women.

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40
Q

Alcohol can stay in the bloodstream for how long after ingestion?

A

14 hrs?

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41
Q

Alcohol can stay in the brain for how long after ingestion?

A

24hrs

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42
Q

The maximum recommended alcohol intake over a period of one week for men and women is…

A

21-28 standards for men, and 14-21 for women

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43
Q

Hyperventilation is the result of…

A

exhaling too much carbon dioxide (which is needed for the blood)

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44
Q

Reducing carbon dioxide in the blood will have what effect?

A

reduces the acidity, resulting in lightheadedness, dizziness, sweating, numbness etc…

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45
Q

At what altitude does atmospheric pressure drop to half of that at sea level?

A

18,000ft

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46
Q

at what water depth is the pressure twice that of normal sea level pressure?

A

30ft

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47
Q

the bends/decompression sickness is the result of

A

Ascending too quickly, and the nitrogen in the blood coming out of solution.

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48
Q

The cure for the bends is to….

A

recompress i.e. descend again

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49
Q

The recommended rest periods for scuba diving are

A

4 hours if no decompression stops were required, 12 hours for a dive that required decompression stops but was less than 12 hours, and 48 hours if decompression stops were required and the dive was more than 4 hours.

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50
Q

The most dangerous side effect of antihistamines is….

A

drowsiness

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51
Q

If it is necessary to take sleeping tablets, how long should you wait before flying?

A

24hrs

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52
Q

The symptoms of hyperventilation can be alleviated by

A

breathing into a paper bag (increases carbon dioxide levels)

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53
Q

abdominal pain caused by the expansion of gases within the body is mot likely to be associated with

A

a rapid climb in a high performance unpressurised aircraft

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54
Q

when flying, a pilot suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection is liable to suffer from…

A

pressure vertigo

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55
Q

Can analgesics be used by pilots?

A

Yes, but ONLY for short term pain relief

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56
Q

During a climb, expanding gases are most likely to cause severe pain and discomfort when trapped in the…

A

small bowel

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57
Q

The middle ear consists of

A

Eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup

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58
Q

The inner ear consists of

A

the cochlea and the semicircular canals

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59
Q

On of the dangers of constant or even just on instance of exposure to loud noises is that

A

the damage is irreversible

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60
Q

One limitation of the cupula (the hair in the semicircular canals) is…

A

they only detect the initial change in angular acceleration

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61
Q

The otolith organ is responsible for….

A

linear accelerations

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62
Q

The semicircular canals are responsible for

A

angular accelerations

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63
Q

In terms of sound intensity (dB), what level of intensity is comfortable, and what will cause pain?

A

we are comfortable with up to 80dB, and pain occurs at 140dB.

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64
Q

Above what dB should hearing protection be worn?

A

above 85dB

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65
Q

As a general rule, hearing protection should be worn if the noise level is such that you need to shout in order to be heard at a distance of…..

A

half a metre

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66
Q

Earplugs tend to reduce noise exposure by

A

25dB

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67
Q

A good headset will reduce noise exposure by…

A

40dB

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68
Q

You can expect to suffer permanent hearing damage if you are regularly exposed to environmental noise levels exceeding…..

A

85dB

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69
Q

A function of the middle ear is to

A

amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum and transfer them to the cochlea

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70
Q

A function of the inner ear is

A

to convert the mechanical energy of incoming vibrations to nerve impulses, and to assist in maintaining the sense of balance

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71
Q

The purpose of the cochlea is to

A

convert the mechanical energy of vibration to electrical impulses

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72
Q

What is the minimum intensity of noise that would result in a sensation of pain to the ears

A

140db (sometimes 150)

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73
Q

The purpose of the eustachian tube is to

A

connect the MIDDLE ear to the throat

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74
Q

Which part of the ear is most affected by pressure differences when the eustachian tube is blocked?

A

the middle ear….because thats where the eustachian tube is

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75
Q

Light aircraft typically generate noise above

A

well above 85dB, usually in the mid to high 90s range.

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76
Q

The function of the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is to transfer vibrations from

A

The ear drum to the inner ear

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77
Q

What is the cornea?

