Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHYSICAL DYSFUNCTION > AHHHHH > Flashcards

AHHHHH Flashcards

1
Q

What was the philosophy of the Moral Treatment movement?

A

All people, even the most challenged, are entitled to consideration and human compassion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What movement was based on the belief that using one’s hands to make items connected people to their work, physically and mentally, and helped with restoring health?

A

Arts and Crafts Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the founders of NSPOT

A

Susan Cox Johnson
George Edward Barton
Eleanor Clark Slagle
William Rush Dunton
Isabelle Newton
Thomas Kidner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who were the first practitioners of the OT profession who worked during WWI?

A

Reconstructive Aides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do client factors include?

A
  1. values, beliefs and spirituality
  2. body functions
  3. body structures
    all influence the client’s performance in occupations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why be concerned with a model or approach?

A

It guides your thinking
keeps therapists on the same page
gives us a reference point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Characteristics of an OT Model

A

-derived from theory or techniques
-guides OT practice
-helps to identify problems and solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Characteristics of an OT Frame of Reference

A

-based on theory
-gives us a direction to look at the patient
-helps us determine where to start
-allows us to focus on a select area of the patient’s problems
-helps to select evaluation and treatment techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which OT model approaches treatment according to the patient’s Habituation, Volition, and Performance ?

A

MOHO Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which frame of reference considers the human body as a living machine and uses principles of physics for treatment methods?

A

Biomechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the goals of the biomechanical approach?

A

-evaluate limitations in ROM, strength, and endurance
-restore functions
-prevent or reduce deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Sensorimotor approach most appropriate for?

A

CNS dysfunction
- muscles not receiving normal directions from CNS
-the problem is in the brain and not the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which Frame of Reference approach uses neurophysiological mechanisms to normalize muscle tone and elicit more normal movement?

A

all Sensorimotor approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does rehabilitation mean?

A

restoration to a former state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the rehabilitation approach focus on?

A

focus is on abilities rather than disabilities; learning to compensate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the goal of the rehabilitation approach?

A

goal is to live as independently as possible despite disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which Frame of Reference approach considers the latest scientific advances in methods and equipment/assistive technology?

A

Rehabilitation approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some limitations of the Biomechanical, Sensorimotor, and Rehabilitation Approaches?

A

They do not address cognitive or psychological components explicitly; not holistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the stages of treatment continuum in Phys Dys Practice

A
  1. Adjunctive methods
  2. Enabling Activities
  3. Purposeful Activity
  4. Occupational Performance and Occupational Roles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the Adjunctive Methods stage consist of?

A

PAMS, PROM, exercise, braces, splints, sensory stimulation
-focuses on body functions
-preparation for purposeful activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the Enabling Activities stage consist of?

A

simulating purposeful activities
-ie: sanding boards, skateboards, stacking cones/blocks/ ADL boards, peg boards
-may not be meaningful to Pt, but necessary for training skills for occupations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the Purposeful Activities stage consist of?

A

activities that have an inherent or autonomous goal and is meaningful to the patient
ie: feeding, toileting, dressing, mobility, arts, crafts, work, educational activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the Occupational Performance and Occupational Roles stage consist of?

A

patient resumes roles in their living environment and community
-focus on assisting Pt with transition back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the stages of the 5-Stage model for adults with developmental disabilities

A
  1. orientation and welcome
  2. movement and energizing
  3. perceptual tasks and sensorimotor
  4. cognition for expressing feelings
  5. closure and preparing to take control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what does the abbreviation “WS” mean?

A

Work Simplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does the abbreviation “EC” mean?

A

Energy Conservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the focus of non-purposeful activities?

A

focus is on the process or movements and increasing strength
-no inherent goal other than motor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Activities are analyzed according to what 3 perspectives?

A

-mental and physical limitations of the person
-physical environment
-social environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List 9 characteristics of appropriate activities for treatment

A

1 goal directed
2 meaningful
3 matched to patient’s needs
4 elicits mental/physical engagement
5 prevents or remediates dysfunction
6 related to patient’s interests
7 adaptable, gradable, age appropriate
8 selected through OTA’s judgement
9 collaborated with patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List of contraindications for therapeutic exercise

A

-poor general health
-recent surgery
-inflamed joints
-need voluntary control of muscles
-tone abnormalities
-abnormal heart rate
-elevated blood pressure
-vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

4 types of exercise used to increase strength

A

-active-assisted
-active
-resistive isotonic
-isometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

-slowed performance
-increase in respiration and perspiration
-decreased ROM
-inability to complete reps
these are all signs of what?