A

Pretty much the windshield (outer layer) of the eye, allows light to enter.

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78
Q

What is the purpose of the aqueous humour?

A

It is a transparent fluid which supports the cornea

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79
Q

What is the iris?

A

The coloured part of the eye which changes its shape to deal with changes in the intensity of light

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80
Q

What is the pupil?

A

The black hole of the eye, controlled by the iris, allows light through to the lens.

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81
Q

What is the purpose of the ciliary muscles?

A

To alter the shape of the lens to allow the cornea to focus

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82
Q

What is the retina?

A

Home to all the rods and cones

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83
Q

Cones specialise in

A

colour perception and fine detail

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84
Q

Where are the cones concentrated on the retina?

A

Centrally

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85
Q

Where are the rods focussed on the retina?

A

Peripherally

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86
Q

What is the purpose of the rods?

A

Peripheral vision, and night vision.

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87
Q

what is the most sensitive part of the Retina?

A

The fovea

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88
Q

The purpose of the fovea is…

A

for fine details

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89
Q

How long does it take for rhodopsin (night vision) to take effect?

A

30-40 minutes

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90
Q

Exposure to strong glare (such as from snow or sand) can reduce night vision by 30-50% for up to…

A

one week

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91
Q

Why is lighting in the cockpit at night red?

A

because the frequency of red has almost no effect on the rods.

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92
Q

The visual acuity of the eye requires the ability to resolve an angle of…

A

1/60 of a degree (1 minute). this is equivalent to 1mm at 3.6m, or 1cm at 36m.

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93
Q

What is empty field myopia?

A

With not much to focus on the ciliary muscles will relax, and the eye will focus 1-2m ahead.

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94
Q

What is general advice to avoid empty field myopia?

A

occasionally focus on wingtips or ground features.

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95
Q

In an empty visual field, do we tend to under or overestimate the distance to other objects?

A

Overestimate.

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96
Q

How many degrees of arc can the eyes focus on?

A

10° to 15°

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97
Q

To fix hyperopia (longsightedness), you should use what type of lens?

A

Convex lens

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98
Q

to fix myopia (shortsightedness), you should use what type of lens?

A

concave

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99
Q

To fix astigmatism, what type of lens should you use?

A

Cylindrical

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100
Q

What is presbyopia

A

Natural deterioration of vision (usually have trouble seeing close)

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101
Q

To fix presbyopia, what type of lens should be worn?

A

bifocals

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102
Q

When scanning, it is best to move the head…

A

10° to 15° at a time, a pausing between each.

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103
Q

Is it more efficient to move the head or the eyes when scanning?

A

Head, as this keeps the eyes in focus for longer.

104
Q

A lack of oxygen can degrade night vision, at what altitude does this begin

A

approximately 4000ft

105
Q

The saccade rest cycle is….

A

0.3 seconds

106
Q

Light is focused onto the retina by the action of

A

the cornea and the lens

107
Q

The coriolis illusion occurs when…

A

the canal that was in the yawing plane moves to the rolling plane.

108
Q

The symptom of the coriolis effect is

A

an unpleasant tumbling sensation

109
Q

What is a false horizon

A

in the absence of an actual horizon, our eyes will try select another long straight surface, and if this is not actually straight it can cause disorientation.

110
Q

What is the autokinetic illusion?

A

In the absence of any other reference, the eyeball makes continuous small jerky movements and cause objects (like distant lights) to move about rapidly.

111
Q

What is the somatogravic illusion

A

acceleration mistaken for pitch up

112
Q

In regards to vision, what does ‘perception’ refer to?

A

The relative distance to objects and the height of the eye above the surface.

113
Q

Hazy atmosphere will make objects appear closer or further away?

A

Further away

114
Q

In regards to vision, what does ‘parallax’ refer to?

A

The brain can determine whether an object is closer or further away depending on how it moves in your field of vision.

115
Q

In regards to terrain sloping up from the threshold, will the pilot feel too high or low?

A

Too low (due to less terrain clearance)

116
Q

In regards to terrain sloping down from the threshold, will the pilot feel too high or low?

A

Too high (due to excessive terrain clearance)

117
Q

In regards to the runway sloping up to the threshold, will the pilot feel too high or low?

A

too high

118
Q

In regards to the runway sloping down, will the pilot feel too high or low?

A

too low

119
Q

The black hole effect will cause the pilot to think that they are….

A

Too HIGH on approach, and therefore there is a tendency to undershoot.

120
Q

When approaching a runway over water or featureless terrain, the tendency is to believe that you are….

A

Too high on the approach.

121
Q

At night, city lights will cause the city to appear closer or further away than they actually are?

A

Appear to be closer

122
Q

for an object to be the same height as the observer, relative to the horizon, where should the object sit?

A

On the horizon

123
Q

During a constant angular acceleration in the yawing plane, the hair like cells in the semicircular canals of the inner ear will be….

A

in the upright position.

124
Q

When disorientated, is it better to look at just one instrument or scan all of the instruments?

A

LOOK AT ALL THE INSTRUMENTS

125
Q

Describe ‘grey out’

A

partial loss of vision (peripheral) which usually occurs around 3.5 G

126
Q

Describe ‘black out’

A

Above 5 G, vision becomes black, the pilot is still conscious

127
Q

describe ‘G-LOC’

A

G force Loss of Consciousness, occurs if high G load is SUSTAINED (not enough residual oxygen to maintain consciousness)

128
Q

Why are reclined seats better for G force tolerance?

A

Heart and brain are closer to level (heart doesn’t have to work as hard to deliver oxygen)

129
Q

high levels of negative G force can cause the pilot’s vision to….

A

go red due to excess blood

130
Q

A sudden change from a sustained negative G to a positive G will….

A

increase the chance of experiencing grey or black out (because the heart had slowed down to cope with negative G and now can’t catch up)

131
Q

Are there any symptoms of carbon monoxide in low doses?

A

No, carbon monoxide is common in low doses (e.g. cigarettes)

132
Q

What are the initial symptoms of carbon monoxide poison?

A

slight headache, fatigue, and mild discomfort in breathing.

133
Q

What are the later symptoms of carbon monoxide poison?

A

impaired vision, mental confusion, headache, and vomiting

134
Q

Can you smell carbon monoxide?

A

No, however it is often associated with other gases which have distinctive odours, so if you smell fumes, carbon monoxide is likely also present

135
Q

What is the most effective way to relieve the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Administer oxygen

136
Q

For G-LOC to occur, how long does the G force have to be held?

A

generally more than 5 seconds (7G for 7 seconds is worse tha 8G for 2 seconds)

137
Q

The composition of the atmosphere is approximately…

A

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 1% other gases.

138
Q

At what altitude does it become necessary to breathe pure oxygen due to a lack of partial pressure?

A

33,700ft.

139
Q

Why does the brain not increase breathing rate at higher altitude?

A

Because it monitors CO2 levels, which have not changed, it is simply the partial pressure of the air which is changing.

140
Q

Early onset hypoxia symptoms are similar to that of…

A

alcohol, with the addition of reduced night vision.

141
Q

Later symptoms of hypoxia include…

A

impaired judgement, euphoria, and overestimation of performance, as well as cyanosis (blue coloration of lips and nails).

142
Q

Time of useful consciousness for moderate activity at 20,000ft is

A

10 minutes

143
Q

Time of useful consciousness for passive activity at 20,000ft is

A

20 minutes

144
Q

Time of useful consciousness for moderate activity at 25,000ft is

A

3 minutes

145
Q

Time of useful consciousness for passive activity at 25,000ft is

A

5 minutes

146
Q

Time of useful consciousness for moderate activity at 30,000ft is

A

1 minute

147
Q

Time of useful consciousness for passive activity at 30,000ft is

A

3 minutes

148
Q

Degradation of night vision usually occurs at what altitude?

A

4000ft

149
Q

If suffering from hyperventilation, should you increase breathing rate?

A

No, you need to increase CO2 levels, and breathing too quickly will eliminate CO2 from the system.

150
Q

The effects of rapid decompression include…

A

breathe rapidly exhaled from the lungs, sudden drop in cabin temp, pain in the stomach, ears and sinuses.

151
Q

From 10,000ft to 25000ft, what type of oxygen mask will be adequate?

A

A continuous flow oxygen mask

152
Q

From 25000ft to 40,000ft, what type of oxygen mask will be adequate?

A

A demand oxygen mask

153
Q

Above 40,000ft what type of oxygen mask will be required?

A

A pressure demand mask, delivering 100% oxygen.

154
Q

Supplemental oxygen is required under the CAO to be worn by pilots and passengers above…

A

10,000ft

155
Q

A heavy smoker flying at 5000ft would be susceptible to experiencing the same degree of hypoxia as a non-smoker at….

A

10,000ft

156
Q

Above which altitude does it first become necessary for a pilot of an unpressurised aircraft to breathe 100% oxygen?

A

33,700ft

157
Q

Above which altitude does it first become necessary for a pilot of an unpressurised aircraft to breathe 100% oxygen UNDER PRESSURE?

A

40,000ft

158
Q

Compared to sitting quietly in a normal cockpit environment, the uptake of oxygen when under stress of coping with a life-threatening emergency can be increased by a factor of …

A

20

159
Q

A regular smoker a sea level can be assumed to be at an effective altitude of…

A

8000ft

160
Q

True or false, the symptoms of hypoxia and hyperventilation are often confused?

A

True, however hyperventilation has the addition of a ‘tingling sensation;.

161
Q

how long is visual information held in sensory memory?

A

0.5-1 sec

162
Q

how long is auditory information held in sensory memory?

A

4-8 sec

163
Q

how long and how much information held in short term memory?

A

7 +/2 items, for 30 seconds

164
Q

Is short term memory visual or acoustic?

A

acoustic

165
Q

Compared to long term memory, short term memory is almost error free, true or false?

A

true

166
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

memories of past events

167
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Assigning meaning to symbols, codes, or words.

168
Q

For information to pass from short term memory to long term memory, it must be….

A

consolidated through rehearsal

169
Q

Under stress, what happens to the rate and range of attention

A

Rate increases, range reduces

170
Q

The phenomena which allows us to distinguish our callsigns readily on the radio is…

A

the cocktail party effect

171
Q

Of all the personality types, which one is most likely to have an accident?

A

the anxious extrovert

172
Q

Using the P G scale (person and Goal orientated scale), a captain would display traits of….

A

P+ G+ i.e. achieve both goals and cooperation with other crew.

173
Q

What are the 4 steps in information processing

A

Sensation Perception Decision Response

174
Q

Define attitude

A

A predisposition to respond in a certain way to a particular person or situation

175
Q

What are the three elements of an ‘attitude’

A

The cognitive aspect (personal beliefs), the affective aspect (feelings, often based on beliefs), and the behavioural aspect (the action resulting from beliefs and feelings)

176
Q

According to maslow and his heiracchy to self fulfilment, what are the stages?

A

Physiological needs, safety and security, belonging and affection, self esteem, self fulfillment.

177
Q

A personality trait which features cool headed self assurance would be classified as

A

Stable introvert

178
Q

A learnt skill which is almost automatic is known as a….

A

motor program

179
Q

A motor program is most likely to have a problem at the stage of

A

initiation

180
Q

During periods of high stress, a pilots attention is likely to be

A

selective sequential (deal with one thing at a time, and maybe not the most important thing first)

181
Q

Some situations in which the ‘false hypothesis’ is likely to occur include…

A

high expectancy, diverted attention, following a period of high concentration (tendency to relax), effect of motor memory (using wrong action), and the environmental capture (doing it because it’s time e.g. flaps on final).

182
Q

What is the risky shift phenomenon?

A

tendency to take more risks when in a group than when by yourself

183
Q

What is a systematic error?

A

A consistent error with a specific pattern e.g. always landing left of the centreline

184
Q

What is a random error?

A

No consistency in errors, appear random. e.g. landing left ,right, and on centreline

185
Q

What is a sporadic error?

A

Almost all of the task is done well except for one specific error usually of a serious nature.

186
Q

In considering experience, who is more likely to commit a handling error?

A

Low time pilots

187
Q

In considering experience, who is more likely to commit an error in judgement?

A

Both high and low time pilots are about as likely.