A

signs of fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Definition of Therapeutic Exercise

A

any body movement or muscle contraction to prevent or correct a physical impairment, improve musculoskeletal function, and maintain a state of well-being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do you increase strength?

A

high weight, low reps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how do you increase endurance?

A

low weight, high reps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Definition of Endurance

A

Ability to do work for prolonged time and resist fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the purpose of AROM and PROM?

A

to maintain motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is active exercise?

A

exercise performed by the patient without assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is passive exercise?

A

exercise provided by an outside force such as the therapist or a machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

isotonic muscle contraction

A

muscle movement with equal resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

concentric muscle contraction

A

motion occurs, muscle shortens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

isometric muscle contraction

A

static contraction; no joint motion, muscle length unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

eccentric muscle contraction

A

muscle lengthens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which exercise type is used for Fair+ (3/5) to Normal (5/5) where resistance is moved through ROM; w/ resistance produced via added weight

A

Isotonic resistive exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which exercise type is used for Poor (2/5) to Fair (3/5) where no resistance is moved through ROM; w/ resistance produced via friction

A

Isotonic active exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which exercise type is used for Poor (2/5) to Fair (3/5) where Pt moves through part of ROM and practitioner or device completes the rest of the ROM

A

Active-assisted exercise

47
Q

Which exercise type requires no muscle contraction and is used when active motion is contraindicated

A

Passive Exercise

48
Q

What is Passive Stretch?

A

therapist moves the joint through the available ROM, holds momentarily, applies gentle but firm stretch at end of ROM

49
Q

What is Active Stretch?

A

patient uses force of agonist to increase length of antagonist muscles (independent)

50
Q

What is the purpose of Isometric Exercise w/o resistance? Who is it used for?

A

maintain strength when AROM is not possible or contraindicated
-patient’s in casts, after surgery, arthritis, burns

51
Q

What is the purpose of Isometric Exercise w/ resistance?

A

increase strength of Fair to Normal

52
Q

What is the goal of coordination training?

A

to develop the ability to perform multi-muscular motor patterns faster and more precise

53
Q

__________ of an uncoordinated patterns ___________ faulty patterns

A

Repetition ; reinforces

54
Q

PAMS: what is heat used for?

A

increase motion, decrease joint stiffness, relieve muscle spasms, increase blood flow, decrease pain

55
Q

Contraindications of using heat

A

acute conditions, sensory loss, impaired vascular structures, malignancies, fresh wounds

56
Q

PAMS: What is conduction? What is an example?

A

-transfer of heat from one object to another through direct contact
-Paraffin
-moist heat packs

57
Q

PAMS: What is Convection? What is an example?

A

Supplies heat by fluid motion around the tissues
-whirlpool
-fluidotherapy

58
Q

PAMS: What is Conversion? What is an example?

A

-heat is generated internally by friction
-Ultrasound: sound waves penetrate the tissue and vibrate the molecules

59
Q

PAMS: What is Cryotherapy? What is it used for?

A

Cold therapy; vasoconstriction that decreases blood flow to the tissue

used to decrease edema, pain, and inflammation

60
Q

Definition of Iontophoresis (electrical modalities)

A

induction of topically applied ions into the tissue to treat inflammatory conditions or scar formation

61
Q

Name 2 types of electrical modalities and their purpose.

A

TENS- pain control
NMES(FES)- to elicit muscle contraction

62
Q

What are the 8 steps in the OT Process?

A

1 referral for OT services
2 screening
3 evaluation
4 observation of performance skills/ client factors
5 treatment planning
6 treatment implementation/ intervention
7 re-eval/reassess
8 Discharge

63
Q

Definition of Evaluation

A

process of obtaining and interpreting data necessary for intervention

64
Q

Definition of Assessment

A

specific tools or instruments used during the evaluation process

65
Q

How do we gather information during the evaluation process?

A

-Medical records review
-interview
-observation (structured/unstructured)
-testing (formal/informal)
-interdepartmental notes/ discussions/ team conferences

66
Q

Who is responsible for establishing treatment goals and plan of care for the clients?

A

OTR

67
Q

True or false? the OTA is responsible for selecting the FOR.