188
Q

When monitoring a system’s performance, how long does it take for vigilance to drop markedly?

A

30 minutes

189
Q

What is rule-based skill/behaviour?

A

Any reaction that is required is usually predetermined by a rule e.g. not stable - go around

190
Q

Are rule-based behaviours motor programs?

A

No, they need to be consciously activated.

191
Q

What is knowledge based skill/behaviour?

A

Thinking and reasoning i.e. using knowledge to make decisions

192
Q

When arousal increases to the point of stress, how does the body respond?

A

The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release hormones into the blood stream.

193
Q

What are the adrenal glands responsible for?

A

Releasing adrenaline into the blood stream.

194
Q

When stress is related to a short term task, it is known as…

A

acute stress

195
Q

When stress is job or lifestyle related, it is known as….

A

chronic stress

196
Q

What are the stages of stress?

A

Alarm (fight or flight ready), resistance (not giving up), and collapse (exhaustion)

197
Q

What are some examples of physical stressors?

A

Noise, temperature, vibration, hunger and thirst

198
Q

When suffering from acute fatigue, what type of performance will drop?

A

Performance of monotonous tasks and complex tasks will reduce before motor programs.

199
Q

when put in an artificial environment and isolated from the 24hr day/night cycle, what cycle does the body revert to?

A

a 25hr cylce (yes 25)

200
Q

What is the best time of the day for optimum performance

A

mid to late afternoon (3pm to 9pm)

201
Q

Even though you may have been awake for 20 hours, and absolutely exhausted by 5pm, why may you have trouble falling asleep?

A

Because this may not follow your circadian rhythm which is used to going to sleep at 9pm or a different time. Sleep quality is determined by time of initiation.

202
Q

What type of sleep cycle comprises almost all of sleep?

A

stage 2

203
Q

What stage of sleep does REM occur?

A

Stage 4

204
Q

Do have any benefit, a nap should have a duration of…

A

10-15 minutes

205
Q

Though alcohol helps to induce sleep, the negative effect is that…

A

it reduces the REM period, and degrades the overall quality of sleep.

206
Q

The body will slowly adapt to a new time zone at an average rate of…

A

one to one and a half hours per day

207
Q

Is jet lag worse or better when travelling west?

A

Better because the body is more used to slowing down than speeding up.

208
Q

During which part of the day will a person find it most difficult to stay awake?

A

3am-5am

209
Q

The lapse in performance standards which occurs daily in the mid afternoon (after lunch, even if you haven’t eaten) is known as…

A

the post-prandial dip

210
Q

The highest life change unit score on the Holmes-Rahe scale is associated with

A

marital separation

211
Q

After a series of false alarms, is it likely to make a false hypothesis?

A

no

212
Q

The process of decision making involves which order of steps?

A

Consider the facts, define the problem, consider the solution, act, consider the result

213
Q

1hr of time is equal to 15° of longitude, and we adapt to longitude at 1.5hrs per day, so how many days would it take to adapt to 90° of longitude change?

A

4 days (90° is 6 hours, 6 / 1.5 = 4)

214
Q

Define hardware, software, and liveware

A

hardware = physical systems, software = computers and SOPs, liveware=humans

215
Q

A basic principle of ergonomics is that the machine should be designed to….

A

fit the characteristics of the people who operate it (so not necessarily everyone)

216
Q

In regards to withstanding G forces, what is the most the human body can sustain and for how long?

A

20G for 0.2 seconds

217
Q

A well designed cockpit should cater to what percentage of the population?

A

90%

218
Q

When considering Design Eye Position (DEP), how many seconds of approach speed should be visual beyond the cockpit cutoff point?

A

3 seconds

219
Q

Sitting just 1” too low in a large transport aircraft will cause you to lose how much forward visibility?

A

40m

220
Q

When is it superior to have an analogue representation over a digital display?

A

When displaying direction or rate of change.

221
Q

When are linear strip displays ideal?

A

When monitoring several systems e.g. for a multi-engine aircraft

222
Q

Mode awareness is an issue in glass cockpits, why?

A

Because there are so many operating modes it may cause the pilots to think the system is operating in a specific mode when in fact it isn’t.

223
Q

Barriers to effective communication can be internal or external, give examples of each.

A

External: noise, physical discomfort, busy workplace etc..
Internal: misinterpretation, expectancy, language

224
Q

What are some aids to effective communication?

A

Use of standard phrases, pace and clarify of speech, authority gradient (not too steep or shallow), body language

225
Q

Regarding the push and pull method of communication, what do these terms mean?

A

Push means presenting our thoughts and opinions to others, and pull means we are seeking access to the thoughts and opinions of others.

226
Q

In general terms, define a leader

A

Someone who, in a given situation, influences the thought and behaviour of others

227
Q

A key difference in leadership vs authority is…

A

Leadership is acquired, while authority is assigned.

228
Q

What 3 considerations compete for the attention of a good leader?

A

TIT, Task, Individual, Team.

229
Q

Using the P G personality scale, what type of personality does a good leader have?

A

P+G+

230
Q

What is the two communication rule?

A

In a multi crew environment, if someone doesn’t respond to a statement about flying after two attempts, the non-flying pilot takes over.

231
Q

DR ABC

A

Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation

232
Q

In the event of a sudden emergency in flight, the most effective communication style is…

A

assertive

233
Q

Is explaining the reasons for not implementing the ideas of the group an example of good leadership techniques by the captain?

A

Yes

234
Q

The most important considerations in the ergonomics of flight deck design are…

A

Function, frequency of use, sequence of use, importance of control

235
Q

A passenger who has fainted, and is only semi-conscious, should not be given…

A

food or water

236
Q

The CPR cycle should be

A

15 compressions, 2 breaths, repeated 4 times per minute

237
Q

A patient is haemorrhaging severely from a wound to the lower arm, what form of medical treatment should be applied?

A

A pressure bandage directly to the wound.

238
Q

In regards to sporadic, random, and systematic errors, which is the most difficult to correct?

A

Sporadic, because the error is not consistent. o fix random errors all areas should be retrained.

239
Q

According to the Hertzberg Two-factor theory, where does satisfaction and dissatisfaction come from?

A

satisfaction from motivating factors (achievements), dissatisfaction from hygiene factors (relationships, money, and working conditions).

240
Q

The optimum cockpit authority gradient is one which…

A

leaves no doubt as to the final authority of the captain, but the opinion of the crew is still actively sought and valued

241
Q

What frequency of hearing does alcohol affect?

A

Low frequency

242
Q

What is an error?

A

A pilot action or inaction which has the potential to adversely affect the situation

243
Q

What is an Undesired Aircraft State?

A

Any flight condition or attitude which was not intended.

244
Q

How does an aircraft enter an undesired state?

A

Either through a threat (such as windshear) or through an error (pilot handling)

245
Q

What is a threat?

A

A situation or event that has the potential to impact negatively on the safety of a flight.

246
Q

External threats can fit into 3 categories, what are they?

A

anticipated (weather), unexpected (terrorist), or latent (ergonomics)

247
Q

What are internal threats?

A

Threats brought by the crew (fatigue, language, experience etc…)

248
Q

Threats can be either organisational or environmental, describe these.

A

Environmental: weather, operational pressures (slot times), terrain etc…
Organisational: Documentation (incorrect manual information), poor rostering

249
Q

Errors can be classified as

A

Handling, procedural, and communication

250
Q

What is a handling error?

A

Error in controlling the aircraft or systems

251
Q

What is a procedural error?

A

Errors in use of SOPs

252
Q

What are systemic countermeasures and give some examples

A

countermeasures which are bult into the system, such as stall warning, GPWS etc…

253
Q

There are 3 types of countermeasures, what are they?

A

Planning countermeasures (approach brief), execution countermeasures (loading up next waypoints for approach), review countermeasures (how is the approach going)

254
Q

What type of error would you classify a misconfiguration as?

A

A handling error. Even if something is procedurally based (e.g. carb heat on descent), if the pilot does (or doesn’t do it), it is a HANDLING error.

255
Q

Undesired Aircraft states can be classified as

A

Aircraft handling states, ground navigation states, aircraft configuration states

AHUF (1 decks)

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