A

FALSE; the OTR is responsible

68
Q

What does a treatment plan include?

A

-Pt goals
-Pt strengths and weaknesses
-estimate rehab potential
-STG & LTG
-collab w/ Pt, family, caregiver, community resources
-select media, methods, environment, personnel to meet goals
-frequency & duration
-plan for re-eval
-plan for d/c

69
Q

What is the role of the COTA during the OT process?

A
  • may administer tests or assessments under guidance of OTR
  • COTA must have good observation skills/ build rapport early
  • can contribute to treatment plan, especially after reassessment
  • documentation and education of Pt and family
  • can contribute to d/c planning
  • legally responsible for following treatment plan and implementation
70
Q

Why is Clinical Documentation important?

A
  • critical for patient care
  • serves as legal document
  • quality reviews
  • validates patient care provided
  • reduce re-work of claims processing
  • compliance with insurance/ payor’s guidelines
  • impacts coding, billing, and reimbursement
71
Q

list of requirements for treatment notes

A
  • factual and accurate
  • patient centered
  • legible and organized
  • clearly support diagnosis and care plan
  • outlines and supports charges for billing
  • doc. Pt subjective observations
  • doc. progression and regression of Pt
  • clearly states professional assessment of patient
  • supports need for prescribed duration of care and frequency
72
Q

3 things to take caution of when documenting

A
  • chart promptly
  • never chart ahead of time
  • be detailed and specific enough to recall events 2-3 years after; protects you if called to testify in court
73
Q

List of what Modality Documentation must include:

A
  • rationale for use of modality
  • parameters of the modality, time, etc.
  • response of patient to the modality
  • response of pt and caregiver to education
  • area of body treated
  • objective edema measurements
  • subjective finding to include pain rating, pain location, description of pain, and effect on function before and after each application
74
Q

What are the two OT/PT code categories

A

Service-based codes
Time-based codes

75
Q

What are Service-Based Codes?

A

-physical medicine services that do not use time-based unit for billing
- same CPT code applies, only bill for one single session

76
Q

What are Time-Based Codes?

A

-billing based on 15-minute increments for the multiple units of time that are spent in direct contact with the outpatient

77
Q

Quality outcome of documentation for the patient

A

Quality and continuity of care

78
Q

quality outcome of documentation for the therapist

A

prevent reduced or denied payment

79
Q

Quality outcome of documentation for the facility

A

proficiency in the process of coding, billing, and reimbursement

80
Q

List of Payer Sources

A

private pay
private insurance plans (employer or other funded)
Medicare (federally funded)
Medicaid (state funded)
Tri-care (dept. of defense funded)
Worker’s Compensation (employer funded)
Vocational Rehabilitation (state funded)

81
Q

Goal writing: what does RUMBA stand for?

A

Relevant
Understandable
Measurable
Behavioral
Achievable

82
Q

What are the stages of the 5- Stage Model for Developmental Disabilities?

A

1 orientation and welcome
2 movement and energizing
3 perceptual tasks and sensorimotor
4 cognition for expressing feelings
5 closure and preparing to take control

83
Q

What did living arrangements for individuals with disabilities look like in the past?

A
  • most were placed in institutions
  • “learned helplessness”
  • indv. lived in large, overcrowded conditions; spent days in large rooms waiting for showers and meals
  • staff poorly trained; ratios as low as 4:300
84
Q

Definition of Developmental Disabilities

A

Refers to sever, chronic disability that is
-attributable to mental or physical impairment or both
-manifests before age of 22
-results in significant limitations in self-care, language skills, mobility, self-direction, capacity for ind. living, economic self-sufficiency

85
Q

Body functions to be aware of when working with indv. with dev. disabilities

A
  • more susceptible to cardiac, pulmonary, blood, digestive, metabolic, urinary, reproductive, and skin conditions
  • vision, hearing, and speech limitations
  • may exhibit food allergies
  • may exhibit side effects from medicines
86
Q

Motor functions to be aware of when working with indv. with dev. disabilities

A
  • may exhibit low, high or mixed muscle tone
  • may exhibit poor oral motor control
  • may exhibit a wide range of motor problems and difficulty learning complex motor tasks
87
Q

Mental functions to be aware of when working with idv. with dev. disabilities

A
  • often lack global mental functioning
  • may have attention deficits
  • may have emotional instability
  • may have difficulty w/ impulse control
  • difficulty choosing activities, low motivation
88
Q

What does intervention for motor functions include for indv. with Dev. Disabilities

A

intervention includes repetition, practice, simple directions, and modifications or adaptations

89
Q

Examples of Specific Mental functions one may come across while working with indv. w/ dev. disabilities

A

short attention span
memory deficits
poor perception slower ability to process information
difficulty recognizing people or objects
poor problem solving or critical thinking
speech/language deficits
difficulty adding/subtracting
poor motor planning
emotional liability, poor regulation
poor body image and self-awareness

90
Q

Strategies for treatment with indv. w/ dev. disabilities

A

determine etiology of the client’s actions-unmet needs

behavior modification techniques

environmental modification

sensory strategies

“chaining”

91
Q

Why is OT one of the best suited professions to help people get back into their jobs?

A

strong professional preparation in the nature of occupation, analysis of activities, and the physical and mental factors that support engagement in occupation.

92
Q

List of Industrial Therapy Services

A

OT
PT
Physicians
occupational health nurses
vocational counselors
safety or risk engineers
insurance case managers

93
Q

What does a Job analysis include?

A

-questionnaires/ review of job description

-interview with employee and employer

-observation of shifts and safety procedures

-formal measurement of heights, distances, work cycles

94
Q

What is Work Conditioning?

A

-part of the acute phase
-focuses on physical components; covers strength, aerobic fitness, flexibility, coordination, and endurance

95
Q

What is Work Hardening?

A

-comprehensive
-combines work simulation, strengthening, and endurance with behavioral components

96
Q

What are the goals of Work Hardening?

A

-achieve maximum physical tolerance
-develop positive worker behaviors
-increase confidence
-identify problems that may necessitate alternative job

97
Q

What is a Functional Capacity Eval (FCE)

A

battery of tests to give baseline measure of current level of functioning

includes:
-medical history
-worker interview
-job analysis
-pain assessment
-physical assessment
-standardized assessment
-work task simulation
-summary
-ID of problems that interfere with work performance

98
Q

-Bennet Hand Tool Test
-Minn. Rate of Manipulation Test
-Purdue Pegboard
-Nine-hole Peg Test
-Valpar Work Samples
-BTE Box

These are all examples of what?

A

Standardized Assessments

99
Q

How long does it typically take to complete an Functional Capaciy Eval?

A

4-6 hours, sometimes on 2 consecutive days

100
Q

What are the most important aspects of a CFE?

A

Reliability and validity of testing protocol

101
Q

Definition of Individual Work Hardening Plan

A

Structured, goal-oriented, individualized treatment program designed to maximize an individual’s ability to work

102
Q

What does a Functional Capacity Evaluation (FCE) include?

A

includes:
-medical history
-worker interview
-job analysis
-pain assessment
-physical assessment
-standardized assessment
-work task simulation
-summary
-ID of problems that interfere with work performance

103
Q

What is the #1 Worker’s Comp claim?

A

Lower Back Pain

104
Q

Definition of Individual Work Hardening Plan

A

structured, goal oriented, individualized treatment program designed to maximize an individual’s ability to work

105
Q

What are the goals of an indv. work hardening plan?

A

-increase duration of daily participation
-increase physical tolerances
-improve body mechanics and posture
-develop pain management strategies
-facilitate appropriate worker behaviors

106
Q

What are the benefits of having ergonomic services at the work site?

A

-immediate access to rehab services
-facilitates early return to work
-convenient scheduling of therapy
-manages cost and quality of care
-eliminate job simulation; real work
-positive morale; concern for worker

107
Q

ulnar deviation is common sign of what?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

108
Q

synovitis is a primary clinical feature of what?

A

RA

109
Q

What are some deformities that can occur with RA?

A

-swan neck
-boutonniere
-trigger finger
-thumb deformities
-ulnar deviation

110
Q

is there a cure for RA?

A

no

111
Q

What is the medical treatment for RA?

A

-tx to reduce inflammation, pain, joint damage
-medication
-exercise
-heat and cold
-joint protection
-weight control
-surgery
-coping strategies

112
Q

common side effects of steroid use for RA

A

bone erosion, diabetes, weigh gain, hypertension

113
Q

Why would someone with RA receive surgery?

A
  • to repair or remove damaged soft tissue or replace destroyed joints
  • to relieve symptoms and slow the process of jt. destruction
114
Q
A

PHYSICAL DYSFUNCTION (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions